Consumer Behaviour (MKTG604)-Semester III

Consumer Behaviour (MKTG604)-Semester III
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

1st Module Assessment
Question 1. Identify the Non-probability Sampling technique.
Select one:
a. Convenience Sampling
b. Judgement Sampling
c. Quota Sampling
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. Understanding of consumer needs and then developing a marketing mix to satisfy these needs is called as the .
Select one:
a. marketing concept
b. strategic plan
c. product influences
d. price influences
Clear my choice
Question 3.
is a branch which deals with the various stages a consumer goes through before purchasing products or services for end use.
Select one:
a. Consumer behavior
b. Consumer interest
c. Consumer attitude
d. Consumer perception
Clear my choice
Question 4. ABC Machinery Ltd. lays a great deal of emphasis on performance and features of their machines. This relates to the orientation.
Select one:
a. market
b. seller
c. product
d. process
Clear my choice
Question 5. ADF Garments rolled out different communication campaigns for north, south, east and west zones. They have done a market . Select one: a. segmentation b. survey c. analysis d. orientation Clear my choice Question 6. A sample design addresses which of the following questions: Select one: a. who is to be surveyed (sampling unit) b. how many to survey (sample size) c. how should the respondents be chosen (the sampling procedure) d. All of these Clear my choice Question 7. Amy bought an ice cream for Jason. In this case Amy is a
and Jason is a .
Select one:
a. buyer, User
b. User,buyer
c. User,sponsor
d. buyer, seller
Clear my choice
Question 8. Basic approaches to collect data in quantitative study are . Select one: a. Observation b. Experimentation c. Survey d. All of these Clear my choice Question 9. An individual who purchases goods and services from the market for their end use is called as .
Select one:
a. Customer
b. Purchaser
c. Creator
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. If you buy a chair for your office, you may be termed as a consumer.
Select one:
a. home
b. organizational
c. market
d. special
Clear my choice
is willingness of consumers to purchase products and services as per their taste, need and pocket.
Select one:
a. Consumer behavior
b. Consumer interest
c. Consumer attitude
d. Consumer perception
Question 11. The price of products and services often influence whether _, and, if so, which competitive offering is selected.
Select one:
a. Consumers will purchase them at all
b. Consumers see a need to buy
c. Consumers will decide to buy immediately
d. People would recommend the product
Clear my choice
Question 12. An economic circumstance that can greatly affect any product or brand choice is
.
Select one:
a. retirement
b. values
c. lifestyle
d. borrowing power
Clear my choice
Question 13. factors affect consumer behavior.
Select one:
a. Brand name, quality, newness, and complexity
b. Advertising, marketing, product, and price
c. Outlets, strategies, concept, and brand name
d. Quality, advertising, product positioning
Clear my choice
Question 14. In recent years
has become increasingly important for developing a marketing strategy.
Select one:
a. Change in consumers’ attitudes
b. Inflation of the dollar
c. The concept and the brand
d. Age groups, such as the teen market, baby boomers, and the mature market.
Clear my choice
can influence the consumers’ thoughts about products.
Select one:
a. Marketing and popularity
b. Advertising, sales promotions, salespeople, and publicity
c. Sales promotion, popularity, and marketing
d. Billboards
Question 15. If a company makes products and services for the purpose of reselling or renting them to others at a profit or for use in the production of other products and services, then the company is selling to the _.
Select one:
a. Business market
b. International market
c. Consumer market
d. Private sector market
Clear my choice
Question 16. Understanding of consumer buying behavior is not easy. The answers are often locked deep within the consumer’s head. The central question for marketers is .
Select one:
a. How much money is the consumer willing to spend?
b. How much does the consumer need the product being offered for sale?
c. How much does a discount or a coupon affect the purchase rate?
d. How do consumers respond to various marketing efforts the company might use?
Clear my choice
Question 17. The greatest barrier in effectively marketing to the Asian American market is considered to be
.
Select one:
a. Reluctance to grant credit to this group
b. Language and cultural traditions
c. The urban nature of their neighborhoods
d. Lack of a mass media that reaches this group

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM
2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. Brand name and logo of the company can also act as . Select one: a. products b. stimuli c. services d. None of these Clear my choice Question 2. is one of the most basic influences on an individual’s needs, wants, and behaviour.
Select one:
a. Brand
b. Culture
c. Product
d. Price
Clear my choice
Question 3. A strong internal stimulus that calls for action is .
Select one:
a. Drive
b. cue
c. response
d. perception
Clear my choice
Question 4.The selection of stimulus depends on an individual’s past experiences and his
.
Select one:
a. choices
b. wants
c. motives
d. requirement
Clear my choice
develops on the basis of wealth, skills and power.
Select one:
a. Economical classes
b. Purchasing communities
c. Competitors
d. Social classes
Question 5. _ refers to the activities which influence consumer behavior. Select one: a. Extrinsic Stimuli b. Intrinsic stimuli c. Marketing d. Advertising Clear my choice Question 6. refers to the information a consumer has stored in their memory about a product or service.
Select one:
a. Cognitive dissonance
b. Product knowledge
c. Product research
d. Marketing research
Clear my choice
Question 7.
describes the changes in an individual’s behavior arising from experience.
Select one:
a. Modeling
b. Motivation
c. Perception
d. Learning
Clear my choice
Question 8. Product and its components like packaging, label, features etc make _ stimuli. Select one: a. extrinsic () b. Intrinsic c. casual d. None of these Clear my choice Question 9. Product involvement refers to ___ or personal relevance of an item.
Select one:
a. A consumer’s perception of the importance
b. The need of the product
c. The price of the product
d. The amount of people who bought the product
Clear my choice
Question 10. The process by which people select, organize, and interpret information to form a meaningful picture of the world is .
Select one:
a. Readiness
b. Selectivity
c. Perception
d. Motivation
Clear my choice
Question 11. When a consumer describes a car as being the “most economical car on the market,” then this descriptor is .
Select one:
a. Rule
b. Attitude
c. Belief
d. Cue
Clear my choice
puts people into a frame of mind of liking or disliking things, of moving towards or away from them.
Select one:
a. A rule
b. An attitude
c. A belief
d. A cue
Question 12. When a consumer tells his friends “I like my car more than any other car on the road,” then the consumer has expressed a/an . Select one: a. Rule b. Attitude c. Belief d. Cue Clear my choice Question 13. _ refers to the information a consumer has stored in their memory about a product or service.
Select one:
a. Cognitive dissonance
b. Product knowledge
c. Product research
d. Marketing research
Clear my choice
Question 14. In consumer behaviour culture, social class, and reference group influences have been related to purchase and
.
Select one:
a. Economic situations
b. Situational influences
c. Consumption decisions
d. Physiological influences
Clear my choice
Question 15. One of the key tasks of the marketers is _ and to create consumer perceptions that the product is worth purchasing.
Select one:
a. To make products easily visible and available
b. To promote sales of products
c. To differentiate their products from those of competitors
d. To do marketing surveys
Clear my choice
Question 16. If the purchase is for a high-involvement product, consumers are likely to develop a high degree of _
so that they can be confident that the item they purchase is just right for them.
Select one:
a. Brand loyalty
b. Society
c. Product knowledge
d. References
Clear my choice
Question 17. People can form different perceptions of the same stimulus because of three perceptual processes. These processes are best described as being:
Select one:
a. Selective attention, selective distortion, and selective retention
b. Subliminal perception, selective remembrance, selective forgetting
c. Closure, modeling, and perceptual screening.
d. Needs distortion, wants analysis, and perceptual screening

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM
3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. _ portrays the “whole person” interacting with his or her environment. Select one: a. Attitude b. Personality c. Lifestyle d. Self-concept Clear my choice Question 2. __ is a person’s pattern of living as expressed in their activities, interests, and opinions.
Select one:
a. role
b. status
c. position
d. lifestyle
Clear my choice
Question 3. A person’s unique psychological characteristics that lead to relatively consistent and lasting responses to their own environment is . Select one: a. Psychographics() b. Personality c. Demographics d. Lifestyle Clear my choice Question 4. The energizing force that activates behavior and provides purpose and direction to that behavior is known as .
Select one:
a. motivation
b. personality
c. emotion
d. perception
Clear my choice
Question 5. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, the lowest order of needs are . Select one: a. Self-actualization needs b. Social needs c. Safety needs d. Physiological needs Clear my choice Question 6. Synonym for motive can be _.
Select one:
a. omen
b. need
c. drive
d. cue
Clear my choice
Question 7. Consumers often choose and use brands that have a brand personality consistent with how they see themselve. This is known as .
Select one:
a. actual self-concept
b. ideal self-concept
c. others’ self-concept
d. prohibitive self-concept
Clear my choice
Question 8. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, the highest order of needs are .
Select one:
a. Self-actualization needs
b. Social needs
c. Safety needs
d. Physiological needs
Clear my choice
Question 9. The main tool used in motivational research is
.
Select one:
a. depth-interview
b. observation
c. focus study
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. A need that is sufficiently pressing to direct the person to seek satisfaction of the need is called . Select one: a. Motive b. want c. demand d. requirement Clear my choice _
reflects that people’s possessions contribute to and reflect their identities i.e. “we are what we have.”
Select one:
a. lifestyle concept
b. self-concept
c. personality concept
d. cognitive concept
Question 11. The theory of motivation which views people as responding to urges that are repressed but never fully under control was developed by
.
Select one:
a. Marshall
b. Kant
c. Freud
d. Maslow
Clear my choice
Question 12. Smoke detectors, preventive medicines, insurance, retirement investments, seat belts, burglar alarms, and sunscreen are all examples of products to satisfy consumers’ _ needs. Select one: a. safety b. self-actualization c. physiological d. belongingness Clear my choice Question 13. also includes a situation-specific component.
Select one:
a. personality
b. self-concept
c. involvement
d. demographics
Clear my choice
Question 14. Marketers who target consumers on the basis of their
believe that they can influence purchase behavior by appealing to people’s inner selves.
Select one:
a. core values
b. sophistication
c. money constrain
d. social class
Clear my choice
Many sub-cultural barriers are on a decline because of mass communication, mass transit, and a . Select one: a. Decline in the influence of religious values b. Decline in communal influences c. Strong awareness of brands in the market d. Strong awareness of pricing policies in the market. Question 15 Not yet answered Marked out of 4.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text When Ben was a high school student, he enjoyed rock music and regularly purchased hip clothing sported by his favorite rock band. However, five years later, when he became an accountant, his preference shifted toward formal clothing. Which of the following personal characteristics is likely to have had the most influence on Ben’s preferences during his high school days? Select one: a. education b. age c. income d. gender Clear my choice Question 16. “I’m comfortable being the greatest that ever was or will be. Be comfortable. Uncompromised. Start with your feet.” This ad shows a picture of Muhammad Ali, world famous boxer. In terms of Maslow’s hierarchy, this ad was designed to appeal to the consumer’s ________
.
Select one:
a. Psychological needs
b. Need for esteem
c. Safety needs
d. Self-actualization needs
Clear my choice
Question 17. Changes in consumer values can be recognized by many business firms for expanding their emphasis on _ products.
Select one:
a. Latest technology
b. Timesaving, convenience-oriented
c. Health related
d. Communication

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

4th Module Assessment

Question 1. Which of the following would be the best illustration of a subculture?
Select one:
a. a religion
b. a group of close friends
c. your university
d. a fraternity or sorority
Clear my choice
Question 2. is the definition of reference groups.
Select one:
a. Groups that an individual looks to when forming attitudes and opinions
b. Groups of people who have been referred to by someone they know
c. Groups of office colleagues
d. Chat groups on the internet
Clear my choice
Question 3. In large nations, the population is bound to lose a lot of its homogeneity resulting into
.
Select one:
a. Multilingual needs
b. Cultures
c. Subcultures
d. Product adaptation requirements
Clear my choice
Question 4. According to the buyer decision process suggested in the text, the first stage is . Select one: a. Awareness b. Information search c. Need recognition d. Demand formulation Clear my choice Question 5. _ is a person within a reference group who, because of special skills, knowledge, personality, or other characteristics, exerts influence on others.
Select one:
a. facilitator
b. referent actor
c. opinion leader
d. social role player
Clear my choice
Question 6. The stage in the buyer decision process in which the consumers are aroused to search for more information is called . Select one: a. Information search b. Evaluation of alternatives c. Search for needs d. Perceptual search Clear my choice Question 7.
consists of the activities people are expected to perform according to persons around them.
Select one:
a. behavior
b. attitude
c. role
d. status
Clear my choice
Question 8. Individuals and households who buy goods and services for personal consumption are . Select one: a. The target market b. A market segment c. The consumer market d. The ethnographic market. Clear my choice Question 9. Problem recognition is process.
Select one:
a. Continuous
b. one time
c. time consuming
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. For the marketing manager, social class offers some insights into consumer behavior and is potentially useful as a . Select one: a. Market research information b. Market segmentation variable c. Source of understanding competition’s strategy d. Source to predict future trends Clear my choice Question 11. As per the stimulus-response model of buyer behavior , the place where consumers process marketing stimuli prior to making purchase decision is called as _.
Select one:
a. Consumer’s value chain
b. Consumer’s cognitive schema
c. Consumer’s black box
d. Consumer’s thoughts-emotions network
Clear my choice
Question 12. (is) are transmitted through three basic organizations: the family, religious organizations, and educational institutions. In today’s society, educational institutions are playing an increasingly greater role in this regard.
Select one:
a. Consumer feedback
b. Marketing information systems
c. Market share estimates
d. Cultural values
Clear my choice
Question 13. Even though buying roles in the family keeps on changing constantly, the __
has traditionally been the main purchasing agent for the family.
Select one:
a. Wife
b. husband
c. teenage children
d. grandparent
Clear my choice
Question 14. Consumer purchases are influenced strongly by cultural, social, personal, and _ characteristics.
Select one:
a. Psychographic
b. Psychological
c. Psychometric
d. Supply and demand
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following can be considered as the most valuable piece of information for determining the social class of your best friend’s parents?
Select one:
a. The number of years schooling that they had
b. Their ethnic backgrounds
c. Their combined annual income
d. Their occupations
Clear my choice
Question 16. In terms of the consumption decisions, middle class consumers prefer to
.
Select one:
a. Buy at a market that sells at a whole sale rates
b. Buy what is popular
c. Buy only the brands which sell at affordable prices
d. Analyze the market and select the best at the lowest prices
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the buyer decision process?
Select one:
a. need recognition
b. brand identification
c. information search
d. purchase decision
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

5th Module Assessment
Question 1. A field of computer science that uses statistical techniques to give computer systems the ability to ‘learn’ with data, without being explicitly programmed, is called . Select one: a. computational algorithms b. machine learning c. machine pedagogy d. All of these Clear my choice Question 2. Ambient communication: Select one: a. Uses the environment to display its marketing messages b. Facilitates the emergence of new platforms such as 3D technology c. Engages the consumer in private spaces d. Is only digital in nature Clear my choice Question 3. Mobile marketers are able to reach audiences: Select one: a. Using a ‘pull’ strategy b. Using a ‘push’ strategy c. In real time d. All of these Clear my choice Question 4. Which of the following is not a standard in online advertising? Select one: a. Dynamic banner b. Static banners c. Referrals links d. Signal Clear my choice Question 5. Social media complaints are: Select one: a. fake news on Facebook: b. consumer ‘rants’ on a Twitter thread c. the use of any social media platform with which to highlight a complaint about a product or service failure d. None of these Clear my choice Question 6. Mobile marketing has innovative ways to reach the consumer. Which of the following is not one of them? Select one: a. Mobile apps b. Mobile retail payments c. Yellow pages advertising d. Barcode calls-to-action Clear my choice Big Data is: Select one: a. reports written in an extremely large font size for the visually impaired. b. extremely large data sets that may be analysed computationally to reveal patterns, trends, and associations, especially relating to human behaviour and interactions c. all the information that is contained within the servers of Google d. None of these Question 7. Cyber security can be defined as: Select one: a. the CCTV systems installed to protect the locations of internet service providers b. a business simulation computer game called Prison Tycoon that puts the user in charge of a prison c. the protection of computer systems from theft of or damage to their hardware, software or electronic data, as well as from disruption or misdirection of the services they provide d. None of these Clear my choice Question 8. Paid advertising based on a per-click model is called .
Select one:
a. Sponsored search-engine advertising
b. Feedback
c. Source advertising
d. ICT indicators
Clear my choice
Question 9. Geo-pricing enables:
Select one:
a. companies to control different prices for different countries
b. retail companies to change their prices in accordance with changes in their local economy
c. e-commerce businesses to personalise prices and promotions based on a customer’s location
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. What is unique about social media marketing?
Select one:
a. Generates contacts quickly
b. Can combine game and other elements
c. Interactive communication
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Which of the following is not an example of demarketing activities aimed at consumers?
Select one:
a. Warning labels
b. Advertising restrictions
c. Higher taxes
d. All of these
Question 11. Consumer analysis should include . Select one: a. consumer trends and global consumer markets b. communication methods to reach target markets c. models to predict purchase and consumption patterns d. All of these Clear my choice Question 12. Consumer product manufacturers study consumer behavior to influence .
Select one:
a. brand choice
b. purchase
c. consumption
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following areas can be better understood by studying consumer behavior?
Select one:
a. Consumer preferences for different advertisements
b. Financial decisions
c. Voting in elections
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. “Only the customer can fire us all” implies that . Select one: a. consumers determine which firms survive and which fail. b. customers can be manipulated into buying goods and services. c. customers are concerned only when prices go higher. d. firms should not bother with research as the customer is fickle. Clear my choice Question 15. Whereas a
focuses on how an organization adapts to consumers, a _ extends this focus to how all organizations in a demand chain adapt to changing consumer lifestyles and behaviors. Select one: a. selling orientation; marketing orientation b. marketing orientation; comprehensive consumer orientation c. manufacturing orientation; selling orientation d. comprehensive consumer orientation; manufacturing orientation Clear my choice Question 16. As the mother of the groom, Mary was willing to wear the subdued-colored, tailored suit that the bride had selected for her for the wedding. Later the sales clerk showed her a red off-shoulder cocktail dress. The sales clerk kept telling Mary how great the dress looked on her and the price of the dress was substantially lower than the suit. Assuming Mary really likes her son’s fiancée and does not want to do anything to damage her relationship with him or his bride, Mary’s decision to buy the red dress was a result of __ influences.
Select one:
a. Economic
b. Marketing
c. Reference group
d. Cultural
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is a situation in which consumer behavior occurs?
Select one:
a. communications situation
b. purchase situation
c. usage situation
d. All of these

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

Assignment 2

The influence of Reference Groups varies according to the nature of the product and/or service. Reference groups have varied influence on consumers depending upon the type of the product, whether a luxury or a necessity, and whether it used in public and viewed by others or whether it is used in private.Bearden and Etzel have examined the issue from two perspectives, viz., a) the decision to purchase the type of product; and b) the choice of the brand. They concluded that reference group influence varied by 1) the type of product; whether it is a luxury or a necessity; and 2) its visibility; whether it is used in public or private settings or environment.

According to Bearden and Etzel, reference group influence is strong both for the purchase decision as well as for the brand in case of public luxuries, like expensive carpets, paintings, antiques etc. The consumer does not possess a need for such products, but requires them for social approval and acceptance, and finds these purchases as crucial for avoidance of social embarrassment, and ridicule. Because of the lifestyle and the social class that a consumer belongs to, he is conscious towards the purchase of such products as well as the brands that he buys.

Thus, reference groups influence both the consumer’s need for the product in general as well as the choice of brand. On the other hand, when in case of products which are public necessities, like a car or a cell phone, reference group influence is weak with respect to the purchase decision, but strong with respect to the choice of the brand. The reference group does not affect the decision to make a purchase as the product is already regarded as one of necessity and will be purchase regardless of what the members of the reference group have to say; the only impact that a reference group can make is with respect to the brand.

Further Bearden and Etzel also conclude that reference group influence is weak both for the purchase decision as well as for the brand in case of private necessities, like towels, soaps and detergents etc. The consumer is aware of such necessities, and will purchase them irrespective of what the reference group has to say. Further, he would not be conscious of social approval and/or embarrassment as these products are not viewed publicly, and so the influence of reference groups with respect to the brand will also be low. Finally, in case of products which are private luxuries, like sauna baths, body massagers etc., reference groups influence is strong with respect to the purchase decision, but weak with respect to the choice of the brand. This is because the product is not used publicly and the brand purchased would not cause any social embarrassment.

