MBA HR – University Solved Assignments / Synopsis / Projects.(AMITY/SMU/Jaipur National.)

Organisation Structure and Design

May 7, 2016September 25, 2016 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

1. Explain the concept of Organizational Effectiveness.
2. What are the Importance and Approaches of Organizational Effectiveness
3. Explain the concept of Organization design
4. Explain the concept of Technological Discontinuities.
5. Explain the definition of organizational structure.
6. What are the parameters of organization?

CASE STUDY: THE GLITCH THAT LOST KRISTA

Elizabeth N. Fried, Outrageous Acts of Behaviour, Intermediaries Press, Dublin Ohio, 1990.
Chase was quite pleased. He was instrumental in redesigning the organisation and implementing the communication program. He arranged for small-group meetings so that employees could understand the need for reorganisation. The process took him nearly a month of continuous meetings, but the response was favourable. The employees cooperated and helped make the transition very smooth. After six weeks, the first productivity report showed a fifteen percent decrease in expenses, and morale seemed stable. The agency had plans to administer a work-climate study after twelve months.
Chase was immersed in the glowing productivity report when his assistant, Suzanne, walked in his office. “Here they are, fresh off the presses, our first run since the reorganisation,” Suzanne chirped.
Chase looked up from his desk puzzled, “What?”
“The performance review reminders,” Suzanne responded. “You know, every month we get a printout for those employees due for their annual performance review. They have little computer-generated postcards that we send out to the managers.”
“Oh, right, right. Go ahead and send them out,” Chase said, still preoccupied with his productivity report.
Several days later he got a call from Gordon Fishman, the information officer.
“Say, Chase,” Gordon began, “I just got the computer reminder to give Krista Reed, one of my former clerks, her performance review. Since we reorganised, Krista doesn’t work for me any more.”
Krista was fairly far down in the organisation, so her name would not show up on the major charts. Chase remembered hiring her about three years ago for a simple, routine clerk job. She was rather plain, not very bright, but quite pleasant. When her performance reviews had crossed his desk, there was nothing unusual. They were mostly peppered with satisfactories. She had received only one promotion in three years and tended to blend right into the agency.
“Well, what happened to her?” Chase asked.
“I’m not really sure, but I think she’s reporting to Bill Acton in Administration. Try him”
Gordon responded.
Chase looked up Bill’s extension. “Say, Bill, this is Chase Vidmar. We have a
performance appraisal due on Krista Reed, and I understand she reports to you now.”
“Krista Reed: Nope, not me. I think she was shipped over to Tracy Karras after the
reorganisation. Give Tracy a call,” Bill suggested.
Chase tapped out Tracy’s four-digit extension. “Ms. Karras’s office, Jane speaking.”
“Hi, Jane, this is Chase Vidmar. Is Tracy available?”
“Sorry, Mr. Vidmar, but Tracy is out of the office at a meeting with one of our
vendors.”
“Oh,” he paused, “well, maybe you can help me. Does Krista Reed report to your
section?”
“That name doesn’t sound familiar, but I’ll check. Can you hold?”
“Sure.”
Chase waited while he scanned his own personnel computer runs. There was Krista Reed’s name all right. She still retained Gordon Fishman’s budget code, but the section reassignment code was blank. That’s why the performance appraisal reminder defaulted to Gordon. “Where the hell could she be?” he thought.
Jane returned to the line. “Sorry, Mr. Vidmar, but we don’t have her here.”
“Thanks, Jane.” Chase rang off and sat at his desk bewildered. The agency had over two thousand people and he wasn’t about to send out a missing-rewards memo on Krista.
She was getting her paycheck. That must be a clue.
“Rats,” he thought, after he checked with payroll. “My luck, she has her pay directdeposited, with the confirmation mailed to her home. “Her home,” he thought, “maybe she’s at home. I’ll try there.” For an entire week Chase periodically called Krista’s number – no answer or busy. He was getting very frustrated.

Notes
Amity Directorate of Distance & Online Education Chase usually worked through his lunch, grabbing some junk food from the vending machine. Today he felt especially hungry for some reason, so he ventured into the employee cafeteria. He filled his tray from the deli bar and passed through the register.
Seated a few tables from the register was Krista Reed! Chase couldn’t believe his
eyes. His surprise almost caused him to set his Coke off balance. He regained control and casually sauntered over to Krista, who was seated with some other women. There was an available seat across from her.
“Mind if I join you?” Chase asked politely.
“Sure, no problem,” Krista smiled.
“So, Krista, it’s been a long time since we’ve talked. How have you been?”
“Pretty good.”
“So where are you working now that we’ve reorganised?” he asked.
“I’m glad you asked,” she responded sincerely. “When everyone got their printout of where to be reassigned, the section for me was blank. My boss was tied up in meetings that day, so I didn’t get to discuss it with him. Even though the move wasn’t scheduled for two weeks, I wasn’t able to get to him because I left that Friday for my two-week vacation.
So, when I returned, everyone was in his or her new offices, and my boss, as you know, was shipped over to Building G across the complex. My section was split three ways, so I didn’t even know which group to follow and haven’t known what to do. I’ve felt really lost and kind of upset that the agency has forgotten about me. So I just came to work and visited with friends in the various break rooms, and then I’d sit through all three lunch sessions. That part has been a lot of fun, but to tell the truth, I’ve been getting kinda bored.”
“That’s terrible, Krista,” Chase feigned sympathetically.
“And not only that,” she added, “with all these lunches I’ve eaten over the past several weeks, I’ve gained nearly eight pounds!”
Chase was astounded. He knew Krista wasn’t a rocket scientist, but how could she spend over a month occupying her day having one long lunch, just hoping someone might notice? Incredibly, no one did notice, and Krista appeared deadly serious and wholly sincere. Rather than embarrass him and the whole agency for the major snafu, Chase politely suggested to Krista that she return with him to his office. He reviewed the organisational design study and determined where Krista should logically be located.
Chase contacted the section manager and notified him that he was sending Krista on up.
The he put a change action through to the computer to ensure that the elusive Krista would once again have a home.
1. What type of organisational structure is this most likely to have occurred in?
2. What organisational response should have taken place to prevent this situation?
3. Do you believe this could happen in a restructuring company?

1. An organisational environment is composed of forces or institutions surrounding an organisation that affect ………………………………………..
2. Which of the following is not an element of the internal environment?
3. …………………………………. is the most important element of organisations internal environment, which performs the tasks of the administration.
4. ………………………… environment includes suppliers, customers, competitors, employees.
5. …………………………. are the people who hands them the profit that the companies are targeting.
6. The ………………………………… of an organisation is the overall status if the economic system in which the organisation operates.
7. ……………………….. is the number and diversity of constituencies that influence the organisation.
8. Environmental changeability refers to whether elements in the environment are stable or unstable.
9. Macro-environmental uncertainty is uncertainty in the organisation’s general environment, including political, regulatory, statutory, and economic conditions.
10. In ……………………………………. situation, changes in the environment affecting the uncertainty factors are low (that is, low environmental dynamism).
11. Following knowledge ecosystem approach, the knowledge management trees need to:
12. Which of the following are the elements of Knowledge ecosystem?
13. When government and the private sector work together on policies and initiatives to support an innovative environment, and a given region can better leverage its resources it is known as ………………………………………………
14. ……………………………………………………. is knowledge ecology – a system consisting of many sources, venues, forms and species of knowledge agents in a symbiotic relationship of productive exchange and value creation.
15. ……………………………………………………. is knowledge ecology – a system consisting of many sources, venues, forms and species of knowledge agents in a symbiotic relationship of productive exchange and value creation.
16. These systems consist of interlinked knowledge resources, databases, human experts, and artificial knowledge agents that collectively provide an online knowledge for anywhere anytime performance of organisational tasks.
17. Which of the following is a key element of networked knowledge systems?
18. ………………………………………………………. refers to the system of creating knowledge including the research and development processes, experts, operational managers/administrators, software systems, archival knowledge resources and database
19. The willingness to create knowledge ecosystems in business education depending on how business school administrators understand their costs and benefits is known as ………………………………………………….
20. Which of the following are Implementation Barriers?
21. ……………………………………… refers to a managerial style based on low risk, with formalized procedures and a high degree of structure and control
22. Which of the following is true for organisational design?
23. ……………………………………………………….. is a classic model of organisational design that involves structuring an organisation hierarchically with formal rules and procedures that govern the organisation and its members.
24. ……………………………………………………………. refers to an organisational structure by which the firm is separated into several semi autonomous units which are guided and controlled by (financial) targets from the centre.
25. H-form organisation is sometimes called a ……………………………….
26. Mechanistic structure is ………………………………
27. ………………………………………….. is a system of organisation where the elements of the organisation are unranked or where they possess the potential to be ranked a number of different ways.
28. ………………………………… is also called triarchy theory.
29. ………………………………………… describes the degree to which tasks in an organisation are divided into separate jobs
30. ………………… refers to the degree to which jobs within the organisation are standardized and the extent to which employee behaviour is guided by rules and procedures
31. A ………………………………………………….. is one in which its design is not defined by, or limited to, the horizontal, vertical, or external boundaries imposed by a predefined structure.
32. …………………………………………………………. asks that people look for what works in an organisation and build designs from that.
33. …………………………………………………………… are typically held to create a new vision, figure out how to implement a strategy, plan a significant change, solve a complex or intractable problem, invent a new product or prepare for community action.
34. …………………………………………………… is the process by which an organisation allocates people and resources to organisational tasks and establishes the task and authority relationships that allow the organisation to achieve its goals.
35. ……………………………………… is a set of task-related behaviours required of a person by his or her position in an organisation.
36. ………………………………… is the power to hold people accountable for their actions and to make decisions concerning the use of organisational resources.
37. …………………………. facilitate an organisation’s control of its relations with its environment and its stakeholders.
38. ……………………………………………… refers to the way an organisation designs its hierarchy of authority and creates reporting relationships to link organisational roles and subunits.
39. ………………………. between people in different subunits is an integrating mechanism that is more complex than a hierarchy of authority.
40. ………………………………. is the process through which people use their judgment rather than standardized rules to address problems, guide decision making, and promote coordination.
41. …………………………………… is the use of written rules and procedures to standardize operations.

