Accommodation Management

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Accommodation Management

1 .Describe the importance of Housekeeping in Hospitality Operations?
2 .What are the Duties & Responsibilities of Housekeeping Staff?
3 .Explain in your own words the need and importance of hotels.
4 .Explain the procedures of Cleaning: Guest Room, Vacant Room, over stayed room, VIP room
5 .What are cleaning agents? What are its various types?
6 .What are the Eco friendly practices used by the Hotels? Discuss with examples
7 .State the guiding principles in the key control system.
8 .What are consisted in Standard Rooms? Also mention the room facilities available in Standard room type.

Case Detail:
Q1. Discuss the history behind the interior designing.
Q2. Discuss the top key elements used by interior designer in designing the hotel
Q3. Explain the different types of flower arrangements done in the hotel.

Question No. 1
—————————-are smaller independent non-branded hotels that often contain upscale facilities

a. Extended Stay Hotel
b. Economy Hotel
c. Motels
d. Boutique hotels

Question No. 2
The ……………… is usually designed to open one specific lock.

a. Grand Master key
b. Master Key
c. Bow
d. Blade

Question No. 3
……………..Mattresses is the good value for money and is a cost effective way of buying a quality mattress due to the low production cost.

a. Memory
b. Coil Sprung
c. Pocket & Memory Foam
d. Pocket Sprung

Question No. 4
…………….. mattresses are naturally hypo-allergenic and dustmite resistant which make them great for those who suffer from allergies

a. Pocket Sprung Mattresses
b. Memory Foam
c. Latex Foam
d. Digital Air Mattresses

Question No. 5
The most luxury suite, where you receive everything. The best possible furnishing and decoration are used in this room.

a. Presidential Suite
b. Private Suite
c. VIP Suite
d. None of the above

Question No. 6
A ___________ is a small-sized low-rise lodging establishment similar to that of a limited service hotel, but with direct access to individual rooms from the car park.

a. Hotel
b. Motel
c. Guest House
d. None of the above

Question No. 7
A hotel is an establishment that provides ________ paid on a short-term basis

a. Hotel
b. Motel
c. Lodging
d. None of the above

Question No. 8
A key is a device which is used to open a lock. A typical key consist of _____ parts.

a. 3 Parts
b. 4 Parts
c. 2 Parts
d. None of the above

Question No. 9
Key operates all locks in the Hotel, Including laundry and linen rooms.

a. Magnetic key
b. Ruler Key
c. Grand Master Key
d. None of the above

Question No. 10
The …………. act as a guide that provides the manager with the standards, by which they can measure the success of operation.

a. Data
b. Budget
c. A critical management function
d. None of the above

Question No. 11
These allocate the use of capital assets that life span considerably in access of one year; these are assets that are not normally used up in day to day operation.

a. Capital Budget
b. Monthly Budget
c. Customer requirements
d. None of the above

Question No. 12
Hotel budgets are impacted by a variety of factors, such as seasonality, events, labor and _____________

a. Customer
b. Competition
c. Warehouses
d. None of the above

Question No. 13
The aim of all Hotels or establishments that offer accommodation is to provide their customers with ________________and welcoming surroundings that offer value for money.

a. Merchandising
b. clean, attractive, comfortable
c. Customer loyalty
d. Window display

Question No. 14
________ are greatly influenced by the flow of business and leisure guests who travel around the world to attend conferences and major events or just to rest and relax.

a. Hotels
b. Merchandise storage
c. Investment
d. None of the above

Question No. 15
Organizational Chart provides transparency to employees at all levels.

a. False
b. True
c. Justified
d. None of the above

Question No. 16
Item budgeting is another important activity in ________ budgeting

a. Operational budgeting.
b. Warehouse budgeting
c. Purchases
d. All of the above

Question No. 17
The layout style mainly differs from hotel to hotel and primarily dependent on its space & size _________

a. limitations
b. Economy
c. Scenario
d. All of the above

Question No. 18
The ___________________is responsible for conducting training sessions on handling emergency situations for the staff.e.g they conduct fire drill to train staff to gear up in a fire emergency.

a. Finance department
b. Sales Promotion Team
c. Security department
d. All of the above

Question No. 19
A ………… job was to act as a link between Hotels and the Customers.

a. Customer’s
b. Mediator’s
c. Expert’s
d. Planner’s

Question No. 20
In the history of Laundry, it was first done in?

a. Watercourses
b. Washhouses
c. Both a & b
d. None of a & b

Question No. 21
The material that is being washed, or has been laundered is also generally referred to as?

a. Steaming
b. Drycleaning
c. Laundry
d. Pressing

Question No. 22
In the 1930s …….was introduced and is used today in many drycleaning plants.

a. Ethane
b. Phosphates
c. Silicones
d. percholoroethylene

Question No. 23
…………………. prevent dyes from one article from colouring other items

a. Antiredeposition agents
b. Dye transfer inhibitors
c. Carboxymethyl
d. counteracting foam

Question No. 24
The ………………… is essentially a part of linen room operations and may be located in the linen or uniform room or serve both these areas

a. Washhouses
b. Uniform Room
c. Linen Room
d. Sewing Room

Question No. 25
The length of the cleaning cycle is dependant upon the type of article cleaned and the degree of ____________

a. Washhouses
b. Uniform Room
c. Soiling
d. None of the above

Question No. 26
____________________ machines are rated in pounds of fabric (dry weight) the machine can hold.

a. Dry cleaning
b. Dish washer
c. Cleaning agent
d. None of the above

Question No. 27
__________ agents and laundry detergents can also affect human health considerably.

a. Laundry
b. Distance
c. Cleaning agent
d. None of the above

Question No. 28
Valuables will be stored for the period of 6 months, if the item is not claimed it will be handed over to the finder on an Employee Package pass

a. True
b. False
c. A critical management function
d. None of the above

Question No. 29
A Mont blanc belt is a non valuble lost and found item

a. Meeting
b. lodging
c. Customer requirements
d. None of the above

Question No. 30
All efforts are made to return items left behind by the guest, before he leaves the hotel premises or the city.

a. Customer
b. Satisfaction
c. Warehouses
d. None of the above

Question No. 31
The aim of all Hotels or establishments that offer accommodation is to provide their customers with ________________and welcoming surroundings that offer value for money.

a. Merchandising
b. clean, attractive, comfortable
c. Customer loyalty
d. Window display

Question No. 32
The primary function of the housekeeping department is keeping the venue clean and sanitary as part of__________________.

a. Merchandise display
b. Merchandise storage
c. Investment
d. customer service

Question No. 33
Organizational Chart provides transparency to employees at all levels.

1. False
2. True
3. Justified
4. None of the above

Question No. 34
Roles of a Linen room supervisor are

1. Controls and checks up the soiled and fresh linen and uniform to and from the linen roo
2. Issues linen and uniform to the staff.
3. Controls the linen room.
4. All of the above

Question No. 35
The The layout style mainly differs from hotel to hotel and primarily dependent on its space & size _________

1. limitations
2. Economy
3. Scenario
4. All of the above

Question No. 36
A ………… job was to act as a link between Hotels and the Customers.

1. Customer’s
2. Mediator’s
3. Expert’s
4. Planner’s

Question No. 37
…………………………are smaller independent non-branded hotels that often contain upscale facilities

1. Extended Stay Hotel
2. Economy Hotel
3. Motels
4. Boutique hotels

Question No. 38
The ……………… is usually designed to open one specific lock.

1. Grand Master key
2. Master Key
3. Bow
4. Blade

Question No. 39
……………..Mattresses is the good value for money and is a cost effective way of buying a quality mattress due to the low production cost.

1. Memory
2. Coil Sprung
3. Pocket & Memory Foam
4. Pocket Sprung

Question No. 40
…………….. mattresses are naturally hypo-allergenic and dustmite resistant which make them great for those who suffer from allergies

1. Pocket Sprung Mattresses
2. Memory Foam
3. Latex Foam
4. Digital Air Mattresses

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Hospitality Laws

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Q1. What are the safety act sections applicable for commercial buildings?
Q2. What are W & M laws? What is the necessity of imposing these laws?
Q3. What is ombudsman scheme?
Q4. What is the mandate of Food Authority?
Q5. What are the Restrictions on establishment of place of business in India?
Q6. How does import and export of goods can be classified?
Q7. Write the salient provisions of the AKBARI ACT I.
Q8. What is the role of Certifying Surgeons in factory act law?