The impact of reference groups depends on . Select one: a. visibility b. conspicuousness of product c. Both A and B d. None of these Clear my choice Question 2. Which of the following is true about Bearden and Etzel’s Model? Select one: a. Bearden and Etzel have examined the issue from two perspectives, viz., a) the decision to purchase the type of product; and b) the choice of the brand. b. Reference group influence varied by the type of product; whether it is a luxury or a necessity c. It is also influenced by the visibility; whether it is used in public or private settings or environment. d. All of these Clear my choice Question 3. Which of the following are commonly used reference group appeals? Select one: a. Celebrity appeals and executive appeals b. expert appeals and trade or spokes-character appeals c. common man appeals d. All of these Clear my choice Question 4. Based on the regularity of contact and the importance given to subsequent interaction, groups may be classified as and __.
Select one:
a. Primary and secondary
b. Primary and Tertiary
c. important and necessary
d. family and friends
Clear my choice
Question 5. Reference group appeals are useful for a marketer in the following ways:
Select one:
a. they provide information
b. increase consumer awareness and knowledge
c. they reduce perceived risk amongst consumers, with respect to market offerings.
d. All of these
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

Environmental Science (OOBB 305)-Semester III

Environmental Science (OOBB 305)-Semester III
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Question 1. Plants are the _ of energy.
Select one:
a. Renewable source
b. Non -Renewable source
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Clear my choice
Question 2.
, such as minerals and oil are those which will be exhausted in the future if we continue to extract these without a thought for subsequent generations
Select one:
a. Nonrenewable resources
b. Renewable resources
c. Either A or B
d. Both A and B
Clear my choice
Question 3. Environmental studies is a/an ___.
Select one:
a. Applied Science
b. Science
c. Social Science
d. Traditional Science
Clear my choice
Question 4. Under typical atmospheric conditions, water vapour is continuously generated by and removed by _ .
Select one:
a. Evaporation, Condensation
b. Condensation, Evaporation
c. Evaporation, distillation
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
Select one:
a. Plastics
b. Polythene
c. Glass
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. Nitrogen is the
amount of gas found in air.
Select one:
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Neutral
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Our natural resources can be compared with money in a bank. If we use it rapidly, the capital will be reduced to zero. On the other hand, if we use only the interest, it can sustain us over the longer term. This is called __
.
Select one:
a. Development
b. Sustainable utilisation or development
c. Sustainable utilisation
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which day is Earth Day?
Select one:
a. 22nd April
b. 31st October
c. 12th July
d. 10th September
Clear my choice
Question 9. Environmental studies include –
Select one:
a. Biology, Geology, Chemistry, Physics, Engineering, Statistics, and Economics
b. Health, Anthropology, Sociology,Computers and Philosophy
c. Either A or B
d. Both A and B
Clear my choice
The greenhouse effect is the process by which radiation from a planet’s atmosphere___________ to a temperature above what it would be without this atmosphere.
Select one:
a. Warms the planet’s surface
b. Freeze the planets surface
c. Melt the planet surface
d. None of the above
Question 10. Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of rainfall
Select one:
a. Evaporation
b. Condensation
c. Both evaporation & condensation
d. Filtration
Clear my choice
Question 11. CPR Environmental Education Centre, Madras was established in ?
Select one:
a. 1988
b. 1980
c. 1987
d. 1989
Clear my choice
Question 12. CPR Environmental Education Centre, Madras attention focuses on –
Select one:
a. NGOs
b. Teachers
c. Women
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. Uttarkhand Seva Nidhi (UKSN), Almora, The Organisation is a Nodal Agency which supports NGOs in need of .
Select one:
a. Funds for their environment related activities
b. Betterment of natural resources
c. Decay of hazardous elements in the nature
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. What is the full form of BNHS ?
Select one:
a. Bombay Natural History Sector
b. Bombay Natural History Society
c. Bombay Nuclear History Sector
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
World Wide Fund for Nature was initiated in ?
Select one:
a. 1968
b. 1969
c. 1970
d. 1971
Question 15. Who wrote the ‘Origin of Species’, which brought to light the close relationship between habitats and species ?
Select one:
a. Salim Ali’
b. Ralph Emerson
c. Charles Darwin
d. Henry Thoreau
Clear my choice
Question 16. ____spoke of the dangers of commerce to our environment way back in the 1840s. Select one: a. John Muir b. Ralph Emerson c. Charles Darwin d. Henry Thoreau Clear my choice Question 17. __
is remembered as having saved the great ancient sequoia trees in California’a forests.
Select one:
a. Ralph Emerson
b. Henry Thoreau
c. Aldo Leopald
d. John Muir

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2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. _ named so because they receive a lot of rain.
Select one:
a. Tropical Deciduous Forests
b. Tropical Thorn forests
c. The tropical rain forest
d. Swamp Forests
Clear my choice
Question 2. Coal and Petroleum is the __
natural energy resource?
Select one:
a. Renewable exhaustible
b. Non Renewable exhaustible
c. Maximum energy resource
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. ____ is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophy to organic substances.
Select one:
a. Primary productivity
b. Secondary productivity
c. Tertiary productivity
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 4. The forest type mainly depends on –
Select one:
a. Climate and Soil
b. Deciduous
c. Xerophytes
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. _ of forest depends on plants and animals form communities that are specific to each forest type.
Select one:
a. Biotic type
b. Abiotic type
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. _______
which is the largest dam in Tamil Nadu located across Cauvery river.
Select one:
a. Mettur dam
b. Adavinainarkovil Dam
c. Amaravathi Dam
d. Aliyar Reservoir
Clear my choice
Question 7. The Bishnoi tribe in Rajasthan is known to have protected their _______ for several generations.
Select one:
a. Khejdi trees
b. The Adivasi Bhatra tribe
c. The Munda tribe
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. _____highest percentage is covered by forests. Select one: a. Arunachal Pradesh b. Madhya Pradesh c. Mizoram d. Nagaland Clear my choice Question 9. South Africa has lost a large area of natural habitat in the last four decades, due to- Select one: a. Deforestation b. Vast development c. Overpopulation d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 10. _____ is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem.
Select one:
a. Biogeochemical cycle
b. Substance turnover
c. Phosphorous cycle
d. Cycling of substances
Clear my choice
Question 11. A Jatropha Curcas plant can be used for ?
Select one:
a. Bio Fuel
b. Medicinal
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. __ land that is not good for cultivation anymore
Select one:
a. Derelict
b. Catchmand
c. Arable
d. Reclaimable
Clear my choice
Question 13. Tsunamis can result from _______.
Select one:
a. large volumes of water being displaced.
b. an oceanic plate colliding into a continental plate
c. violent seafloor movement associated with earthquakes.
d. an explosive volcanic eruption causing an earthquake in a continental plate.
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which Land can be used for farming ?
Select one:
a. Catchmand
b. Arable
c. Reclaimable
d. Derelict
Clear my choice
Question 15. Components of a GIS is/are-
Select one:
a. An input system that allows for the collection of data
b. Computer hardware and software systems
c. Output system that generates hard copy
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 16. The first computerised GIS began its life in 1964 as a project of the Rehabilitation and Development Agency Programme under the__________________.
Select one:
a. Government of India
b. Government of Canada
c. Government of China
d. Government of US
Clear my choice
Question 17. can be defined as the collection of data about an object from a distance or collection of data remotely.
Select one:
a. Remote sensing
b. Geographical Information System
c. Satellite
d. None of the above
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3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. Wildlife Act was introduced in the____year.
Select one:
a. 1972
b. 1978
c. 1988
d. 1998
Clear my choice
Question 2. One of the following is air pollution?
Select one:
a. Species
b. Lichens
c. Algae
d. Bryophytes
Clear my choice
Question 3. _ is a problem not associated with population growth. Select one: a. Food and energy storages b. Environmental pollution c. Increased resource consumption d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 4. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year: Select one: a. 1986 b. 1974 c. 1994 d. 1975 Clear my choice Question 5. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was : Select one: a. Water Act b. Air Act c. Environmental Act d. Noise Pollution Rule Clear my choice Question 6. Which of the following environmental law allows private rights to use a resource that is, groundwater, by viewing it as an attachment to the land? Select one: a. Easement Act b. Indian Fisheries Act c. Factories Act d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 7. The Water Act contains: Select one: a. 4 Chapters b. 5 Chapters c. 6 Chapters d. 7 Chapters Clear my choice Question 8. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in: Select one: a. 1981 b. 1987 c. 1982 d. 2000 Clear my choice Question 9. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year: Select one: a. 1986 b. 1974 c. 1980 d. 1972 Clear my choice Question 10. The Forest (Conservation) Act extends to the whole of India except: Select one: a. Uttar Pardesh b. Karnataka c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Haryana Clear my choice Question 11. Coniferous forests requires ___
.
Select one:
a. High temperature
b. Low temperature
c. Moderate temperature
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. The diversions channels of the western Himalaya is known as _.
Select one:
a. Guls or Kuls
b. Khadins
c. Phalodi
d. Johads
Clear my choice
Question 13. _______is the first state in India which has made roof top rain water harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the state. Select one: a. Kerala b. Assam c. Tamil Nadu d. Goa Clear my choice ____________are the organisms that have animal like traits. Select one: a. Agaporomorphus colberti b. Zooplanktons c. Caligula d. None of the above Question 14. ________
components of an ecosystem which are inorganic constituents, organism and energy input forms environmental system.
Select one:
a. The three functional
b. The two functional
c. The four functional
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. Krishna Raja Sagara is a dam built on river Kaveri,The total surface area of the dam is approximately _____.
Select one:
a. 126 km2
b. 127 km2
c. 128 km2
d. 129 km2
Clear my choice
Question 16. Thorn forests are found in the _ of India.
Select one:
a. Semi-arid regions
b. Himalayan regions
c. Desert regions
d. Northeast regions
Clear my choice
Question 17. Evergreen forests look green throughout the year due to high rainfall. The trees ____
to form a continuous canopy.
Select one:
a. Because of less rainfall
b. Because of snowfall
c. Because of less temperature
d. Overlap with each other
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4th Module Assessment
Question 1. What is the hazardous pollutant released from inductive coils?
Select one:
a. Arsenic
b. Barium
c. Cobalt
d. Copper
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following element/s is/are cause of e-waste?
Select one:
a. Lead
b. Cadmium
c. Beryllium, or Brominates flame retardants
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. What is the hazardous pollutant released from LED’s?
Select one:
a. Arsenic
b. Barium
c. Cobalt
d. Cadmium
Clear my choice
Question 4. What are the types of e-Waste ?
Select one:
a. Large household appliances
b. IT and telecommunications equipment
c. Electrical and electronic tools
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the hazardous pollutant occurs in plastic?
Select one:
a. Lithium
b. PCBs
c. Lead
d. Copper
Clear my choice
Question 6. Nickel is released from _ Select one: a. Display b. Calculator c. Alloy d. Transformers Clear my choice Question 7. What is the hazardous pollutant released from circuit boards? Select one: a. Arsenic b. Barium c. Lead d. Copper Clear my choice Question 8. What is the hazardous pollutant released from telephones? Select one: a. Lithium b. Barium c. Lead d. Copper Clear my choice Question 9. Which of the following element make e-waste hazardous in nature? Select one: a. Lead b. Glass c. Plastic d. Iron Clear my choice Question 10. Plasma Pyrolys is a new generation, which integrates the_____ properties of plasma with the pyrolysis process
Select one:
a. Thermo-chemical
b. Thermo -electrical
c. Both of the above
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
______ defined the term biodiversity hot spots?
Select one:
a. Norman Myers
b. Aziz Ab’Saber
c. Warder Clyde Allee
d. Charles Christopher Adams
Question 11. Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlife conflict?
Select one:
a. Increase in the forest area
b. Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
c. Damage to human property
d. Destruction of habitat
Clear my choice
Question 12. ____ is called for the natural habitats under in-situ conservation?
Select one:
a. Protected areas
b. Exploited areas
c. Depleted areas
d. Unprotected areas
Clear my choice
Question 13. ______ help to scare off destructive nocturnal wildlife.
Select one:
a. Half motion sensor
b. Half strobe light
c. Strobe lights
d. Flashlight
Clear my choice
Question 14. The aggradational Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the _______ which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.
Select one:
a. Ganga and the Brahmaputra
b. Ganga and Vaishali
c. Vaishali and Brahmaputra
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. ______ links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.
Select one:
a. The Biligiriranga hills
b. Ananthagiri hills
c. Coonoor hills
d. Munnar hills
Clear my choice
Question 16. _______is not the biodiversity hotspot region? Select one: a. Antarctica b. Mesoamerica c. Madrean pine-oak woodlands d. California Floristic Province Clear my choice Question 17. ____________ is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone.
Select one:
a. Animals conflict
b. Desertification
c. Rural development
d. Organic farming
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5th Module Assessment

Question 1. ___________, the date was shifted to commemorate the adoption of the Convention on May 22, 1992 at the Rio Earth
Select one:
a. On December 20, 2000
b. On November 20, 2000
c. On December 20, 2001
d. On November20, 2000
Clear my choice
Question 2. Where we can find more number of brown palm civet animals in Tiger reserve?
Select one:
a. Kalakkad Mundanthurai tiger reserve
b. Jim Corbett tiger reserve
c. Sunderban tiger reserve
d. Periyar tiger reserve
Clear my choice
Question 3. _____ is a beautiful species of tarantula which is found only in a small area of less than 100 square kilometers of Andhra Pradesh in India. Despite its venomous nature, the tarantula is one of the costliest pets in the exotic pet trade.
Select one:
a. Cobalt blue tarantula
b. Pink toe tarantula
c. Chilean rose tarantula
d. Gooty tarantula
Clear my choice
Question 4. __ zone of peninsular India is by far the most extensive zone, covering India’s finest forest.
Select one:
a. Deccan Plateau
b. Semi-Arid
c. Desert
d. Himalayas
Clear my choice
Question 5. _______ on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
Select one:
a. The Nagoya Protocol
b. Th Kyoto Protocol
c. Earth Protocol
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. Himalayas are divided into how many ranges ?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Clear my choice
Question 7. is one of the ways for conservation of biodiversity.
Select one:
a. Overexploitation
b. Removal of exotic species
c. Increase in the pollution level in the ecosystem
d. Converting forest land into agricultural land in rapid way
Clear my choice
Question 8. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 to implement India’s
Select one:
a. Biological Diversity Act (2003)
b. Biological Diversity Act (2002)
c. Biological Diversity Act (2001)
d. Biological Diversity Act (2000)
Clear my choice
Question 9. ___
consists with its sparse vegetation and it has the richest wild sheep and goat community in the world.
Select one:
a. The Himalayan ranges immediately north of the Great Himalayan range
b. The Himalayan ranges immediately south of the Great Himalayan range
c. The Himalayan ranges immediately west of the Great Himalayan range
d. The Trans Himalayan region
Clear my choice
The fan-throated lizard is a species of agamid lizard which is found in _____.
Select one:
a. Northern India
b. Western India
c. Southern India
d. Eastern India
Question 10. _____ is considered as the national animal of two major countries India and Bangladesh.
Select one:
a. Komodo dragon
b. Baird’s tapir
c. Fennec fox
d. Bengal tiger
Clear my choice
Question 11. The aggradational Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the _______ which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.
Select one:
a. Ganga and the Brahmaputra
b. Ganga and Vaishali
c. Vaishali and Brahmaputra
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. ____ is called for the natural habitats under in-situ conservation?
Select one:
a. Protected areas
b. Exploited areas
c. Depleted areas
d. Unprotected areas
Clear my choice
Question 13. _______ defined the term biodiversity hot spots?
Select one:
a. Norman Myers
b. Aziz Ab’Saber
c. Warder Clyde Allee
d. Charles Christopher Adams
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlife conflict?
Select one:
a. Increase in the forest area
b. Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
c. Damage to human property
d. Destruction of habitat
Clear my choice
Question 15. _______is not the biodiversity hotspot region? Select one: a. Antarctica b. Mesoamerica c. Madrean pine-oak woodlands d. California Floristic Province Clear my choice Question 16. ____________ links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.
Select one:
a. The Biligiriranga hills
b. Ananthagiri hills
c. Coonoor hills
d. Munnar hills
Clear my choice
Question 17. ______ is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone.
Select one:
a. Animals conflict
b. Desertification
c. Rural development
d. Organic farming
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Assignment 2

Case Study (Centres of Biodiversity)

The mountain ecosystem is globally important as a centre of biological diversity.

The greatest diversity of vascular plant species occurs in mountains: Costa Rica, the

tropical eastern Andes, the Atlantic forest of Brazil, the eastern Himalaya-Yunnan

region, northern Borneo and Papua New Guinea. Other important centres are found in

arid subtropical mountains. Many of these areas with the greatest biological diversity

are designated as national reserves or other types of protected area. Mountains also

have a wide variety of animals like the bears, large cats, sheep, etc

The is exclusively found in South African fynbos vegetation.
Select one:
a. Orange-breasted sunbird
b. Ruby-cheeked sunbird
c. Fraser’s sunbird
d. Grey-headed sunbird
Clear my choice
Question 2. Clinotarsus curtipes is endemic to the _
.
Select one:
a. California
b. South Africa
c. Great Basin
d. Western Ghats of India
Clear my choice
Question 3. Amphipsalta zelandica, a species endemic to _.
Select one:
a. New Zealand
b. California
c. Great Basin
d. South Africa
Clear my choice
Question 4. __
is the modern concept of conservation.
Select one:
a. Bird Sanctuary
b. Biosphere reserve
c. National Park
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. MAB means ?
Select one:
a. Mammal & biological Programme
b. Man & biosphere Programme
c. Mammal & biosphere Programme
d. None of the above
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Business Research Methods (MGMT603)-Semester II

Business Research Methods (MGMT603)-Semester II
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1st Module Assessment
Question 1. 1st step of reesrach process is
Select one:
a. Literature review
b. Problem Identification
c. Research Question
d. Hypothesis Formulation
Clear my choice
Question 2. ……………….. research uses statistical tools and techniques to derive conclusions to research problem
Select one:
a. Qualitative
b. Quantitative
c. Pure
d. Fundamental
Clear my choice
Question 3. ……………. design is a type of research design involving the collection of information from any given sample of population elements only once.
Select one:
a. Longitudinal
b. Exploratory
c. Basic
d. Cross-sectional
Clear my choice
Question 4. ……………in which a single respondent is probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and feelings on a topic.
Select one:
a. Focus Groups
b. Blind interview
c. Judgement interview
d. In-depth interview
Clear my choice
Question 5. Resrach which starts with development of hypothesis based on existing theory is called
Select one:
a. Inductive
b. Deductive
c. Abductive
d. Exploratory
Clear my choice
Question 6. ……….. design involving a fixed sample of population elements that is measured repeatedly.
Select one:
a. Cross-Sectional
b. Basic
c. Fundamental
d. Longitudinal
Clear my choice
Question 7. Research Method means
Select one:
a. All tools and techniques used in research
b. A specific tool or technique related to identified problem
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. ………research focuses on the description of something-usually market characteristics or functions.
Select one:
a. Exploratory
b. Conclusive
c. Descriptive
d. Causal
Clear my choice
Question 9. Secondary data collection methods include:
Select one:
a. Census reports
b. Focus groups
c. Observation
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 10. Research Objectives include
Select one:
a. Decision making
b. Build new concepts
c. Eliminate old concepts
d. Only A and B
Clear my choice
Question 11. Marketing research helps in knowing the probability of acceptance of the products in its present form. This is termed as
Select one:
a. Assessing market positioning
b. Assessing target audience
c. Assessing Market Acceptance
d. Assessing Product Acceptance
Clear my choice
Question 12. Researcher Error includes
Select one:
a. Measurement Error
b. Data Analysis Error
c. Recording Error
d. Only A and B
Clear my choice
Question 13. Marketing research has limitations like:
Select one:
a. Unpredictable behavior
b. Data Collection Bias
c. Both A and B
d. Business Direction
Clear my choice
Question 14. ………. is a framework or blueprint for conducting the research project.
Select one:
a. Marketing research
b. Research methodology
c. Research procedure
d. Research design
Clear my choice
Question 15. A study on the role of digital marketing for an organisation is an example of
Select one:
a. Experimental research
b. Descriptive research
c. Non-experimental research
d. Explorartory research
Clear my choice
Question 16. In …………., research is used to evaluate employments trends and best practices
Select one:
a. Finance
b. Marketing
c. HRM
d. Operations
Clear my choice
Question 17. A group of market researchers aims at identifying the impulse buying trends among various households pan India. It is an example of
Select one:
a. Experimental research
b. Descriptive research
c. Non-experimental research
d. Inductive research

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2nd Module Assessment (29)
Question 1. Non-comparative techniques consist of
Select one:
a. Continuous rating scale
b. Itemized rating scales
c. Both A and B
d. None
Clear my choice
Question 2. …………… research design aims to understand which variables are the causes (independent variables) and which variables are the effects (dependent variables) of a phenomenon.
Select one:
a. Applied
b. Longitudinal
c. Causal
d. Pure
Clear my choice
Question 3. Temperature measurement is an example of ………..
Select one:
a. Ordinal Scale
b. Nominal Scale
c. Ratio Scale
d. Interval Scale
Clear my choice
Question 4. Ranking is an example of………
Select one:
a. Ordinal Scale
b. Nominal Scale
c. Ratio Scale
d. None
Clear my choice
Question 5. ………… is the assignment of objects to numbers or semantics according to a rule.
Select one:
a. Measurement
b. Recording
c. Positioning
d. Scaling
Clear my choice
Question 6. ………. Scale has properties of an interval scale together with a fixed (absolute) zero point.
Select one:
a. Ordinal Scale
b. Nominal Scale
c. Ratio Scale
d. Interval Scale
Clear my choice
Question 7. An interval scale contains all the information of an ……………
Select one:
a. Ordinal Scale
b. Nominal Scale
c. Ratio Scale
d. None
Clear my choice
Question 8. The……….. refers to the relationship among the values that are assigned to the attributes
Select one:
a. Scaling
b. Nominal Scale
c. Ordinal Scale
d. Level of Measurement
Clear my choice
Question 9. Nominal Scale is also known as
Select one:
a. Basic Scale
b. Zero Scale
c. Categorical Scale
d. None
Clear my choice
Question 10. A probability sampling technique in which the population elements are sampled sequentially
Select one:
a. Area Sampling
b. Double Sampling
c. Cluster Sampling
d. Sequential Sampling
Clear my choice
Question 11. ………….sampling attempts to obtain a sample of convenient elements.
Select one:
a. Double
b. Convenience
c. Judgemental
d. Stratified
Clear my choice
Question 12. It is form of convenience sampling in which the population elements are selected based on the judgment of researcher
Select one:
a. Double Sampling
b. Systematic Sampling
c. Judgemental Sampling
d. Simple Random Sampling
Clear my choice
Question 13. ……………… is a scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at a time and asked to select one object according to some criterion.
Select one:
a. Rank Order
b. Constant Sum
c. Paired Comparison
d. NABARD
Clear my choice
Question 14. …………. is the aggregate of all the elements, sharing some common set of characteristics that comprise the universe for the purpose
Select one:
a. Sample
b. Census
c. Respondent
d. Population
Clear my choice
Question 15. There are two type of two stage design; one type involves SRS at the first stage as well as the second stage. This design is called …………
Select one:
a. One-stage cluster Sampling
b. Two-stage cluster Sampling
c. Systematic Sampling
d. Stratified
Clear my choice
Question 16. An aspect of supervision that should ensure that the interviewers strictly follow the sampling plan rather than select sampling units based on their convenience or accessibility.
Select one:
a. Quality Control
b. Cost Control
c. Sampling Control
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 17. ………………..is a decompositional approach that uses perceptual mapping to present the dimensions.
Select one:
a. Bivariate
b. Conjoint
c. Univariate
d. Multidimensional Scaling