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Amity MBA 3rd Sem ASODL Compensation & Reward Management

February 22, 2016 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Q1 What is Employees Compensation? State its two components? Explain the various steps involved in establishing pay rates?
Q2. Give overview of legislations affecting compensation?
Q3. What are different elements of managerial compensation?
Q4. Outline the main employees’ services benefits?
Q5. What is goal sharing? Why organizations introduce goal sharing?
Q6. Define Benefits and incentives? Classify them? State its merits and demerits?
Q7. State the differences between absenteeism and retention? Explain the process, advantages and limitations of retention management
Q8. Explain performance based rewards and compensation schemes? Also explain competency mapping?

Case Study- Seat of the pants

Gaurav cleaning centers doesn’t have a formal wage structure nor does it have rate ranges or use compensable factors. Wage rates are based mostly on those prevailing in the surrounding community and tempered with an attempt on the part of Gaurav to maintain some semblance of equity between what workers with different responsibilities in the stores are paid.
Needless to say, Gaurav doesn’t make any formal surveys when determining what his company should pay. He peruses the want ads almost everyday and conducts informal surveys among his friends in the local chapter of the laundry and cleaners trade association. While Gaurav has taken a “seat-of-the-pants” approach to paying the employees, his salary schedule has been guided by several basic pay policies while many of his colleagues adhere to a policy of paying absolutely minimum rates, Gaurav has always followed a policy of paying his employees about 10%above what he feels are the prevailing rates, a policy that he believes reduces turnover while fostering employee loyalty. Of somewhat more concern to Pragati is her father’s informal policy of paying men about 20% more than women for the same job. Her father’s explanation is,” they are stronger and can work harder for longer hours and besides they all have families to support.”
Questions
1. Is the company at the point where it should be setting up a formal salary structure based on a complete job evaluation? Why?
2. Gaurav policy of paying 10%more than the prevailing rates a sound one and how could that be determined?

Case Study- Health care – Business or Employees
By February 2004 strike by southern Delhi grocery workers against the state’s major supermarket chains was almost 5 month old because so many workers were striking (70,000) and because of the issues involved, unions and employers across the country were closely following the negotiations. Indeed, grocery union contracts were said to expire in several cities later in 2004, and many believed the Delhi settlement-assuming one was reached-would set a pattern.
The main issue was employee benefits, and specifically how much (if any) of the employees health care costs the employees should pay themselves. Based on their existing contract, southern Delhi grocery workers had unusually good health benefits. For example they paid nothing toward their health insurance premiums, and paid only Rs 420 co-payments for doctor visits .However, supporting these excellent health benefits cost the big Southern Delhi grocery chain over Rs168 per hour per worker.
The big grocery chains were not proposing cutting health care insurance benefits for their existing employees. Instead, they proposed putting any new employees hired after the new contract went into effect into a separate insurance pool, and contributing Rs56.7 per hour for their health insurance coverage. That meant new employee’s health insurance would cost each new employee perhaps Rs420 per week. And, if that Rs420 per week wasn’t enough to cover the cost of health care, then the employees would have to pay more or do without some of their benefits.
It was difficult situation for all the parties involved. For the grocery chain employers sky rocketing health care cost per undermining their competitiveness; and the current employees feared any step down the slippery slope that might eventually mean cutting their own health benefits. The unions did not welcome a situation in which they’d end up representing two classes of employees, one(the existing employees) who had excellent health insurance benefits, another(newly hired employees)whose benefits were relatively meager and who might therefore be unhappy from the moment they took their jobs and joined the union.
Q1. Assume you are mediating this dispute. Discuss three creative solutions you would suggest for how the grocers could reduce the health insurance benefits and the cost of their total benefits package without making any employees pay more?
Q2. From the grocery chains point of view, what is the downside of having two classes of employees, one of which has superior health insurance benefits? How would you suggest they handle the problem?

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MBA 3rd Sem Industrial Relations & Labour Laws

November 28, 2015October 2, 2016 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Q1. Define the term ‘Industrial Relations’. Also discuss, in brief, the causes and effects of poor industrial relations.
Q2. “The history of ‘Indian Trade Union Movement’ during the pre-Independence period has been full of partitions and mergers”. Discuss, quoting suitable examples.
Q3. Discuss, in brief, the machinery provided under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (As amended up to date), for settlement of industrial disputes.
Q4. Define the term ‘Grievance’. Also explain the Model Grievance Procedure for the redressal of grievances.
Q5. Discuss, in brief, the various steps taken by the Government from time to time to encourage workers’ participation in management in our country.
Q6. Identify the factors responsible for indiscipline in industry. Also explain the procedure of disciplinary action.
Q7. Write short notes on the following:
a) Benefits available to employees under the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948.
b) Deductions ‘permissible’ and ‘not permissible’ under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936.
c) Compulsory Arbitration as provided under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (as amended upto date.)

Q8. Write short note on any two of the following:
a) The procedure of Collective Bargaining.
b) Illegal Strikes.
c) Procedure for registration of trade unions.
d) Difference between ‘Suspension’ and ‘Dismissal’.

Case study
Chief Engineer Raju
Raju has been with the company for the last 15 years. He is considered to be very competent in his job. Raju always greeted people with a smiling face and never lost his temper on the shop floor. Workers had considerable regard for him. In union circles Raju enjoyed a good reputation for his fairness. He had a unique style of his own when it came to personnel matters. He advocated patience and restraint while dealing with people. He would often say “gone are the days when one could deal with employees strictly. Now you have to be flexible, considerate and fair”.

Supervisor Madan
A yound man of 25, Madan is always keen on meeting production targets. He took genuine interest in his job and handled all his assignments carefully. He is of the view that top management and specially the HR manager more often than not, might fail to back up supervisors in their efforts to bring about some discipline in the plant. He believed that complaints from supervisors are ignored by management and as a result, workers get encouraged to indulge in disruptive activities, adversely affecting production.

Balbir Singh
Balbir, a skilled worker, has recently been elected as the Joint Secretary of the Union. He holds leftist political views, though he is not a member of any political party. He is ambitious and wants to reach the top levels in union circles as quickly as possible.On Monday, Raju had hardly entered in his office when the supervisor Madan rushes in.

Madan: Sir, there is a great commotion in the section. No one is working. Even after repeated requests, workers have not stopped the shouting and hooting. Sir, please come to the shop and see for yourself the extent of indiscipline that has become rampant.

Raju: Madan, take your seat. Tell me the truth. I will come to the shop floor if you so desire. But first tell me why are you so much upset.

Madan: Sir, you know, Balbir, the joint secretary of the union, was loitering around and not attending to his machine. I called him and told him to go to his machine and start it.

Raju: Then what happened?

Madan: Balbir retorted quickly, “Do not shout at me. Your lung power does not work here. Even your bosses cannot order me about like that. What are you, after all?” Many workers gathered around and witnessed the scene.

Raju: O.K. Now please go to your section. I will ask Balbir to come immediately.

Balbir: Sir, you wanted me to see you? What is the purpose?