Case Study- Import and Export in a factory outlet
India’s economic structure today presents a distinctly different picture from what it was in 1991 when economic reforms started. In 1991 our foreign exchange reserves had depleted substantially. We then had just enough reserves to tide over the import requirements of three weeks. It was in this context that India gradually started dismantling its quantitative restrictions, partially liberalised its exchange rate and reduced the peak rate of customs duties. The average duty on all products stands reduced from over 70% in 1991-92 to 12% in 2008-09. However, at the same time the whole world was rushing towards globalisation and integration. Had India not joined the race, the economic scenario could have worsened. The only recourse left to India was to increase its exports to tide over the ever-increasing imports. We were aiming to gain a considerable proportion of international business and make our presence felt on the international front. The Government announced various export promotion measures and incentives. Laws were framed to streamline the process of export and import. These laws ensured that our commitment to expansion of India’s trade remained firm. The laws and facilitations announced by the Government were not only related to export and import of goods and services, but were also directed to up gradation of technology and integration of all the departments by using latest technologies available. As we can see, e-commerce plays a very significant role in today’s trade. The Export and Import Policy or the Exim Policy, 1992-97 was a significant landmark in India’s economic history. For the first time, conscious effort was made to dismantle various protectionist and regulatory policies and accelerate the country’s transition towards a globally oriented economy. This Policy coincided with the 8th Five Year Plan and has yielded impressive growth in exports. While India’s total exports during 1991-92 were US$ 17.86 billion, they increased to US$ 155 billion in 2007-08, almost 2½ times of the figure four years ago. India’s share in the global trade has gone up and the share of exports as percentage of GDP has also increased substantially. Keeping these factors in view, the Exim Policies announced thereafter have sought to consolidate the gains of the previous Policy. They aim to further carry forward the process of liberalization with the result that we have achieved nearly 1.5% share of world merchandise trade in 2007-08 totaling up to US$ 525 billion. In the current Foreign Trade Policy, two major objectives have been outlined:
(i) To double our percentage share of global merchandise trade within the next five years; and
(ii) To act as an effective instrument of economic growth by giving a thrust to employment.
Out of the above two, we have already achieved the first one and are on track to achieving the second objective i.e. we have already created 136 lakhs new jobs in the past four years. In the era of globalization and WTO regime many Asian countries have achieved such remarkable export-led growth that South Korea and Taiwan are likely to be considered as developed countries by WTO. WTO is the largest body of world trade consisting of 153 member countries as on date and responsible for 96% of the world trade. It is necessary for any developing country to expand exports continuously because export growth ultimately results in creation of jobs, building up of infrastructure, economies of scale and added foreign exchange earnings. Today’s world is economic in nature and increased exports give credibility to the standing of the country in overseas market. Exports, therefore, are of importance and are considered a national priority by the Government of India.
Why Imports?
Because of tough competition, you can sell only if the quality of your product is better than that of your competitors, the price most competitive and the buyers get delivery on time. In order to achieve all this, one needs to have access to international standard quality materials and capital goods. We also need to have better technology at our command as there is a sea change in the markets worldwide.
We have moved from letters to e-mails, telefaxes to video conferencing and manually operated phones to cellular phones via satellite. Today it is not possible to compete in the world without a better technological product. We cannot match the standards of quality and services that others offer if we happen to be out-dated – and that means out of market as well. By accepting membership of the World Trade Organization (WTO), India has become a part of the global village. New trade blocks are emerging and new world order is getting established. Even regional trading arrangements (RTAs) are mushrooming and it is estimated by the WTO that by 2010 there would be close to 400 RTAs. Even India is negotiating bilateral agreements with various countries and regional groupings. A number of joint ventures are being signed for export promotion as well as better quality production for domestic market. The FDI inflows into the country from 1991 to June, 2008 stand at more than $ 89 billion. We have witnessed a major change in this area between the years 1992-2007 and if one scans through the newspapers, one will find that economic news has taken priority over political news. The area in which the imports are almost essential are defense requirements, crude oil, fertilizers, capital goods, industrial inputs like raw materials, components, consumables, spares, etc., import of samples, import of technology, import of drawing and designs, import of services etc. There are many vital areas where there is a need to import capital goods – new as well as second hand – in order to upgrade our products and services. Further, there is an increase in factor mobility. The various factors of production like raw materials, labor, capital goods, spares, consumables, etc. have become mobile. It is easy to relocate any of these factors from one country to another depending on where they are needed. This gives rise to opportunities where various components of a value chain are completed in different countries. For example, a company in USA may buy fabric from China, source design from Italy, labor from Bangladesh and Sri Lanka and arrange to make a garment to be sold in Europe. Likewise, in the case of contract manufacture, a firm makes a contract with another firm abroad whereby the contracted party manufactures or assembles a product on behalf of the contractor. The contractor retains full control over marketing and distribution whilst the manufacturing is done by the local company. The advantages of such outsourcing are:
– There is no need to invest in plant overseas
– The risks of asset expropriation are minimized
– Risks associated with currency fluctuations are better managed
– Control of marketing is retained by the contractor – a product manufactured in the overseas market may be easier to sell, especially to government customers
– Lower transport costs and
– Some times lower production costs can be obtained.
To sum up, it is not possible to survive without imports when the world is moving so rapidly towards globalization and liberalization.
The phenomena of global sourcing at the most competitive costs and the need to increase productivity of the domestic industry through the imports of hi-technology products has resulted in import liberalisation being an imperative tool for economic growth.

Q1. Two Interdependence term import and export are interrelated explain giving proper example
Q2. What are the two terms import and export support the term globalization

1. Food contamination can occur during
2. The Prevention of Food Adulteration Bill was passed on
3. Food adulteration means
4. Which is an accidental adulteration?
5. The common adulterant found in Red Chili powder is
6. Which legislation do food operators need to follow
7. In which year FSSAI was established
8. What is the tenure of members of the Food Authority?
9. What is the maximum penalty for breach of regulations related to the labeling of food items?
10. What is FSSA, 2006 & why this Act is needed?
11. What is FEMA?
12. India earns maximum foreign exchange by the export of
13. National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) was established in
14. Banking regulation act was passed in………..?
15. In which year, the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) came into force?
16. Foreign exchange means ‘foreign currency’ and includes
17. ……………means a person for the time being authorized under section 7 to deal in foreign currency
18. The Central Government may appoint such persons as it thinks fit to be officers of……………
19. Person resident ………. India” means a person who is not resident in India.
20. “……………” means a certificate of title to securi¬ties by the delivery of which (with or without endorsement) the title to the securities is transferable
21. Which document is must for getting the permission by the customs for the export of goods by sea or air
22. This document implies that the goods, that are exported has been manufactured in a particular country mentioned therein.
23. Which one of the following is not the validity of IEC (Importer-Exporter Code Number)
24. ECGC stands for
25. FDI stands for:
26. FII stands for
27. Which of the following is a part of 2002 -2007 EXIM policy?
28. EPCGS stands for
29. In case of goods being rejected or wrong shipments which section of customer act provides drawback facility on the customer’s duty?
30. How much digits are there in IEC number?
31. Section 2(n) of the Factories Act, 1948 defines …….
32. The Power or exempt, any factory, during public emergency is given in which section of the Factories Act, 1948?
33. An occupier, before using any premises as a factory, should send a written notice to the Chief Inspector at least ….. days in advance.
34. If a new manager is appointed and takes charge on a given day, the Occupier must send a written notice to the Inspector within ….. days.
35. If a Manager is not appointed for a factory then the Occupier of the factory will be considered as the Manager of the factory as per the Factories Act, 1948.
36. General duties of the Occupier are mentioned in which section of the act?
37. The term “Inspectors” is discussed in which section of the Factories Act, 1948?
38. The State Government cannot appoint Joint Chief Inspectors.
39. Powers of Inspectors are discussed in the Section ……….
40. Section 10 of the Factories Act, 1948 speaks about ………….
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MBA 4th Sem ASODL Production Planning And Control

MBA 4th Sem ASODL Production Planning And Control

MBA Assignment A

Question 1: a) Explain the forecasting process? What are the techniques for monitoring forecasts?

b) Explain various forecasting models.

Question 2: a) What is aggregate production plan? What are the pure strategies for APP?

b) The demand and capacities for production of company is given below. Demand for January, February and March are 900, 300 and 700 respectively. The production capacities for each of the month are given below.

January             February                       March

Regular time                  600                               300                               200

Over time                      300                               300                               300

Sub contracted             500                               500                               500

The production cost per unit during regular time is Rs 60, during over time is Rs 70, and the sub contracted cost is Rs 72. The cost of carrying inventory is Rs 5 per unit per month. The cost of unused regular time capacity is Rs 15. Find the optimum production plan using transportation model.

3: a) What is Master Production Scheduling? Explain various types of Bill of Materials.

b) What are the various disaggregation methods in use?

4: a) Explain Materials Requirement Planning. What are the inputs and outputs of MRP?

b) Explain the various Lot sizing techniques.

5: a) Explain assembly line balancing clearly defining various terminologies like cycle time, precedence diagram,  work

stations, efficiency, utilization, balance delay, etc.


  1. b) Explain the key elements to successful JIT.

Question 6: Explain, long-range, medium-range and short-term capacity planning methods?

Question 7: a) What are various batch processing techniques?


  1. b) Explain the concept of theory of constraints and synchronous manufacturing.


Question 8: Write short notes

  1. a) Kanban
  2. b) Scheduling and sequencing
  3. c) System nervousness



MBA Assignment B

Case study:  Please read the case study given below and answer questions given at the end.



  1. A company is setting up an assembly line to produce 192 units per eight-hour shift. The following table identifies the work elements, items, and immediate predecessors.


Question 1: What is the desired cycle time? What is the theoretical minimum number of work stations?

Question 2: Use the largest work element time rule to work out a solution.

Question 3: What are the idle time, efficiency and balance delay for the solution?


Assignment C


  1. Degree of uncertainty in short term forecasting is
    (a) High
    (b) Low
    (c) Nil
    (d) Significant
  2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a production system
    (a) It is a universally applicable model
    (b) Varies from enterprise to enterprise
    (c) It is a framework within which production activities take place
    (d) Ensures coordination of various production operations
  1. Which of the following is not a type of production system
    (a) Continuous production
    (b) Job or unit production
    (c) Intermittent production
    (d) Flexible manufacturing
  2. All of the following are production functions except
    (a) Aggregate planning
    (b) Pricing of products
    (c) Capacity assessment
    (d) Scheduling of operations
  3. Order winner means
    (a) The sales person who gets the order
    (b) The factor of the product that wins the order for the firm
    (c) Order that results in high profits
    (d) Repeat order
  4. All of the following are functions of forecasting except
    (a) An estimation tool
    (b) A tool for predicting events related to operations planning and control
    (c) An input for the JIT system
    (d) A vital prerequisite for the planning process