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3rd Module Assessment (25only)
Question 1. Which of the following is NOT RELATED to Explanatory research?
Select one:
a. Formulating and testing research hypotheses
b. Unstructured
c. Highly structured
d. Conducted in the later phases of decision-making
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following options is FALSE about empirical research?
Select one:
a. The findings are subject to verification by experiment or observation
b. You need to collect data to prove or disprove the hypotheses
c. Involves guidelines and techniques by which you can utilise historical sources, artifacts, and other evidence for researching and establishing facts
d. Is a data-based research technique
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following is NOT RELATED to Descriptive research?
Select one:
a. Unstructured
b. Framing and asking research questions
c. Formulating and testing research hypotheses
d. Conducted in the later phases of decision-making
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is/are example/examples of Causal research?
Select one:
a. How incentives affect employee performance
b. How employee attrition affects profitability
c. How pricing strategies affect customer loyalty
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following is an example of Applied research?
Select one:
a. Conducting an experiment on Einstein’s Special Theory of Relativity
b. Devising solutions for arresting employee attrition
c. Conducting an archaeological study on a few historical artifacts
d. Conducting a survey related to preference of face wash products
Clear my choice
Question 6. Conducting an experiment on Newton’s 3rd law of motion is an example of _ research. Select one: a. Action b. Exploratory c. Basic d. Descriptive Clear my choice Question 7. research is aimed at expanding knowledge and does not involve inventing or creating anything.
Select one:
a. Basic
b. Exploratory
c. Action
d. Descriptive
Clear my choice
Question 8. A chi-square test (χ2 test) is a statistical hypothesis test in which the sampling distribution of the test statistic is a chi-square distribution when the null hypothesis is
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Asymptotically true
d. Both a and c
Clear my choice
Question 9. The main purpose of Factor Analysis is to
Select one:
a. group large set of variable factors into fewer factors
b. group small set of variable factors into fewer factors
c. group large set of variable factors into multiple factors
d. group small set of variable factors into multiple factors
Clear my choice
Question 10. Comparing the carpentry tools used during the Gupta and Maurya dynasties is an example of _
research.
Select one:
a. Explanatory
b. Exploratory
c. Descriptive
d. Historical
Clear my choice
Question 11. A research firm conducts a study to establish the minimum purchasing power required for the medium and large retail stores as Rs. 150 million and Rs. 300 million, respectively. Identify the INCORRECT statement.
Select one:
a. The null hypothesis is – total purchasing power is less than Rs. 150 million
b. One of the alternative hypotheses is – total purchasing power is between Rs. 150 million and Rs. 300 million
c. The null hypothesis is – total purchasing power is more than Rs. 300 million
d. One of the alternative hypotheses is – total purchasing power is more than Rs. 300 million
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following is FALSE about hypothesis?
Select one:
a. Hypothesis is a tentative statement, which is subject to verification
b. Hypothesis is a tested, well-substantiated, complete explanation for a set of proven factors
c. Hypothesis is conceptually different from theory
d. Hypothesis is a testable relationship between at least two variables
Clear my choice
Question 13. For a sample less tha 30, researchers use
Select one:
a. Chi-square test
b. Z-test
c. F-test
d. T-test
Clear my choice
Question 14. When the hypothesis about the population parameter is rejected for the value of sample statistic falling into onside tail of the distribution
Select one:
a. Two-tailed
b. One-tailed
c. Left tailed
d. Right tailed
Clear my choice
Question 15. Read the below statements and identify the wrong one(s). 1 – Complex hypothesis establishes a causal relationship between two variables 2 – Null hypothesis establishes a relationship among more than two variables 3 – An alternative hypothesis is used for a reverse strategy 4 – “Performance at work is not related to salary alone” is an example of alternative hypothesis
Select one:
a. Only 1 and 3 are wrong
b. Only 4 is wrong
c. Only 2 and 4 are wrong
d. All 4 statements are wrong
Clear my choice
Question 16. A renowned Fashion magazine conducts a market research to find out the need for advertisement. The research team constructs the below hypotheses: H0: At least 30 % of the readers consists of women H1: Less than 30 % of the readers consists of women What decision would the management take if the research team commits a type II error?
Select one:
a. The management invests unnecessarily in advertisements
b. The management does not invest in advertisements
c. The management prepares a budget for promotional cost
d. The management hires more salespersons to carry out extensive sales across the country
Clear my choice
Question 17. A renowned automobile company is under the process of launching a new luxury car. The car is aimed at catering to the HNI (High Net Worth Individual) population. The company wants to conduct a detailed market research on the popular choices of luxury cars in the country. It recruits a research team, which comes up with the research problem – “Is luxury car a popular among HNI clients?” Which of the following is FALSE about the case?
Select one:
a. “The HNI population does not prefer luxury cars” can possibly be the null hypothesis
b. “At least 50% of the HNI population prefers luxury cars” can possibly be one of the alternative hypotheses
c. Only one alternative hypothesis exists in this case
d. Less than 50% of the HNI population prefers luxury cars” can possibly be one of the alternative hypotheses

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4th Module Assessment
Question 1. When the objective is to summarise information from a large set of variables into fewer factors, ………………….. analysis is used.
a. principle component factor
b. sub factors
c. data
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. For …………………..selection, the market researcher can conduct interview with the customers directly.

a. Attributes
b. Sample
c. Item
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. In discriminant analysis, …………………..groups are compared.

a. 3
b. 2 or more
c. 1
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 4. If the discriminant analysis involves two groups, there are …………………..centroids
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
Clear my choice
Question 5. Regression coefficient is independent of change of
a. origin
b. Subject
c. Data
d. none
Clear my choice
Question 6. In the case of ………………regression, one variable is affected by a linear combination of another variable
a. simple linear
b. complex linear
c. non linear
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 7. Correspondence analysis is a …………………..technique
a. Descriptive/Exploratory
b. Precise/gist
c. Both mentioned
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 8. ……………..analysis is based on the statistical principle of multivariate statistics, which involves observation and analysis of more than one statistical variable at a time
a. Multivariate
b. Simple
c. Both mentioned
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 9. …………………..analysis is concerned with the measurement of the joint effect of two or more attributes.
a. Simple
b. Conjoint
c. Complex
d. all of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. The …………………..is a part-worth or utility for each level of each attribute

a. Output
b. Input
c. Both mentioned
d. none of these
Clear my choice

In a typical correspondence analysis, a cross-tabulation table of frequencies is first …………………..
Select one:
a. standardized
b. rationalized
c. subdued
d. none of these

Question 11. ………………….. Analysis is a technique used for classifying objects into groups

a. Cluster
b. Group
c. Collective
d. none of these
Clear my choice

An advantage of the non-metric models is that they permit the researcher to ………………….. and …………………..preference data.
Select one:
a. categorize, examine
b. identify, scrutinize
c. collect, analyze
d. none of these
Question 12. The …………………..application of cluster analysis is in customer segmentation and estimation of segment sizes

a. marketing
b. selling
c. buying
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. The spatial display of data provided by MDS is also sometimes referred to as ………………..

a. perceptual mapping
b. conceptual mapping
c. geographical mapping
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. which is / are the part of Markov Decision Process

a. Set of actions
b. Set of states
c. Reward
d. all of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. which of the following is /are learning models in reinforcement learning:

a. Markov Decision Process
b. Q learning
c. Both of these
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 16. In non-parameterized unsupervised learning, the data is grouped into clusters, where each cluster indicate something about categories and classes present in the data.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. cant say
d. may be
Clear my choice
Question 17. which is are the Characteristics of Reinforcement Learning

a. Sequential higher cognitive process
b. Time plays a vital role in Reinforcement problems
c. Feedback is often delayed, not instantaneous
d. all of these

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5th Module Assessment (29)
Question 1. In an oral presentation, ……………….plays a big role.
Select one:
a. Presentation
b. Content
c. Communication
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 2. Writing of report is the ………..step in a research study and requires a set of skills somewhat different from those called for in respect of the former stages of research.
Select one:
a. First
b. Final
c. Middle
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. …………………is regarded as a major component of the research study
Select one:
a. Objectives
b. Literature Review
c. Research Question
d. Research Report
Clear my choice
Question 4. In a report there must be …………….in margins and spacing.
Select one:
a. Consistency
b. Reliability
c. Validity
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. ………………means bringing out the meaning of data.
Select one:
a. Interpretation
b. Tabulation
c. Analysis
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. Successful interpretation depends on how well the data is………………
Select one:
a. Tabulated
b. Analysed
c. Interpreted
d. Collected
Clear my choice
Question 7. The …………….statement should explain the nature of the project, how it came about and what was attempted.
Select one:
a. Final
b. Introductory
c. Closing
d. Opening
Clear my choice
Question 8. …………..Page should indicate the topic on which the report is prepared.
Select one:
a. Title
b. Conclusion
c. Reference
d. Introduction
Clear my choice
Question 9. The ………………..should indicate the various parts or sections of the report.
Select one:
a. Census reports
b. Focus groups
c. Observation
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 10. ………….report presents the outcome of the research in detail.
Select one:
a. Short
b. Long
c. Botth a and b
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 11. A…………. is a systematic, well organized document which defines and analyses a subject or problem,
Select one:
a. Questionnaire
b. Report
c. Introduction
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. …………analysis is the analysis of the simultaneous relationships among three or more phenomena.
Select one:
a. Multivariate
b. Univariate
c. Bivariate
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. The …………represents a statement to be used to perform a statistical test to prove or to disprove the statement.
Select one:
a. Null Hypothesis
b. Alternate Hypothesis
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. Aim must be logical and ……………in the report presentation
Select one:
a. Straight
b. Centred
c. Systematic
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. In the ………………method, one starts from observed data and then generalisation is done
Select one:
a. Induction
b. Deduction
c. Abductive
d. None
Clear my choice
Question 16. Accuracy refers to the degree to which information reflects……………..
Select one:
a. Reality
b. Fact
c. Error
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 17. Availability refers to the communication process between researcher and the………………..
Select one:
a. Target audience
b. Population
c. Sample
d. Decision-maker

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Assignment 2

Case Study
Do you know that we, human beings, are the most intelligent living beings on earth? Thanks to our stellar intelligence, we can utilise the knowledge that has been preserved or accumulated over eons. Human knowledge comprises three equally crucial phases – namely preservation, transmission, and advancement. Research helps in advancement of knowledge so that an updated knowledge reservoir is created and transmitted for the benefit of mankind.
Human beings build upon the recorded and accumulated knowledge of the past and this constant endeavour of adding to the vast reservoir of knowledge in every possible field makes advancement of human race possible. You, as a researcher, need to ensure that considerable work has already been done on topics related to your field of investigation. You are required to be familiar with all previous projects, research, and theory related to the research problem you are dealing with. You need to conduct a thorough review of research and theoretical literature to ensure such familiarity.
The term “review” means “to organise the knowledge of the specific research area to create a knowledge pool so that your study adds on to and enriches the field of research.” The term “literature” stands for “the knowledge of a specific area of investigation, related to a given discipline, which includes theoretical, research-oriented, and practical studies.” Thus, review of literature is the process of creating new and updating existing knowledge pools, related to specific disciplines, which add on to and enrich fields of research.
Characterizes quantity and quality of literature, perhaps by study design and other key features. May identify need for primary or secondary research
Select one:
a. Mapping Review
b. Literature Review
c. Critical Review
d. Overview
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following requires either a generic appraisal instrument or separate appraisal processes with corresponding checklists
Select one:
a. Mixed Methods Review
b. Critical Review
c. Both A and B
d. Mixed Studies Review
Clear my choice
Question 3. No formal quality assessment is a characteristic of which one
Select one:
a. Both A and C
b. Mapping Review
c. Scoping Review
d. State of the Art Review
Clear my choice
Question 4. Preliminary assessment of potential size and scope of available research literature. Aims to identify nature and extent of research evidence (usually including ongoing research
Select one:
a. Scoping Review
b. Mapping Review
c. Mixed Studies Review
d. Literature Review
Clear my choice
Question 5. ……………..specifically refers to review compiling evidence from multiple reviews into one accessible and usable document.
Select one:
a. State of the Art Review
b. Umbrella Review
c. Scoping Review
d. Mapping Review

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Strategic Management (STRA701)-Semester III

Strategic Management (STRA701)-Semester III
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1st Module

Question 1. Every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other is
Select one:
a. Agreement
b. Contract
c. Offer
d. Acceptance
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is a component of strategic management?
Select one:
a. Employees
b. Horizon Management
c. Govt. Tax Rates
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following is(are) elements of business ethics?
Select one:
a. Accountability
b. Responsibility
c. Reputation
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 4. …………………. Are principles that guide the way that business is conducted in a fair and professional way
Select one:
a. Business Ethics
b. Company Mission
c. Company Vision
d. Brand Values
Clear my choice
Question 5. The functional areas of strategic management include
Select one:
a. Finance
b. Marketing
c. Production & Operation
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. The study and accounting of tools, assets and resources (both human and otherwise) that can be used in the accomplishment of the organization’s goals. This may include financial, tangible and intangible business values is known as
Select one:
a. Internal Evaluation
b. External Evaluation
c. Total Evaluation
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 7. The ………………… was passed and implemented to control various kinds of commercial and business contracts.
Select one:
a. Income Tax Act, 1961
b. GST Act, 2016
c. Indian Contract Act, 1872
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 8. The practice of management to use known methods and find efficiencies by directing staff to stay in their “lane” is known as
Select one:
a. Alignment Strategies
b. Adoption Strategies
c. Market Strategy
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 9. The practice of management to permit maximum flexibility among staff and resources to engage new methods and relationships outside of the competitor “normal” behaviors is known as
Select one:
a. Alignment Strategy
b. Corporate Strategy
c. Adaptability Strategy
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. An agreement consists of reciprocal promises between at least
Select one:
a. 4 Parties
b. 3 Parties
c. 6 Parties
d. 2 Parties
Clear my choice
Every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other is

Select one:
a. Agreement
b. Contract
c. Offer
d. Acceptance
Question 11. Contract = An agreement + Enforceable by……….
Select one:
a. Law
b. History
c. Rules
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. According to the Indian Contract Act, 1972 Contracts tainted with illegality or lack of capacity are
Select one:
a. Not enforceable
b. Enforceable
c. Conditionally Enforceable
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. The house that we rent, the electricity that is supplied to us, and the telephone and television services that we use – all these come to us through
Select one:
a. Vodiable Contracts
b. Offers & Schemes
c. Contracts
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. A makes a contract with B to beat his business competitor. This is an example of
Select one:
a. Valid Contract
b. Voidable Contract
c. illegal agreement
d. None of these
Clear my choice
The Law of Contract is nothing but
Select one:
a. a child of religion
b. a child of commercial dealing
c. a child of day-to-day politics
d. a child of economics
Question 15. The goal of the organization to care for the well-being of society as a whole is known as ……..
Select one:
a. Mission
b. Social Responsibility
c. Motive
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of these is a characteristic of Organizational Values?
Select one:
a. There has to be a reason behind each value
b. Further the vision, mission, objectives
c. Should be a catalyst for performance
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 17.The evaluation of an organization’s financial, social and environmental performance is known as the
Select one:
a. Reputation
b. Market Position
c. Net Profit
d. Triple Bottom Line
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2nd Module
Question 1. Which of the following is a componet of outbund logistics?
Select one:
a. Packaging
b. Warehousing
c. Staging
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. ………………….is the value of one currency for the purpose of conversion to another.
Select one:
a. Exchange Rate
b. Trade Tariffs
c. Inflation
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. Import & Export rules are all part of
Select one:
a. Fiscal Policy
b. Trade Tariffs
c. Constitution
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 4. The “P” in PESTLE stands for
Select one:
a. Political
b. Psyhcological
c. Promotional
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 5.While studying from a Political Standpoint under PESTLE analysis, which of these would be considered?
Select one:
a. Printing of Money
b. Inflation
c. Deflation
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. All steps required to store, stage, ship and track products from operations facility to the end user are collectively known as ………….
Select one:
a. Outbound Logistics
b. Transport
c. Cargo
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 7. ……………………..is a measure that examines the weighted average of prices of a basket of consumer goods and services.
Select one:
a. Inflation
b. Net Exports
c. Net Imports
d. Consumer Price Index
Clear my choice
Question 8. Sociocultural Analysis for Business takes into account ………..
Select one:
a. Education
b. Age
c. Income
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 9. ……………………is an acronym to describe the ever-changing business environment and world around us as a chaotic situation.
Select one:
a. ISDC
b. VUCA
c. ECBE
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. Anti-Trust Laws will fall under which component of the PESTLE Analysis?
Select one:
a. Political
b. Economic
c. Legal
d. Social
Clear my choice
VRIO stands for…
Select one:
a. Valuable, Rare, Inimitable, Organized
b. Valuable, Rare, Inimitable, Ordered
c. Vintage, Rare, Inimitable, Organized
d. Valuable, Ready, Inimitable, Organized
A tool that allows a company to understand their position relative to competitors in the same product or service area is known as ……
Select one:
a. PESTLE Analysis
b. Porter’s 5 Forces
c. VRIO Framework
d. Industry Analysis
Question 11. Acknowledging that a market has peaked and no further growth is expected is known as …..
Select one:
a. Industry Reach
b. Industry Growth
c. Industry Stagnation
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 12. A known restaurant brand opening a new franchise or location is an example of…..
Select one:
a. Industry Growth
b. Industry Stagnation
c. Consolidation
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. The overall increase in sales revenue, units sold or serviced as a mid-life strategy is known as……..
Select one:
a. Industry Reach
b. Industry Growth
c. Industry Stagnation
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. ……………. is a way to evaluate characteristics of the organization and strategically monitor and link them to performance outcomes.
Select one:
a. PESTLE Analysis
b. Porter’s 5 Forces
c. VRIO Framework
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. The ability of a particular industry to achieve sales or service in as many physical locations or other industries is known as ……
Select one:
a. Industry Reach
b. Industry Growth
c. Industry Stagnation
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 16. Industry Analysis is important because
Select one:
a. It helps acquire new customers
b. It helps to retain existing customers
c. Option A & B
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 17. Evaluation of the future outlook of a business based on past and present conditions with respect to the organization and its competitors is called …………………. .
Select one:
a. PESTLE Analysis
b. Porter’s 5 Forces
c. VRIO Framework
d. Industry Analysis

3rd Module

Question 1. The expansion of a company or brand to new locations in order to gain new customers and sales is known as ………………strategy
Select one:
a. Market Consolidation
b. Market Penetration
c. Market Development
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. The merger or acquisition of businesses with similar performance, customers and products or services is known as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Horizontal Integration
b. Vertical Integration
c. Diagnoal Integration
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. The 4 Quadrants of the BCG Matriz are denoted by: Cash Cows, Dogs, Stars and …………
Select one:
a. Sun
b. Bear
c. Bull
d. Question Mark
Clear my choice
Question 4. The approach or platform for long-term strategic initiatives, usually for revenue growth or profitability improvement is also known as …………
Select one:
a. Corporate Strategies
b. Market Consolidation
c. Industry Reach
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 5. The ability of an organization to deliver equivalent value to the competitors, irrelevant to the chosen competitive values is known as
Select one:
a. Competitive Parity
b. Monoply
c. Imperfect Monoply
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. The habit of businesses to sell out to larger business in order to harvest profits, but leaves fewer and larger organizations behind is better known as…
Select one:
a. Small Scale Consolidation
b. Competition Consolidation
c. Profit Making Consolidation
d. Large Scale Consolidation
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following could be a consideration of ‘market development strategy’?
Select one:
a. Similarities
b. Geography
c. Demographics
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 8. Expanding the organization’s capabilities to perform operations normally conducted by a vendor up the supply chain or another level of business down the supply chain including retailing is known as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Horizontal Integration
b. Vertical Integration
c. Diagnoal Integration
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 9. The Ansoff Matrix is based on which two variables?
Select one:
a. Product & Market
b. Product & Price
c. Market & Price
d. Price & Time
Clear my choice
Question 10. BCG in the BCG Matrix stands for?
Select one:
a. Big Competition Grid
b. Business Competition Grid
c. Boston Consulting Group
d. None of these
Clear my choice
What do Stars symbolize in BCG matrix?
Select one:
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline
Question 11. On what two factors is the GE 9-Cell Matriz based on?
Select one:
a. Market Attractiveness & Competetive Strength
b. Market Attractiveness & Investment
c. Competetive Strength & Investment
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 12. The 3 methods that are a part of Porter’s Model of Generic Business Strategies are: Overall Cost leadership strategy, Differentiation and………..
Select one:
a. Product Strategy
b. Factor Strategy
c. Focus strategy
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. The habit of technology reducing human intervention and therefore allowing for fewer organizations to provide the same level of service or production is better known as
Select one:
a. Technology Restricted Aggregation
b. Technology Driven Aggregation
c. Reduced Human Effort
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. The ability to launch a new business with a known competitor product and gain a base following due to some benefit perceived of the “new” brand over existing brands is known as …………
Select one:
a. Market Growth
b. Market Penetration
c. Consolidation
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. …………………………is considered a diversified condition when the team looks to expand beyond minor tweaks but to greater differentiators to meet demographic and psychographic needs.
Select one:
a. New Product Development
b. Market Stagnation
c. Market Growth
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 16. Nissan launching a new line of bigger SUVs is an example of
Select one:
a. New Product Development
b. Market Stagnation
c. Market Growth
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 17. A general tendency for those with more experience to cost less per unit to develop or produce the output desired is known as
Select one:
a. Experience Curve Strategy
b. Cost Curve Strategy
c. Output Curve Strategy
d. None of these
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4th Module
Question 1. Guerilla Marketing is a form of ……………strategy.
Select one:
a. Offensive
b. Defensive
c. Conservative
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. An approach which a company takes that directly influences market change, targeting customers for increased market share and R&D efforts is also known as a
Select one:
a. Defensive Strategy
b. Offensive Strategy
c. Optimal Strategy
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. The fundamental relationship of competitors that find ways to cooperate for the sake of the customers and benefit to the industry as well is known as ..
Select one:
a. Tactical Competition
b. Monopolisitic Competition
c. Co-Opetition
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 4. ………………….is a theory which is mostly marketing-related that focuses on entering industries or markets that have little to no competition.
Select one:
a. Green Ocean Strategy
b. Blue Ocean Strategy
c. Red Ocean Strategy
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 5. The 3rd Stage of the Industry Lifecycle is
Select one:
a. Growth
b. Stability
c. Maturity
d. End
Clear my choice
Question 6. Where do Competitive Actions come from?
Select one:
a. Similar marketspace
b. Similar customers
c. Direct competition!
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 7. Any formal company action that may cause competition to respond with their strategy or tactics can be better described as a
Select one:
a. Non-Competitive Action
b. New Competitive Action
c. Course of Action
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 8. Service enhancements can be categorised as a form of a
Select one:
a. Tactical Action
b. Strategic Action
c. Hybrid Action
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which of these is a risk involved in implementing the Blue Ocean Strategy?
Select one:
a. Too Early
b. Not enough perceived customers
c. Competitor(s) is secretly looking at same “ocean”
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. ………………. is a theory that involves the scenario in which a marketplace that has too many competitors and too few customers; has saturated or surpassed the demand/supply ratio.
Select one:
a. Green Ocean Strategy
b. Blue Ocean Strategy
c. Red Ocean Strategy
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Any method used by a company to retain their current customers, sales and margins. This includes elements such as brand, financial and competitive posturing is also known as …
Select one:
a. Defensive Strategy
b. Offensive Strategy
c. Optimal Strategy
d. None of these
Which of these would be a characteristic to implement the blue ocean strategy?
Select one:
a. No market yet exists
b. No competitors
c. Compete on novelty ideas
d. All of the above
Question 11. Complete the sequence of the Blue Ocean Stratgey: Buyer Utility, Price, Cost…..
Select one:
a. Repeat
b. Manufaacture
c. Adoption
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 12. The strategy of Blue Ocean’s are ……
Select one:
a. Not purely technical in nature
b. Frequently from existing competitors
c. Not based only on company and industry
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. A firm that is not meeting the sales, profit, brand expectations based on history or competitive performance is known as a
Select one:
a. Performing Organisation
b. Underperforming Organization
c. Optimal Organization
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of these should be a consideration for an organization looking for a turnaround effect?
Select one:
a. Know that it may not work
b. Embrace all parties to seek options (layoffs come last)
c. Buy or sell to competition in order to exit recovering as much as possible
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. The 4 Stages of the Industry Lifecycle are:
Select one:
a. Introduction, Growth, Stability, Decline
b. Introduction, Growth, Maturity, Decline
c. Introduction, Growth, Maturity, End
d. Introduction, Growth, Stability, End
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of these is a characteristic of the growth phase of the Industry Lifecycle?
Select one:
a. Product familiarity is known to many
b. Brand known by many customers
c. Features developed
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of these is a characteristic of the Introduction phase of the Industry Lifecycle?
Select one:
a. Products are not known by customers
b. Brand may not be known by customers
c. Features may be flexible yet
d. All of these
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5th Module
Question 1. The tendency of the organization to begin servicing or producing what upstream or downstream suppliers had in the past because of efficiencies or competitive advantage is also known as…..
Select one:
a. Vertical integration strategy
b. Horizontal integration strategy
c. Matrix integration strategy
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. When looking at the balanced scorecard from a financial perspective, which of the following could be considered by an organization?
Select one:
a. Productivity
b. Tax Rates
c. Export Tariffs
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. Elements of business that are important to the majority of employees or coworkers in a particular environment are known as its
Select one:
a. Strategies
b. Tactical Decisions
c. Shared Values
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 4. ……………………..is defined as the beliefs and practices of a group of individuals that establish a “normal” way to accomplish things.
Select one:
a. A charter
b. Competitive Strategy
c. Tactical strategy
d. Organizational Culture
Clear my choice
Question 5. The ability to engage all of the necessary resources into a process for improvements including discovering, creating, improving and applying team concepts is also known as ….
Select one:
a. Facilitation
b. Supply Chain
c. Lean Manufacturing
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. The series of processes by which needed components are obtained, delivered, modified, shipped and received at a customer or client location is known as …..
Select one:
a. Manufacturing
b. Production
c. Supply Chain
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is important for an organization to catalyse innovation?
Select one:
a. Human Capital
b. Information Capital
c. Organization Capital
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 8. The sale of an asset or position for financial, political or strategic gain is also known as…..
Select one:
a. Divestment
b. Investment
c. none of the above
d. Could be either
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which of these can be termed as a possible benefit of a good supply chain strategy?
Select one:
a. Lower Costs
b. Increase Quality
c. Increase speed of output
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. Of the following, what benefit can ‘transportation’ contribute to an organization strategy?
Select one:
a. Faster movement means higher customer satisfaction
b. Less expensive means higher profits
c. Various modes of transport can offer better evaluation of risk
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Which of these could be a challenge for divestment?
Select one:
a. Returns for the asset may be lower than expected
b. Finding enough buyers to get a good price
c. Funds may take time to realize
d. All of the above
Question 11. When looking at the balanced scorecard from a customer perspective, which of the following could be considered by an organization?
Select one:
a. Time
b. Quality
c. Service
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. ………………..is defined as the organized modification of business assets and labor from one plan to another. Frequently this includes selling off equipment, facilities, brands and may require laying off employees while also including new technologies , processes and employee compensation plans.
Select one:
a. Disposing
b. Restructuring
c. Acquisition
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following is a type of “big data”?
Select one:
a. Structured
b. Unstructured
c. Semi-structured
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. The intentional restructuring of business equipment, processes and people to create more productive equipment, efficient processes and aligned staff is better known as ……..
Select one:
a. Shortage of Resources
b. Abundance of Resources
c. Reallocation of Resources
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of these could be a benefit of divestment?
Select one:
a. Frees up money for other investments
b. Focus on core businesses
c. Reinvest funds into potential new businesses
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of these is a challenge for a vertical integration strategy?
Select one:
a. Competitors are focused
b. Management tiers may get “deeper”
c. Price advantage may disappear
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 17. How is big data different from traditional data?
Select one:
a. Normal data software cannot handle it
b. May require specific hardware as well
c. Grows constantly because of user input (manual or monitored)
d. All of these
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Assignment 2
Case Study:
Before the advancement of technology, it was very difficult for the tourism and hospitality industry to market their services to their clients. It was also very expensive as customers are always physically far away, for example, miles away. However, the advent of information technology has facilitated business transactions apart from boosting the customer base. The fact that people are able to communicate and interact with each other in different fields has made it easier and cheaper to market their products and services. In the past, the inter-organizational system, which linked organizations, was the most popular form of IT. However, due to the high cost, many businesses could not meet the cost of using it (Chih-Yao 2011, p. 1986). The emergence of global distribution systems allowed easy connections and communication between boarders. This allowed faster transfer of information which helped boost the industry in terms of number of bookings. Global delivery was a form of inter-organizational system that emerged from the computer reservation system that helped to integrate information from the airline. These integrations gave a boost to the tourism industry as customers were able to make their reservations in a common market. These systems were used in the 1960s, and integration with modern computers was impossible. The advancement of technology has seen the emergence of the Internet and the World Wide Web, which have changed the way people interact and/or do their business (Christiana 2008, p. 345). Businesses market their hospitality services and tourism products through the Internet. This platform has connected the world. It has turned it into a global village. People can interact in different places in real time.
Which among the following from the passage depicts the advantage of technology in Tourism Industry?
Select one:
a. Facilitated business transactions
b. easy connections and communication
c. Boosts Industry in terms of bookings
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. _ system, which linked organizations, was the most popular form of IT.
Select one:
a. Organizational
b. Inter- organizational
c. Joint organizational
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. Global Village here refers to:
Select one:
a. Social Connectivity
b. Internet Connectivity
c. Both A & B
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 4. The advent of information technology has facilitated __ apart from boosting the customer base.
Select one:
a. Communication
b. Business transactions
c. Infrastructure
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 5. Some features of technology in hospitality industry include:
Select one:
a. Smart Rooms
b. Booking Technology
c. Hotel Software System
d. All of these
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Financial Management (OOBB 402)-Semester IV