Raju: Please sit down. What would you have? Tea or coffee? (Presses the buzzer). Bring two cups of tea. (After the tea has arrived)-Do you need more sugar? Balbir, tell me now why are you after Madan? He is a sincere and hardworking young supervisor and you should cooperate with him.

Balbir: Sir, first listen to me and then decide. This Madan has run amuck. Kal Ka Chokra, he thinks he is Hitler. This morning the security staff did not allow two workers of my section in. Somehow I came to know. I left the section and went to see the security officer. With Great difficulty I managed to get the two workers punch their cards and join duty. On my return I saw Madan fuming and fretting. In a derogatory tone he started shouting at me. When I could stand it no longer I also raised my voice and told him to go and report against me.

Raju: Look! Balbir you are a responsible union official. You should not have created the scene. After all a supervisor has to ensure discipline. I am sorry you have set a bad example for other workers. How do you want me to proceed? Madan is very sore at being insulted in the presence of so many workers. I have to do something so that such incidents do not occur again.

Q1. Who is at fault and why?
Q2. Do you think unionized employees require a different kind of treatment on matters relating to discipline?
Q3. What should Raju do now to check both Madan and Balbir from going to the street future?

1 In the beginning of industrial revolution, with regard to settlement of industrial disputes, the Government believed in :
2 Which of the following, according to section 2 (K) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, is not treated as Industrial Dispute?
3 Which of the following is not a part of Conciliation Machinery for the settlement of industrial dispute’s under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (as amended upto date)?
4 Which of the following is not a part of Adjudication Machinery under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (as amended upto date)?
5 Which of the following is not a part of machinery for the settlement of industrial disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (as amended upto date)?
6 Which of the following is not the measure to prevent industrial disputes?
7 Which of the following statements is not correct?
8 The Grievance Committee should give its decision regarding the redressal of the grievance within (as per Model Grievance Procedure):
9 Which of the following is not an internal cause of indiscipline?
10 Which of the following is not an internal cause of indiscipline?
11 Which of the following statements is not correct?
12 Which of the following statements, as per trade union Act, 1926, is not relevant with regard to trade union?
13 Function of the trade union do not include:
14 Trade union do not play the role of :
15 All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was formed in:
16 Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS) was formed in :
17 Labour Movement’ is started by:
18 The Trade Unions Act was passed in :
19 Which section of the Trade Unions Act, 1926 defines the term “Trade Union”?
20 Which is not one of the characteristics of a trade union?
21 Under the provision of the Trade Unions Act, which of the following statements is not correct?
22 The institutions of Work Committees was provided in the year:
23 Which of the following is not true in the case of the 1975-Scheme of Workers’ Participation in Industries:
24 Which of the following statements is not true in the case of the 1983- Scheme of Workers’ Participation? in Management?
25 Which of the following statements with regard to the Scheme for appointing Workers’ representative in the Board of Management, is not true?
26 Which of the following is not a part of ‘Negotiation Stage’ of collective bargaining?
27 Which of the following is not a part of ‘Preparation for Negotiations’ in connection with collective bargaining?
28 Which of the following is not a part of ‘Negotiations of Agreement’ in connection with collective bargaining?
29 Which of the following is not one of the causes for limited success of collective bargaining in India?
30 Which of the following is not a role of collective bargaining?
31 Which of the following is not a feature of collective bargaining?
32 Which of the following is not the objective of industrial relations?
33 Which of the following sections of the Trade Unions (Amendment) Act, 1947 (though not enforced) permits the registered Trade Union whose recognition is withdrawn under sub-section (3) of section 28 G to make an application for re-recognition after six months from the date of withdrawal of recognition?
34 Which of the following is not a pre-requisite to collective bargaining?
35 The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, applies to every industrial establishment employing:
36 The Minimum Wages Act was passed in:
37 The Employees State Insurance Act was passed in :
38 The payment of Wages Act, 1936 deals with:
39 The Employees Provident Fund & Misc Provisions Act was passed in:
40 Lock-out is declared by:

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MBA 3rd Sem Management of Change & Organisational Development/ Organizational Change & Development

November 28, 2015October 2, 2016 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Q1 What are the common pitfalls while implementing organizational change? Discuss in detail.
Q2 How is organizational change different from organizational development? Discuss, quoting suitable example.
Q3. How do organizations know when they should change? What cues should an organization look for? Discuss in detail.
Q4 What are the various factors accelerating change? Explain the sources of individual and organizational resistance to change.
Q5. What is an OD Intervention? Discuss the OD values necessary for dealing with individuals, team and organization.
Q6. Explain different kinds of OD interventions specially designed to improve team performance. Explain the human process approach to OD.
Q7. (a) State and explain various theories of planned change in detail.
(b)List and explain the steps that managers can take to minimize resistance to change.

Q8. Discuss and exemplify the relevance of intergroup development OD intervention in the organization.

CASE STUDY
CROSS – TRAINING EMILY
Emily, who has the reputation of being an excellent worker, is a machine operator in a furniture manufacturing plant that has been growing at a rate of 15% to 20% each year for the past decade. New additions have been built onto the plant, new plants opened in the region, workers hired, new product lines developed, lots of expansion, but with no significant change in overall approach to operations, plant lay-out, ways of managing workers, or in the design processes. Plant operations as well as organizational culture are rooted in traditional Western management practices and logic, based largely on the notion of mass production and economies of scale. Over the past four years, the company has been growing in number and variety of products produced and in market penetration; however, profitability has been flattening and showing signs of decline. As a result, management is beginning to focus more on production operations (internal focus) rather than new market strategies, new products, and new market segments (external focus), in developing their strategic plans. They hope to get manufacturing costs down, improve consistency of quality and ability to meet delivery times better, while decreasing inventory and increasing flexibility.
One of several new programs initiated by management in this effort to improve flexibility and lower costs was to get workers cross-trained. However, when a representative from Human Resources explained this program to Emily’s supervisor, Jim, he reluctantly agreed to cross-train most of his workers, but NOT Emily.
Jim explained to the Human Resources person that Emily works on a machine that is very complex and not easy to effectively operate. He has tried many workers on it, tried to train them, but Emily is the only one that can consistently get product through the machine that is within specification and still meet production schedules. When anyone else tries to operate the machine, which performs a key function in the manufacturing process, it either ends up being a big bottle neck or producing excessive waste, which creates a lot of trouble for Jim.
Jim goes on to explain that Emily knows this sophisticated and complicated machine inside and out, she has been running it for five years. She likes the challenge; she says it makes the day go by faster, too. She is meticulous in her work, a very skilled employee who really cares about the quality of her work. Jim told the HR person that he wished all of his workers were like Emily. Jim was adamant about keeping Emily on this machine and not cross-training her. The HR person was frustrated. He could see Jim’s point but he had to follow executive orders: “Get these people cross-trained.”
Around the same period of time, a university student was doing a field study in the section of the plant where Emily worked and Emily was one of the workers he interviewed. Emily told the student that, in spite of the fact that the plant had some problems with employee morale and excessive employee turnover, she really liked working there. She also mentioned that she is hoping that she did not have to participate in the recent “Program of the Month” which was having operators learn each other’s jobs. She told the student that it would just create more waste if they tried to have other employees run her machine.

Emily seemed to take a special liking for the student and began to open up to him. She told him that her machine really didn’t need to be so difficult and touchy to operate, with a couple of rather minor design changes in the machine and better maintenance, virtually anyone could run it. She had tried to explain this to her supervisor a couple of years ago but he just told her to “do her work and leave operations to the manufacturing engineers.” She also said that, if workers up stream in the process would spend a little more time and care to keep the raw material in slightly tighter specifications, it would go through her machine much more easily and trouble-free, but that they were too focused on going fast. She expressed a lack of respect for the managers who couldn’t see this and even joked about how “managers didn’t know anything.”
Q1. Identify the sources of resistance to change in this case.
Q2. Discuss whether this resistance is justified or could be overcome.
Q3. Recommend ways to minimize resistance to change in this incident.

MCQ
1. Change efforts to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group conformity is called:
2. “First-order change” is change that:
3. ________ is an OC approach that focuses on data collection and analysis using a scientific methodology
4. When people resist change because they hear what they want to hear and they ignore information that challenges those perception, they are resisting change because:
5. John Kotter built on Lewin’s three-step model to create a more detailed approach for implementing ______.
6. Which of the following is a source of organizational resistance to change?
7. Basically an operational change on a calculated basis as response to internal and external demands is a
8. Kurt Lewin’s three-step model for successful change in organizations includes:
9. Action Research was first defined by
10. Which is not an Internal Change?
11. In Incremental change there is a
12. A change agent is:
13. Which of the following is a tactic that managers can use to reduce resistance to change?
14. Which one of the following is not a part of Effective Change Management?