  1. All of the following are key areas of forecasting except
    (a) Better materials management
    (b) Rationalized manpower decisions
    (c) Basis for planning and scheduling
    (d) Routine decisions
  2. Which of the following is a dependent demand for an organization
    manufacturing refrigerators
    (a) Compressor
    (b) Requirement for a DG set
    (c) Refrigerators
    (d) Tea coffee vending machine
  3. If a forecast repeatedly overestimates actual demand, bias will have
    (a) Positive value
    (b) Negative value
    (c) Zero value
    (d) Infinity
  4. Which of the following is not a qualitative method of forecasting
    (a) Delphi method
    (b) Historical data
    (c) Econometric models
    (d) Nominal group technique
  5. The most suitable method for forecasting the demand for a brand new product is
    (a) Moving averages
    (b) Historical data
    (c) Exponential smoothening
    (d) Delphi method
  6. The planning that addresses the supply side of a firm’s ability to meet the demand is known as
    (a) Business plan
    (b) Aggregate production planning
    (c) Aggregate capacity planning
    (d) Master production scheduling
  7. Which of the following is not a considerations in developing an aggregate production plan
    (a) Concept of aggregation
    (b) Goal for aggregate planning
    (c) Forecast of aggregate demand
    (d) Supplier lead time
  8. The aggregate production planning strategy that cannot be employed in a strong union environment is
    (a) Changing inventory levels
    (b) Changing workforce levels
    (c) Subcontracting
    (d) Influencing demand
  9. Which of the following is not an alternative for managing supply
    (a) Inventory based alternatives
    (b) Promotional schemes
    (c) Capacity adjustment
    (d) Capacity augmentation
  10. All of the following are capacity adjustment alternatives except
    (a) Hiring/ Firing of workers
    (b) Varying shifts
    (c) Varying working hours
    (d) Subcontracting
  11. Which of the following is not an aggregate production planning method
    (a) Trial-and-error method
    (b) Transportation method
    (c) Linear programming method
    (d) Assignment method
  12. All of the following are characteristics of Master Production Scheduling except
    (a) MPS makes use of actual customer orders
    (b) Product varieties are taken care of in MPS
    (c) MPS is a critical linkage between planning and execution of operations
    (d) It is same as rough cut capacity planning
  13. Which is not a characteristic of a Bill Of Materials
    (a) List all parts required for one unit of a product
    (b) Shows dependency relationships
    (c) Gives total number of a part used in a product
    (d) Indicates multi levels of a product
  14. All of the following are time phasing requirement of an MRP logic except
    (a) Gross requirement will occur at the middle of a period
    (b) On hand inventory will be measured at the end of a period
    (c) Planned order release will occur at the beginning of a period
    (d) Lead time considerations are not taken for time phasing
  15. Which of the following is not an input to the MRP system
    (a) The Master Production Schedule
    (b) Bill of materials
    (c) Engineering drawing
    (d) Inventory status file
  16. Which of the following is not a Lot sizing technique
    (a) The lot-for lot technique
    (b) The EOQ approach
    (c) Mini-Max approach
    (d) Period order quantity approach
  17. The process of tracing the effect of one component in another is called
    (a) Pegging
    (b) Cycle counting
    (c) Lot sizing
    (d) Time fencing
  18. Stability in an MRP is achieved by
    (a) Updating
    (b) Cycle counting
    (c) Lot Sizing
    (d) Time fencing
  19. Time fence means
    (a) The shortest lead-time from raw material to finished production of an item
    (b) Ensuring accuracy of inventory records
    (c) Method used to update MRP at regular intervals
    (d) Calculating net requirements of components
  20. All of the following are characteristics of capacity except
    (a) It is the maximum rate at which a system can accomplish work
    (b) Capacity depends on the bottleneck
    (c) Capacity is the productive capability of a facility
    (d) Capacity is measured in monetary terms
  21. Operations managers are concerned with capacity for several reasons. Which of the following is not a concern
    (a) Enough capacity to meet customer demands
    (b) Capacity affects cost efficiency of operations
    (c) Investment required in capacity
    (d) Machine locations in a facility
  22. Which of the following is not a short term strategy for modifying capacity
    (a) Inventories
    (b) Employment levels
    (c) Subcontracting
    (d) Expansion
  23. All of the following are steps in capacity control except
    (a) Monitoring of output
    (b) Comparing with capacity plan
    (c) Assessing demand
    (d) Taking corrective actions
  24. Multi-skilling of work force doesn’t results in
    (a) Increasing capacity
    (b) Increasing flexibility
    (c) Improving productivity
    (d) Waste elimination
  25. Activity not associated with Dispatching is
    (a) Issue of instructions concerning movement of materials between work centers
    (b) Issue of instructions to operators
    (c) Loading work centers with jobs
    (d) Issue instructions concerning the issue and return of special tools
  26. Routing doesn’t include
    (a) Sequence of processes, operations for a product
    (b) Machines, tools, work stations used in producing the product
    (c) Standard time applicable for each operation
    (d) Detailed skills of the operator for each operation
  27. Three planning premises are used in production management. Which of the following is not one among them
    (a) Make to stock
    (b) Make to order
    (c) Assemble to order
    (d) Make subassemblies
  28. A strategy that is not used for altering lead time is
    (a) Overlapping
    (b) Lot sizing
    (c) Operations splitting
    (d) Lot splitting
  29. Backlogs can be reduced by all of the following except
    (a) Increasing work center capacity
    (b) Reducing order release rate
    (c) Increasing lead time
    (d) Subcontracting
  30. Priority index in scheduling is also known as
    (a) Critical ratio
    (b) Critical Path
    (c) Random number
    (d) Earliest due date
  31. All of the following are characteristics of flow shop production except
    (a) Special purpose equipment
    (b) Many number of end items
    (c) Low skilled workers
    (d) Low in process inventories
  32. Which of the following is not a characteristic of job shop production
    (a) Multipurpose equipment
    (b) Highly skilled workers
    (c) High investment
    (d) Low raw material inventory
  33. Bottleneck operation in line balancing means
    (a) Having high operation time
    (b) Having high cycle time
    (c) Having low operation time
    (d) Having more no. of follower operations
  34. Which of the following is not associated with line balancing
    (a) Precedence diagrams
    (b) Cycle time
    (c) Closeness matrix
    (d) Minimum number of workstations

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Amity MBA 4 Sem System Analysis & Design

Amity MBA 4 Sem System Analysis & Design

1. Explain different categories of a system.
2. Describe the Development Life cycle models with respect to Project Planning.
4. Describe the Software cost estimation methods and guidelines.
6. Describe IT and Organizational Structures.

Case Study

Rajesh is a do-it-yourself entrepreneur who built up his fortune in trading. He traded in anything and everything, and kept close control of every activity. That was how he had grown rich enough to indulge in his one dream — to build a college in his hometown. A college that would be at par to the ones in the better cities, the ones in which he could not study himself.
Work started a year back and the buildings were coming along well. He himself did not use computers much and became hooked to the Internet and e-mail only recently. He was determined to provide a PC with Internet connectivity to every students and faculty member. He was currently engrossed in plans for the 100 – seated computer lab.
What was confusing him was the choice of Internet connectivity. He had about a dozen quotes in front of him. Recommendations ranged from 64 kbps ISDN all the way to 1 Gbps leased line to Guwahati, which was almost 200 km away. Prices ranged from slightly under a lakh all the way up to Rs 25 lakh and beyond. He did not understand most of the equipment quoted — firewall, proxy server, cache appliance. Nor was he sure what the hidden costs were. Although it went against his very nature, he would have to identify a trustworthy consultant who would help him make sense of the whole thing.

1. In the context of the given case, what managerial issues need to be addressed by Rajesh? Why is it important for managers to be tech savvy?
2. What is the importance of a ‘systems consultant’ to an organization? What skills should he/she possess?

Assigment C
1. is the most important factor of management information system
2. Types of system are—
3. A close system is a-
4. Characteristics of a system–
5. Attributes of DSS are
6. Structured decisions are
7. Unstructured decision example—
8. System objective are –
9. Integrated dictionary is related to a-
10. VTOC means-
11. Database is a collection of _______ & its relation to each other and refers to the __________ of layer or coverage in space defined by co-ordinate referencing system.
12. GIS data is either ________ data or ________ data.
13. Statistics is the set of mathematical methods used to _______ & __________ data.
14. What is an open system is that–
(1) Interacts with the environment constantly.
(2) Has an infinite scope in all organization services
(3) Does not interact with the environment constantly.
(4) Is generally flexible and abstract.

15. A data dictionary has consolidated list of data contained in
16. A data dictionary is useful as—
17. Which of the following model is used as frame work?
18. Which of the following model is well suited for requirement change?
19. What is integration testing?
20. What is information?
21. Strategic information is used by—
22. Technical information is used by—
23. Operational information is used by
24. Integrated dictionary is related to a—
25. A data element in a data dictionary may have–
26. The major problems encountered in off-line data entry are
27. In interactive data input terminal commands are normally used to—
28. By the term “concise code” we understand that the code–
29. Serial numbers used as codes are—
30. Group classification codes are-
31. For modulus-11 check digit to detect a single transposition error—
32. If a field is known to represent days of a month, radix used to check should be
33. I O controls includes—
34. Machine operations include—
35. Which is not an implementation component?
36. System Evaluation component are—
37. Which of the following is not a tool for application proto-typing?
38. The records in a file on magnetic tap—
39. Which of the following is not considered a tool at the system design phase?
40. In proto-typing the following are used—

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Amity MBA 4th Sem ASODL Service Operations Management

Q1. Discuss about nature and role of services in economy.
Q2. Discuss the reasons of growth of service sector.
Q3. What do you think are the main reasons for including the element of ‘People’ in the marketing mix for services?
Q4. What are two kinds of physical evidence? Discuss.
Q5. What are the various product strategies available to a service firm? What are the implications of each?
Q6. What are the problems with the Product Lifecycle?
Q7. Discuss the factors in determining layout and design.
Q8. Discuss about Human Factor in Services .