Financial Management (OOBB 402)-Semester IV

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1 Explain why debt is usually considered the cheapest source of financing available?

2 Differentiate between financial and business risks?

3 Discuss the different approaches of financing of working capital requirements?

4 Describe any two methods of incorporating risk in capital budgeting decisions?

5 Explain the merits of using market value weights in computing the weighted average cost of capital?

Case Detail : 

Working capital—Do you have enough?

Lending institutions are scrutinizing an operation’s working capital status as part of the lending decision. Now more than ever, it’s time to do a little scrutinizing yourself.  When I hit the road to speak, one of the most important slides I regularly use highlights how lending criteria has changed since the financial crisis. To illustrate that point, the slide includes a quote from Nick Parsons, head of research with the National Australia Bank: “So capitalism has changed…the owner or the custodian of capital [i.e. lending institutions] is much more careful about where they use that capital.”

To that end, most readers have likely experienced increased scrutiny from their lenders in this post-crisis world. And one of the key criteria that lenders use to make decisions revolves around availability of working capital within any operation; working capital being a function of current assets less current liabilities. It’s a measure of an operation’s buffer to meet its short-term obligations, hence the importance to lenders.

Perhaps equally important, it’s a key indicator of cash reserve availability to meet unexpected emergencies. Thus, it is an important component of risk management to ensure business continuity within the operation without the need to borrow additional funds. As an example, albeit simplified, a pickup is typically a critical operational asset for most cow-calf operations. What if it catches on fire and suddenly needs to be replaced, else the cows don’t get fed? After insurance provides some portion towards replacement, does the operation have sufficient working capital to meet the remainder of the obligation? This type of assessment has become more important to lenders since the financial crisis.

This week’s graph highlights USDA’s updated aggregate working capital estimates in agriculture. Clearly, as last week’s illustration depicts, declining revenue has taken a big hit out of working capital reserves for agriculture. Working capital has declined nearly 50% – the loss exceeds $82 billion in just three years. That’s a concerning trend – and if it continues, will clearly have implications in the coming years.

What are you doing to maintain strong cash and working capital reserves amidst declining revenue? What new expectations do you your lenders have during the past several years and going into 2017? How will you adjust going forward? Leave your thoughts in the comments section below.

  1. Provide the brief summary of the case in your own words?
  • What new expectations do your lenders have during the past several years and going into future?
  • What should be done to maintain strong cash and working capital reserves amidst declining revenue?

” .. are your business scores that come from your Income Statement and Balance Sheet, not the Cash Flow Statement.”

Select one:

a. Marks

b. Financial Scores

c. Points

d. Ratios

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“A part of the organisation where the manager has responsibility for generating revenues, controlling costs and producing a satisfactory return on capital invested in the division.”

Select one:

a. Brekarage

b. Brokerage

c. Division

d. Recasting

“Business practices designed by companies to make production and delivery systems more competitive in world markets by eliminating or minimizing waste, errors, and costs.”

Select one:

a. Re-engineering

b. Restructuring

c. Revaluation

d. Recasting

“Credit analysis, or the assessment of creditworthiness, is undertaken by analysing and evaluating information relating to a customer s history?”

Select one:

a. Non-Financial

b. Non-Monetary

c. Financial

d. Monetary

“Liquid funds, for example cash, earn no return and so will not increase profitability. “

Select one:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

c. rare

d. Sometimes

“Rate risk refers to the fact that when short-term finance is renewed, the rates may vary when compared to the .. rate. “

Select one:

a. Current

b. Previous

c. Accounting

d. Industry

“The factors to be considered in formulating a trade receivables policy relate to credit analysis, credit control and receivables collection.”

Select one:

a. TRUE

b. Sometimes

c. Rare

d. FALSE

“The length of the cash .. depends on working capital policy in relation to the level of investment in working capital, and on the nature of the business operations of a company.”

Select one:

a. requirement

b. Operating Cycle

c. disbursal

d. Management

“The main reason that companies fail, though, is because they run out of .”

Select one:

a. Customers

b. Inventory

c. Cash

d. Stock

“The objective of liquidity ensures that companies are able to meet their liabilities as they fall due, and thus remain in business.”

Select one:

a. Rare

b. TRUE

c. Sometimes

d. FALSE

“Working capital investment policy is concerned with the level of investment in assets, with one company being compared with another.”

Select one:

a. Permanent

b. Temporary

c. Current

d. Fixed

Clear my choice

. Interest rate depends upon an index and increases or decreases.

Select one:

a. Stationary

b. Variable

c. Stable

d. Fixed

.. can also be used to cover some of the risks associated with giving credit to foreign customers.

Select one:

a. Locking

b. Awards

c. Insurance

d. Rewards

Aggressive working capital finance means using more . term finance

Select one:

a. Credit

b. Short

c. Medium

d. Long

Clear my choice

Baumol model and the Miller-Orr model belong to . Management.

Select one:

a. Cash

b. Credit

c. Inventory

d. Purchase

Cash in hand and cash at bank are examples of . Assets.

Select one:

a. Current

b. Fixed

c. Working

d. Permanent

17. Companies with the same business operations may have levels of investment in working capital as a result of adopting different working capital policies.

Select one:

a. lower

b. higher

c. different

d. Same

Current assets /Current liabilities describes . Ratio.

Select one:

a. Fixed Asset

b. Quick

c. Liquidity❤

d. Asset Turnover

19. Dividend has no relationship with the value of the firm as per Walter Model.

Select one:

a. Yes

b. No

c. Can’t say

d. Sometimes

20. Funds held in the form of cash do not earn a return.

Select one:

a. TRUE

b. Sometimes

c. FALSE

d. Rare

Clear my choice

Holding costs can be . by reducing the level of inventory held by a company.

Select one:

a. minimised

b. control

c. increased

d. reduced

Implicit cost is the cost of using the funds.

Select one:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

c. None

d. Sometimes False

Inventory and receivables are both current assets.

Select one:

a. FALSE

b. Can’t Say

c. Sometimes

d. TRUE

Clear my choice

Is it right to say that good cash management is an essential part of good working capital management.

Select one:

a. Sometimes

b. never

c. Always

d. Can’t say

Clear my choice

JIT stands for just in . .

Select one:

a. totality

b. technical

c. tenure

d. time

26. Money paid (cost of credit) for the use of money.

Select one:

a. Interest

b. Dividend

c. Usage Money

d. Principal

Clear my choice

Optimum cash balance must reflect the expected need for cash in the next budget period.

Select one:

a. never

b. Always

c. Can’t say

d. Sometimes

28. Receiable management is all about?

Select one:

a. Cash Management

b. Loan Management

c. Credit Management

d. All

29. Sales made but not collected is known as .?

Select one:

a. A/Cs Payables

b. A/Cs Receivables

c. Both

d. None

30. Short-term finance is more flexible than long-term finance.

Select one:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

c. Never

d. Sometimes

31. Short-term finance is more risky than long-term finance.

Select one:

a. FALSE

b. Never

c. Sometimes

d. TRUE

32. Short-term finance tends to be more .. than long-term finance.

Select one:

a. Softer

b. Rigid

c. Flexible

d. harder

33. The . principle suggests that long-term finance should be used for long-term investment.

Select one:

a. Matching

b. Traditional

c. Dual Aspect

d. Monetary

34. The cash operating cycle is the average … of time between paying trade payables and receiving cash from trade receivables.

Select one:

a. Lag

b. period

c. length

d. gap

35. The process of calculating present value of projected cash flows.

Select one:

a. Discounting

b. Brokerage

c. Benefit

d. Budgeting

36. The sales of a business or other form of revenue from operations of the business is called as .

Select one:

a. Profit

b. Margin

c. Contribution

d. Turnover

37. Traditionally the role of finance manager was restricted to . Of funds.

Select one:

a. Use

b. Procurement

c. Management

d. Administration

Wealth management and profit maximisation are the concepts.

Select one:

a. Yes

b. Sometimes

c. No

d. Can’t say

39. Which model belongs to cash management?

Select one:

a. LIFO

b. Miller Orr

c. HIFO

d. ABC

40. Which technique brings inventory and cash requirment drastically down?

Select one:

a. LIFO

b. Baumal

c. ABC

d. JIT

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Business Communication (BC107)-Semester I

Business Communication (BC107)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Business Communication (BC107)-Semester I

Module 1
He __ up early in the morning.
Select one:
a. woke
b. wakes
c. awaken
d. woken

Question 1. The Word “Kindergarten” has been taken from which of the following languages:
Select one:
a. English
b. German
c. France
d. Italian
Clear my choice
Question 2. I feel happy whenever she _ at me. Select one: a. would smile b. will smile c. smiled d. smiles Clear my choice Question 3. What does the expression “faux pas” means? Select one: a. sacrilege b. a grave mistake c. a social blunder d. a political blunder Clear my choice Question 4. Sam along with his friends on holiday.
Select one:
a. is
b. were
c. has
d. are
Clear my choice
Question 5. He had been living in Delhi for the past five years.”What tense has been used in the sentence?
Select one:
a. Past Perfect Continuous Tense
b. Present Perfect Continuous Tense
c. Present Perfect Tense
d. Past Perfect Tense
Clear my choice
Question 6. Neither you nor I _ going to the party. Select one: a. am b. are c. were d. is Clear my choice

Question 7. Find out the errors in the following sentence: “Mary dare not insult you in front of the whole staff.” Select one: a. insult you b. Mary dares not c. in front of the whole staff d. no errors Clear my choice

Question 8. Sam asked us “Are we leaving today?” Change into indirect speech. Select one: a. Sam asked us were we leaving today? b. Sam asked us whether we were leaving today. c. Sam asked us whether we are leaving that day. d. Sam asked us whether we were leaving that day. Clear my choice

Question 9. It is two years since we her.
Select one:
a. met
b. meet
c. have met
d. had met
Clear my choice
Question 10. I saw many
grazing in the meadow.
Select one:
a. cow
b. cattles
c. cattle
d. none of the above
Clear my choice

Correct punctuation: Help please save me cried mary
Select one:
a. Help please save me. Cried Mary.
b. “Help! Please save me!”, cried Mary.
c. Help! Please save me cried Mary
d. Help Please save me! cried Mary

Question 11. I saw a bear lumbering through the woods and the air smelled like pine but as I listened I could hear him breathing and he was giant. This sentence is an example of: (Choose the right option)
Select one:
a. Compound Sentence
b. Compound-Complex Sentence
c. Complex Sentence
d. Rambling Sentence
Clear my choice
Question 12. Where _ my ?
Select one:
a. are/spectacle
b. is/spectacle
c. are/spectacles
d. are/spectacle
Clear my choice
Question 13. The class
handing in their answer sheets.
Select one:
a. is
b. had
c. are
d. has
Clear my choice
Question 14. Put apostrophe: Mices tails are shorter than rats tails.
Select one:
a. Mices’ Rats
b. Mice’s rat’s
c. Mice’s rats’
d. Mice’ rat’s
Clear my choice
Question 15. The word “siesta” is a _ word that means .
Select one:
a. “Spanish: a short nap during the afternoon”
b. “Yiddish: a long and sound sleep during the night”
c. “Italian: a 2-hours sleep during afternoon”
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 16. Nothing but clouds _ seen. Select one: a. is b. are c. has d. were() Clear my choice Question 17. The whole building collapsed due to earthquake but none _ injured
Select one:
a. are
b. was
c. were
d. None of the above

The crowd __ cheering, yelling, and clapping.
Select one:
a. was
b. is being
c. had
d. were

If I had been there I _ definitely saved you from the robbers
Select one:
a. will have
b. would have
c. would have been
d. will have been

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 2
Philosophical subjects, such as right and wrong, reality, consciousness, the meaning of the universe, etc. are related to which type of essay?
Select one:
a. Imaginative
b. Cathartic
c. Reflective
d. All the options
Question 1. a _ essay consists of thoughts on some topic, which is generally of an abstract nature Select one: a. collaborative b. reflective c. Expository d. All the options Clear my choice

Question 2. Historical stories, legends, a journey, an accidents, etc are some subjects that can be related to essays.
Select one:
a. Expository
b. reflective
c. Imaginative
d. Narrative
Clear my choice
Question 3. Precis is connected with the French word .
Select one:
a. Present
b. Precise
c. prevu
d. None of these.
Clear my choice
Question 4. The essay should consist of introduction, body and

Select one:
a. conclusion
b. message
c. thoughts
d. perception
Clear my choice
Question 5. _ must be in unity, treating in an orderly manner of one subject; it should be concisely written and not too long, and the style should be simple, direct and clear; and it should have an individuality, or show the personal touch of the writer. Select one: a. A report b. An essay c. A debate d. None of these. Clear my choice

Question 6. For general preparation of an essay, one must start focussing on- reading, conversation/communication, and .
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Preparation
c. Hard Work
d. Mind-Map
Clear my choice
Question 7. Essays are classified. How many classifications?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
Clear my choice
Question 8. “The limit should be about three hundred words; though of course, there can be no strict rule as to length, which will depend a good deal on the nature of the subject. But an essay should be brief exercise], concisely expressed.” Which characteristic is being talked about in these lines?
Select one:
a. Style
b. The Personal Touch
c. Brevity
d. None of these.
Clear my choice
Question 9. As a rule, a précis should be written in __, after a “ verb of saying” in the past tense. Select one: a. indirect speech b. direct speech c. simple language d. present tense Clear my choice

Question 10. Characteristics of a good essay. Choose the odd one out. Select one: a. Unity b. Brevity c. Order d. Font Clear my choice Paraphrasing can be useful in .
Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Explanation
c. Questioning
d. Research

Question 11. There are four characteristics of a good paraphrase. Choose the odd one out.
Select one:
a. Translation
b. Immitation
c. Fullness
d. Wholeness
Clear my choice
Question 12. “A complete Piece of Prose” means?
Select one:
a. That the paraphrase is verbally rich.
b. That the paraphrase is complete.
c. That the paraphrase is understood by all.
d. All of these.
Clear my choice
Question 13. Is there a rule for the length of a paraphrase as compared with the length of the original passage?
Select one:
a. Maximum 500 words
b. Minimum one paragraph
c. No there is no rule as such
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. What is paraphrasing?
Select one:
a. Phrasing the sentence structure
b. Restatement
c. Discourse
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. A translation must be accurate and explanatory to be any value, so a __ must faithfully reproduce and interpret the thought of the original passage.
Select one:
a. summary
b. paraphrase
c. notice
d. essay
Clear my choice
Question 16. Steps for good precis writing include-
Select one:
a. Making rough drafts
b. Reading and Writing
c. Using French words
d. A and B
Clear my choice
Question 17. Special preparation in order to write a good essay includes–?
Select one:
a. Reading
b. Researching
c. Logical Arrangemts
d. All of these

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 3
Question 1. Which of the following is an Example of Non-verbal Communication?
Select one:
a. Oral narratives
b. Silent movies/mimes
c. Literary texts
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is not a principle of effective Communication?
Select one:
a. strategic use of grapevine communication
b. participation of the receiver
c. persuasive and convincing speech
d. one-way transmission of message
Clear my choice
Question 3. The term “communication” is derived from which of the following languages:
Select one:
a. German
b. Greek
c. Italian
d. Latin
Clear my choice
Question 4. In a classroom communication, the trust level of the communicator is assessed by
Select one:
a. the tone of the voice
b. the use of abstract talk
c. use of hyperbole
d. eye-contact
Clear my choice
Question 5. The English word “Communication” is derived from:
Select one:
a. Communion and Common Sense
b. Communism and Communalism
c. Communist and Commune
d. Communis and Communicare
Clear my choice
Question 6. In communication, transformation of messages, ideas and information into verbal and non-verbal signs is known as
Select one:
a. Mediation
b. Channelization
c. Encoding
d. Decoding
Clear my choice
Question 7. When does the communication process ends?
Select one:
a. When the message is sent
b. When the Message is decoded by the receiver
c. When the Sender encodes the Message
d. When the receiver understands the message.
Clear my choice
Question 8. The mode of communication which involves a single source transmission of information to a large group of receivers simultaneously is known as-
Select one:
a. Mass Comunication
b. Group Communication
c. Intra-Personal Communication
d. Inter-personal Communication
Clear my choice
Question 9. Who of the following determines what kind of information should be delivered, in what manner it should be delivered, and what should be the proper time and place to deliver that information and who will deliver that information?
Select one:
a. Mediator
b. Audience
c. The communicator himself
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 10. Sender and receiver should be available in the process of communication through a proper __.
Select one:
a. medium
b. channel
c. middleman
d. all of the above
Clear my choice
Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
Select one:
a. Personal Language
b. Physical Language
c. Para Language
d. Delivery Language

Question 11. In the process of communication, which of the following is in correct chronological sequence?
Select one:
a. Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
b. Message, Communicator, Medium, Effect, Receiver
c. Communicator, Medium, Message, Receiver, Effect
d. Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Clear my choice
Question 12. Communication can be classified into and _ according to the way of expression. Choose the right answer from the following:
Select one:
a. Upward Communication; Downward Communication
b. Formal Communication; Informal Communication
c. Oral Communication; Written Communication
d. Interpersonal Communication; Intra-personal Communication
Clear my choice
Question 13. In non-verbal communication, kinesics means:
Select one:
a. Investigation of bodily movements and developments comparative with correspondence or body language
b. Study of contact and touch as a type of correspondence which takes a look at behaviour.
c. Physical Appearance and the ways in which an individual controls it.
d. Investigation of importance of space and spatial qualities in correspondence
Clear my choice
Question 14. What are the psychological barriers to communication?
Select one:
a. language barrier, speech of voice defect
b. inattentiveness, stress and anxiety, and premature evaluation.
c. dialogue, summary and self-review
d. eye-contact, personal statements, and simple narration
Clear my choice
What is Empathetic Listening?
Select one:
a. With empathy, trying to understand what other person is trying to communicate. (this is wrong)
b. Showcasing empathy, understanding the speaker’s view by putting oneself in the speaker’s position.
c. trying to comprehend with the speaker and the character; hold genuine listening
d. listening while wishing well for the speaker.