15. In the moving stage of the Lewin’s Model
16. What is not true about Organizational Development?
17. An OD technique that involves unstructured group interaction in which members learn by observing and participating rather than being told is:
18. Interventions that are aimed at improving communication ability are:
19. Inter group development seeks to
20. When organizational development involves radical change that is multidimensional and multilevel it is most likely going through
21. Grid Organization Development technique was designed by
22. Team building intervention which is designed to clarify role expectation is
23. In managerial Grid, an individual’s style can be best described as which of the following:
24. The assumption underlying the use of survey feedback in OD is
25. The first T group was formed
26. The following is not the stem of OD
27. Strategic change interventions involve improving
28. The third party attempts to make intervention aimed at opening communication and confronting the problem including which of the following
29. Which of the following is not a fundamental assumption underlying process consultation?
30. Which of the following is not a step of Role analysis technique?
31. Which of the following areas do OD practitioner needs to be familiar with to bring about strategic change
32. In fundamental change there is
33. Coaching and Counseling is an OD technique which is used for
34. Third Party Intervention an OD technique which is used for
35. Role Negotiation an OD technique which is used for
36. Consultant client relationship does not follow
37. Which of the following statements is false?
38. OD is often defined as:
39. Which is not the area of issue in consultant-client relationship?
40. Which of the following is an external change?
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MBA 3rd Sem Industrial Relations & Labour Laws V2

June 5, 2015October 4, 2016 Kim Sharma 4 Comments

INDUSTRIAL RELATIONS & LABOUR LAWS

Assignment A
Q1. Define the term ‘Industrial Relations’. Also discuss, in brief, the causes and effects of poor industrial relations.
Q2. “The history of ‘Indian Trade Union Movement’ during the pre-Independence period has been full of partitions and mergers”. Discuss, quoting suitable examples.
Q3. Discuss, in brief, the machinery provided under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947(As amended up to date), for settlement of industrial disputes.
Q4. Define the term ‘Grievance’. Also explain the Model Grievance Procedure for the redressal of grievances.
Q.5 Discuss, in brief, the various steps taken by the Government from time to time to encourage workers’ participation in management in our country.
Q6.Identify the factors responsible for indiscipline in industry. Also explain the procedure of Disciplinary action.
Q7. Write short notes on the following:
A. Benefits available to employees under the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948. :
B. Deduction from Wages
C. Compulsory Arbitration as provided under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (as amended upto date.)
Q8. Write short note on any two of the following:
a) The procedure of Collective Bargaining
b) Illegal Strikes

Assignment B
Case study:
Please read the case study given below and answer questions given at the end.
Chief Engineer Raju
Raju has been with the company for the last 15 years. He is considered to be very competent in his job. Raju always greeted people with a smiling face and never lost his temper on the shop floor. Workers had considerable regard for him. In union circles Raju enjoyed a good reputation for his fairness. He had a unique style of his own when it came to personnel matters. He advocated patience and restraint while dealing with people. He would often say “gone are the days when one could deal with employees strictly. Now you have to be flexible, considerate and fair”.

Balbir Singh
Balbir, a skilled worker, has recently been elected as the Joint Secretary of the Union. He holds leftist political views, though he is not a member of any political party. He is ambitious and wants to reach the top levels in union circles as quickly as possible. On Monday, Raju had hardly entered in his office when the supervisor Madan rushes in.

Raju: Madan, take your seat. Tell me the truth. I will come to the shop floor if you so desire. But first tell me why you are so much upset.

Madan: Sir, you know, Balbir, the joint secretary of the union, was loitering around and not attending to his machine. I called him and told him to go to his machine and start it.

Raju: Then what happened?

Raju: O.K. Now please go to your section. I will ask Balbir to come immediately.

Balbir: Sir, you wanted me to see you? What is the purpose?

QUESTIONS
1. Who is at fault and why?
2. Do you think unionized employees require a different kind of treatment on matters relating
to discipline?
3. What should Raju do now to check both Madan and Balbir from going to the street future?

Assignment C

1. In the beginning of industrial revolution, with regard to settlement of
industrial disputes, the Government believed in :

(a) Direct interference
(b) Laissez faire policy
(c) Adjudication machinery
(d) Arbitration machinery

2. Which of the following, according to section 2 (K) of the Industrial Disputes
Act, 1947, is not treated as Industrial Dispute?

(a) any dispute or difference between workmen and workmen
(b) any dispute or difference between employers and employers
(c) any dispute or difference between Central Govt. and State Govt.
(d) any dispute or difference between employers and workmen

3. Which of the following is not a part of Conciliation Machinery for the
settlement of industrial dispute’s under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (as
amended upto date)?

(a) Courts of Enquiry
(b) Industrial Tribunals
(c) Board of Conciliation
(d) Conciliation Offices

4. Which of the following is not a part of Adjudication Machinery under the
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (as amended upto date)?

(a) Labour Courts
(b) Courts of Enquiry
(c) National Tribunals
(d) Industrial Tribunals

5. Which of the following is not a part of machinery for the settlement of
industrial disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (as amended upto
date)?

(a) Compulsory Arbitration
(b) Conciliation Machinery
(c) Ad justification Machinery
(d) Voluntary Arbitration

6. Which of the following is not the measure to prevent industrial disputes?

(a) Code of conduct
(b) Code of Discipline
(c) Collection Barging
(d) Voluntary arbitration

7. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Grievance redressal procedure need not have any prescribed time framework
for redressed of grievances.
(b) Grievances redressal procedure should be acceptable to all.
(c) The official grievances handler should have undergone the desired training
(d) The Grievance redressal procedure should be reviewed from time to time.

8. The Grievance Committee should give its decision regarding the redressal of
the grievance within (as per Model Grievance Procedure):

(a) 48 Hours
(b) 7 Days
(c) 3 Days
(d) 10 Days

9. Which of the following is not an internal cause of indiscipline?

(a) Avoidance of Redressal Grievance (by the Management)
(b) Personal Factors
(c) High rate of inflation
(d) Lack of code of conduct

10 Which of the following is not a step in the disciplinary process?

(a) Show-cause notice
(b) Dismissal
(c) Preliminary investigation
(d) Follow up

11. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Disciplinary action should be administered by the top management
(b) There should be normal attitude towards the employee after disciplinary action.
(c) Disciplinary action should be taken in private
(d) There is a need of consistency in the administration of disciplinary
action.

12. Which of the following statements, as per trade union Act, 1926, is not relevant with regard to trade union?

(a) A trade may be formed for regulating relations between employers and employers.
(b) A trade may be formed for regulating relations between workmen and workmen
(c) A trade may be formed for regulating relations between workmen and employers
(d) A trade union may be formed for lifting restrictive conditions on the conduct of any trade or business.

13. Function of the trade union do not include:

(a) Fraternal functions
(b) Intra-mural functions
(c) Ancillary functions
(d) Technological functions

14. Trade union do not play the role of :

(a) Liaisons maker
(b) Disseminator of information
(c) Legal advisor
(d) Change agent
(e) Arbitrator

15. All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was formed in:

(a) 1915
(b) 1920
(c) 1925
(d) 1942

16. Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS) was formed in :

(a) 1945
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
(d) 1962

17. ‘ Labour Movement’ is started by:

(a) Workers themselves
(b) Government
(c) Employees
(d) Outsiders like philanthropist etc.

18. The Trade Unions Act was passed in :

(a) 1921
(b) 1926
(c) 1936
(d) 1947

19. Which section of the Trade Unions Act, 1926 defines the term “Trade Union”?

(a) Section 2(h)
(b) Section 2(k)
(c) Section 1(c)
(d) Section 1 (l)

20. Which is not one of the characteristics of a trade union?

(a) Every registered trade union is a statutory body
(b) Every registered trade union has a perpetual succession
(c) Every registered trade union has a common seal
(d) Every registered trade union is a body corporate

21. Under the provision of the Trade Unions Act, which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The minimum numbers required to form a trade union is seven
(b) Getting a trade union registered is mandatory
(c) Employers can also form their trade unions
(d) Section 5 of the Trade Union Act, 1926 requires that every application
for registration must be sent to the Registrar of Trade Unions

22. The institutions of Work Committees was provided in the year:

(a) 1942
(b) 1947
(c) 1952
(d) 1953

23. Which of the following is not true in the case of the 1975-Scheme of
Workers’ Participation in Industries:

(a) Has no legal sanction
(b) Provides that the Shop Council should be set up at floor levels
(c) Provides that the Joint Council should be set up at Plant Level
(d) Does not provide for its implementation through executive action

24. Which of the following statements is not true in the case of the 1983- Scheme of Workers’ Participation? in Management?