Q1. Describe forecasting demand for services.
Q2. Discuss Inventory Management for improved service delivery.
Q3. List the service attributes required by companies to improve their competitive capabilities by using service inventory.
1. The ……………… proposition is essentially the business proposition, but seen from both the business and the customer/user perspective.
2. ……………. is a customer-oriented feature with service response based on customer input, one-to-one solutions to customers’ requirements, direct online communications with customer and customer service centers that are intended to help customers solve their issues.
3. The ……………….. deals with issue of treatment of customers in sense reduce wait time and improvement of service.
4. Focusing on the …………………. provides a distinct and novel way to think about service management.
5. ……………. allows each additional item in service inventory to increase the variety of offerings exponentially.
6. ……………….. inventory also lowers costs by fulfilling the basic roles of inventory.
7. …………….. is a significant factor in determining the kind of fixtures to be used by a retailer since it provides him with a unique selling proposition.
8. CRM applications also help firms manage ………………… more effectively across the stages of relationship initiation, maintenance, and termination.
9. …………………….. can occur in single, batch or bulk, arrival as distribution of time, arrival in finite population or infinite population.
10. …………………… looks at available resources for customer service, queue structure to avail the service and preemption of service.
11. According to McCarthy, the elements of …………….. are 4Ps – product, price, place (i.e. distribution) and promotion.
12. The ………………… in advertisement would substantially simplify the task of professionals since the persuasion process would be found proactive.
13. ………………. are also unique in service industries and typically public relations take a front seat, while advertising is more of ‘corporate advertising’.
14. ……………….. can use six basic elements, namely, product scope, market scope, value, timing, identification of the beneficiary and protection against competition.
15. The ……………. hear the responsibility of advertising locally at micro level.
16. The ………………… plays a very important role in marketing a service; therefore, managing word-of-mouth publicity is important.
17. ……………….. is an area which requires utmost managerial attention.
18. …………………………. greatly influences the perception of a service brand.
19. …………….. are frequently used to give an element of tangibility.
20. ……………… helps in making the message more attractive and enhancing its impact.
21. ………………….. are defined by the input provided for the process, the process itself, and the output generated from the process.
22. The …………….. represents a majority of the economic output of many developed economies, so there are good economic to reasons improve service-based processes.
23. ……………………. is a customer focused approach to service innovation and improvement.
24. ……………….. is the demand for a service from customer when they want something.
25. ………………….. is a demand that only exists because the initial demand was not satisfied properly.
26. A ………………….. is one of the most cost effective ways of achieving a certain degree of process standardization.
27. ……………… seems to be regarded as a cure-all for services, and even whole countries and economies (such as Europe), to return to the so-called “growth track.”
28. ………………. are dynamic and perishable in nature and this can often lead to instances of idle capacity or opportunity loss.
29. …………………. makes it difficult to retrieve information in a timely manner and to perform analysis of the data.
30. The service sector of the economy constitutes ……………. of the world’s total GDP and employs 40% of global labour force.
31. The ………………. is composed of the four P’s: product, price, place (distribution) and promotion.
32. …………… in services refers to the actual procedures, mechanisms, and flow of activities by which the service is delivered- the service delivery and operating systems.
33. ………………… can be used to build strong association in the customers’ minds and service can be differentiated from the competitor’s similar offering.
34. The …………………. includes all of the tangible representations of the service such as, brochures, letterhead, business cards, report format, signage, equipment, etc.
35. ……………… refers to all human actors who play a part in service delivery and thus influence the buyer’s perceptions; namely, the firm’s personnel, the customer, and other customers in the service environment.
36. ……………….. is very important concept in services, which refers to the physical presence of the customer in the system.
37. …………………….. has a vital role in services, because of the large number of service businesses which involve personal interaction between the service provider and the customer, and service being provided by a person, not a machine.
38. The ……………….. element of the services marketing mix forms a vital role in communicating the positioning of the service to customers.
39. …………………… , refers to the seamless integration of the various sales and service channels provided by the retailer to the customer.
40. …………….. is any kind of paid, non-personal method of promotion by an identified organisation or individual.
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Amity MBA 4th Sem ASODL Process Analysis & Theory of Constraints

Q1. Explain the meaning of process analysis & process-based management.
Q2. Explain the Interface of process analysis with other disciplines
Q3. Explain the process of benchmarking in detail.
Q4. Discuss the Introduction to TOC applications in operations improvement.
Q6. Discuss the meaning & concept of CCPM.
Q7. Elaborate the Problem Associated With Company’s Existing Scheduling Technique
Q8. Discuss the Project panning, Project execution and continuous improvement

Q1. What do you understand by DBR? Discuss its approach & scheduling
Drum Buffer Rope (DBR) is a planning and scheduling solution derived from the Theory of Constraints (ToC).
Q2. What do you understand by synchronous manufacturing? Discuss the Symptoms of poor synchronization.

Q3. Elaborate the Problem Associated With Company’s Existing Scheduling Technique

1. What is Critical chain project management (CCPM) is a method of planning and ……………….. projects?
2. ………………………… can determine a size of project, feeding, and resource buffers.
3. The transition from the traditional silo-based business paradigm to supply chain management requires ………………. changes in organizational structures, cultures, and business strategy.
4. Critical chain project management is based on methods and algorithms derived from ……………………………………….
5. DBR methodology provides a mechanism for protecting total throughput of the system by the use of Time-buffers?
6. Theory in operations has undergone significant change in the past ……………. with a shift from an economics cost based view
7. The benefit of clearly communicating the project status through buffer management and regular reporting was acknowledged as key to gaining what was referred to as ‘ ………………………… information’ across the project
8. Critical chain is an alternative to ……………………………
9. ICT is nothing more than a ………………… for supply chain transformations and is not a solution for such transformations.
10. The cumulative capability model emerged and subsequently led to theoretical models that encompass flow, trade-offs and continuous.
11. The choice of process flow can depend on what stage in the product life cycle the firm is at?
12. A …………………….. is an organized way of collecting and structuring data, its purpose is to collect the facts in the most efficient way
13. The ……………………discipline develops and maintains the supporting artifacts that are used during Analysis and Design.
14. The ……………………… is a tool for analyzing the relationship between the product life cycle and the technological life cycle
15. A process flow structure generally falls into two categories: it can be either a job shop or a flow shop?
16. A …………………………. is the characteristic of a given product that causes the buyer to purchase it rather than the similar product of a competitor.
17. The continuous flow process is similar to the …………………….. as it has a fixed sequence and a set pace
18. The choice of process flow can depend on the …………in the product life cycle the firm is at?
19. ………… is an integral part of merchandising
20. Job shop process are sometimes referred to as ‘…………………..’.
21. A company should …………… focus on productivity and price recovery to be as profitable as possible
22. …………………. is in industrial engineering generally defined as the relation of output (i.e. produced goods) to input (i.e. used resources) in the manufacturing transformation process.
23. ………………… is strongly influenced by the prices a company pays for its input and receives for its output
24. There is no sense in denying that productivity and profitability are interdependent, but it is also a fact that they do not always go hand in hand
25. Fast operations reduce the level of in-process inventory between micro operations, as well as reducing administrative overhead.
26. ………………………… can be described as an important aid to making judgements and to making decisions.
27. The …………………. includes financial performance measures giving the results of actions already taken
28. Shorter cycle times suggest delivering value to the organization quickly and do not have money unnecessarily tied up in ………….. (Unreleased code).
29. Throughput is the rate at which a system achieves its goal.
30. ………………… is the time from the moment the customer places an order (the moment you learn of the requirement) to the moment it is ready for delivery’.
31. What is Theory of constraints (TOC)?
32. The Theory of Constraints is a methodology for identifying the most important …………………….:
33. ……………….capacity is an excess amount of production capacity that is assembled in the work stations that are positioned upstream from the constraint operation.
34. Application of conventional accounting may actually …………….. throughput and profits.
35. Constraints accounting is an accounting reporting technique, consistent with a process of ongoing improvement and implementation of TOC
36. Major assumption of TA is that once a certain capacity level exists, all the operating expenses associated with it are no longer ……………………………..
37. TOC’s critical chain concept removes the implicit assumption of infinite capacity from the …………… management domain
38. The ……………………… tree helps identify the obstacles to implementation
39. Traditional finished goods inventory, as well as excess work-in-process and excess raw materials inventories, are liabilities in the ………….. world.
40. Most of the constraints faced in systems originate from policies, not physical things.
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MBA 4th Sem Global Business Operation

Q1. What is International Business ?
Q2. Write any four disadvantages of globalization
Q3. Discuss about Ecosystem services in UAE ?
Q4. Explain about Ecosystems services provided by EU ?
Q5. Discuss tyhe various reasons for the growth of MNCS ?
Q6. Discuss about Indian Companies operating abroad ?
Q7. Discuss general Cultural Differences between the West and China ?
Q8. Explain nature of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) ?

Q1. What is Cultural diversity?
Q2. What is Alliance Operation ?
Q3. discuss various steps in conrtact Negotiation.

1. With the Globalization of Markets, the testes and preferences of consumer’s world-wide are:
2. The main advantage of a differentiation strategy in international markets lies in that:
3. The goals of international marketing are to:
4. Being a global organization means:
5. Which of the following represents a company’s effort to identyfy and categorize groups of customers and countries according to common characteristics
6. Which of the following is an approach to natual resource management that focuses on sustaining ecosystems to meet both ecological and human needs in the future?
7. Ecosystems management promotes shared vision of a desired future by ____________________
8. An ecosystem includes all of the living things_______________________
9. Which of the following are the tropical forests that receive a mean rainfall of 80 for every 400 inches annually?
10. The ecological footprint is an estimate of human pressure on global ecosystems, according to the ______________________________
11. Which of the following is an example of a multinational corporation?
12. Multinational corporations’ ______
13. Which level of analysis considers the relative power of states and the interactions of the states themselves?
14. Which of the following powers become newly expensionist in the 1930s”
15. Which level of analysis considers aggregations of individuals within states that influence state actions in the international arena?
16. What id the most important geographic element at the global level of analysis?
17. American Gianet such as: IBM Gillette, Dow Chemical, Hewlett-Packard and Xerox get the majority of their sales from:
18. Developing countries such as china or India benefit from the patronage of companies that outsource to them in terms of:
19. Cross-culture competence refers to the knowladge, skills, and affact/motivation that enable individuals to adapt effectvely in________________.
20. The cultural impact on management is reflected by___
21. _________ refer to those moral theories which hold that the consequences of one’s conduct are the true basis for any judgment about the morality of that conduct?
22. Meta-ethics is the branch of ethics that sheeks to understand the nature of
23. ________ refers to the principles performs and philosophies that direct the business people in the day to day business choice.
24. Managers and acquisitions are both aspects of strategic management, corporate finance and management dealing with the________
25. M & A can be defined as a type of restructuring in that they result in some entity reorganization with the aim to__________
26. ____________ is the area of corporate finaces, management and strategy dealing with purchases and /or joining with other companies.
27. ___________ happen when a company mergers or takes over another company that offers the same or similar product lines and services to the final consumer?
28. Foreign Direct investment outside India means investments, either under_____
29. international business refers to domestic operations within a foreign countries.
30. International business is business whose activities are carried out across national borders.
31. International business is business denotes the operations of a company outside its home or domestic market many refer to this as business conducted within a foreign country
32. International business exports its goods and services all over the world.
33. International business makes minimum utilization of resources.
34. Ecosystems management promotes shared vision of a desired future by integrating social environmental and economic perspectives to managing geographically defined natural ecological systems
35. Ecosystems promote human well beingthrough the various services the provide
36. An ecosystems includes all of the living things in a given area interacting with each other and also with their non living environments.
37. Desert ecosystems are located in regions that receive an annual rainfall less than 35
38. Economic indicator is a piece of economic data usually of macroeconomic scale, that is used by investors to interpret current or future investment possibilities and judge the overall health of an economy.
39. Multinational corporations have unique and empirical capacity to increase production and distribution.
40. MNCs can provide the requird financial technical technical and other resource to needy countries in exchange for economic gains.
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Amity MBA 3rd Sem ASODL 91 Enterprise Resource Planning

ADL 91 Enterprise Resource Planning V2
Amity MBA Assignment A
1. What is ERP? Explain the general Implementation methodology of ERP. How can ERP improve a company’s business performance?
2. Describe various evaluation criteria at the time of selection of ERP packages. Discuss the role of vendors, consultants and users for selection of ERP.
3. Briefly enumerate some of the key ERP modules keeping in view the Manufacturing perspective.
4. What is Knowledge Management? What pitfalls should be avoided while aligning Knowledge Management with the Business Strategy?What does KM really consist of? What operationally constitutes KM?
5. Enumerate various Knowledge Management tools and techniques
6. What is Supply Chain Management? What are its’ key drivers?
7. What is Customer Relationship Management? What are the various types of CRM Software/CRM tools available in the market?
8. What is Enterprise Application Integration? What is the purpose of implementing EAI? What are the EAI Implementation pitfalls?