Question 15. The term “Communication” is understood as a process of __.
Select one:
a. Transformation of thoughts into readable texts intended for the readers.
b. Exchange of ideas, thoughts and facts between two or more individuals.
c. Transmission of signals via electronic and non-electronic medium.
d. All of the Above.
Clear my choice
Question 16. Verbal communication is a primary tool for:
Select one:
a. Communicating one’s emotions and feelings
b. Providing detailed instructions and solving issues and problems
c. Brief and precise discussion
d. all of the above
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following are the characteristics of communication?a. It involves both understanding and information. b. It is a circular process. c. It is a continuous process. d. It contains exchange of ideas, thoughts, facts and opinions. Choose the right answer from below:
Select one:
a. b, c and d.
b. a, b and d
c. a, b, c and d
d. a, b and c

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 4
Question 1. is basically rules and standards for interfacing with others on the web in a chivalrous, deferential way.
Select one:
a. Bio
b. general intro
c. Pretext
d. netiquette
Clear my choice
Question 2. it’s known as “glossophobia”
Select one:
a. Pressure
b. social phobia, or social anxiety disorder.
c. Fear of order
d. Dressing Phobia
Clear my choice
Question 3. ____________can be utilized as your lift discourse—the in-person presentation that fills in as a beginning stage to systems administration at work fairs or expert get-togethers. Select one: a. Euro Legacy b. The expert profile c. The inadverted presentation d. business portfolio Clear my choice

Question 4. Even the most polished moderators get somewhat
Select one:
a. Nervous
b. anxious
c. apprehensive
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 5. Emphatic speaker-
Select one:
a. Being Imaginative
b. being solid and intense. This is in the middle of the bookends of forceful and aloof.
c. Being Reflective
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 6. The more you can control the , the less apprehension you will understand and the more leftover vitality you should dedicate to the introduction itself. FILL IN THE BLANK Select one: a. vulnerability b. confidence c. volume d. None of these. Clear my choice

Question 7. When you comprehend what you are going to state, you have to set yourself up for the real conveyance. Choose what you are going to wear – make it agreeable and suitable. Which Presentation Step is being talked about here? Select one: a. Know Your Audience b. Know Your Material c. Get ready, Prepare, Prepare d. None of these. Clear my choice

Question 8. Structure Your Presentation means ? Select one: a. control your own vulnerability b. to alter the speed c. to Expose your content d. All the options Clear my choice

Question 9. Proficient nonverbally means Select one: a. clear correspondence with non-verbal communication b. message c. unnatural thoughts d. None of these. Clear my choice

Question 10. Six Steps to Conquering Your Presentation Nerves. Which one is the odd one out? Select one: a. Know Your Audience b. Know Your Material c. Practice, Practice, Practice d. Know the design Clear my choice Qualities of a skillful presenter includes Capturing and maintaining attention, and __
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Handling questions
c. Hard Work
d. Mind-Map
Question 11. Blogging has become an elective profession or side _ to many. Select one: a. gig b. side hussle c. hobby d. All of these Clear my choice Question 12. The more incessant and better your blog entries are, the higher the odds for your site to get found and visited by your _ group.
Select one:
a. intended interest
b. Immitation
c. Friendly
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. A blog –
Select one:
a. Digital blog
b. an abbreviated rendition of “weblog”
c. Digital book
d. Digital pad
Clear my choice
Question 14. is an assortment of abilities that one needs to run and administer a . This involves outfitting a page with devices to make the way toward composing, posting, connecting, and sharing substance simpler on the web.
Select one:
a. Blogging, Blog
b. OTT, content
c. Instagram, Feed
d. None of these
Clear my choice
To start with, you have to choose a name for your blog, additionally called . Select one: a. an area name b. an arena c. description d. Research Question 15. In all kinds of letters there are six points of form to be attended to- Identify the point that cannot be included Select one: a. The heading consisting of a) the writer’s address, b) the date b. The communication or message- The body of the letter c. The signature d. none of these can be excluded Clear my choice Question 16. This is the place all the data is contained. A proper welcome isn’t needed in a notice. Simply transfer the important data with lucidity and accuracy. (With respect to Notice Writing) Select one: a. Headline b. The body of a notice c. Both A and B d. None of these Clear my choice Question 17. __
are messages, and certain letterforms have been established by experience and custom as the most useful forms learned and used by every __ writing, for neglect of them is sign of ignorance and carelessness.
Select one:
a. Memo
b. Researching
c. Letters
d. Circulars

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 5
Question 1. what is the use of a Glossary in a Report ?
Select one:
a. It is helpful to give a sequential rundown of specialized terms with a short, away from of each term.
b. You can remember for this segment clarification of the abbreviations
c. You can check for clarification of contractions or standard units utilized in your report.
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 2. _ are characterized as records or rundowns of individual’s instruction, proficient experience, capabilities, and aptitudes utilized as a component of an employment form. Select one: a. LINKEDIN b. API c. RESUME d. PROFILE Clear my choice

Question 3. A ___ is composed piece of writing for a specific crowd. Explicit data and proof are introduced, examined and applied to a specific issue.
Select one:
a. Canvas
b. communication
c. report
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 4. Reasons why reports are utilized as written assessments: ? Choose the right option.
Select one:
a. vulnerability
b. To discover what you have gained from your perusing, exploration or experience.
c. to Expose your content
d. None of these.
Clear my choice
Question 5. It surveys how a member performs under various circumstances in a gathering.
Select one:
a. GD
b. INTERVIEW
c. MEETINGS
d. NETIQUETTES
Clear my choice
Question 6. What not to remember for a resume?
Select one:
a. Try not to utilize nonexclusive explanations or banality phrases in your resume.
b. Try not to incorporate inconsequential data or encounters.
c. Try not to pick text styles, which are hard to reador are casual.
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 7. Under this heading you ought to incorporate all the supporting data you have utilized that isn’t distributed. This may incorporate tables, diagrams, polls, studies or records. Allude to the addendums in the body of your report. What is this section called ?
Select one:
a. Attachment Section
b. Reference Section
c. ID Section
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 8. The substance page should list the various parts as well as headings along with the . Select one: a. Enrollment Number b. Remarks c. Quotation d. page numbers Clear my choice

Question 9. The ought to quickly depict the substance of the report.
Select one:
a. synopsis
b. report
c. table
d. Annexure
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which among the options cannot be included in the 3 C’s of GD. ?
Select one:
a. Clarity
b. Creative
c. Content
d. Criticising
Clear my choice
This ought to quickly yet unequivocally depict the reason for the report (if this isn’t evident from the title of the work). Different subtleties you may incorporate could be your name, the date and for whom the report is composed. What is it called?
Select one:
a. SUBSTANCE
b. COVER SHEET
c. ANNEXURE
d. SYNOPSIS
Question 11. This assesses the applicant’s capacity to interface with the gathering and is estimated from a double viewpoint – verbal and non-verbal. While verbal correspondence scores the students on boundaries like familiarity, explanation and tweak, the non-verbal remainder characterizes his/her sufficiency vis-and vis non-verbal communication, signal, eye-to-eye connection and stance.
Select one:
a. Digital blog
b. Data Scrutinity
c. Horizontal Thinking
d. Relational Abilities
Clear my choice
Question 12. The group discussion assesses the candidate’s ability to:
Select one:
a. Argue
b. Control others
c. Lead others
d. Exchange opinions
Clear my choice
Question 13. The ideal way to apply for the vacancy of a job is to submit a resume that is:
Select one:
a. full of personal information
b. suitable for any job
c. self-recommending
d. specially written for that specific job
Clear my choice
Question 14. What is the preliminary objective in a group discussion?
Select one:
a. prove your superiority
b. create sub-groups
c. act as a self-appointed leader of the group
d. catch the group’s attention
Clear my choice
This mirrors your capacity to think off the feet and contribute on an imaginative and strange digression. It is significantly more pertinent for a theoretical theme, where the extension to see the point from a vanguard edge is proportionately more (for example in a point like “red and blue”, someone who makes an interpretation of this into a coke (red) and Pepsi (blue) fighting or examine the showcasing methodologies of kingfisher (red) and fly (blue) or harp on the sex contrasts as referenced in John Gray’s “Men are from Mars (red) and ladies are from Venus (blue)”, will stand separated.)
Select one:
a. intended interest
b. Relational Abilities
c. Horizontal Thinking
d. None of these
Question 15. Reports present conclusions based on:
Select one:
a. Investigation
b. Intuition
c. Belief
d. Impression
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of these is not a parameter in a report?
Select one:
a. Ability to acquire information
b. Quality of Information
c. Extent of Information
d. Age of the Writer
Clear my choice
Question 17. A report may be used for?
Select one:
a. Reading
b. Writing
c. Both Reading and Writing
d. None of these

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Assignment 2

Question 1. The teacher asked the students to write a concise note with minimal words on the text of Rabindranath Tagore’s The Religion of the Forest. What does the teacher wants the students to write?
Select one:
a. An Analytical essay
b. A Precis
c. A Report
d. Summary
Clear my choice
Question 2. A job seeker went for his interview in a company but forgot to bring his essential document showcasing his profile and credentials. What document did he forget?
Select one:
a. Letter of Experience
b. Memorandum
c. Resume
d. Educational certificates
Clear my choice
Question 3. A man was standing with his arms folded listening to the talk of his friend but made no gestures or movements while his friend was excitedly talking about his first experience at his new job. What barrier does this form of communcation reflect?
Select one:
a. Speaker was reflecting excessive emotion
b. Speaker was proud of getting a new job
c. reflecting listener’s attitude and passive listening
d. the speaker was not interested in his listener’s response
Clear my choice
Question 4. A severe accident happened on the road in which some people got injured. A journalist came there and put down all information in a note to be published in a newspaper. What did the journalist write?
Select one:
a. A Newspaper Article
b. A Journal article
c. Letter to the Editor
d. A Report
Clear my choice
Question 5. It was raining heavily. Suddenly a lightening struck and lo! the tree cracked open. The second clause in the second sentence is an example of:
Select one:
a. Exclamation
b. Compound Sentence
c. Complex Sentence
d. Imperative

Business Communication (BC107)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Business Communication (BC107)-Semester I

Security Analysis & Portfolio Management (EDL 306)-Semester III

Security Analysis & Portfolio Management (EDL 306)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

The need for corporate governance has arisen because of the increasing concern about the non-compliance of standards of financial reporting and accountability by boards of directors and management of corporate inflicting heavy losses on investors.

The collapse of international giants likes Enron, World Com of the US and Xerox of Japan are said to be due to the absence of good corporate governance and corrupt practices adopted by management of these companies and their financial consulting firms.The failures of these multinational giants bring out the importance of good corporate governance structure making clear the distinction of power between the Board of Directors and the management which can lead to appropriate governance processes and procedures under which management is free to manage and board of directors is free to monitor and give policy directions.

In India, SEBI realised the need for good corporate governance and for this purpose appointed several committees such as Kumar Manglam Birla Committee, Naresh Chandra Committee and Narayana Murthy Committee.Investors and shareholders of a corporate company need protection for their investment due to lack of adequate standards of financial reporting and accountability. It has been noticed in India that companies raised capital from the market at high valuation of their shares by projecting wrong picture of the company’s performance and profitability.The investors suffered a lot due to unscrupulous management of corporate that performed much less than reported at the time of rais¬ing capital. “Bad governance was also exemplified by allotment of promoters’ share at preferential prices disproportionate to market value affecting minority holders interest”.

There is increasing awareness and consensus among Indian investors to invest in companies which have a record of observing practices of good corporate governance. Therefore, for encouraging Indian investors to make adequate investment in the stock of corporate companies and thereby boosting up rate of growth of the economy, the protection of their interests from fraudulent practices of corporate of boards of directors and management are urgently needed.Corporate governance is considered as an important means for paying heed to investors’ grievances. Kumar Manglam Birla Committee on corporate governance found that companies were not paying adequate attention to the timely dissemination of required information to investors in by India.Investors will be willing to invest in the companies with a good record of corporate governance.

Question 1: Investors and shareholders of a corporate company need protection for their………… due to lack of adequate standards of financial reporting and accountability.

 a. decision-making

 b. efficiency

 c. investment

 d. none of the above

Question 2. It has been noticed in India that …………. raised capital from the market at high valuation of their shares by projecting wrong picture of the company’s performance and profitability.

 a. companies

 b. informal

 c. both of the above

 d. none of the above

Question 3. SEBI realised the need for …………….. and for this purpose appointed several committees such as Kumar Manglam Birla Committee, Naresh Chandra Committee and Narayana Murthy Committee.

 a. good corporate governance

 b. trustee

 c. AMC

 d. none of the above

Question 4. The need for ……… has arisen because of the increasing concern about the non-compliance of standards of financial reporting and accountability by boards of directors and management of corporate inflicting heavy losses on investors.

 a. corporate governance

 b. PR

 c. QR

 d. none of the above

Question 5. There is increasing awareness and consensus among Indian investors to invest in ………….which have a record of observing practices of good corporate governance.

a. companies

 b. trustee

 c. AMC

 d. none of the above

Question 6. Therefore, for encouraging Indian ………….. to make adequate investment in the stock of corporate companies and thereby boosting up rate of growth of the economy, the protection of their interests from fraudulent practices of corporate of boards of directors and management are urgently needed.

 a. sponsor

 b. investors

 c. AMC

 d. none of the above

Question 7. ……… realised the need for good corporate governance

 a. power

 b. politics

 c. SEBI

 d. all of the above

Question 8. …………. on corporate governance found that companies were not paying adequate attention to the timely dissemination of required information to investors in by India.

 a. sponsor

 b. trustee

 c. Kumar Manglam Birla Committee

 d. all of the above

Question 9. ………….. will be willing to invest in the companies with a good record of corporate governance.

 a. Investors

 b. PR

 c. QR

 d. none of the above

Question 10. …………..governance was also exemplified by allotment of promoters’ share at preferential prices disproportionate to market value affecting minority holders interest

 a. industrial engineering

 b. operations management

 c. Bad

 d. none of the above

10 on 10

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2nd Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

In financial markets, stock valuation is the method of calculating theoretical values of companies and their stocks. The main use of these methods is to predict future market prices, or more generally, potential market prices, and thus to profit from price movement – stocks that are judged undervalued (with respect to their theoretical value) are bought, while stocks that are judged overvalued are sold, in the expectation that undervalued stocks will overall rise in value, while overvalued stocks will generally decrease in value.

In the view of fundamental analysis, stock valuation based on fundamentals aims to give an estimate of the intrinsic value of a stock, based on predictions of the future cash flows and profitability of the business. Fundamental analysis may be replaced or augmented by market criteria – what the market will pay for the stock, disregarding intrinsic value. These can be combined as “predictions of future cash flows/profits (fundamental)”, together with “what will the market pay for these profits?” These can be seen as “supply and demand” sides – what underlies the supply (of stock), and what drives the (market) demand for stock?

In the view of John Maynard Keynes, stock valuation is not a prediction but a convention, which serves to facilitate investment and ensure that stocks are liquid, despite being underpinned by an illiquid business and its illiquid investments, such as factories.The most theoretically sound stock valuation method, called income valuation or the discounted cash flow (DCF) method, involves discounting of the profits (dividends, earnings, or cash flows) the stock will bring to the stockholder in the foreseeable future, and a final value on disposal.[1] The discounted rate normally includes a risk premium which is commonly based on the capital asset pricing model.

In July 2010, a Delaware court ruled on appropriate inputs to use in discounted cash flow analysis in a dispute between shareholders and a company over the proper fair value of the stock. In this case the shareholders’ model provided value of $139 per share and the company’s model provided $89 per share. Contested inputs included the terminal growth rate, the equity risk premium, and beta.[2]

The fundamental valuation is the valuation that people use to justify stock prices. The most common example of this type of valuation methodology is P/E ratio, which stands for Price to Earnings Ratio. This form of valuation is based on historic ratios and statistics and aims to assign value to a stock based on measurable attributes. This form of valuation is typically what drives long-term stock prices.

The other way stocks are valued is based on supply and demand. The more people that want to buy the stock, the higher its price will be. And conversely, the more people that want to sell the stock, the lower the price will be. This form of valuation is very hard to understand or predict, and it often drives the short-term stock market trends.

There are many different ways to value stocks. The key is to take each approach into account while formulating an overall opinion of the stock. If the valuation of a company is lower or higher than other similar stocks, then the next step would be to determine the reasons.

Question 1: In the view of fundamental analysis, stock valuation based on fundamentals aims to give an estimate of the …………. of a stock

 a. planning

 b. organising

 c. staffing

 d. intrinsic value

Question 2. The discounted rate normally includes a ………. which is commonly based on the capital asset pricing model.

 a. planning

 b. production

 c. transportation

 d. risk premium

Question 3. The fundamental valuation is the valuation that people use to justify …………. prices.

 a. stock

 b. minimize

 c. keep same

 d. all

Question 4. The main use of these methods is to predict……….. market prices

 a. public

 b. management

 c. employees

 d. future

Question 5. The most theoretically sound stock valuation method, called …………., involves discounting of the profits (dividends, earnings, or cash flows) the stock will bring to the stockholder in the foreseeable future, and a final value on disposal.

 a. network flow problems

 b. multi-commodity flow problems

 c. income valuation or the discounted cash flow (DCF) method

 d. none

Question 6. The other way stocks are valued is based on ………. and demand.

 a. all

 b. new

 c. old

 d. supply

Question 7. If the…………. of a company is lower or higher than other similar stocks, then the next step would be to determine the reasons.

 a. information

 b. valuation

 c. both

 d. none

Question 8. ………. analysis may be replaced or augmented by market criteria – what the market will pay for the stock, disregarding intrinsic value.

 a. economics

 b. engineering

 c. management

 d. Fundamental

Question 9. ……….. valuation is not a prediction but a convention, which serves to facilitate investment and ensure that stocks are liquid, despite being underpinned by an illiquid business and its illiquid investments, such as factories.

 a. public

 b. management

 c. employees

 d. stock

Question 10. …………is the method of calculating theoretical values of companies and their stocks.

 a. stock valuation

 b. maslow

 c. fayol

 d. all

10 on 10

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3rd Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

Fundamental analysts examine earnings, dividends, assets, quality, ratio, new products, research and the like. Technicians employ many methods, tools and techniques as well, one of which is the use of charts. Using charts, technical analysts seek to identify price patterns and market trends in financial markets and attempt to exploit those patterns.

Technicians using charts search for archetypal price chart patterns, such as the well-known head and shoulders  or double top/bottom reversal patterns, study technical indicators, moving averages, and look for forms such as lines of support, resistance, channels, and more obscure formations such as flags, pennants, balance days and cup and handle patterns.

Technical analysts also widely use market indicators of many sorts, some of which are mathematical transformations of price, often including up and down volume, advance/decline data and other inputs. These indicators are used to help assess whether an asset is trending, and if it is, the probability of its direction and of continuation. Technicians also look for relationships between price/volume indices and market indicators. Examples include the moving average, relative strength index, and MACD. Other avenues of study include correlations between changes in Options (implied volatility) and put/call ratios with price. Also important are sentiment indicators such as Put/Call ratios, bull/bear ratios, short interest, Implied Volatility, etc.

There are many techniques in technical analysis. Adherents of different techniques (for example, Candlestick analysis -the oldest form of technical analysis developed by a Japanese grain trader-, Harmonics, Dow theory, and Elliott wave theory) may ignore the other approaches, yet many traders combine elements from more than one technique. Some technical analysts use subjective judgment to decide which pattern(s) a particular instrument reflects at a given time and what the interpretation of that pattern should be. Others employ a strictly mechanical or systematic approach to pattern identification and interpretation.

Contrasting with technical analysis is fundamental analysis, the study of economic factors that influence the way investors price financial markets. Technical analysis holds that prices already reflect all the underlying fundamental factors. Uncovering the trends is what technical indicators are designed to do, although neither technical nor fundamental indicators are perfect. Some traders use technical or fundamental analysis exclusively, while others use both types to make trading decisions.

Question 1. Contrasting with technical analysis is fundamental analysis, the study of ……….. factors that influence the way investors price financial markets.

 a. after

 b. equal to

 c. economic

 d. together

Question 2. Fundamental analysts examine ………

 a. earnings

 b. dividend

 c. assets

 d. all of the above

Question 3. Some technical analysts use subjective judgment to decide which pattern(s) a particular instrument reflects at a given time and what the interpretation of that ………… should be.

 a. pattern

 b. tri

 c. fri

 d. hex

Question 4. Some traders use technical or fundamental analysis exclusively, while others use both types to make ……………decisions.

 a. 20

 b. economic

 c. trading

 d. correct

Question 5. Technical analysis holds that prices already reflect all the underlying ……….factors.

 a. 25

 b. 20

 c. fundamental

 d. 40

Question 6. Technical analysts also widely use …………of many sorts, some of which are mathematical transformations of price, often including up and down volume, advance/decline data and other inputs.

 a. primal simplex algorithm

 b. auction algorithm.

 c. market indicators

 d. none of the above

Question 7. Technicians also look for relationships between price/volume indices and ……….indicators.

 a. sociology research

 b. management training

 c. secondary and higher psychology instruction

 d. market

Question 8. Technicians using charts search for archetypal price chart …………., such as the well-known head and shoulders

 a. physiologic

 b. safety

 c. belonging

 d. patterns

Question 9. These indicators are used to help assess whether an ……… is trending

 a. asset

 b. physiological

 c. safety

 d. belonging

Question 10. Using ……….., technical analysts seek to identify price patterns and market trends in financial markets and attempt to exploit those patterns

 a. efficiency

 b. stick

 c. charts

 d. all of the above

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4th Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

In finance, arbitrage pricing theory (APT) is a general theory of asset pricing that holds that the expected return of a financial asset can be modelled as a linear function of various macro-economic factors or theoretical market indices, where sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient. The model-derived rate of return will then be used to price the asset correctly—the asset price should equal the expected end of period price discounted at the rate implied by the model. If the price diverges, arbitrage should bring it back into line.

The theory was proposed by the economist Stephen Ross in 1976.In the APT context, arbitrage consists of trading in two assets – with at least one being mis-priced. The arbitrageur sells the asset which is relatively too expensive and uses the proceeds to buy one which is relatively too cheap.

Under the APT, an asset is mispriced if its current price diverges from the price predicted by the model. The asset price today should equal the sum of all future cash flows discounted at the APT rate, where the expected return of the asset is a linear function of various factors, and sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient.

A correctly priced asset here may be in fact a synthetic asset – a portfolio consisting of other correctly priced assets. This portfolio has the same exposure to each of the macroeconomic factors as the mis-priced asset. The arbitrageur creates the portfolio by identifying x correctly priced assets (one per factor plus one) and then weighting the assets such that portfolio beta per factor is the same as for the mispriced asset.

When the investor is long the asset and short the portfolio (or vice versa) he has created a position which has a positive expected return (the difference between asset return and portfolio return) and which has a net-zero exposure to any macroeconomic factor and is, therefore, risk free (other than for firm-specific risk). The APT along with the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is one of two influential theories on asset pricing. The APT differs from the CAPM in that it is less restrictive in its assumptions. It allows for an explanatory (as opposed to statistical) model of asset returns. It assumes that each investor will hold a unique portfolio with its own particular array of betas, as opposed to the identical “market portfolio”. In some ways, the CAPM can be considered a “special case” of the APT in that the securities market line represents a single-factor model of the asset price, where beta is exposed to changes in value of the market.

Additionally, the APT can be seen as a “supply-side” model, since its beta coefficients reflect the sensitivity of the underlying asset to economic factors. Thus, factor shocks would cause structural changes in assets’ expected returns, or in the case of stocks, in firms’ profitability.