(a) The Scheme is applicable to all public sector undertakings
(b) A few enterprises have implemented the Scheme at Board level
(c) The Scheme has no legislative backing
(d) The State Governments and Private Sector enterprises have also been asked to implement the Scheme

25. Which of the following statements with regard to the Scheme for appointing
Workers’ representative in the Board of Management, is not true?

(a) It provides for a workers’ representative in the Board of Management
(b) It is from of the panel of names of three persons submitted by the recognized Union that only one person is selected by appropriate authorities for nomination as Director
(c) A person for being eligible for nomination should have attained the age of at least 40 years
(d) Such a person should have a minimum of 5 years’ service in the undertaking

26. Which of the following is not a part of ‘Negotiation Stage’ of collective bargaining?

(a) Identifications of problem
(b) Collective Bargaining Agreement
(c) Contract Administration
(d) Negotiations Agreement

27. Which of the following is not a part of ‘Preparation for Negotiations’ in connection with collective bargaining?

(a) Constitution of Negotiating Teams
(b) Collective bargaining Agreement
(c) Data Collection
(d) Bargaining Power

28. Which of the following is not a part of ‘Negotiations of Agreement’ in connection with collective bargaining?
(a) Haggling bargaining
(b) Intermittent bargaining
(c) Boulwarism bargaining
(d) Continuous bargaining

29. Which of the following is not one of the causes for limited success of collective bargaining in India?

(a) Weak and multiplicity of unions
(b) Inadequate support from the management for collective bargaining
(c) Difficult accessibility of adjudication
(d) Lack of strong efforts from the Government

30. Which of the following is not a role of collective bargaining?

(a) Promoter of industrial peace
(b) Spokes person of employers
(c) Bargainer
(d) Believer in the policy of give and take

31. Which of the following is not a feature of collective bargaining?

(a) It is a static and rigid process
(b) It is a group action
(c) It is s continuous process
(d) It is an advanced form of human relations

32. Which of the following is not the objective of industrial relations?

(a) To promote general welfare of the employees
(b) To enhance labour turnover
(c) To improve productivity of the organization
(d) To improve industrial democracy through WPM

33. Which of the following sections of the Trade Unions (Amendment) Act, 1947
(though not enforced) permits the registered Trade Union whose recognition is
withdrawn under sub-section (3) of section 28 G to make an application for
re-recognition after six months from the date of withdrawal of recognition?

(a) Section 28 H
(b) Section 28 D
(c) Section 28 G
(d) Section 28 I

34. Which of the following is not a pre-requisite to collective bargaining?

(a) Freedom of Association
(b) Registration of Trade Unions
(c) Recognition of Trade Unions
(d) Strong and stable Trade Unions

35. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, applies to every industrial
establishment employing:

(a) 50 and more workmen
(b) 100 or more workmen
(c) 20 or more workmen
(d) 10 or more workmen

36. The Minimum Wages Act was passed in:

(a) 1936
(b) 1948
(c) 1952
(d) 1947

37. The Employees State Insurance Act was passed in :

(a) 1948
(b) 1947
(c) 1952
(d) 1951

38. The payment of Wages Act, 1936 deals with:

(a) Fixation of minimum wage
(b) Permissible deduction from the wages
(c) Minimum Leave the employee can avail
(d) Payment of Gratuity at the time of retirement

39. The Employees Provident Fund & Misc Provisions Act was passed in:

(a) 1952
(b) 1948
(c) 1947
(d) 1972

40. Lock-out is declared by:

(a) Trade Unions
(b) Government
(c) Management
(d) Political parties

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Amity MBA 3rd Sem ASODL HR ADL 31 Management of Change & Organisational Development V2

June 5, 2015June 5, 2015 Kim Sharma 2 Comments

Assignment A

Q1.What are the common pitfalls while implementing organizational change? Discuss in detail.
Q2.How is organizational change different from organizational development? Discuss, quoting Suitable example.
Q3.How do organizations know when they should change? What cues should an organization look for? Discuss in detail.
Q4.What are the various factors accelerating change? Explain the sources of individual and Organizational resistance to change.
Q5.What is an OD Intervention? Discuss the OD values necessary for dealing with individuals, team and organization.
Q6.Explain different kinds of OD interventions specially designed to improve team performance. Explain the human process approach to OD.
Q7.(a) State and explain various theories of planned change in detail.
(b) List and explain the steps that managers can take to minimize resistance to change.
Q8.Discuss and exemplify the relevance of intergroup development OD intervention in the Organization.

Assignment B
Case study:
CROSS – TRAINING EMILY

Emily, who has the reputation of being an excellent worker, is a machine operator in a furniture manufacturing plant that has been growing at a rate of 15% to 20% each year for the past decade. New additions have been built onto the plant, new plants opened in the region, workers hired, new product lines developed, lots of expansion, but with no significant change in overall approach to operations, plant lay-out, ways of managing workers, or in the design processes. Plant operations as well as organizational culture are rooted in traditional Western management practices and logic, based largely on the notion of mass production and economies of scale. Over the past four years, the company has been growing in number and variety of products produced and in market penetration; however, profitability has been flattening and showing signs of decline. As a result, management is beginning to focus more on production operations (internal focus) rather than new market strategies, new products, and new market segments (external focus), in developing their strategic plans. They hope to get manufacturing costs down, improve consistency of quality and ability to meet delivery times better, while decreasing inventory and increasing flexibility.
One of several new programs initiated by management in this effort to improve flexibility and lower costs was to get workers cross-trained. However, when a representative from Human Resources explained this program to Emily’s supervisor, Jim, he reluctantly agreed to cross-train most of his workers, but NOT Emily.
Jim explained to the Human Resources person that Emily works on a machine that is very complex and not easy to effectively operate. He has tried many workers on it, tried to train them, but Emily is the only one that can consistently get product through the machine that is within specification and still meet production schedules. When anyone else tries to operate the machine, which performs a key function in the manufacturing process, it either ends up being a big bottle neck or producing excessive waste, which creates a lot of trouble for Jim.
Jim goes on to explain that Emily knows this sophisticated and complicated machine inside and out, she has been running it for five years. She likes the challenge; she says it makes the day go by faster, too. She is meticulous in her work, a very skilled employee who really cares about the quality of her work. Jim told the HR person that he wished all of his workers were like Emily. Jim was adamant about keeping Emily on this machine and not cross-training her. The HR person was frustrated. He could see Jim’s point but he had to follow executive orders: “Get these people cross-trained.”
Around the same period of time, a university student was doing a field study in the section of the plant where Emily worked and Emily was one of the workers he interviewed. Emily told the student that, in spite of the fact that the plant had some problems with employee morale and excessive employee turnover, she really liked working there. She also mentioned that she is hoping that she did not have to participate in the recent “Program of the Month” which was having operators learn each other’s jobs. She told the student that it would just create more waste if they tried to have other employees run her machine.
Emily seemed to take a special liking for the student and began to open up to him. She told him that her machine really didn’t need to be so difficult and touchy to operate, with a couple of rather minor design changes in the machine and better maintenance, virtually anyone could run it. She had tried to explain this to her supervisor a couple of years ago but he just told her to “do her work and leave operations to the manufacturing engineers.” She also said that, if workers up stream in the process would spend a little more time and care to keep the raw material in slightly tighter specifications, it would go through her machine much more easily and trouble-free, but that they were too focused on going fast. She expressed a lack of respect for the managers who couldn’t see this and even joked about how “managers didn’t know anything.”
Questions:
1.Identify the sources of resistance to change in this case.
2.Discuss whether this resistance is justified or could be overcome.
3.Recommend ways to minimize resistance to change in this incident.