Amity MBA Assignment B
Case Study
A typical U.S. Wal-Mart has 142,000 items, so multiplying those savings makes sense that Wal-Mart’s efforts on enforcing new SCM technology on their suppliers makes a big impact on the bottom line. Wal-Mart has definitely started a ripple effect within its’ own supply chain.
Ever since 2002, when Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology proponents began insisting that it would dramatically change the way companies track goods in the supply chain, it has remained a niche technology because of the cost of RFID tags. The most generic RFID tags cost around 10 cents apiece, whereas latest generations of chips are getting better with standardization and improved functionality. Consumer goods companies always talk about 5 cent tags as a price that would open RFID up to broader uses remove the difficulties pioneers like Wal-Mart have had pulling in a critical mass of partners.
Just 600, or about 3 percent, of its’ suppliers have started using RFID since the retailer announced its’ famous supply-chain “mandate” to use RFIDs in 2003. Wal-Mart distribution centers that stock goods from suppliers that place RFID tags help them to reduce out-of-stock situations and, more recently, to drive promotions.
On the store front, Wal-Mart has expanded its’ RFID use from 100 to 1000 stores. Readers (that read and locate RFID chips) are typically located at loading dock entrances, at entrances leading from back rooms to sales floors, and at trash compactors where boxes are destroyed. Data is collected when product moves, including at the cash register, allowing Wal-Mart to generate print-outs for employees to prioritize restocking duties. Suppliers can link into Wal-Mart’s e-SCM system over the Web to check exactly where their products are. In addition, Wal-Mart is also starting to give employees hand-held RFID readers that beep based on proximity to specified products, making them easier to find.
One Wal-Mart supplier, consumer goods company Kimberly-Clark, is focusing on sales promotion through a pilot program that uses RFID to monitor promotions of its’ Paper Towels. Using software from OATS Systems, Kimberly-Clark could see on a colour-coded dashboard how many stores received the product in the stock-room and how many put it on the store floor.
1. What is the main aim of Supply Chain Management? What are the key issues faced in SCM?
2. In what ways, the introduction of RFID tags benefited Wal-Mart in its’ Supply Chain Management?
Amity MBA Assignment C
1. Planning of ERP Implementation Process should be done:
A. Cautiously
B. Naively
C. Should be done after the start of ERP Implementation
D. None of the above.
2. How can management of the enterprise makes a decision about the necessity of implementing an enterprise resource planning system:
A. By outsourcing this analysis to experts in ERP
B. By conducting a comparative study of ERP Implementations in enterprises that fall in the same domain.
C. By determining a set of evaluation measurements.
D. All of the above
3. Enterprise¬-wide resource planning systems (ERP systems) attempt to:
A. Integrate all corporate information in one central database
B. They do not allow information to be retrieved from many different organizational positions
C. They allow any organizational object to be made invisible
D. They allow information to be stored in multiple databases.
4. In Manufacturing organizations, ERP implementation necessarily automates the following functions
A. Inventory control
B. Material requirement planning
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
5. For the success of an ERP Implementation, factor(s) important is/are:
A. Strategic support from the top management.
B. Readiness of employees to embrace the change
C. Adherence to time schedules.
D. All of the above
6. Customization of an ERP package is enhanced if the ERP Package is
A. Modular
B. Inflexible
C. Both a and b
D. Either a or b

7. The project driven enterprise deals with the design and manufacturing of unique products and services (projects)
A. Multiple clients
B. Multiple clients of same vertical
C. Individual clients
D. Depends upon client to client.
8. Key success factor that decide about product competitiveness:
A. Efficient knowledge
B. Business experience management
C. Knowledge of Best Practices in the domain
D. All of the above
9. Inventory of a company refers to:
A. Raw materials
B. Work in progress
C. Finished goods
D. All of the above
10. SCM Drivers are:
A. Facilities and Inventory
B. Transportation and Information
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
11. Which of the following statements is false:
A. Forecasts are never right.
B. The longer the forecast horizon, the better is the forecast.
C. The longer the forecast horizon, the worse is the forecast.
D. Aggregate forecasts are more accurate.
12. One of the benefits of Supply Chain Management is:
A. Improved forecasting precision.
B. Increased Inventory throughout the chain
C. Increased Bull-whip effect.
D. Unreliable financial information.
13. Factor(s) that contribute(s) to Bull Whip Effect:
A. Demand forecasting practices.
B. Longer lead time
C. Batch Ordering
D. All of the above
14. Which of the following statements is true about ERP Implementation:
A. As-Is” stage follows “To-Be” stage
B. To-Be” stage follows “As-Is” stage.
C. Go-Live” stage and “As-Is” stage can proceed simultaneously.
D. None of above
15. Which of the following factor does not contribute to the success of ERP?
A. Focus on business processes and requirements first
B. Focus on achieving a healthy ERP ROI (Return on Investment), including post-implementation performance mea
C. Strong project management and resource commitment
D. Lack of budget.
16. Who plays and important role in the selection of ERP Package
A. Consultants
B. Vendors
C. Users
D. All of the above

17. Knowledge Management cannot be exercised through:
A. Data Entry Operation
B. Expression Management
C. Database management
D. Hypertext management

18. Which of the following is not part of Customer Relationship Management?
A. Sales Force Automation
B. Contact management
C. Lead management
D. None of these
19. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true with respect to Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
A. EAI is an integration framework composed of a collection of technologies and services.
B. EAI is the process of linking applications within a single organization together in order to simplify and automate bu
C. EAI system could front-end a cluster of applications, providing a single consistent access interface to these applications and shielding users from having to learn to interact with different software packages
D. All of the above
20. Which of the following ways is not appropriate to bring in stabilization and acceptance in the “Go-Live” stage?
A. Training of end-users
B. Training of only process owners
C. Data fixes to resolve data migration issues
D. Help desk for troubleshooting.
21. ERP Vendor should be evaluated on:
A. Business functions or modules supported by their software.
B. Features and integration capabilities of the software.
C. Both a and b
D. Neither a nor b

22. Before trying to implement a major ERP system, organizations can assess their ability to be successful through:
A. Capability Maturity Model, CMM
B. People’s Capability Maturity Model, PCMM
C. ISO Certification
D. Any one of these.

23. Which one of the following is key ERP Vendor(s):
B. Oracle
C. Microsoft Dynamics
D. All of the above
24. Which one of the following is the key SCM Vendor(s):
A. Manugistics
B. Seibel
C. Only a
D. Both a and b
25. Which one of the following is the key CRM Vendor(s):
A. Clarify
B. Seibal
C. Only a
D. Both a and b

26. Which of the following statement is false
A. ERP systems are set to proliferate locally.
B. ERP systems implementation is a complex organizational activity.
C. ERP systems implementation requires strong project management oversight.
D. ERP systems provide improved and added functionality for an organization.

27. Which of the following is/are limitation(s) of system integration:
A. Leveling the Competitive Environment.
B. High initial set-up costs.
C. Power and interdepartmental conflicts.

28. Which of the following stage is not part of Business Process Reengineering:
A. As-Is” analysis
B. To-Be” mapping
C. Post-Implementation support
D. Measuring new processes based on meeting goals and vision.

29. Which of the following is not a core SCM process:
A. Procurement
B. Sales Force Automation
C. Order fulfillment
D. Forecasting

30. Collaborative Design and Product Development is part of:

31. Which of the following statement is false about EAI:
A. EAI facilitates the flow of information.
B. Straps together transactions among disparate and complex applications and business processes.
C. Helps in communication among applications only within an organization and not among organizations.
D. EAI facilitates the move towards market globalization.

32. Which one of the following is not a benefit of EAI:
A. Increased efficiency.
B. Higher Costs.
C. Improved Customer service.
D. Enhanced access

33. Which of the following statement is false about SCM:
A. SCM plays a major role only in the success of e-business and not e-commerce.
B. A good SCM is designed in collaboration with the organizations’ partners.
C. ERP vendors have started including SCM as a component or module of the software.
D. SCM provides a link for services, materials, and information across the value chain of the organization

34. Which one of the following is not a component of CRM system:
A. Market Research tools
B. Advanced Planning and Optimization (APO) software
C. Sales Force Automation software
D. Customer service and support tools
35. Which of the following statement is true about CRM Implementation:
A. CRM Implementation must never focus on a technology solution
B. CRM solutions must be part of corporate strategy from the beginning.
C. CRMs can be an afterthought as they are not critical in an organization.
D. Bothe a and b

36. Which one of the following processes does not fall in the purview of CRM:
A. CRM delivery process
B. CRM support process
C. CRM analytical process
D. CRM recruitment process

37. Which of the following architecture(s) is/are found in ERP implementations
A. N-tier architecture
B. Web-based architecture
C. Service Oriented Architecture
D. All of these
38. Assessing readiness in an ERP implementation is critical to the overall implementation process. Which one of the following ways does not contribute towards ensuring ERP readiness:
A. Project management’s focus on the issues, tasks, and activities to being ready.
B. Knowledge Transfer Process in place.
C. Discontinue training and complete focus on issues.
D. Support functions are in place for post-production support for operationalizing the ERP.

39. Which one of the following roles does not fall in the purview of the owners, ie, senior management of the company, with respect to ERP Implementation:
A. Maintain financial integrity of the project.
B. Provide strategic policy and procedure direction.
C. Establish project planning guidelines and methodology.
D. Publicly demonstrate support and commitment to the project.
40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false with respect to ERP Implementation methodologies:
A. The emphasis on the ERP software life cycle is whether to customize the software or to change the organization’s processes to match those embedded in the software.
B. The implementation strategy can be a comprehensive one, vanilla, or middle-of-the road strategy
C. ERP life cycle must incorporate traditional SDLC stages.
D. Rapid Implementation methodologies have been developed by ERP consulting firms.