On the other side, the capital asset pricing model is considered a “demand side” model. Its results, although similar to those of the APT, arise from a maximization problem of each investor’s utility function, and from the resulting market equilibrium (investors are considered to be the “consumers” of the assets).

Question 1. A correctly priced ……….. here may be in fact a synthetic asset – a portfolio consisting of other correctly priced assets.

 a. physical

 b. cooperative

 c. asset

 d. all of the above

Question 2. Arbitrage consists of trading in two ………… – with at least one being mis-priced.

 a. military bearing

 b. physical fitness

 c. confidence

 d. assets

Question 3. is a general theory of asset pricing that holds that the expected return of a financial asset can be modeled as a linear function of various macro-economic factors or theoretical market indices, where sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient.

 a. economics

 b. political science

 c. psychology

 d. APT

Question 4. The …………. today should equal the sum of all future cash flows discounted at the APT rate, where the expected return of the asset is a linear function of various factors, and sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient.

 a. physical

 b. asset price

 c. non-cooperative

 d. emotional

Question 5. The arbitrageur sells the asset which is relatively too expensive and uses the proceeds to ………..one which is relatively too cheap.

a. buy

 b. motivation

 c. style

 d. none of the above

Question 6. The theory was proposed by the economist Stephen Ross in 1976.

 a. APT

 b. motivation

 c. style

 d. none of the above

Question 7. The ……….. creates the portfolio by identifying x correctly priced assets (one per factor plus one) and then weighting the assets such that portfolio beta per factor is the same as for the mispriced asset.

 a. physical

 b. cooperative

 c. arbitrageur

 d. shares

Question 8. This ……… has the same exposure to each of the macroeconomic factors as the mispriced asset.

 a. physical

 b. portfolio

 c. non-cooperative

 d. emotional

Question 9. Under the APT, an asset is mispriced if its………diverges from the price predicted by the model.

 a. same

 b. current price

 c. equal

 d. relevant

Question 10. …………..is a general theory of asset pricing that holds that the expected return of a financial asset can be modeled as a linear function of various macro-economic factors or theoretical market indices, where sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient.

 a. APT

 b. motivation

 c. style

 d. none of the above

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5th Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

The Treynor ratio (sometimes called the reward-to-volatility ratio or Treynor measure), named after Jack L. Treynor, is a measurement of the returns earned in excess of that which could have been earned on an investment that has no diversifiable risk (e.g., Treasury bills or a completely diversified portfolio), per each unit of market risk assumed.

The Treynor ratio relates excess return over the risk-free rate to the additional risk taken; however, systematic risk is used instead of total risk. The higher the Treynor ratio, the better the performance of the portfolio under analysis.Like the Sharpe ratio, the Treynor ratio (T) does not quantify the value added, if any, of active portfolio management. It is a ranking criterion only. A ranking of portfolios based on the Treynor Ratio is only useful if the portfolios under consideration are sub-portfolios of a broader, fully diversified portfolio. If this is not the case, portfolios with identical systematic risk, but different total risk, will be rated the same. But the portfolio with a higher total risk is less diversified and therefore has a higher unsystematic risk which is not priced in the market.

An alternative method of ranking portfolio management is Jensen’s alpha, which quantifies the added return as the excess return above the security market line in the capital asset pricing model. As these two methods both determine rankings based on systematic risk alone, they will rank portfolios identically.In finance, Jensen’s alpha (or Jensen’s Performance Index, ex-post alpha) is used to determine the abnormal return of a security or portfolio of securities over the theoretical expected return. It is a version of the standard alpha based on a theoretical performance index instead of a market index.

The security could be any asset, such as stocks, bonds, or derivatives. The theoretical return is predicted by a market model, most commonly the capital asset pricing model (CAPM). The market model uses statistical methods to predict the appropriate risk-adjusted return of an asset. The CAPM for instance uses beta as a multiplier.Jensen’s alpha was first used as a measure in the evaluation of mutual fund managers by Michael Jensen in 1968. The CAPM return is supposed to be ‘risk adjusted’, which means it takes account of the relative riskiness of the asset.

This is based on the concept that riskier assets should have higher expected returns than less risky assets. If an asset’s return is even higher than the risk adjusted return, that asset is said to have “positive alpha” or “abnormal returns”. Investors are constantly seeking investments that have higher alpha.

Since Eugene Fama, many academics believe financial markets are too efficient to allow for repeatedly earning positive Alpha, unless by chance. Nevertheless, Alpha is still widely used to evaluate mutual fund and portfolio manager performance, often in conjunction with the Sharpe ratio and the Treynor ratio.

Question 1: A ranking of portfolios based on the Treynor Ratio is only useful if the portfolios under consideration are sub-portfolios of a broader, …………… portfolio.

 a. collective values,

 b. beliefs

 c. principles of organizational members

 d. fully diversified

Question 2. It is a version of the standard alpha based on a theoretical performance index instead of a market index.

 a. Jensen alpha

 b. leadership

 c. motivation

 d. all

Question 3. Like the ……….. ratio, the Treynor ratio (T) does not quantify the value added, if any, of active portfolio management.

 a. performance optimization

 b. safety engineering

 c. testing

 d. Sharpe

Question 4. The CAPM for instance uses …………. as a multiplier.

 a. beta

 b. leadership

 c. motivation

 d. all

Question 5. The higher the Treynor ratio, the better the performance of the ………… under analysis.

 a. club

 b. seminar

 c. hotel

 d. portfolio

Question 6. The security could be any asset, such as ,…………..

 a. stock

 b. assets

 c. derivatives

 d. all

Question 7. The theoretical return is predicted by a market model, most commonly the …………

 a. capital asset pricing model (CAPM).

 b. different

 c. unequal

 d. relevant

Question 8. The Treynor ratio relates excess return over the ……….

 a. history

 b. product

 c. market

 d. risk-free rate

Question 9. ……………is a measurement of the returns earned in excess of that which could have been earned on an investment that has no diversifiable risk

 a. Treynor ratio

 b. leadership

 c. motivation

 d. all

Question 10. ……………….is used to determine the abnormal return of a security or portfolio of securities over the theoretical expected return.

 a. club

 b. seminar

 c. hotel

 d. Jensen alpha

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Mutual fund executives owe their livelihoods to shareholders, but most treat investors like ordinary customers rather than partners or bosses.

That’s why we get to this time of year and I feel a need to ask fund honchos to give shareholders some meaningful gifts for the holidays. The changes fund firms could make to help shareholders are endless — but I’m not greedy. Every year or two I create a wish list and would gladly settle for just a few upgrades at a time.

Fund companies should fulfill shareholder wishes not because ‘tis the season for it, but because it’s the right thing to do. Regulators know it; in the past, the things I have requested have become reality mostly when some wrongdoing came to light that required a slap on the wrist to the industry. These “reforms” have mostly been about injecting some common sense into the fund-ownership process.Funds provide investment objectives, but that’s a vague statement, more about methods than expectations. Rules prohibit funds from making projections.

But managers and fund directors know the background and they create targets that aren’t shared with the outside world; they understand that they created a fund because they felt they could achieve, say, “above-average results over time horizons of five years and longer.” Fund boards use those kinds of expectations to decide if a manager is doing the job well enough to be rehired, but they also give those managers a lot of slack. Shareholders, however, should be able to see whether the fund is achieving its internal goals. It would let them create clear expectations and measure whether a fund is meeting them.Many times, a fund’s biggest asset to the sponsor is that marketers can sell it, rather than that it can deliver superior performance. In those cases, it’s not in the shareholder’s best interests to keep things going.

Unfortunately, because mediocre funds create something of an annuity for the management company — regularly delivering fees from investors who are inert or simply oblivious to inferior, uninspired results — the fund world is not a meritocracy. Sponsors often keep lousy funds operating for decades.

If a fund doesn’t deserve to survive — if performance is undistinguished and second-rate — kill it off. Merge or liquidate it, but encourage shareholders to find worthwhile investments rather than subjecting them to second-rate, uninspired issues.The Internal Revenue Service does a better job of highlighting changes to tax codes and filing instructions than funds do of notifying shareholders whenever there are changes in the prospectus or operating rules. A simple, highlighted summary of what is new and different this year immediately alerts investors to changes; even if all they do is skim the documents, it enhances their understanding of the fund, and reduces the potential for surprises.

Question 1. A fund’s biggest asset to the ………. is that marketers can sell it

 a. leadership

b. sponsor

 c. style

 d. none of the above

Question 2. Funds provide ………… objectives, but that’s a vague statement, more about methods than expectations.

 a. investment

 b. culture

 c. leadership

 d. motivation

Question 3. it’s not in the ……….. best interests to keep things going.

 a. shareholder’s

 b. Henri Fayol

 c. Chester Barnard

 d. Mary Parker Follet

Question 4. mediocre funds create something of an …………. for the management company

 a. Henri Fayol

 b. annuity

 c. Chester Barnard

 d. Mary Parker Follet

Question 5. Mutual fund executives owe their livelihoods to shareholders, but most treat ………… like ordinary customers rather than partners or bosses.

 a. Henri Fayol

 b. Chester Barnard

 c. Mary Parker Follet

 d. investors

Question 6. Rules prohibit funds from making ………….

 a. social relationships (may be wrong)

 b. job content

 c. projections

 d. all (wrong)

Question 7. Shareholders, however, should be able to see whether the …………is achieving its internal goals.

 a. Lillian Gilbreth

 b. Frank Gilbreth

 c. fund

 d. none of the above

Question 8. Merge or liquidate it, but encourage …….to find worthwhile investments rather than subjecting them to second-rate, uninspired issues.

 a. shareholders

 b. culture

 c. leadership

 d. motivation

Question 9. ……… companies should fulfill shareholder wishes

 a. Fund

 b. Henri Fayol

 c. Chester Barnard

 d. Mary Parker Follet

Question 10. …………… often keep lousy funds operating for decades.

 a. leadership

 b. Sponsors

 c. style

 d. none of the above

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Cost & Management Accounting (EDL 305)-Semester III

Cost & Management Accounting (EDL 305)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Case Study

The general meaning of material is all commodities physical objects used to make the final product. It may be direct or indirect.

(i) Direct Materials: Materials, cost of which can be directly attributable to the end product for which it is being used, in an economically feasible way.

(ii) Indirect Materials: The materials which are not directly attributable to a particular final product.

Material Control is the systematic control over the procurement, storage and usage of materials to maintain even flow of materials and avoiding at the same time excessive investment in inventories.

Illustration:- From the details given below, calculate:

(i) Re-ordering level

(ii) Maximum level

(iii) Minimum level

(iv) Danger level.

Re-ordering quantity is to be calculated on the basis of following information:

•         Cost of placing a purchase order is INR. 20

•         Number of units to be purchased during the year is 5,000

•         Purchase price per unit inclusive of transportation cost is INR.  50

•         Annual cost of storage per units is INR. 5.

Details of lead time:       Average- 10 days, Maximum- 15 days, Minimum-5 days.

                                            For emergency purchases- 4 days.

Rate of consumption:   Average: 15 units per day,

                                         Maximum: 20 units per day.

Question 1. As per given information, Re-ordering level is …………

 a. 300 units

 b. 400 units

 c. 200 units

 d. 250 units

Question 2. Continuous stock taking is a part of

 a. Annual stock taking

 b. Perpetual inventory

 c. ABC analysis

 d. Bin Cards

Question 3. Danger level is ……………

 a. 60 units

 b. 90 units

 c. 100 units

 d. 10 units

Question 4. Direct material can be classified as

 a. Variable cost

 b. Fixed cost

 c. Semi-variable cost

 d. Prime Cost

Question 5. In most of the industries, the most important element of cost is

 a. Material

 b. Labour

 c. Overheads

 d. Administration Cost

Question 6. Maximum level is …………..

 a. 400 units

 b. 300 units

 c. 250 units

 d. 450 units

Question 7. Minimum level is ……………….

 a. 250 units

 b. 150 units

 c. 350 units

 d. 50 units

Question 8. What is the Minimum rate of consumption per day ?

 a. 20 units per day

 b. 10 units per day

 c. 30 units per day

 d. 25 units per day

Question 9. What is the Re-order Quantity (ROQ)?

 a. 200 units

 b. 250 units

 c. 100 units

 d. 300 units

Question 10. Which of the following is considered to be the normal loss of materials?

 a. Loss due to accidents

 b. Pilferage

 c. Loss due to breaking the bulk

 d. Loss due to careless handling of materials

 

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2nd Module Assessment

Case Study

Labour cost is a very important constituent of total cost of any product/services. It is very necessary to account for labour cost properly so that we may able to analyze it and control the avoidable part of labour cost.

The management objective of keeping labour cost as low as possible is achieved by balancing productivity with wages. Low wages do not necessarily mean low labour cost. Low labour cost is possible by giving substantial increase in wages against corresponding increase in productivity.

Overheads are the expenditure which cannot be conveniently traced to or identified with any particular cost unit. Such expenses are incurred for output generally and not for a particular work order e.g., wages paid to watch and ward staff, heating and lighting expenses of factory etc.

Question-1: “Fixed overhead costs are not affected in monetary terms during a given period by a change in output”. But this statement holds good provided

 a. Increase in output is not substantial

 b. Increase in output is substantial

 c. Both (a) and (b)

 d. None of the above

Question 2. Abnormal cost is the cost:

 a. Cost normally incurred at a given level of output

 b. Cost not normally incurred at a given level of output

 c. Cost which is charged to customer

 d. Cost which is included in the cost of the product

Question 3. Identify among the following a scientific and accurate method of factory overhead absorption

 a. Percentage of direct material cost method

 b. Percentage of direct labour cost method

 c. Percentage of prime cost method

 d. Machine hour rate method

Question 4. Identify among the following a scientific and accurate method of factory overhead absorption

 a. Percentage of direct material cost method

 b. Percentage of direct labour cost method

 c. Percentage of prime cost method

 d. Machine hour rate method

Question 5. Labour turnover means:

 a. Turnover generated by labour

 b. Rate of change in composition of labour force during a specified period

 c. Either of the above

 d. Both of the above

Question 6. Overhead refers to:

 a. Direct or Prime Cost

 b. All Indirect costs

 c. only Factory indirect costs

 d. Only expenses

Question 7. The allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units is called

 a. Overhead absorption

 b. Cost apportionment

 c. Cost allocation

 d. None of the above

Question 8. The concept of ‘idle capacity of plant’ as used in cost accounting is its

 a. Best capacity for normal production

 b. Capacity used for standard setting

 c. Theoretical maximum capacity

 d. Capacity below which production should not fall

Question 9. The difference between actual factory overhead and absorbed factory overhead will be usually at the minimum level, provided pre- determined overhead rate is based on

 a. Maximum capacity

 b. Direct labour hours(wrong)

 c. Machine hours

 d. Normal capacity

Question 10. Which of the following is not an avoidable cause of labour turnover:

 a. Dissatisfaction with Job

 b. Lack of training facilities

 c. Low wages and allowances

 d. Disability, making a worker unfit for work

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3rd Module Assessment

Case Study

Marginal costing is not a distinct method of ascertainment of cost but it is a technique which applies existing methods in a particular manner so that the relationship between profit & the volume of output can be clearly brought out. It is an accounting system where only variable cost or direct cost will be charged to the cost units. It concentrates on the controllable aspects of business by separating fixed and variable costs.

Marginal costing is not a separate costing. It is only a technique used by accountants to aid management decision. It is also called as “Direct Costing” in U.S.A. This technique of costing is also known as “Variable Costing”, “Differential Costing” or “Out-of-pocket” costing.

Management Information and Reporting System

Today’s computer age, management information system (i.e. MIS) is becoming popular in the corporate circle for giving quick information to the management. The purpose of MIS is reporting and is to provide the necessary information to managers and supervisors at various levels to help them to discharge their functions of organising, planning, control and decision making.

MIS is a scientific way of collecting; processing, storing and communicating information relating to the various activities of an organisation to the various levels of management so that management may be facilitated in discharging its functions efficiently and run the organisation in an efficient way for the betterment of all.

Question-1: Following information is available of XYZ Limited for quarter ended June, 2013 Fixed cost Rs. 5,00,000; Variable cost Rs. 10 per unit; Selling price Rs. 15 per unit; Output level 1,50,000 units.  What will be amount of profit earned during the quarter using the marginal costing technique?

 a. Rs. 2,50,000

 b. Rs. 10,00,000

 c. Rs. 5,00,000

 d. Rs. 17,50,000

Question 2. Management accounting is applicable to

 a. Service entities

 b. Manufacturing entities

 c. Non profit entities

 d. All of these

Question 3. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for …………………

 a. Shareholders

 b. Creditors

 c. Managers

 d. Regulatory agencies

Question 4. Period costs are

 a. Variable costs

 b. Fixed costs

 c. Prime costs

 d. Overheads costs

Question 5. The main difference between marginal costing and absorption costing is regarding the treatment of

 a. Prime cost

 b. Fixed overheads

 c. Direct materials

 d. Variable overheads

Question 6. Under marginal costing the cost of product includes

 a. Prime costs only

 b. Price costs and variable overheads

 c. Prime costs and fixed overheads

 d. Prime costs and factory overheads

Question 7. under marginal costing:

 a. All costs are classified into two groups – variable and fixed

 b. Variable costs form part of the product cost and inventory valuation

 c. Fixed costs are treated as period costs

 d. All of the above

Question 8. When sales and production (in units) are same then profit under

 a. Marginal costing is higher than that of absorption costing

 b. Marginal costing is lower than that of absorption costing

 c. Marginal costing is equal to that of absorption costing

 d. None of the above

Question 9. When sales exceed production (in units) then profit under

 a. Marginal costing is higher than that of absorption costing

 b. Marginal costing is lower than that of absorption costing

 c. Marginal costing is equal than that of absorption costing

 d. None of above

Question 10. Which of the following is not an internal user of management information?

 a. Creditor

 b. Department manager

 c. Controller

 d. Treasurer

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4th Module Assessment

CASE STUDY-

Organisations, who do not wish to know how much it costs to make a product with precise accuracy, may be happy with traditional costing system. Others however fix their price on cost and need to be able to determine it with reasonable accuracy. The latter organisations have been greatly benefitted from the development of activity based costing (ABC), which is more a modern absorption costing method, and was evolved to give more accurate product costs.

Activity Based Costing is an accounting methodology that assigns costs to activities rather than products or services. This enables resources & overhead costs to be more accurately assigned to products & services that consume them. ABC is a technique which involves identification of cost with each cost driving activity and making it as the basis for apportionment of costs over different cost objects/ jobs/ products/ customersor services.

Question-1: A cost driver is:

 a. An item of production overheads

 b. A common cost which is shared over cost centres

 c. Any cost relating to transport

 d. An activity which generates costs

Question 2. A cost driver:

 a. Is a force behind the overhead cost

 b. Is an allocation base

 c. Is a transaction that is a significant determinant of cost

 d. All of the above

Question 3. In activity based costing, costs are accumulated by activity using:

 a. Cost drivers

 b. Cost objects

 c. Cost pools

 d. Cost benefit analysis

Question 4. In an activity based cost system; an activity/unit of work or task with differentiated purposes will be classified as

 a. different task

 b. purpose cost

 c. an activity

 d. an allocation cost

Question 5. Steps in ABC include:

 a. Identification of activities and their respective costs

 b. “Identification of cost driver of each activity and computation of an allocation rate per activity”

 c. Allocation of overhead cost to products/ services based on the activities involved

 d. All of the above

Question 6. The key elements of activity based budgeting are:

 a. Type of activity to be performed

 b. Quantity of activity to be performed

 c. Cost of activity to be performed

 d. All of the above

Question 7. The steps involved for installation of ABC in a manufacturing company include the following except:

 a. Borrowing fund

 b. Feasibility study

 c. Building up necessary IT infrastructure and training of line employees

 d. Strategy and value chain analysis

Question 8. Transactions undertaken by support department personnel are the appropriate cost drivers. They are:

 a. The number of purchase, supplies and customers’ orders drives the cost associated with new material inventory, work-in-progress and finished goods inventory

 b. The number of production runs undertaken drives production scheduling, inspection and material handling

 c. The quality of raw material issued drives the cost of receiving department costs

 d. The number of packing orders drives the packing costs

Question 9. Which of the following is not a benefit of ABC?

 a. Accurate cost allocation

 b. Improved decision making

 c. Better control on activity and costs

 d. Reduction of prime cost

Question 10. Which of the following statements are true: (1) Activity based Management involves activity analysis and performance measurement. (2) Activity based costing serves as a major source of information in ABM.

 a. (1) True; (2) False

 b. (1) True; (2) True

 c. (1) False; (2) True

 d. (1) False; (2) False

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5th Module Assessment

CASE STUDY-

Budgetary control and standard costing systems are two essential tools frequently used by business executives for the purpose of planning and control. In the case of budgetary control, the entire exercise starts with the setting up of budgets or targets and ends with the taking of an action, in case the actual figures differ with the budgetary ones.

A factory which expects to operate 7,000 hours, i.e., at 70% level of activity, furnishes details of expenses as under:

Variable expenses – INR. 1,260

Semi-variable expenses – INR. 1,200

Fixed expenses – INR.  1,800

The semi-variable expenses go up by 10% between 85% and 95% activity and by 20% above 95% activity. Construct a flexible budget for 80, 90 and 100 per cent activities.

Question-1: “A favourable budget variance is always an indication of efficient performance”. Do you agree, give reason?

 a. A favourable variance indicates, saving on the part of the organization hence it indicates efficient performance of the organization.

 b. “Under all situations, a favourable variance of an organization speaks about its efficient performance.”

 c. “A favourable variance does not necessarily indicate efficient performance, because such a variance might have been arrived at by not carrying out the expenses mentioned in the budget.”

 d. None of the above

Question 2. If a company wishes to establish a factory overhead budget system in which estimated costs can be derived directly from estimates of activity levels, it should prepare a

 a. Master budget

 b. Cash budget

 c. Flexible budget

 d. Fixed budget

Question 3.The budget control organization is usually headed by a top executive who is known as

 a. General manager

 b. Budget director/budget controller

 c. Accountant of the organization

 d. None of the above

Question 4. The classification of fixed and variable cost is useful for the preparation of

 a. Master budget

 b. Flexible budget

 c. Cash budget

 d. Capital budget

Question 5. What are the Fixed Expenses at 90% level of activity?

 a. INR. 1900

 b. INR. 1800

 c. INR. 2000

 d. INR. 1500

Question 6. What are the Semi-Veriable Expenses at 90% level of activity?

 a. INR. 1320

 b. INR. 1200

 c. INR. 1440

 d. INR. 1300

Question 7. What are the Total Expenses at 70% level of activity?

 a. 4,260

 b. 5,000

 c. 5430

 d. 4,000

Question 8. What are the Total Expenses at 80% level of activity?

 a. 4,100

 b. 4,440

 c. 4,200

 d. 4,900

Question 9. What are the Total Expenses at 90% level of activity?

 a. 4,500

 b. 4,320

 c. 4,740

 d. 4,533

Question 10. What are the Veriable Expenses for 80% level of activity?

 a. INR. 1260

 b. INR. 1440

 c. INR. 1800

 d. INR. 1900

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY-

Management of an organisation uses standard costing as a controlling tool for cost control and performance evaluation. Controlling is a principal function of management alongwith planning, directing and staffing. Every organisation sets a goal and to achieve it management of the organisation make plans, get these plans executed and monitor the work for any deviation from the plan. Please note the word deviation.