Assignment C
1. Change efforts to overcome the pressures of both individual resistance and group conformity is called:
a) Refreezing
b) Mobilizing
c) Unfreezing
d) Planned change

2. “First-order change” is change that:
a) Is multidimensional, multilevel, discontinuous, and radical
b) Provides insight into the ability of some individuals to resist change
c) Is linear and continuous
d) Is very threatening

3. ________ is an OC approach that focuses on data collection and analysis using
a scientific methodology
a) Action research
b) Lewin’s three step model
c) Organizational development
d) Process consultation

4. When people resist change because they hear what they want to hear and they ignore information that challenges those perception, they are resisting change because:
a) economic factors
b) the fear of unknown
c) selective information processing
d) the security needs

5. John Kotter built on Lewin’s three-step model to create a more detailed
approach for implementing ______.
a) Action research
b) Economic shocks
c) Change
d) Social trends

6. Which of the following is a source of organizational resistance to change?
a) Security
b) Group Inertia
c) Economic factors
d) Habit

7. Basically an operational change on a calculated basis as response to internal and external demands is a
a) Fundamental change
b) Planned Change
c) Strategic Change
d) Transformational change

8. Kurt Lewin’s three-step model for successful change in organizations includes:
a) Unthawing, changing, freezing
b) Unfreezing, moving, freezing
c) Unfreezing, moving, and refreezing
d) Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing

9. Action Research was first defined by
a) Kurt Lewin
b) John Collier
b) French and Bell
c) None of the above

10. Which is not an Internal Change?
a) Change in Equipments
b) Job restructuring
c) Change in Employee Attitude
d) Change in Business cycles

11. In Incremental change there is a
a) small change
b) radical change
c) gradual change
d) significant change

12. A change agent is:
a) an external or an internal agent
b) a behavioral scientist
c) both a and b
d) a national scientist

13. Which of the following is a tactic that managers can use to reduce resistance to change?
a) Coercion
b) Manipulation
c) Education & Communication
d) all of the above

14. Which one of the following is not a part of Effective Change Management?
a) Motivating Change
b) Initiating Change
c) Creating Vision
d) Developing political support

15. In the moving stage of the Lewin’s Model
a) driving forces within the organization provide disconfirming information that shows discrepancies between the organization’s desired state and its current state to reduce potentially resisting forces
b) supporting mechanism stabilize the organization at a new state of equilibrium
c) driving forces focus on developing new behaviors that may differ from prior habits
d) none of the above

16. What is not true about Organizational Development?
a) It’s a systematic approach
b) It’s a response to change
c) It’s an unplanned change
d) It’s a scientific approach

17. An OD technique that involves unstructured group interaction in which members learn by observing and participating rather than being told is:
a) Survey Feedback
b) Team Building
c) Sensitivity Training
d) Process Consultation

18. Interventions that are aimed at improving communication ability are:
a) Structural interventions
b) Intergroup interventions
c) Interpersonal interventions
d) Process consultation

19. Inter group development seeks to
a) facilitate entry and exit of members into groups
b) change attitudes, stereotypes and the perceptions the group have of each
other
c) change the group structure and leadership
d) Merge two groups into functioning teams

20. When organizational development involves radical change that is multidimensional and multilevel it is most likely going through
a) Structural change
b) Technological change
c) First order change
d) Second order change

21. Grid Organization Development technique was designed by
a) Robert R Blake
b) Jane S Mouton
c) Roger Harrison
d) Both a and b

22. Team building intervention which is designed to clarify role expectation is
a) Grid OD
b) Role Analysis Technique
c) Role negotiation Technique
d) Job design

23 In managerial Grid, an individual’s style can be best described as which of
the following:
a) the way one dresses
b) one’s concern for production and people
c) how one interacts with management
d) the way one deals with the problem

24. The assumption underlying the use of survey feedback in OD is
a) surveys are the best way to collect data
b) a great deal of data is collected
c) it is used to provide feed back and to initiate change in the organization
d) responses can be easily be interpreted

25. The first T group was formed
a) to facilitate decision making
b) to work on group projects
c) to make group more cohesive
d) as people reacted to data as their own behavior

26. The following is not the stem of OD
a) Laboratory training
b) Action research / Survey feedback
c) Strategic change
d) managerial Grid

27. Strategic change interventions involve improving
a) The alignment among an organization’s environment, strategy and
organization design
b) The organization’s relationship to its environment
c) The fit between the organization’s technical, political and cultural
systems.
d) All of the above

28. The third party attempts to make intervention aimed at opening communication and confronting the problem including which of the following
a) ensuring mutual motivation
b) coordinating confrontation efforts
c) both the above two
d) collecting data

29. Which of the following is not a fundamental assumption underlying process consultation?
a) the group is the building block of organization
b) groups are the basic units of change
c) a skilled party can help the group in joint diagnosis
d) it is an agenda less meeting

30. Which of the following is not a step of Role analysis technique?
a) role incumbent’s expectations of others
b) Role negotiation
c) role expectations
d) role profile

31. Which of the following areas do OD practitioner needs to be familiar with to bring about strategic change
a) competitive strategy
b) team building
c) negotiation
d) all of the above

32. In fundamental change there is
a) redefinition of current purpose or mission
b) abrupt change in organization’s strategy
c) change of all or most of the organization components
d) response to an even or a series of events

33. Coaching and Counseling is an OD technique which is used for
a) Individuals
b) Dyads
c) Groups
d) Organization

34. Third Party Intervention an OD technique which is used for
a) Individuals
b) Dyads
c) organization
d) Intergroup

35. Role Negotiation an OD technique which is used for
a) Individuals
b) Dyads
c) Groups
d) Organization

36. Consultant client relationship does not follow
a) Understanding the actual client..
b) Slowly and gradually understanding of the whole system
c) Finding out the inter-related and inter-dependent groups.
d) misrepresentation and collusion

37. Which of the following statements is false?
a) In an organization, it is not essential to have regular changes and development in order to bring
effectiveness
b) Organization brings a change mainly because of planned and unplanned
change.
c) Sometimes organization is resistant to change
d) Organizational change is important to usher in long-term success in an
organization

38. OD is often defined as:
a) anything done to better an organization
b) a planned effort to improve the effectiveness of the organization
c) training function of the organization
d) all of the above

39. Which is not the area of issue in consultant-client relationship?
a) Mutual Trust
b) Career Development
c) Nature of Consultant’s Expertise
d) Entry and Contracting

40. Which of the following is an external change?
a) performance gaps
b) change in products
c) advances in information process
d) change in organizational size

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Amity MBA 3rd Sem ASODL 91 Enterprise Resource Planning

May 31, 2015 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

ADL 91 Enterprise Resource Planning V2
Amity MBA Assignment A
1. What is ERP? Explain the general Implementation methodology of ERP. How can ERP improve a company’s business performance?
2. Describe various evaluation criteria at the time of selection of ERP packages. Discuss the role of vendors, consultants and users for selection of ERP.
3. Briefly enumerate some of the key ERP modules keeping in view the Manufacturing perspective.
4. What is Knowledge Management? What pitfalls should be avoided while aligning Knowledge Management with the Business Strategy?What does KM really consist of? What operationally constitutes KM?
5. Enumerate various Knowledge Management tools and techniques
6. What is Supply Chain Management? What are its’ key drivers?
7. What is Customer Relationship Management? What are the various types of CRM Software/CRM tools available in the market?
8. What is Enterprise Application Integration? What is the purpose of implementing EAI? What are the EAI Implementation pitfalls?

Amity MBA Assignment B
Case Study
A typical U.S. Wal-Mart has 142,000 items, so multiplying those savings makes sense that Wal-Mart’s efforts on enforcing new SCM technology on their suppliers makes a big impact on the bottom line. Wal-Mart has definitely started a ripple effect within its’ own supply chain.
Ever since 2002, when Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology proponents began insisting that it would dramatically change the way companies track goods in the supply chain, it has remained a niche technology because of the cost of RFID tags. The most generic RFID tags cost around 10 cents apiece, whereas latest generations of chips are getting better with standardization and improved functionality. Consumer goods companies always talk about 5 cent tags as a price that would open RFID up to broader uses remove the difficulties pioneers like Wal-Mart have had pulling in a critical mass of partners.
Just 600, or about 3 percent, of its’ suppliers have started using RFID since the retailer announced its’ famous supply-chain “mandate” to use RFIDs in 2003. Wal-Mart distribution centers that stock goods from suppliers that place RFID tags help them to reduce out-of-stock situations and, more recently, to drive promotions.
On the store front, Wal-Mart has expanded its’ RFID use from 100 to 1000 stores. Readers (that read and locate RFID chips) are typically located at loading dock entrances, at entrances leading from back rooms to sales floors, and at trash compactors where boxes are destroyed. Data is collected when product moves, including at the cash register, allowing Wal-Mart to generate print-outs for employees to prioritize restocking duties. Suppliers can link into Wal-Mart’s e-SCM system over the Web to check exactly where their products are. In addition, Wal-Mart is also starting to give employees hand-held RFID readers that beep based on proximity to specified products, making them easier to find.
One Wal-Mart supplier, consumer goods company Kimberly-Clark, is focusing on sales promotion through a pilot program that uses RFID to monitor promotions of its’ Paper Towels. Using software from OATS Systems, Kimberly-Clark could see on a colour-coded dashboard how many stores received the product in the stock-room and how many put it on the store floor.
1. What is the main aim of Supply Chain Management? What are the key issues faced in SCM?
2. In what ways, the introduction of RFID tags benefited Wal-Mart in its’ Supply Chain Management?
Amity MBA Assignment C
1. Planning of ERP Implementation Process should be done:
A. Cautiously
B. Naively
C. Should be done after the start of ERP Implementation
D. None of the above.
2. How can management of the enterprise makes a decision about the necessity of implementing an enterprise resource planning system:
A. By outsourcing this analysis to experts in ERP
B. By conducting a comparative study of ERP Implementations in enterprises that fall in the same domain.
C. By determining a set of evaluation measurements.
D. All of the above
3. Enterprise¬-wide resource planning systems (ERP systems) attempt to:
A. Integrate all corporate information in one central database
B. They do not allow information to be retrieved from many different organizational positions
C. They allow any organizational object to be made invisible
D. They allow information to be stored in multiple databases.
4. In Manufacturing organizations, ERP implementation necessarily automates the following functions
A. Inventory control
B. Material requirement planning
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
5. For the success of an ERP Implementation, factor(s) important is/are:
A. Strategic support from the top management.
B. Readiness of employees to embrace the change
C. Adherence to time schedules.
D. All of the above
6. Customization of an ERP package is enhanced if the ERP Package is
A. Modular
B. Inflexible
C. Both a and b
D. Either a or b