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Amity MBA 3rd Sem ASODL Product & Brand Management

Amity MBA Assignment A
Q1 Brand extension & Multi Branding.
Q2. CEO Branding & Attitude Branding.
Q3. Consumer satisfaction and consumer loyalty
Q4. Brand Monopoly, Duopoly & Oligopoly
Q5. Endorsement strategy and source branding strategy
Q6 Define Brand perspective? The nature & types of perspective?
Q7 Give an example of one Brand who has reached leadership status with successful brand extension.
Q8 Pick up a brand of SME segment & its extension and evaluate its ability to achieve its own identity as well as contribute to the equity of a parent brand.

Amity MBA Assignment B
Case study
Case Study: Lipton and Kai Shii
Competitors in the iced-tea market
Unilever Bestfoods, USA and Shin Shii, Taiwan are competitors in the rapidly growing icedtea market with their brands Lipton (in alliance with Pepsi) and Kai Shii respectively.
Unilever has also introduced an instant hot-tea can by the name of Brooke Bond’s PG Tips.
Kai Shii is about to be launched in the US market. The following study evaluates various
market segmentation strategies, potential consumer target segments, and factors to forecast
demand that were used or could have been used by these two companies. The main reference for this report was Chapter 3 of the textbook ‘Principles of Marketing’ by Kotler et al.
The main results of the analysis are as follows:
Both companies’ SWOT analysis reveals that they are dominant and successful in
their home markets.
Kai Shii would require a great amount of effort to market itself and bridge the
cultural divide and varying tastes and perceptions between Taiwanese and American
Behavioural (seeking convenience, health conscious), demographic (age groups) and
geographic factors largely influence the market segmentation.
Pricing amongst competitors in the same product category plays a vital role
compared to pricing amongst for example, carbonated soft drinks etc.
Future demand for the iced tea market or any other segment is based on the growth
rate of current market segment bases such as age, income and nationality.

Both companies require different approaches to their marketing strategies. The following are the recommendations:
Lipton and Pepsi should expand their market reach across other segments to ward off
emerging competitors and increase product visibility.
Lipton iced teas should be made available in various packaging sizes and prices.
Brooke Bond’s ready-to-drink hot tea cans should capitalise on the parent company’s
objective of increased customer convenience and the advantage of having developed a
unique technology. Thus, it can be priced higher.
Shin Shii’s entry into the American market should focus on selecting a distributor
based on mutual trust and initially conducting trials and pilot schemes in cinemas,
fun-fairs etc. to gauge general consumer response.
Shin Shii should change the name of its product to suit the American market and sell
at lower prices than Lipton unless it feels that Kai Shii’s demand is based on or is
increasing due to its unique flavour or product quality.
The following report focuses on the growing canned iced-tea beverage market, with an emphasis on the Western market. This development led to opportunities for Unilever Bestfoods, USA (herein referred to as ‘Unilever’) and Shin Shii, Taiwan to exploit them further through efficient marketing with their brands Lipton and Kai Shii respectively. A study was conducted to evaluate effective strategies for market segmentation and identify suitable and potential markets for iced-tea manufacturers to enter. In addition, factors that could be used to forecast future demand were described.

2. The main aims and objectives of this study are outlined as follows:
1) Understand what kind of markets drive a high demand for iced tea and the reasons behind them.
2) Recommend market coverage strategies and market entry strategies for Unilever and Shin Shii respectively.
3) Recommend brand-positioning strategies for Lipton and Kai Shii and an alternative hot ready to drink tea beverage by Unilever.
Background: The Unilever Group is one of the world’s leading suppliers of fast-moving consumer goods. Their Lipton brand is a leader in the US market, besides having a significant global presence. They have also developed a ready to drink hot canned tea product under the name of Brook Bond’s PG Tips (herein referred to as Brooke Bond). Shin Shii is a small company based in Taiwan, and already successful with its oolong iced tea beverages drink in Taiwan. It now wants to target the Western markets.

1) The market for iced-teas has not undergone any permanent steep changes
either on the demand side or supply side, whether positive or negative.
2) However, it is a steadily growing market with a long way to go before saturation.
3) Lipton’s iced tea and Kai Shii’s oolong iced tea are fundamentally very close or similar and fall under the same product category.
4) ‘Western’ markets refer to the North American market.

Limitations: The main reference (Kotler et al text, 2001) is slightly outdated, that may thus fail to include changes in the company’s profile or business portfolio. For example, Lipton’s alliance with Pepsi may no longer exist. Also, relatively lesser information could be obtained about Shin Shii, as it is still a very obscure and less known company internationally.
Theoretical Framework and Methodology: The analysis of this case study is based on the marketing theories of:
I) Strategic Planning with SWOT analysis
II) Marketing Planning Both theories are described in the marketing textbook by Kotler et al and each contain several other components that would be defined and discussed. Some additional research was also carried out, especially pertaining to demand forecasting. Non-numerical data was largely sufficient to support or be used for recommending marketing strategies except when market share had to be discussed.

Report structure: The report began with an executive summary and a brief introduction. It will be followed by an analysis and interpretation of the case and a short conclusion. It will end with a set of recommendations, links for further study, references and an appendix.

Strategic Planning: The fast moving consumer goods (FMCG) market is highly volatile and trends in market demand or supply oscillate frequently. In such circumstances, companies entering this market must be clear of their objectives and purpose to ensure sustainability. For example, Unilever wants to “meet everyday needs of people everywhere…and to respond creatively and competitively with branded products and services which raise the quality of life.” Once these are laid out, it is essential to do a SWOT (strengths, weaknesses,
opportunities and threats) analysis for the company before attempting to plan marketing strategies and evaluating in detail factors such as brand positioning.
Marketing Planning: The first step in marketing planning is to determine what kind of factors or bases are to be used to segment the market. Segmentation includes dividing buyers into distinct groups, each with different needs, characteristics or behaviour, who might require separate products or marketing mixes. The iced-tea market also has several groups or segments where consumers perceive or buy a product in a similar way in each of these segments. Their bases can be classified as follows:
I) Behavioural- consumers seeking convenient and hassle free refreshments.
II) Demographic- age groups.
III) Geographic- urban centres, city suburbs, villages and towns or all mentioned.
Price cannot be considered a major factor influencing buyer perception as canned iced-teas
are more or less equally priced with similar products such as soft drinks or iced coffee.
However, pricing amongst competitors in the same product category plays a vital role.
The next step involves targeting specific segments with potential for the company in which
the company has a differential advantage over its competitors. The choice of market segments should enable the company to generate the greatest customer value and sustain it over time.
The choice of segments also varies according to its size and the resources it has. For example, Shin Shii, with lesser resources might want to target a few segments initially in contrast to Unilever that would want to cover a bigger market by targeting several segments.
However, Shin Shii, in its domestic Taiwanese market was an exception because it had to use aggressive advertising methods to create a totally new market for oolong iced-tea, which was virtually non-existent. In such a case, it targeted all age groups, even the tradition bound older generation who were very much used to drinking hot tea and were least likely to give up this habit. It’s selling point of Kai Shii drinkers being a ‘new breed of people’ in a ‘new world’ along with it’s natural ingredients and health benefits appealed to everyone, including the elderly who tend to be more health conscious in the Far East. The concept of being unique and different appealed to the younger generation, while the therapeutic benefits of iced-tea attracted the stressed middle- aged working class besides providing them with the convenience of a canned drink to complement their busy lifestyles. Other segments such as geographical locations were also collectively considered although the level of penetration might not have been the same for rural markets.
Unilever’s target segments for Lipton were broadly based on similar factors as far as the
health benefits of iced tea are concerned. However, it could further narrow down to focus on athletes and industry workers involved in large amounts of physical activity and mental
exhaustion. Geographically, most of America’s population are in urban centres or towns that are well connected. Thus, it made sense for Lipton to not restrict itself to purely urban centres only. However, busy cities like New York, Boston and Chicago hold great potential for the working class to be the targeted consumers as Lipton iced teas could be a quick refreshment between snacks or lunch.

For Unilever, it is essential to note that it would be unfeasible for it to modify its Lipton icedteas to serve different parts of the country, as America is largely a homogenous market with hardly any diverse tastes for beverages. Shin Shii, however, might want to modify Kai Shii oolong iced-teas to suit the tastes of the American consumer and also to counter competition by claiming to be exclusive and better.
Forecasting Demand: Current demand for iced-tea in America is so huge, that it forms 80% of all tea consumed in America. It has become a uniquely American habit, despite having a relatively shorter history of participation in the tea trade. As the convenience of ready-to drink iced teas lure new tea drinkers, a roll-over effect should occur in the demand for other types of more specialised teas, such as herbal iced-tea to increase. Several other factors can be utilised to forecast the demand of iced teas or for any other market segment. Most of them largely relate to the growth rate of current market segment bases such as age, income, and certain nationality groups. Changes in lifestyle, or in the socio-economic condition are amongst the larger developments that might influence demand especially in the long run.
Specific to the iced-tea market for example, a decrease in the proportion of working class due to a rapidly ageing population might hinder demand in urban centres especially in
commercial areas.
Overall, however, the outlook for iced-tea beverages is still very much positive with instant
tea becoming more important in certain markets. According to a study by Goradia (mentioned in ‘Commodity Supply Management by Producing Countries’), the global consumption of liquid tea rose by 145% while that of tea leaves rose by only 92% between 1951 and 1970.
Such rapid growth is expected to continue into the near future.
As Lipton and Kai Shii both serve and cater to the same market, they use similar marketing strategies but with different approaches to achieve their company’s objectives. Both companies differ largely in size in terms of financial and human resource capital. This affects the way they implement their strategies. Lipton, being a global brand has a slight edge in terms of expertise in the tastes and culture of its target group of consumers. It also has wider product range and technological superiority and is planning to launch a radical new product- Brooke Bond’s hot tea can. However, although Shin Shii would be a new player with Kai Shii in the American market with no international experience, Unilever should be wary of its past achievements of revolutionising a new type of product very successfully in the Taiwanese market. Despite successfully facing domestic competitors in the overcrowded iced-tea market, it might want to review its marketing policy to be better prepared to face a small but unpredictable competitor. Both companies can look forward to competition in an encouraging and growing market with demand expected to rise steadily in the immediate long run.