Deviation means the amount by which a single measurement differs from a fixed value such as the mean or standard (here it is used in the context of cost accounting).Deviation is measured by comparing actual figure with the standard figure.

Standard Costing is a method of costing which measures the performance or an activity by comparing actual cost with standard cost, analyse the variances (deviations) and reporting of variances for investigation and appropriate action.

ILLUSTRATION- NXE Manufacturing Concern furnishes the following information:

Standard:   Material for 70 kg finished products 100 kg.

Standard:   Price of material INR.  1 per kg.

Actual:        Output    2,10,000 kg.

Actual:        Material used 2,80,000 kg.

Actual:        Cost of Materials INR.  2,52,000

Calculate: (a) Material usage variance, (b) Material price variance, (c) Material cost variance.

Question 1. As per given illustration, what is the Standard Quantity of input for actual output?

 a. 3,30,000 kg.

 b. 3,00,000 kg.

 c. 4,00,000 kg.

 d. 2,00,000 kg.

Question 2. The deviations between actual and standard cost is known as

 a. Multiple analysis

 b. Variable cost analysis

 c. Variance analysis

 d. Linear trend analysis

Question 3. The standard most suitable from cost control point of view is

 a. Normal standard

 b. Theoretical standard

 c. Expected standard

 d. Basic standard

Question 4. The standard which is attainable under favourable conditions is

 a. Theoretical standard

 b. Expected standard

 c. Normal standard

 d. Basic standard

Question 5. Under standard cost system the cost of the product determined at the beginning of production is its:

 a. Direct cost

 b. Pre-determined cost

 c. Historical cost

 d. Actual cost

Question 6. What is the actual price of material?

 a. INR. 0.90 per kg.

 b. INR. 0.50 per kg.

 c. INR. 0.30 per kg.

 d. INR. 1.20 per kg.

Question 7. What is the value of Material Cost Variance?

 a. INR. 50,000 (F)

 b. INR. 48, 000 (F)

 c. INR. 45,000 (F)

 d. INR. 40,000 (F)

Question 8. What is the value of Material Price Variance?

 a. INR. 25,000 (F)

 b. INR. 20,000 (F)

 c. INR. 30,000 (F)

 d. INR. 28, 000 (F)

Question 9. What is the value of Material Usage Variance?

 a. INR. 30,000 (F)

 b. INR. 10,000 (F)

 c. INR. 20,000 (F)

 d. INR. 25,000 (F)

Question 10. Which of the following variance arises when more than one material is used in the manufacture of a product

 a. Material price variance

 b. Material usage variance

 c. Material yield variance

 d. Material mix variance

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Customer Relationship Management (EDL 422)-Semester IV

Customer Relationship Management (EDL 422)-Semester IV

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1st Module Assessment

Case Study


“CRM or Customer Relationship Management is a system which aims at improving the relationship with existing customers, finding new prospective customers, and winning back former customers. This system can be brought into effect with software which helps in collecting, organizing, and managing the customer information.

Implementing a CRM strategy is advantageous to both small-scale and large-scale business ventures. If you want to find out what are the benefits of using CRM for your business, then read further to know the key points.

One of the prime benefits of using a CRM is obtaining better customer satisfaction. By using this strategy, all dealings involving servicing, marketing, and selling your products to your customers can be carried out in an organized and systematic way. You can also praovide better services to customers through improved understanding of their issues and this in turn helps in increasing customer loyalty and decreasing customer agitation.In this way, you can also receive continuous feedback from your customers regarding your products and services. It is also possible that your customers recommend you to their acquaintances, when you provide efficient and satisfactory services.

By using a CRM strategy for your business you will be able to increase the revenue of your company to a great extent. Using the data collected, you will be able to popularize marketing campaigns in a more effective way. With the help of CRM software, you can ensure that the product promotions reach a different and brand new set of customers, and not the ones who had already purchased your product, and thus effectively increase your customer revenue.

A CRM system allows up-selling which is the practice of giving customers premium products that fall in the same category of their purchase. The strategy also facilitates cross selling whic his the practice of offering complementary products to customers, on the basis of their previous purchases. This is done by interacting with the customers and getting an idea about their wants, needs, and patterns of purchase. The details thus obtained will be stored in a central database, which is accessible to all company executives. So, when an opportunity is spotted, the executives can promote their products to the customers, thus maximizing up-selling and cross selling.Better internal communication

Following a CRM strategy helps in building up better communication within the company. The sharing of customer data between different departments will enable you to work as a team. This is better than functioning as an isolated entity, as it will help in increasing the company’s profitability and enabling better service to customers.

With the help of CRM, you will be able to understand your customer needs and behavior, thereby allowing you to identify the correct time to market your product to the customers. CRM will also give you an idea about the most profitable customer groups, and by using this information you will be able to target similar prospective groups, at the right time. In this way, you will be able to optimize your marketing resources efficiently. You can also be ensured that you don’t waste your time on less profitable customer groups.”

Question 1. A CRM system allows up-selling which is the practice of giving customers …………products that fall in the same category of their purchase.

 a. premium

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. By using a CRM strategy for your business you will be able to increase the………….. of your company to a great extent.

 a. cost

 b. revenue

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 3. By using this strategy, all dealings involving …………., ……………, and …………. your products to your customers can be carried out in an organized and systematic way.

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. all

Question 4. CRM will also give you an idea about the most profitable ……………., and by using this information you will be able to target similar prospective groups, at the right time.

 a. customer groups

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 5. Following a CRM strategy helps in building up better …………… within the company.

 a. communication

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 6. Implementing a ……………. strategy is advantageous to both small-scale and large-scale business ventures.

 a. HRM

 b. CRM

 c. both

 d. none

Question 7. One of the prime benefits of using a CRM is obtaining better ……….. satisfaction.

 a. customer

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 8. when an opportunity is spotted, the executives can promote their ……….. to the customers, thus maximizing up-selling and cross selling.

 a. customer

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 9. With the help of CRM …….., you can ensure that the product promotions reach a different and brand new set of customers, and not the ones who had already purchased your product, and thus effectively increase your customer revenue.

 a. software

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 10. ………… is a system which aims at improving the relationship with existing customers, finding new prospective customers, and winning back former customers.

 a. CRM or Customer Relationship Management

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

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2nd Module Assessment

Case Study

“There are many ways sales team can build relationship with the customers to generate more repeat sales and here are the top 5 ways to do it:

Customer Satisfaction. This is the first order of business for any organization involved in sales. Keep the customers satisfied. Deliver service beyond your scope to give the customers an unforgettable customer experience. If customers are satisfied with your performance, they will value your service and will be happy to keep giving you repeat sales.

Show and Express Appreciation. Always thank the customer. Most customers are particular in gestures offered by sales personnel. From a company’s standpoint, finding a way to show your company’s appreciation for the customer’s business may be made through a letter or a short note or a little token, which will definitely go a long way. Most successful businesses are not afraid to spend on something for a valued customer.

Build Trust and Keep it. Building trust should start from the initial transaction all the way to the after-sales stage. It’s a constant process of reinforcing the relationship with the customer. If you are able to be honest with the customers about some of the disadvantages of your products, you are likely to gain more credibility in the eyes of the customers. Customers will trust you if they know you are not just after making a sale or closing a deal.

Keep Constant Communication. Customers appreciate sales personnel who go out of their way to inform them if there are price increases forthcoming for the products or services that they are availing from you. Even a simple asking if the customers are satisfied with the products will give the customers the feeling that you are genuinely concerned with how they find your product or service. Keeping them apprised of the latest changes going on at the company like production delays, new models or changes to product specifications, and promotions will be valuable to them.

Be accommodating all the time. Customers love feeling special. Making every customer feel special by instantaneously attending to their needs will trigger their emotions and make them feel important which creates so much appreciation. Working hand-in-hand with your customer will definitely create a happy and lasting relationship.

A successful business or sales organization makes sure that repeat sales are achieved as these boost profits and generate more leads. By constantly building good relationship with the customers, your business is inclined to benefit more from it because the opportunities of making sales out of referrals made by the satisfied customers can just make your sales volume increase and your business grow.

Creating repeat sales is easy if you are willing to go the extra mile in creating good relationship with your clients. Superb service plus quality products are two secret recipes of a successful business. Do remember that satisfied customers will bring in more customers to your business and every individual is a potential client so give quality treatment to people walking in your business.”

Question 1. A successful business or sales ………makes sure that repeat sales are achieved as these boost profits and generate more leads.

 a. organization

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. Creating repeat sales is easy if you are willing to go the extra mile in creating good relationship with your …………….

 a. customer

 b. clients

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 3. Do remember that satisfied ……………. will bring in more customers to your business

 a. customers

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 4. every individual is a potential ………….so give quality treatment to people walking in your business.

 a. client

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 5. If customers are satisfied with your performance, they will value your service and will be happy to keep giving you repeat …………….

 a. HRM

 b. sales

 c. both

 d. none

Question 6. Most customers are particular in gestures offered by …………… personnel.

 a. sales

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 7. This is the first order of business for any organization involved in sales.

 a. Customer satisfaction

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 8. Working hand-in-hand with your customer will definitely create a happy and lasting ………..

 a. cost

 b. relationship

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 9. your business is inclined to benefit more from it because the opportunities of making ………..out of referrals made by the satisfied customers can just make your sales volume increase and your business grow.

 a. sales

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 10. ………. appreciate sales personnel who go out of their way to inform them if there are price increases forthcoming for the products or services that they are availing from you.

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. Customers

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3rd Module Assessment

Case Study

Virtually every business loses some customers, but few ever measure or recognise how many of their customers become inactive. Most businesses, ironically, invest an enormous amount of time, effort and expense building that initial customer relationship. Then they let that relationship go unattended, in some cases even losing interest as soon as the sale been made, or even worse, they abandon the customer as soon as an easily remedied problem occurs, only to have to spend another small fortune to replace that customer. The easiest way to grow your business is not to lose your customers. Once you stop the leakage, it’s often possible to double or triple your growth rate because you’re no longer forced to make up lost ground just to stand still.So many people do an excellent job of making the initial sale, then drop the ball and get complacent, ignoring the customer, while they chase more business. Your selling has actually only just begun when someone makes that initial purchase decision because virtually everyone is susceptible to buyer’s remorse. To lock in that sale, and all of the referrals and repeat business that will flow from it, you need to strike while the iron is hot to allay your customers’ fears and demonstrate by your actions that you really care. You should thank them and remind them again why they’ve made the right decision to deal with you … and put a system in place to sell to them again, and again, constantly proving that they made the right decision.There’s little point in dedicating massive resources to generating new customers when 25-60% of your dormant customers will be receptive to your attempts to regenerate their business if you approach them the right way, with the right offer. Reactivating customers who already know you and your product is one of the easiest, quickest ways to increase your revenues. Re-contacting and reminding them of your existence, finding out why they’re no longer buying, overcoming their objections and demonstrating that you still value and respect them will usually result in a tremendous bounty of sales and drastically increased revenues in a matter of days … and will lead to some of your best and most loyal customers.Avoid losing your customers by building relationships and keeping in touch using a rolling calendar of communications. This is a programmed sequence of letters, events, phone calls, “thank you’s”, special offers, follow-ups, magic moments, and cards or notes with a personal touch etc. that occur constantly and automatically at defined points in the pre-sales, sales and post-sales process. People not only respond to this positively, they really appreciate it because they feel valued and important. It acknowledges them, keeps them informed, offsets post-purchase doubts, reinforces the reason they’re doing business with you and makes them feel part of your business so that they want to come back again and again.               

Question 1. Avoid losing your …………….. by building relationships and keeping in touch using a rolling calendar of communications.

 a. customer

 b. clients

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 2. Most businesses, ironically, invest an enormous amount of time, effort and expense building that initial ………..

 a. HRM

 b. customer relationship

 c. both

 d. none

Question 3. Re-contacting and reminding them of your existence, finding out why they’re no longer buying, overcoming their objections and demonstrating that you still value and respect them will usually result in a tremendous bounty of ……………… and drastically increased revenues in a matter of days

 a. sales

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 4. The easiest way to grow your ……………… is not to lose your customers.

 a. business

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 5. This is a programmed sequence of letters, events, phone calls, “thank you’s”, special offers, follow-ups, magic moments, and cards or notes with a personal touch etc. that occur constantly and automatically at defined points in the …………., sales and post-sales process.

 a. pre-sales

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 6. To lock in that ……………., and all of the referrals and repeat business that will flow from it, you need to strike while the iron is hot to allay your customers’ fears and demonstrate by your actions that you really care.

 a. cost

 b. sale

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 7. Virtually every business loses some customers, but few ever measure or recognise how many of their …………. become inactive.

 a. customers

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 8. Your selling has actually only just begun when someone makes that initial ………………. decision because virtually everyone is susceptible to buyer’s remorse.

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. purchase

Question 9. ………… customers who already know you and your product is one of the easiest, quickest ways to increase your revenues.

 a. Reactivating

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 10. …………. not only respond to this positively, they really appreciate it because they feel valued and important.

 a. People

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

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4th Module Assessment

Case Study


“Supply chain management (SCM) is the active management of supply chain activities to maximize customer value and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage. It represents a conscious effort by the supply chain firms to develop and run supply chains in the most effective & efficient ways possible. Supply chain activities cover everything from product development, sourcing, production, and logistics, as well as the information systems needed to coordinate these activities.

The concept of Supply Chain Management (SCM) is based on two core ideas:

The first is that practically every product that reaches an end user represents the cumulative effort of multiple organizations. These organizations are referred to collectively as the supply chain.

The second idea is that while supply chains have existed for a long time, most organizations have only paid attention to what was happening within their “four walls.” Few businesses understood, much less managed, the entire chain of activities that ultimately delivered products to the final customer. The result was disjointed and often ineffective supply chains.

The organizations that make up the supply chain are “linked” together through physical flows and information flows.

Physical Flows

Physical flows involve the transformation, movement, and storage of goods and materials. They are the most visible piece of the supply chain. But just as important are information flows.

Information Flows

Information flows allow the various supply chain partners to coordinate their long-term plans, and to control the day-to-day flow of goods and materials up and down the supply chain.”   

Question 1. Few businesses understood, much less managed, the entire ………..of activities that ultimately delivered products to the final customer.

 a. chain

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. It represents a conscious effort by the supply chain firms to develop and run supply chains in the most effective & efficient ways possible.

 a. HRM

 b. customer relationship

 c. both

 d. none

Question 3. The first is that practically every product that reaches an end user represents the cumulative effort of multiple …………………

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. organizations

Question 4. The organizations that make up the supply chain are “linked” together through ………. and information flows.

 a. physical flows

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 5. The second idea is that while supply chains have existed for a long time, most ………… have only paid attention to what was happening within their “four walls.”

 a. cost

 b. organizations

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 6. They are the most visible piece of the supply chain.

 a. Physical flows

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 7. ……… activities cover everything from product development, sourcing, production, and logistics, as well as the information systems needed to coordinate these activities.

 a. Supply chain

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 8. ………is the active management of supply chain activities to maximize customer value and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage.

 a. SCM

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 9. ……….. flows allow the various supply chain partners to coordinate their long-term plans, and to control the day-to-day flow of goods and materials up and down the supply chain.

 a. Information

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 10. ………… flows involve the transformation, movement, and storage of goods and materials.

 a. Physical

 b. clients

 c. price

 d. cost

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5th Module Assessment

Case Study


“Companies would never construct their offices without a blueprint. According to Gartner, however, more than 60 percent of companies that have implemented CRM did not have mutually agreed upon goals for their projects prior to the installation. Like a building without a bearing wall, a CRM initiative without goals will collapse.

The project leader must start by crafting a valid business case for CRM before selecting a vendor, upgrading software, or launching a new project. Assemble a cross-functional team to determine specific, measurable goals for the initiative. Areas to consider include automating processes that will improve user productivity and boost customer satisfaction, streamlining marketing and sales processes, giving customer-facing employees access to a 360-degree view of customer information, and supporting contact center agents with the tools to cross-sell and upsell.

After deciding on a project, create a phased implementation plan. Conduct smaller, more manageable implementations that can be completed within 30, 60, or 90 days. “”It’s about getting a quick return on investment,”” says Benjamin Holtz, president and CEO of Green Beacon, a mid-market CRM consultant, in Watertown, MA. Smaller projects also enable customers to change things as they go. Holtz compares it to home remodeling: “”When you remodel a house, once you do the kitchen you might decide you want to do something different with the living room.””

Jim Rubin, CFO of Tripos, which provides computational solutions for drug discovery research, had never been a believer in creating a static business case. His experiences in software systems implementations taught him that a static business plan can pigeonhole an organization into an undesirable situation, he says. Yet, when his CRM consultant convinced him of the benefits of writing a business case at the outset of a CRM project, he gave it a shot. The results changed his view on the matter: “”Doing [the CRM implementation] in stages and demonstrating the benefits to each stage is critical to the success,”” Rubin says.”

Question 1. After deciding on a …………., create a phased implementation plan.

 a. project

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. Areas to consider include automating processes that will improve user productivity and boost …………., streamlining marketing and sales processes, giving customer-facing employees access to a 360-degree view of customer information, and supporting contact center agents with the tools to cross-sell and upsell.

 a. customer satisfaction

 b. price

 c. profit

 d. cost

Question 3. Assemble a cross-functional team to determine specific, measurable ………… for the initiative.

 a. marketing

 b. goals

 c. servicing

 d. selling

Question 4. Companies would never construct their offices without a ………..

 a. HRM

 b. blueprint

 c. none

 d. Financial Management

Question 5. Conduct smaller, more manageable …………. that can be completed within 30, 60, or 90 days.

 a. none

 b. Financial Management

 c. implementations

 d. HRM

Question 6. Doing [the CRM implementation] in stages and demonstrating the benefits to each stage is critical to the ……….

 a. cost

 b. success

 c. product

 d. price

Question 7. more than 60 percent of companies that have implemented ………….. did not have mutually agreed upon goals for their projects prior to the installation.

 a. customer relationship

 b. none

 c. HRM

 d. both

Question 8. Smaller ……….. also enable customers to change things as they go.

 a. price

 b. clients

 c. cost

 d. projects

Question 9. The ,…………..must start by crafting a valid business case for CRM before selecting a vendor, upgrading software, or launching a new project.

 a. project leader

 b. product

 c. cost

 d. price

Question 10. When you remodel a house, once you do the kitchen you might ……….. you want to do something different with the living room.

 a. decide

 b. none

 c. HRM

 d. Financial Management

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Assignment 2

Case Study


“Brand Equity is defined as value and strength of the Brand that decides its worth whereas Customer Equity is defined in terms of lifetime values of all customers.

Brand Equity and Customer Equity have two things in common-

 Both stress on significance of customer loyalty to the brand

 Both stress upon the face that value is created by having as many customers as possible paying as high price as possible.

But conceptually both brand equity and customer equity differ.

 While customer equity puts too much emphasis on lower line financial value got from the customers, brand equity attempts to put more emphasis on strategic issues in managing brands.

 Customer Equity is less narrow alternative. It can overlook a brands optional value and their capacity effect revenues and cost beyond the present marketing environment.

 Just as customer equity can persist without brand equity, brand equity may also exist without customer equity. For instance I may have positive attitude towards brands – McDonald and Burger King, but I may only purchase from McDonald’s brand consistently.

To conclude, we can say brands do not exist without consumer and consumer do not exist without brands. Brands serve as a temptation that utilizes other intermediaries to lure the customers from whom value is extracted. Customers serve as a profit-medium for brands to encash their brand value. Both the concepts are highly co-related.”

Question 1. Brands serve as a temptation that utilizes other intermediaries to lure the ………… from whom value is extracted.

 a. customers

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. It can overlook a brands optional value and their capacity effect revenues and cost beyond the present marketing environment.

 a. cost

 b. customer equity

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 3. ……. equity may also exist without customer equity.

 a. brand

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 4. …….. equity can persist without brand equity

 a. customer

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 5. ………. Equity is less narrow alternative.

 a. Customer

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 6. ………. is defined in terms of lifetime values of all customers.

 a. HRM

 b. Customer Equity

 c. both

 d. none

Question 7. ……….. is defined as value and strength of the Brand that decides its worth

 a. Brand Equity

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 8. ………… puts too much emphasis on lower line financial value got from the customers

 a. customer equity

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 9. ………….. attempts to put more emphasis on strategic issues in managing brands.

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. brand equity

Question 10. ………….. do not exist without consumer and consumer do not exist without brands.

 a. brands

 b. clients

 c. price

 d. cost

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Advertising & Sales Management (EDL 420)-Semester IV

Advertising & Sales Management (EDL 420)-Semester IV

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1st Module Assessment

Case Study

Use of Children in Advertising

I think children should have more time with their parents and friends. They need to learn to get along with others and also broaden their social circle. Moreover, I think the children’s childhood should be carefree, but not just shoot for a long time. If they shoot for a long time, it will affect their physical development. Furthermore, children want to become modal in the future, so the will not focus on learning. So, they do not want to go to school. If they go to school, they will not have any friends at school. This is because most of their time use for shooting, there are no time for they make friends with other. In addition, because of the television advertisements, children may drop their confidence in the future. For example, Celine Yeung is a children’s model. In 2005, Celine Yeung took the opportunity to launch a photo album. Which actually there are open legs and exposed underwear photo in the bed, accused of poor consciousness. Although she is small, does not know what happen. But when she grow up, she will knows about it. Because of the social discussion, she may drops her confidence. In conclusion, I think the children should not be allowed to get involved in advertisements. This is because it will affect both physical and mental development.

Question 1. Adversiting has all the impact except

 a. Mental

 b. Economic

 c. Social

 d. Physical

Question 2. Impact of use of children and women in advertising

 a. Negative

 b. Positive

 c. No Impact

 d. Informative

Question 3. In which ways is ad agency remunerated

 a. Commission

 b. All of these

 c. Fees

 d. Sales based

Question 4. The most critical change in advertising

 a. Expanding of online platforms

 b. None of these

 c. Transformation of consumers

 d. Print media platforms increasing

Question 5. The most important aspect while selecting the ad agency

 a. None of these

 b. Compatibility in vision and objective

 c. People

 d. Remuneration

Question 6.What can be termed as the main objective of advertising

 a. Develop awareness

 b. To generate interest

 c. All of these

 d. Kindle desire to buy

Question 7. What is the main role of Ad agency

 a. Informing about the pricing

 b. Sell the product

 c. Build competitors

 d. Develop the ad campaign and buy media

Question 8. Which advertisement is most comonly used

 a. Rational

 b. Data based

 c. Informative

 d. Emotional

Question 9. Which are the most commonly used media for advertising

 a. All of these

 b. Print

 c. Broadcast

 d. Online

Question 10. Which is the closest definiton of advertising

 a. Media Pitch

 b. Promotion method

 c. Communication media

 d. Paid form of non personal communication

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2nd Module Assessment

Case Study

This classic brand has been reminding us to “Drink Coca-Cola” since 1886 and now encourages millions around the world to “Open Happiness” every day. One thing that has remained constant throughout the history of Coke is the innovative marketing campaigns that have launched and re-launched the brand and its product to the world. Coca-Cola advertising history is filled with famous marketing campaigns that rank among some of the most effective in the world. Last June, Coke launched its “Share A Coke” campaign in the U.S., using 250 of the most common U.S. millennial names to market its product to individual consumers. The campaign seems to have been a huge success with U.S. audiences, gaining significant traction in the short amount of time the ad has been running here. According to the Wall Street Journal, more than 125,000 social media posts referenced the “Share A Coke” campaign between June and July of 2014, and 12% of online conversations about Coca-Cola in that time can be attributed to the campaign. What’s more, over 353,000 virtual bottles of coke have been shared via Coke’s campaign-specific website. We can also see the success of this campaign when we look at data for the Coca-Cola brand in Google Trends. After being launched in the U.S., the campaign earned an increasing amount of attention. The search term “share a coke” saw a significant increase in U.S.-based Google searches in the short, three-month time lapse from June to August.