7. The project driven enterprise deals with the design and manufacturing of unique products and services (projects)
A. Multiple clients
B. Multiple clients of same vertical
C. Individual clients
D. Depends upon client to client.
8. Key success factor that decide about product competitiveness:
A. Efficient knowledge
B. Business experience management
C. Knowledge of Best Practices in the domain
D. All of the above
9. Inventory of a company refers to:
A. Raw materials
B. Work in progress
C. Finished goods
D. All of the above
10. SCM Drivers are:
A. Facilities and Inventory
B. Transportation and Information
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
11. Which of the following statements is false:
A. Forecasts are never right.
B. The longer the forecast horizon, the better is the forecast.
C. The longer the forecast horizon, the worse is the forecast.
D. Aggregate forecasts are more accurate.
12. One of the benefits of Supply Chain Management is:
A. Improved forecasting precision.
B. Increased Inventory throughout the chain
C. Increased Bull-whip effect.
D. Unreliable financial information.
13. Factor(s) that contribute(s) to Bull Whip Effect:
A. Demand forecasting practices.
B. Longer lead time
C. Batch Ordering
D. All of the above
14. Which of the following statements is true about ERP Implementation:
A. As-Is” stage follows “To-Be” stage
B. To-Be” stage follows “As-Is” stage.
C. Go-Live” stage and “As-Is” stage can proceed simultaneously.
D. None of above
15. Which of the following factor does not contribute to the success of ERP?
A. Focus on business processes and requirements first
B. Focus on achieving a healthy ERP ROI (Return on Investment), including post-implementation performance mea
C. Strong project management and resource commitment
D. Lack of budget.
16. Who plays and important role in the selection of ERP Package
A. Consultants
B. Vendors
C. Users
D. All of the above

17. Knowledge Management cannot be exercised through:
A. Data Entry Operation
B. Expression Management
C. Database management
D. Hypertext management

18. Which of the following is not part of Customer Relationship Management?
A. Sales Force Automation
B. Contact management
C. Lead management
D. None of these
19. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true with respect to Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
A. EAI is an integration framework composed of a collection of technologies and services.
B. EAI is the process of linking applications within a single organization together in order to simplify and automate bu
C. EAI system could front-end a cluster of applications, providing a single consistent access interface to these applications and shielding users from having to learn to interact with different software packages
D. All of the above
20. Which of the following ways is not appropriate to bring in stabilization and acceptance in the “Go-Live” stage?
A. Training of end-users
B. Training of only process owners
C. Data fixes to resolve data migration issues
D. Help desk for troubleshooting.
21. ERP Vendor should be evaluated on:
A. Business functions or modules supported by their software.
B. Features and integration capabilities of the software.
C. Both a and b
D. Neither a nor b

22. Before trying to implement a major ERP system, organizations can assess their ability to be successful through:
A. Capability Maturity Model, CMM
B. People’s Capability Maturity Model, PCMM
C. ISO Certification
D. Any one of these.

23. Which one of the following is key ERP Vendor(s):
A. SAP
B. Oracle
C. Microsoft Dynamics
D. All of the above
24. Which one of the following is the key SCM Vendor(s):
A. Manugistics
B. Seibel
C. Only a
D. Both a and b
25. Which one of the following is the key CRM Vendor(s):
A. Clarify
B. Seibal
C. Only a
D. Both a and b

26. Which of the following statement is false
A. ERP systems are set to proliferate locally.
B. ERP systems implementation is a complex organizational activity.
C. ERP systems implementation requires strong project management oversight.
D. ERP systems provide improved and added functionality for an organization.

27. Which of the following is/are limitation(s) of system integration:
A. Leveling the Competitive Environment.
B. High initial set-up costs.
C. Power and interdepartmental conflicts.
D. BOTH B AND C

28. Which of the following stage is not part of Business Process Reengineering:
A. As-Is” analysis
B. To-Be” mapping
C. Post-Implementation support
D. Measuring new processes based on meeting goals and vision.

29. Which of the following is not a core SCM process:
A. Procurement
B. Sales Force Automation
C. Order fulfillment
D. Forecasting

30. Collaborative Design and Product Development is part of:
A. SCM
B. ERP
C. CRM
D. NONE OF THESE

31. Which of the following statement is false about EAI:
A. EAI facilitates the flow of information.
B. Straps together transactions among disparate and complex applications and business processes.
C. Helps in communication among applications only within an organization and not among organizations.
D. EAI facilitates the move towards market globalization.

32. Which one of the following is not a benefit of EAI:
A. Increased efficiency.
B. Higher Costs.
C. Improved Customer service.
D. Enhanced access

33. Which of the following statement is false about SCM:
A. SCM plays a major role only in the success of e-business and not e-commerce.
B. A good SCM is designed in collaboration with the organizations’ partners.
C. ERP vendors have started including SCM as a component or module of the software.
D. SCM provides a link for services, materials, and information across the value chain of the organization

34. Which one of the following is not a component of CRM system:
A. Market Research tools
B. Advanced Planning and Optimization (APO) software
C. Sales Force Automation software
D. Customer service and support tools
35. Which of the following statement is true about CRM Implementation:
A. CRM Implementation must never focus on a technology solution
B. CRM solutions must be part of corporate strategy from the beginning.
C. CRMs can be an afterthought as they are not critical in an organization.
D. Bothe a and b

36. Which one of the following processes does not fall in the purview of CRM:
A. CRM delivery process
B. CRM support process
C. CRM analytical process
D. CRM recruitment process

37. Which of the following architecture(s) is/are found in ERP implementations
A. N-tier architecture
B. Web-based architecture
C. Service Oriented Architecture
D. All of these
38. Assessing readiness in an ERP implementation is critical to the overall implementation process. Which one of the following ways does not contribute towards ensuring ERP readiness:
A. Project management’s focus on the issues, tasks, and activities to being ready.
B. Knowledge Transfer Process in place.
C. Discontinue training and complete focus on issues.
D. Support functions are in place for post-production support for operationalizing the ERP.

39. Which one of the following roles does not fall in the purview of the owners, ie, senior management of the company, with respect to ERP Implementation:
A. Maintain financial integrity of the project.
B. Provide strategic policy and procedure direction.
C. Establish project planning guidelines and methodology.
D. Publicly demonstrate support and commitment to the project.
40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false with respect to ERP Implementation methodologies:
A. The emphasis on the ERP software life cycle is whether to customize the software or to change the organization’s processes to match those embedded in the software.
B. The implementation strategy can be a comprehensive one, vanilla, or middle-of-the road strategy
C. ERP life cycle must incorporate traditional SDLC stages.
D. Rapid Implementation methodologies have been developed by ERP consulting firms.

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Amity MBA 4th Sem ASODL Performance Appraisal & Potential Evaluation

May 18, 2015 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Amity MBA Assignment A

Q1 “360 degree appraisal method has its own short-comings”. Discuss. Also point out the merits of this method.
Q2 Enlist the modern methods of performance appraisal. Which of these do you prefer the most and why? Give reasons.
Q3 Discuss, in brief, the role of coaching and counseling in improving performance of employees.
Q4. How can the relationship between ‘performance’ and ‘pay’ be instrumental in improving performance in an organization?
Q5. Distinguish between ‘Performance Appraisal’ and “Potential Evaluation”. Also discuss, in brief, the methods of Potential evaluation.
Q6. What precautions should be taken while designing performance appraisal system so that it may serve the desired purpose? Discuss in detail.
Q7. “No performance appraisal method will serve the desired purpose until and unless it is followed by post-review discussion” Discuss.
Q8. Write short notes on any three of the following:
a) Emerging issues in performance management
b) Competency Mapping.
c) HRD and performance appraisal.
d) Role Clarity.