The following lists the recommendations for Lipton and Pepsi with regard to:
i) Market coverage strategy: As Lipton and Pepsi are already well established across several segments, they should use an undifferentiated marketing strategy spanning the entire market.
As the number of competitors exploiting the demands of each segment increases, it is
essential to remain clearly ahead in the consumer’s mind. This can be achieved by increasing visibility across other segments such as tourist places. Pepsi’s wide distribution network which already makes Pepsi cola widely available should give Lipton iced-teas the same level of importance, and on the grounds of both Lipton’s and Pepsi’s reputation, demand from retailers appropriate type of shelf space, for example at the eye level of the consumer. This is because iced-teas are increasingly becoming ‘impulse’ goods as their demand increases. This implies that consumers postpone their decision making process until they are about to buy the product. In such cases, the first popular product they see that is neatly shelved would most often create a want for that product itself shutting out all other influential input.
ii) Brand positioning of Lipton iced-teas: As more segments are targeted, the product should offer greater flexibility and choice to cater to a wide range within each segment. For example, it could offer different types of packaging, and in different quantity (volume) with different prices. This could give students amongst others an advantage in choosing the same product at a lower price on a regular basis.
iii) Brand positioning of Brooke Bond canned teas: Brooke Bond canned teas, boasting of a
revolutionary new concept of ready to drink hot tea in a can, should position themselves as
being a natural extension to the company’s policy of providing convenience and greater
choice to the consumer. Being the first to develop and perhaps patent this technology, it could charge higher prices, as it is an upmarket product. However, as it requires the use of heating cabinets, it cannot be widely accessible outdoors.
It is essential to note that the two brands are marketed separately even though some of their target groups of consumers may overlap, as many people are unaware that these brands belong to the same company, Unilever.

The following lists recommendations for Shin Shii with regard to:
i) Market entry strategy: Shin Shii’s entry into the Western market with Kai Shii would
revolve largely around two major concerns. Firstly, the choice of a distribution network is
important. It has to find similar partners who share and trust the company’s objectives, and capabilities in delivering a quality product that will be successful. This is especially important as stock returning without being sold burdens the distributor with extra costs and limit its operations elsewhere. Secondly, unlike Taiwan, where it was a market leader, in America, it should not initially place its products on the shelf alongside Lipton as it will be simply ignored due to zero brand recognition. Shin Shii should instead target places like cinemas, amusement parks etc in pilot schemes where potential consumers are more likely to try out new products. This would give it an indicator of the public response and as demand increases, an appropriate platform will emerge for Shin Shii to negotiate shelf-space with larger retailers to enable it to sell more widely in supermarket chains.
ii) Brand positioning of Kai Shii: Before it enters the American market, it needs to rename its product to allow the brand to be retained in an average American consumer’s mind. The cultural gulf between Taiwan and America is too crucial to be ignored. Next, Kai Shii’s price should be lower than that of Lipton’s iced teas to provide an incentive for consumers to try an alternate product at a lower price unless it is able to distinctively gauge a competitive advantage in product quality or a unique and thus popular taste liking amongst consumers during trial periods. In that case, it may charge a premium on the grounds of superiority and popularity. It may also directly attack Lipton’s flaws or old-fashioned image in its advertising campaigns. Increased revenue as a result of higher prices than that of its competitor could ensure the success and sustainability of these campaigns.

Q1. According to the given case give your comment on following statements Brand loyalty – “Consumers turn blind eye to bad brand values”
Q2. Do PEST (Political, Economical. Social & Technological) analysis of the given case.
Q3. Focus on market entry strategy & Brand positioning strategy of both the competitors in Indian market .If you are Brand manager of Lipton give your opinion how to establish and increase its market share keeping in mind the Indian market.

Amity MBA Assignment C
Q1. We define a _____ as anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption and that might satisfy a want or need.
D None of the above
Q2. _____ are a form of product that consists of activities, benefits, or satisfactions offered for sale that are essentially intangible and do not result in the ownership of anything.
B services

Q3. Product is a key element in _____. At one extreme, it may consist of pure tangible goods or at the other extreme, pure services.

Q4. Many companies are moving to a new level in creating value for their customers. They are developing and delivering total customer experiences. Whereas products are tangible and services are intangible, experiences are _____.

Q5. Product planners need to think about products and services on three levels. Each level adds more customer value. The most basic level is the _____, which addresses the question, “What is the buyer really buying?”

Q6. Product planners need to think about products and services on three levels. The third level is that the product planners must build on a(n) _____ around the core benefit and actual product by offering additional consumer services and benefits.

Q7. Product planners must design the actual product and find ways to _____ it in order to create the bundle of benefits that will provide the most satisfying customer experience.

Q8. Products and services fall into two broad classes based on the types of consumers that use them. Which is one of these broad classes?

Q9. _____ are products and services bought by final consumers for personal consumption. These include convenience products, shopping products, specialty products, and unsought products.

Q10. _____ are less frequently purchased consumer products and services that customerscompare carefully on suitability, quality, price, and style. Consumers spend much time and effort in gathering information and making comparisons.

Q11. _____ are consumer products and services with unique characteristics or brand identification for which a significant group of buyers is willing to make a special purchase effort.

Q12. _____ are consumer products that the consumer either does not know about or knows about but does not normally think about buying. These products require a lot of advertising, personal selling, and other marketing efforts.

Q13. ________ are those products purchased for further processing or for use in conducting a business.

Q14. The three groups of industrial products and services include all of the following except _____.

Q15. Most manufactured materials and parts are sold directly to _____. Price and service are the major marketing factors; branding and advertising tend to be less important.

Q16. _____ are industrial products that aid in the buyer’s production or operations, including installations and accessory equipment.

Q17. _____ consists of activities undertaken to create, maintain, or change the attitudes and behavior of target consumers toward an organization.

Q18. _____ consists of activities undertaken to create, maintain, or change attitudes or behavior toward particular people.

Q19. _____ involves activities undertaken to create, maintain, or change attitudes toward particular cities, states, and regions. Texas advertises “It’s like a whole other country.”

Q20. _____ is defined as the use of commercial marketing concepts and tools in programs designed to influence individuals’ behavior to improve their well-being and that of society.

Q21. Most manufacturers take years and spend millions to create their own brand names. However, some companies _____ names or symbols previously created by other manufacturers, names of well-known celebrities, and/or characters from popular movies and books. For a fee, any of these can provide an instant and proven brand name.

Q22. _____ occurs when two established brand names of different companies are used on the same product.

Q23. In most _____ situations, one company licenses another company’s well-known brand to use in combination with its own.

Q24. As one Nabisco manager puts it, ”Giving away your brand is a lot like giving away your _____ — you want to make sure everything is perfect.”

Q25. A company has four choices when it comes to developing brands. What is not one of those choices?

Q26. _____ occur(s) when a company introduces additional items in a given product category under the same brand name, such as new flavors, forms, colors, ingredients, or package sizes.

Q27. One risk of _____ is that sales may come at the expense of other items in the line. It works best when it takes sales away from competing brands, not when it “cannibalizes” the company’s other items.

Q28. A _____ involves the use of a successful brand name to launch new or modified products in a new category.

Q29. _____ offer(s) a way to establish different features and appeal to different buying motives. It also allows a company to lock up more reseller shelf space. Or the company may want to protect its major brand by setting up flanker or fighter brands.

Q30. Retailers have become concerned that there are already too many brands, with too few differences between them. Thus, Procter & Gamble and other large consumer- product marketers are now pursuing _____ strategies—weeding out weaker brands and focusing their marketing dollars only on brands that can achieve the number-one or number-two market share positions in their categories.

Q31. Companies must carefully manage their brands. First, the brand’s positioning must be continuously communicated to consumers. Major brand marketers often spend huge amounts on advertising to create brand _____ and to build preference and loyalty.

Q32. Advertising campaigns can help to create name recognition, brand knowledge, and maybe even some brand preference. However, the fact is that brands are not maintained by advertising but by the _____.

Q33. The brand’s positioning will not take hold fully unless everyone in the company lives the brand. Therefore the company needs to train its people to be _____.

Q34. The brand’s positioning will not take hold fully unless everyone in the company lives the brand. This suggests that managing a company’s brand assets can no longer be left only to _____.

Q35. Canada Dry and Colgate-Palmolive have appointed _____ managers to maintain and protect their brand’s images, associations, and quality, and to prevent short-term actions by over-eager brand managers from hurting the brand.

Q36. The recent wave of corporate mergers and acquisitions has decided, “We need a master brand to leave all our old names behind.” What is this called?

Q37. Building a(n) _____ and re-educating customers can be a huge undertaking for a company. It cost tens of millions of dollars just for a special four-week advertising campaign to announce the new name, followed by considerable ongoing advertising expenses to the Verizon Company.

Q38. A company must consider four special service characteristics when designing marketing programs. Which is not one of these characteristics?

Q39. _____ means that services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before they are bought.

Q40. _____ means that services cannot be separated from their providers, whether the providers are people or machines.

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Amity MBA 4th Sem ASODL Project Management

Assignment A

Q1. (a) Define Project. What are the characteristics of a project?
(b) How does a project differ from regular production?
Q2. What are the phases associated with the life of a project? Highlight the key points of each phase.
Q3. (a) What are the responsibilities and skills required by a project manager?
(b) Discuss various project organizations with suitable examples.
Q4. (a) What is the mean by network analysis? Explain the rules for drawing a network.
(b) What are the techniques for project scheduling and monitoring?
Q5. (a) What is meant by work break down structure?
(b) What is resource loading, resource leveling and resource smoothing?
Q6. (a) What is a pre-feasibility and feasibility report?
(b) Detailed Project Report (DPR) forms the foundation on which the entire project is built. Discuss various elements to be included in a DPR for the success of a project.
Q7. Discuss various software used for project scheduling and monitoring. Discuss the inputs and
output of each one of them.
Q8. Write short notes
(a) Scope creep
(b) Earned value analysis
(c) Project appraisal
(d) Linear Responsibility chart

Assignment B

Case Study: Please read the case study given below and answer questions given at the end.

(a) A project details are given below.

Activity Predecessor Normal Time
(Days) Crash Time
(Days) Normal
Cost Rs. Crash
Cost Rs.
A – 3 2 8000 14000
B – 2 1 12000 19000
C A 5 3 20000 28000
D B 5 3 15000 23000
E C,D 6 4 18000 28000
F C,D 2 1 6000 10000
G F 2 1 5000 10000
i) Draw the network diagram

ii) Find the paths and identify the critical path

iii) Find the duration of the project

iv) Calculate the cost slope for each of the activities
v) What is the total project cost using the normal times?