Question 1. The best method used for ad agency remuneration is

 a. Fees

 b. Fees plus commission

 c. Only Commission

 d. None of these

Question 2. The main factor impacting the budgeting method is

 a. Objectives to be achieved

 b. Resources of the company

 c. Past expenditure on advertising

 d. None of these

Question 3. The selection of the ad agency depends upon

 a. Past Work and Success

 b. Reputation in the market

 c. Relationship with main company

 d. Fees and payment

Question 4. What are the main themes of advertising campaigns

 a. Reputation building

 b. Brand Launch

 c. Developing Sales and initial awareness

 d. All of these

Question 5. What are the roles of the advertising agency for the parent organization

 a. Developing the creative brief

 b. Launching the brand in the market

 c. Undertaking consumer research

 d. All of these

Question 6. What is not the main function of the advertising agency

 a. Developing the vision for the ad campaign

 b. Creating the advertising brief

 c. Identifying and buying media space

 d. Developing the visual and print copy

Question 7. What is the most important factor in developing relation between company and ad agency

 a. Compatibility

 b. Results for the brand

 c. Remuneration

 d. None of these

Question 8. Which is the most important funtion of the advertising department

 a. Develop advertising campaign

 b. Coordinate with advertising agency

 c. Sales promotion

 d. None of these

Question 9. Which is the most universally used advertising appeal

 a. Rational

 b. Emotional

 c. Informative

 d. None of these

Question 10. Whis is the most widely used budgeting method for advertising

 a. Objective Task Method

 b. Top Bottom method

 c. Bottom Top approach

 d. None of these

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3rd Module Assessment

Case Study

This case is about the various advertising campaigns undertaken by Cadbury Dairy Milk at different points of time to achieve certain objectives. Cadbury was the market leader in chocolates in India and it also was a very popular brand which enjoyed the trust of its consumers. It already had a market share of around 70% in 2011 in chocolates with its flagship brand Cadbury Dairy Milk alone having around 30 % of the share of the Indian chocolate market. The company had come a long way since the 1990s when Indian consumers associated Diary Milk as a product meant for children. To change this, Cadbury came up with a series of campaigns to target the adult group, starting with the ‘Real taste of life’ campaign, to encourage people to bring out the child in them.

Then they moved on to social acceptance theme with the line- ‘Those who want to eat, will find a reason for it’. Through this, Dairy Milk was able to gain an acceptance for chocolates among the adult audiences for consumption. It even won a lot of awards for its campaigns which went on to become a huge success; like the ‘Real Taste of Life’ campaign. After this, Dairy Milk sought to achieve the difficult objective of replacing the traditional Indian sweets and desserts with their chocolates. For this, Cadbury ran various campaigns under ‘Kuch meetha ho jaye’ (Let’s have something sweet), including two campaigns parallelly – ‘Shubh Aarambh’ (Auspicious beginning) and ‘Meethe mein kuch meetha ho jaye’ (Let’s have something sweet for dessert). The common thing for all the advertising campaigns was that they focused on the Indian customs and traditions and yet they gave it a modern and contemporary look to connect with all the people. Besides this, they also used a 360 degree campaign to support the television advertising campaigns, even as their rivals Nestle gave them tough competition with aggressive marketing and even directly taking on Cadbury’s advertising campaign message. But many industry observers doubted the effectiveness of Cadbury’s efforts and their ability to replace the traditional sweets and the traditional dessert items which had been a long part of the Indian traditions. This case is meant for MBA students as a part of the Consumer Behavior/ Marketing Communication/ International Marketing curriculum.

Then they moved on to social acceptance theme with the line- ‘Those who want to eat, will find a reason for it’. Through this, Dairy Milk was able to gain an acceptance for chocolates among the adult audiences for consumption. It even won a lot of awards for its campaigns which went on to become a huge success; like the ‘Real Taste of Life’ campaign. After this, Dairy Milk sought to achieve the difficult objective of replacing the traditional Indian sweets and desserts with their chocolates. For this, Cadbury ran various campaigns under ‘Kuch meetha ho jaye’ (Let’s have something sweet), including two campaigns parallelly – ‘Shubh Aarambh’ (Auspicious beginning) and ‘Meethe mein kuch meetha ho jaye’ (Let’s have something sweet for dessert). The common thing for all the advertising campaigns was that they focused on the Indian customs and traditions and yet they gave it a modern and contemporary look to connect with all the people. Besides this, they also used a 360 degree campaign to support the television advertising campaigns, even as their rivals Nestle gave them tough competition with aggressive marketing and even directly taking on Cadbury’s advertising campaign message. But many industry observers doubted the effectiveness of Cadbury’s efforts and their ability to replace the traditional sweets and the traditional dessert items which had been a long part of the Indian traditions. This case is meant for MBA students as a part of the Consumer Behavior/ Marketing Communication/ International Marketing curriculum.

Then they moved on to social acceptance theme with the line- ‘Those who want to eat, will find a reason for it’. Through this, Dairy Milk was able to gain an acceptance for chocolates among the adult audiences for consumption. It even won a lot of awards for its campaigns which went on to become a huge success; like the ‘Real Taste of Life’ campaign. After this, Dairy Milk sought to achieve the difficult objective of replacing the traditional Indian sweets and desserts with their chocolates. For this, Cadbury ran various campaigns under ‘Kuch meetha ho jaye’ (Let’s have something sweet), including two campaigns parallelly – ‘Shubh Aarambh’ (Auspicious beginning) and ‘Meethe mein kuch meetha ho jaye’ (Let’s have something sweet for dessert). The common thing for all the advertising campaigns was that they focused on the Indian customs and traditions and yet they gave it a modern and contemporary look to connect with all the people. Besides this, they also used a 360 degree campaign to support the television advertising campaigns, even as their rivals Nestle gave them tough competition with aggressive marketing and even directly taking on Cadbury’s advertising campaign message. But many industry observers doubted the effectiveness of Cadbury’s efforts and their ability to replace the traditional sweets and the traditional dessert items which had been a long part of the Indian traditions.

Question 1: Copy is the

 a. Visual in the ad

 b. Written part in the ad

 c. Logo and symbols

 d. None of these

Question 2. Copy writing needs to be good on

 a. Creativity

 b. Relevant

 c. Meaningful

 d. All of these

Question 3. Creativity in advertising consists of

 a. Having different appraoch

 b. Having creative and out of the box visual and appeal

 c. Having different roles of media

 d. None of these

Question 4. Interactive online media consists of

 a. Website

 b. Affiliate marketing

 c. Social Media tools

 d. None of these

Question 5. Media planning and creativity have to used

 a. In Compatibility

 b. Differently

 c. One after the other

 d. None of these

Question 6. Media planning undertaken by the media department comprises of

 a. Placing the brand’s ad campaign in various media

 b. Making the ad

 c. Formulating the consumer profile

 d. Doing the consumer research

Question 7. Media Scheduling comprises of the following

 a. Buying media space

 b. Placing the ads in various media

 c. Buying air space and time

 d. All of these

Question 8. The main difference between print and broadcast media is

 a. Audience

 b. Platform

 c. Campaign

 d. None of these

Question 9. Which is not part of broadcast media

 a. Television

 b. Radio

 c. Transit media

 d. DTH Media

Question 10. Why is measuring advertising effectiveness important

 a. To get the desired results

 b. To get the ROI on advertising expenditure

 c. To know the ad agency’s work

 d. None of these

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4th Module Assessment

For an FMCG product what would be the most appropriate method

Case Study

The Head of Sales at Tata Steel, responsible for the product promotion activities of Galvanised Corrugated (GC) sheets of Tata Shaktee, was mulling over how he would allocate the Product promotion budget across the various product promotion activities. Targeting primarily a rural segment, the Tata Shaktee brand was engaged in a number of below the line promotional activities. He wanted to find out the effectiveness of each product promotion activity so that he could allocate the budget according to this. Ujjwal Desai (Desai), Head – Sales Retail at Tata Steel Limited (Tata Steel), was responsible for product promotion activities for the Galvanised Corrugated (GC) sheets of Tata Shaktee. The Tata Shaktee brand of Tata Steel was known for the high degree of trust and loyalty it commanded and its price dependability. Desai had a budget of Rs. 3.72 million which had to be allocated to various promotional activities for the brand in the Jharkhand region in proportion to their effectiveness. In other words, Desai wanted to design a strategy which would help the company increase the sales of its GC sheets by allocating the appropriate budget to promotional activities which were preferred by dealers and customers.

Toward this end, he enlisted the services of a management intern. The intern’s assignment was to conduct market research on the effectiveness of the product promotion activities for Tata Shaktee GC sheets in Jharkhand. He had to survey the dealers and report back to Desai with his findings and recommendations.

The Tata Group, which was founded by Jamsetji Tata in 1868, had grown to comprise over 100 companies in seven business sectors – communications and information technology, engineering, materials, services, energy, consumer products, and chemicals. Initially inspired by the spirit of nationalism, the group had pioneered several industries of national importance in India – steel, power, hospitality, and airlines. As of early 2012, the major Tata companies were Tata Steel, Tata Motors, Tata Consultancy Services, Tata Power, Tata Chemicals, Tata Global Beverages, Tata Teleservices, Titan, Tata Communications, and Indian Hotels.

The group had operations in 80 countries across the globe, and its companies exported products and services to 85 countries. It had revenues of US$100.09 billion in 2011-12. The Tata companies employed over 425,000 people worldwide. The Tata Group’s contribution to the Indian exchequer for the year 2011-12 was US$7.72 billion out of the total US$265.09 billion. Each enterprise in the Tata Group operated independently, with its own board of directors and shareholders.

Tata Steel, one of the important group companies, accounted for nearly 28% of the revenues of the Tata Group. It was among the top ten global steel companies with a crude steel production capacity of 27 million tonnes per annum (MTPA). Tata Steel was the world’s second most geographically diversified steel producer, employing around 80,000 people across five continents in nearly 50 countries. Established in 1907, Tata Steel had grown to become the world’s second most geographically-diversified steel producer, with operations in 26 countries and a commercial presence in over 50 countries. Tata Steel‘s Jamshedpur (Jharkhand, India) plant had a crude steel production capacity of 6.8 MTPA, which was slated to increase further in the subsequent years. The company also had proposed three Greenfield steel projects in the states of Jharkhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh in India with an additional capacity of 23 MTPA and a Greenfield project in Vietnam…

Over the years, Tata Steel had altered the landscape of the roofing industry in India. The company was considered a pioneer in the field of manufacturing superior quality Galvanized Corrugated (GC) sheets. Manufactured with world class technology, the company contended that its Tata Shaktee GC sheets were not only stronger but they were also longer-lasting than other GC sheets in their class. Tata Shaktee GC sheets were made from virgin steel processed at Tata Steel’s state-of-the-art cold rolling mill…

Life has three imperatives to sustain itself: food, clothing, and shelter. While a debate may rage regarding which of these is the more critical, there can be no debate on the importance of shelter. Roofing provides protection to the other two. The choice of roofing – thatched, tiled, aluminum, concrete, or galvanized corrugated (GC) – is determined on the basis of weather conditions in the region and economic factors. GC sheets are the usual roofing of choice for cattle sheds, warehouses, grain storage, and often for residential applications. Some part of the total production of GC sheets also goes into industrial roofing, government projects, etc…

Krish’s report was in front of Desai. It also included a set of recommendations. Desai acknowledged that while Tata Steel had the upper hand compared to its closest rivals, the study also revealed that the company was lagging behind rival brands in a few aspects primarily due to some lacunae in its promotional activities. Based on the results, Krish also proposed how the Rs. 3.72 million budget available to be spent on promotion activities could be allocated to the promotion activities in proportion to their effectiveness …

Question 1: For an FMCG product what would be the most appropriate method

 a. Introductory offers and discounts

 b. Samples

 c. BOGOF

 d. None of these

Question 2. Problems being faced by sales promotion campaign

 a. Planning and execution issues

 b. Low ROI

 c. Low response

 d. All of these

Question 3. The main focus of sales promotion is

 a. Cash to customer

 b. Motivation to buy

 c. Free samples and freebies

 d. More than competitor

Question 4. The modern day promotional methods needs to be based on

 a. Resources of the company

 b. Vision of the company

 c. Marketing manager view

 d. Overall Advertising strategy

Question 5. What is the main focus of cross promotion

 a. To promote different products of the same cmpany

 b. To develop cross products

 c. Cross to other competitor territory

 d. None of these

Question 6. What is the most critical objective of sales promotion

 a. Brand building

 b. Launching a new product

 c. Earning immediate sales

 d. None of these

Question 7. Which factor can gurantee success of sales promotion campaign

 a. Planning and implementing it well

 b. Compatibility with overall advertising strategy

 c. Making it similar to advertising

 d. None of these

Question 8. Which is not a kind of Sales promotion method

 a. Consumer Oriented

 b. Trade oriented

 c. Channel oriented

 d. Marketing oriented

Question 9. Which tools are used in consumer directed sales promotion method

 a. Samples

 b. Discounts

 c. Cash prize

 d. All of these

Question 10. Why sales promotion campaigns succeed or fail

 a. Wrong planning

 b. Mismatch between customer expectation and promotion method

 c. Spending more money

 d. Using too many tools

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5th Module Assessment

Case Study

Red Bull currently has very successful marketing and advertising efforts. However, it currently does not have a great female presence. Additionally, Red Bull’s competitors are gaining more Market Share in their category. We have been given the task to create a Campaign and IMC plan that will help Red Bull increase sales by 5% in the 2016 fiscal year.

PRIMARY OBJECTIVES >Increase positive brand perception among 18-24 year olds. >Increase product purchase consideration among 18-24 year old. >Establish Red Bull as the #1 energy drink for college-ages students. SECONDARY OBJECTIVES >Increase brand awareness for females by 15% >Increase product purchase for females 20%

Red Bull’s competitors, primarily Monster, have been flooding the market and gaining a high percentage of loyal consumers within the college-aged demographic. We hope to regain market share with this key demographic, which is valuable to Red Bull as an energy drink company. If we do nothing, then our competitors will continue to capitalize on this market and Red Bull will be out of sight and out of mind of college-aged consumers. Furthermore, Red Bull has a shockingly low female index rating. We hope to craft a gender-neutral message that appeals to women without isolating our current brand loyalists.

Our target market are college students and everyone aged 18- 24. We will target our demographic on college campuses and in major cities. Our target is hard working, and enjoys sporting events and extreme sports. Our target enjoys drinking alcohol at bars or sporting events, and it is popular for them to mix Red Bull with their alcoholic drinks. Furthermore, our target is athletes that need an extra physical or mental boost. Geographically speaking, Red Bull is very evenly distributed across the country.

ELEMENTS > Advertising > Public Relations > Event Sponsorship OVERALL TARGET AUDIENCE > Males and females 18-24 OVERALL BUDGET $66,530,000

Advertising is the most effective way to reach our target. Our media slots have the highest index rating with our target audience, and we will target a large amount of our audience in a very effective way. Essentially all of our promotions and campaign rely on advertising to succeed. Therefore, it is not only the most important element of IMC that we will use, but hopefully the most successful.

We are sponsoring Bonnaroo. Hailed as one of the top music festivals in the world, Bonnaroo is a prime festival for those within our age target. The Bonnaroo brand, and the image of music festivals in itself, is a fine complement to Red Bull’s image. Additionally, we will sponsor women’s sports and the X-games to help achieve our secondary objectives of reaching women. We will also help with the I Heart Radio Festival and sponsor select college football games.

Through the duration of our campaign, we will pay a PR firm monthly to manage Red Bull’s publicity – both from sponsored events and advertisements. They will be responsible for contacting buzz blogs and websites and keeping them informed with our events and marketing efforts. Because of the recent lawsuits against Red Bull’s previous slogans, they will also be handling any possible damage control.

Red Bull currently has an app that connects users with “stories that fuel your inspiration.” Consumers can browse through images of action sports, follow Red Bull sponsored athletes, and watch videos of events like Red Bull Flugtag. We propose that Red Bull introduce a points system that combines its product with its app and awards consumers for their purchases. Consumers can either scan their can or enter a code into the app and receive points based on the size and quantity purchased. For newer products that Red Bull is introducing to the market, such as Orange, Cherry and college edition cans, users can receive more points. In addition, some codes (approximately 1/25) will be deemed “Lucky Bull” codes and consumers will be able to redeem a free 12 ounce can.

Question 1: Event marketing success is based on

 a. Match between target audience and the objective of the event

 b. Resources spent on the event

 c. Employee training and improvement

 d. None of these

Question 2. For new product launches the best platform for sports drink would be

 a. Online platform

 b. Road shows

 c. Concerts and events

 d. None of these

Question 3. Surrogate advertising is most useful in the case of

 a. Undesirable products

 b. Youth related products

 c. Products that have lost their consumer

 d. None of these

Question 4. The biggest challenge for direct marketing tools for Red Bull is

 a. Low response rate

 b. Youth distraction

 c. Inefficient positioning

 d. None of these

Question 5. The most important component of Social media for Red Bull is

 a. Face Book

 b. Twitter

 c. Instagram

 d. None of these (wrong)

Question 6. The social media plan of Red Bull

 a. Is complete from all dimensions

 b. To develop positive attitude among female consumers

 c. To increase make engagement with the brand

 d. Improve customer loyalty

Question 7. What is the main purpose of IMC Plan

 a. Develop an integrated marketing plan for better customer acquisition

 b. To attract more consumers

 c. To increae sales

 d. None of these

Question 8. What was the main objective of Public Relations for Red Bull

 a. To change public attitude

 b. To develop positive image among females

 c. To beat the competitors

 d. All of these

Question 9. What was the main problem being faced by Red Bull

 a. Female audience

 b. Male audience

 c. Children

 d. None of these

Question 10. Which events can be successfully targetted by Red Bull

 a. Music and sports linked

 b. Arts and Culture

 c. Social Service

 d. Old age related

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Assignment 2

Case Study

This case is about Unilever’s “Campaign for Real Beauty” (CFRB) marketing campaign for its leading personal care brand ‘Dove’. CFRB was a multi-faceted campaign that sought to challenge the stereotypes set by the beauty industry.This campaign featured regular women (non-models) who were beautiful in their own way and did not fit in with the idealized images of models, super-models, and celebrities.

Unilever developed the CFRB campaign based on a global study on the perceptions and attitudes of women with regard to their personal beauty and well-being. This campaign was a huge success as it was appreciated by many consumers and resulted in increased sales of Dove products. It also generated plenty of buzz and wide media coverage for the Dove brand.

In June 2005, consumer products major Unilever launched an ad campaign in the US for its Dove Intensive Firming range of products. This campaign, which featured regular women (non-models), was part of Dove’s “Campaign for Real Beauty” (CFRB). According to the company, the main purpose of CFRB was to challenge the stereotypes set by the beauty industry over the years.

The CFRB was launched as a global campaign by Unilever in 2004 to promote its Dove range of personal care products. The stated aim of the campaign was to act as a catalyst to broaden the definition of beauty and encourage discussion about its aspects.

Unilever’s consumer research studies had indicated that beauty advertising was out of sync with its consumers. Beauty advertisers bombarded consumers with idealized images of models, super-models and celebrities, which left the consumers feeling bad about their own body image and hurt their self-esteem. These insights prompted Unilever to launch a campaign in the early part of 2004 in Europe featuring non-models……….

As of 2005, Dove was the world’s largest cleansing brand with annual sales of €2.5 billion in more than 80 countries. Dove’s product portfolio included soap bars, body washes, face care products, antiperspirant/deodorants, hair care products, and styling aids.

Dove was a very important part of Unilever’s brand portfolio and the only big brand in personal care that was showing a double digit growth. In 2005, the personal care segment accounted for 26% of the group’s turnover and 34% of operating profits

Unilever developed the formula for the Dove Soap Bar in 1940. During World War II, it was used for cleaning wounds before treatment. It did not irritate the skin and became recognized as a mild soap. In the 1950s, the formula was further refined and the original Dove Beauty Bar was developed. It was launched in the market in the 1960s. In the 1970s, Dove’s popularity increased as an independent clinical dermatological study proved that Dove Beauty Bar was milder than 17 other leading soap brands at that time.

In early 2004, Dove conducted a global study on the perceptions and attitudes of women with regard to their personal beauty and well-being. The study was done in partnership with StrategyOne and in collaboration with Nancy Etcoff (Etcoff) and the Massachusetts General Hospital/Harvard University Program in Aesthetics and Well Being, and Susie Orbach (Orbach) of the London School of Economics.

The study surveyed around 3,200 women from 10 countries (Argentina, Brazil, Canada, France, Italy, Japan, Netherlands, Portugal, the UK, and the US), in the age group of 18 to 64. According to the findings, published in a report titled, “The Real Truth about Beauty: A Global Report,” only 2% of the women surveyed considered themselves as “beautiful,” while only 9% felt comfortable describing themselves as “attractive

Question 1. Advertising budget is generally based on

 a. Past data

 b. Competitors budget

 c. Resources of the company

 d. All of these

Question 2. Media plan is related to

 a. Medis of the company

 b. Combination of medias where the ad would be released

 c. Developing a new media

 d. None of these

Question 3. Sales promotion can be categorized into

 a. Consumer related only

 b. Business Related only

 c. Consumer and trade related

 d. None of these

Question 4. The method used measuring the advertising effectiveness is

 a. DAGMAR

 b. DAGAR

 c. DAMGAR

 d. None of these

Question 5. The most important aspect of developing the ad is

 a. Consumer profile and research

 b. Ad agency

 c. Money

 d. Industry trends

Question 6. Types of advertisement are

 a. Emotional

 b. Rational

 c. Informative

 d. All of these

Question 7. What is not a important component of IMC

 a. Digital Media

 b. Public Relations

 c. Direct marketing

 d. None of these

Question 8. What is the main purpose of advertising

 a. To build awareness and interest in the brand

 b. To enhace sales

 c. To correc any problem

 d. None of these

Question 9. What is the role of creativity in advertising and sales promotion

 a. To identify the brand

 b. To position the brand as a unique and different product

 c. To build customer loyalty

 d. None of these

Question 10. What research did the advertising agency did for Dove new campaign

 a. About the brand

 b. About female consumers psychology

 c. Competitors products

 d. All of these

10 on 10 J

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