(b) Various activities involved in a project is given below

Activity Immediate
Predecessors Optimistic Time duration in days
Most Likely Pessimistic
A – 6 8 22
B A 40 60 80
C A 12 21 24
D A 20 30 40
E B 10 15 20
F C & E 1 / 2 1 3 / 2
G D & E 8 10 12
H F & G 4 5 6

i) Draw the appropriate PERT network
ii) Identify the critical path and project duration
iii) Calculate the earliest start time, earliest finish time, latest start time, latest finish time, and slack of each of the activities.
iv) What is the Probability of completing the project in 120 days?

Assignment C

  1. Project A has an internal rate of return (IRR) of 21 percent. Project B has an IRR of 7
    Project C has an IRR of 31 percent. Project D has an IRR of ig percent. Which of these would be the BEST project?
  1. When checking the calendar of a team member to schedule a meeting, you see she has scheduled a meeting with a key stakeholder that you were not informed of. The best approach would be to
  2. The program evaluation and review technique (PERT) method of scheduling differs from the critical path method (CPM) because the PERT method:
  3. A project manager would like to manage his project in such a way that he will be able to identify specific tasks that should be watched and managed more closely than others. The project manager should use which method?
  4. The act of doing anything that will help to bring future project performance into line with the project plan is called
  5. A project manager is using a cause and effect diagram with the team to determine how various factors might be linked to potential problems. In what part of the quality management process is the project manager involved?
  6.   In, ____________we see whether return or benefits on this investment are more than its cost from point of view of society in which we are living
  7. Resource leveling will generally
  8. If all planned work has been completed or earned,What is the schedule variance?
  9.   A project whose acceptance does not prevent or require the acceptance of one or more alternative projects is referred to as __________
  10. When operating under a single-period capital-rationing constraint, you may first want to try selecting projects by descending order of their __________ in order to give yourself the best chance to select the mix of projects that adds most to firm value.
  11. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the internal rate of return (IRR) method?
  12. Which of the following is not a potential for a ranking problem between two mutually exclusive projects?
  13. The three phases involved in the management of large projects are
  14. With respect to PERT and CPM, slack
  15. A dummy activity is required when
  16. Which of the following is a basic assumption of PERT?
  17. PERT analysis computes the variance of the total project completion time as
  18. Which of the following managers develop operational plans for the project?
  19. Which of the following is a direct responsibility of the project manager?
  20. Which of the following is the benefit of the network analysis approach?
  21. A project can be considered to have failed if it
  22. Which of the following is not a reason to reduce project completion time?
  23. Which of the following is especially useful for monitoring project progress against plan?
  24. An individual with a diverse set of skills–management, leadership, technical, conflict management, and customer relationship–who is responsible for initiating, planning, executing, and closing down a project best defines:
  25. Identifying, assessing, and managing the risks and day-to-day changes that occur during a project best defines which of the following project manager activities?
  26. Optimistic time refers to
  27. Which of the following is not a true statement regarding Network diagrams?
  28. An example of a project management system is
  29. Which of the following slack times indicates that an activity is on the critical path?
  30. A project manager that dictates all decisions and does not allow for any participation by the workers would be using which leadership style. 
  31. The shortest time necessary to complete all of the activities in a network is called the:
  32. The first step in the development of a schedule is a:
  33. The calculation of the total cost of a product, from R&D to operational support and disposal, is called:
  34. Which is the first stage in the project management model?
  35. Successful project management does NOT include which of the following factors?
  36. A critical path network diagram does not: 
  37. Which of the following statements gives the Technical definition of Project Planning?
  38. Which of the following is the responsibility of proposed project manager?
  39.  The main purpose of a _______________ is to function as a blueprint for the group’s business operations.

Assignment C

1. Which of the following is not an objective of project management?
a) Achieve specified performance
b) Complete on Schedule
c) Complete within the budgeted cost
d) Eliminate complexities and risks
2. Project are characterized by all of the following except.
a) Continuous activities
b) Unique elements
c) Complex interdependencies
d) Environment of conflict
3. Which of the following is not a phase in a project life cycle?
a) Start up
b) Building phase
c) Control phase
d) Termination
4. All the work that needs to be done to attain a project objectives is
a) Scope
b) Risk
c) Vision
d) Strategy
5. Document issued by senior management that formally authorizes the existence of a project.
a) Project charter
b) Work breakdown Structure
c) Vision document
d) Work authorization letter
6. Which of the following does not clearly indicate the qualities of a project manager.
a) Project manager must be able to define how success or failure of a project is determined
b) Project manager should build and maintain a good communication network
c) Project manager should be rigid
d) Project manager must have sufficient experience in handling projects
7. A Greenfield project means.
a) A project that is started from scratch
b) An environment friendly project
c) A Project that produces green products
d) A Project that is completed at a cost less than the budgeted cost
8. Which of the following is not a demand on the Project manager
a) Acquiring and motivating team members
b) Negotiating
c) Taking & rigid stand in goals
d) Dealing with obstacles
9. All the skills requirements of a Project Manager except
a) Technical skills
b) Communication skills
c) Cultural skills
d) Interpersonal skills
10. Which of the following is not a correct observation regarding a functional manager and project manager
a) A Functional manager uses analytical approach whereas a project manager uses systemic approach
b) A Functional manger is a technological supervisor whereas a project manager is a facilitator.
c) A Functional manger is a generalist whereas a project manager is a specialist
d) The communication requirements of a project manager are comparatively greater than that of a functional manager.

11. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage of a functional approach to project organization?
a) Client gets the least focus or concern
b) Orientation towards the activities of the function
c) Motivation of the people assigned to the project tends to be very high
d) There won’t be a single person in charge of the except

12. A Project organization is characterized by all except
a) A project manager has full line Authority over the project
b) The level of commitment from the members is high
c) A pure project organization is structurally complex
d) Unit of command exists in a pure project organization

13. All are the advantages of a matrix organization except
a) In a matrix organization PM is the centre of authority
b) The project can draw require expertise from functional areas
c) In a matrix organization the project gets full focus
d) The response to client needs is highly rapid

14. All the major behavior problems facing a project manager except
a) Perfectionism
b) Remuneration
c) Motivation
d) Conflict

15. A project would find team development the most difficult in
a) Project organization
b) Functional organization
c) Matrix organization
d) Flat organization

16. What a project manager should do to set clear boundaries for a project completion
a) WBS is a tree structure that shows a sub
b) Work breakdown structure
c) Liner responsibility chart
d) Create risk register

17. All of the following are characteristics of a Work breakdown structure (WBS) except
a) WBS is a tree structure that shows a sub division of efforts require to achieve an objective
b) WBS is developed by starting with the end objective
c) WBS express the scope of a project in graphical from
d) WBS incorporates the time/schedule of each of the activities

18. The lowest element in a Work Breakdown structure is
a) Work package
b) program
c) Task
d) Costs

19. A Liner Responsibilities chart has all the following except
a) Shows who is responsible for what
b) Shows critical interfaces between units that needs special coordination
c) It shows who must approve what and who must report to whom
d) Provides the cost and schedule of each of the task

20. If you are allowed to choose only one tool to manage a project which one would you choose
a) Work Breakdown structure
b) Gantt chart
c) Resource Chart
d) Risk register

21 All are the traditional categories of conflict in a project except
a) Cost based
b) Goal-oriented
c) Authority-based
d) Interpersonal

22. Which of the following is not a source of conflict?
a) The project team itself
b) The client
c) The remuneration
d) Senior management

23. All are points of ‘Principled negotiation’ except
a) Focus on the people rather than the problem
b) Focus on interests not positions
c) Identify options for mutual gains before trying to reach an agreement
d) Use objective criteria

24. Scheduling and technical conflicts are more frequent during
a) Start up phase
b) Build up phase
c) Maturity Phase
d) Termination Phase

25. All are critical issues handled in a project formulation phase except
a) Specifying the technical objectives
b) Committing the resource for the project
c) Deciding the number of vendors that will take part in the tendering process
d) Selecting the project organization structure

26. Which of the following is not related to scope creep?
a) Occurs at the planning stage of the project
b) Happens due to poor change control
c) May occur due to lack proper definition at the initial stage
d) May occur due to strong customer requirements

27. A budgeting method that begins with those who will be doing the tasks is called
a) Top sown budgeting
b) Bottom up budgeting
c) Program budgeting
d) Zero budgeting

28. All are project control tools except
a) Trend Projection tools except
b) Peer review
c) Critical ratios
d) Control chart

29. A Standard for performance, established at the beginning of the project for later comparison is
a) Baseline
b) Budget
c) Deliverables
d) Mission

30. An uncertain event or condition that if it occurs has a positive or negative effect on project objectives is
a) Scope
b) Risk
c) Communication
d) Delays

31. An analysis carried out to estimate the potential size of the market for the product is
a) Market and demand analysis
b) Technical analysis
c) Financial analysis
d) Process analysis

32. Technical analysis for a project is concerned with all of the following except
a) Manufacturing process
b) Composition of the product market
c) Plant capacity
d) Material input and utilities

33. The case flows occurring at the end of a project life on account of project liquidation is
a) Initial investment
b) Operating cash inflows
c) Terminal cash inflows
d) Profit

34. To assess the risk of a project which of the following may not be useful?
a) Sensitivity analysis
b) Scenario analysis
c) Monte Carlo simulation
d) Network analysis

35. The network that combines signal flow graph theory, probabilistic networks and decision trees is
c) CPM
d) Gantt chart

36. Which of the following is not a characteristic of PERT chart?
a) Uses three time estimates
b) Probabilistic
c) Activity crashing possible
d) Can be best used for research project

37. All are related to Activity on arrow (AOA) network except
a) Activities are shown on the arrow whereas the two ends of the activity represent the start and finish nodes.
b) Dummy activities are used to represent two activities having the same start and finish nodes.
c) Looping is allowed in AOA network
d) Strictly follows precedence relationship of activities.

38. An earned value chart does not show
a) Scheduled progress
b) Actual work
c) Actual cost
d) Risk

39. The process of allocating the required number of resources to each of the activity is know as

a) Resource Loading
b) Resource Leveling
c) Resource Smoothing
d) Resource Matching

40. Who should be involved in the creation of lessons learned, at the closure of a project?
a) Project team.
b) Management of the performing organization.
c) Project vendors.
d) Sake holders.

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