Amity MBA Assignment B
CASE STUDY
PERFORMANCE APPRAISAL AT KALYANI ELECTRONICS CORPORATION
Kalyani Electronics Corporation Ltd., recently diversified its activities and started producing computers. It employed personnel at the lower level and middle level. It has received several applications for the post of Commercial Manager-Computer Division. It could not decide upon the suitability of the candidates to the position, but did find that Mr. Prakash is more qualified for the position than other candidates. The Corporation has created a new post below the cadre of General Manager i.e. Joint General Manager and asked Mr. Prakash to join the Corporation as Joint General Manager. Mr. Prakash agreed to it viewing that he will be considered for General Manager’s position based on his performance. Mr. Anand, the Deputy General Manager of the Corporation and one of the candidates of General Manager’s position was annoyed with the management’s practice. But, he wanted to show his performance record to the management at the next appraisal meeting. The management of the Corporation asked Mr. Sastry, General Manager of Televisions Division to be the General Manager in-charge of Computer Division for some time, until a new General Manager is appointed. Mr. Sastry wanted to switch over to Computer Division in view of the prospects, prestige and recognition of the position among the top management of the Corporation. He viewed this assignment as a chance to prove his performance.

The Corporation has the system of appraisal of the superior’s performance by the subordinates. The performance of the Deputy General Manager, Joint General Manager and General Manager has to be appraised by the same group of the subordinates. Mr. Anand and Mr. Sastry know very well about the system and its operation, whereas Mr. Prakash is a stranger to the system as well as its modus operandi. Mr. Sastry and Mr. Anand were competing with each other in convincing their subordinates about their performance and used all sorts of techniques for pleasing them like promising them a wage hike, transfers to the job of their interest, promotion, etc. However, these two officers functioned in collaboration with a view to pull down Mr. Prakash. They openly told their subordinates that a stranger should not occupy the ‘chair’. They created several groups among employees like pro-Anand’s group, pro-Sastry group, Anti-Prakash and Sastry group, Anti-Anand and Prakash group.
Mr. Prakash has been watching the proceedings calmly and keeping the top management in touch with all these developments. However, Mr. Prakash has been quite work-conscious and top management found his performance under such a political atmosphere to be satisfactory. Prakash’s pleasing manners and way of maintaining human relations with different levels of employees did, however, prevent the emergence of an anti-Prakash wave in the company. But in view of the political atmosphere within the company, there is no strong pro-Prakash’s group either.

Management administered the performance appraisal technique and the subordinates appraised the performance of all these managers. In the end, surprisingly, the workers assigned the following overall scores. Prakash: 560 points; Sastry: 420 points; and Anand: 260 points.

Q1. How do you evaluate the worker’s appraisal in this case?
Q2. Do you suggest any techniques to avert politics creeping into the process of performance appraisal by subordinates? Or do you suggest the measure of dispensing with such appraisal systems?

Amity MBA Assignment C
1. Which of the following is not the aim of performance appraisal?
2. Which of the following is not a traditional and highly scientific method of performance appraisal?
3. Which of the following is not one of the modern methods of performance appraisal?
4. In the paired comparison technique of performance appraisal, which of the following formulae is applied ?
5. Which of the following statements regarding MBO is not true?
6. 360 Degree Technique does not evaluate the manager’s quality of interaction with:
7. 360 Degree Technique does not play any important role in:
8. Which of the following statement about 360 degree technique is not true?
9. Which of the following is not one of the steps in the process of constructing BARS?
10. Which of the following is not a modern method of performance appraisal?
11. Which of the following is not one of the limitations and constraints of performance appraisal?
12. Which of the following is not one of the distortions involved in performance evaluation?
13. Which of the following is not a method of potential evaluation?
14. Which of the following is not included in the 2×2 matrix used in Philips’ Hi-Lo Model of potential evaluation?
15. Which of the following four qualities is generally not included while preparing 5-point scale for potential evaluation in Philips NV Holland Model?
16. Which of the following is not considered as one of the best practices of potential evaluation?
17. As per Mihir, K Basu’s Survey, the appraisal system for managerial personnel in the Tata Iron & Steel Company (TISCO ) was introduced in :
18. Which of the following factors does not influence the measurement of work performance?
19. Which of the following statements is false?
20. Which of the following statements is correct?
21. Which of the following is not the major issue in performance appraisal?
22. The basis for performance standard
23. Performance appraisals serve as building blocks of:
24. Which of the following is a future-oriented appraisal technique?
25. Which of the following technique is least susceptible to personal bias?
26. A disadvantage of rating scale is :
27. Which of the following is not the typical Rater error?
28. Which step of the following should not be involved in the review of performance appraisal?
29. Which, according to N.F.R. Maier, of the following is not included in the seven accomplishments of good counseling?
30. Which of the following is not one of the key elements of performance appraisal which can be achieved through an effective appraisal discussion?
31. Which of the following is not one of the main sub-processes of counseling?
32. Which of the following is not involved in ‘Communication’?
33. Which of the following is not included in ‘influencing’?
34. Which of the following is not involved in ‘helping’?
35. Which of the following is not one of the key aspects of conducting Appraisal Discussion?
36. Which of the following is not one of the three distinct aspects which can be identified in ‘Action Planning’?
37. Which of the following is not one of the steps essential for development and introduction of performance appraised system?
38. Which of the following is not the purpose of self-appraisal?
39. Which is not the advantage of 360 degree appraisal?
40. Which of the following is not the new performance measure that Godrej & Boyce has identified?

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Amity MBA 3rd Sem ASODL Recruitment Selection & Retention

May 16, 2015 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Amity MBA Assignment A

Q1. “Job analysis is basically a process of data collection”, Discuss. Also point out the sources of job information, and the seven basic areas in which job analysis provides information.

Q2 “Job analysis is basically a process of data collection”, Discuss. Also point out the sources of job information, and the seven basic areas in which job analysis provides information.

Q3 Do you agree that job specification is the statement of minimum acceptable human qualities necessary to perform a job properly? Yes or no, why? Also throw light on the contents of job specification for the posts of HR Manager to be recruited in an organization employing 5000 employees.

Q4. Identify the main stages in the process of selection, especially if the candidates have to be selected for the posts of Vice President (HR) and Sr. Vice President (HR).

Q5. “In the present era of information technology, the role of internet in recruitment hardly needs any elaboration.” Justify the statement.

Q6. “Interviews are the most used, misused and abused tool in the process of selection”. Discuss. Also point out the methods of interviewing.

Q7. What is meant by ‘Retention Management’? Also discuss in brief, the steps that need to be taken to retain people in the organization.

Q8. Short notes on any three of the following:

a) Job analysis in a jobless world.

b) The Decision Theory Approach.

c) FIRO-B

d) Designing performance appraisal system.

e) Application Blank.

Amity MBA Assignment B

CASE STUDY

Growing Minds, Inc. is a national chain of retail outlets specializing in creative toys and innovative learning materials for children. The company caters to the upper end of the market and focuses on customer service for a competitive advantage. It provides workshops for parents and children on topic such as learning with the computer and indoor gardening and offers crafts classes ranging from papier-mâché to pottery.

Growing Minds plans to expand and to open five new retail outlets in the coming quarter. This may mean up to 200 new hires, and the executive team wants to make sure that the best propel are hired and retained. It has issued a challenge to its retail management personnel to design a staffing process that will accomplish these goals.

The children’s market in which Growing Minds operates demands service personnel who are endlessly patient; knowledgeable about children, toys, and learning; and, perhaps most important, sociable, enthusiastic, and engaging. Excellent customer service is the top priority at Growing Minds, and obtaining the desired performance from personnel has meant a major investment in training. Unfortunately, new workers often leave within a year of being hired. This means that the company barely gets an adequate return of the training it has invested in its new hires. Apparently, turnover is due (at least in part) to the demanding nature of the job. Recently, Growing Minds has been emphasizing the establishment of work teams to improve the quality of its services, identify and fix any problems in service delivery, and brainstorm new opportunities. This approach has yielded better-than-anticipated results, so the team concept will be central to the new outlets.

Q1 How can Growing Minds attract the best applicants for job at its new retail outlets? On what groups, if any, should the company’s recruiting efforts focus? How should the recruiting be done?

Q2 How should Growing Minds select the best candidates? What type of characteristics and measures should be used? Why?

Q3 How might Growing Minds address its retention problem?

Amity MBA Assignment C

Once job analysis is conducted, the data reviewed is:

Which is not true regarding job analysis?

Job description does not consist of :

Who of the following is not the source of job information in connection with job analysis?

Which is not true?

Which of the following is not a stage of the process of HR planning?

Which of the following is not the quantitative method of forecasting HR demand?

Which of the following is not involved in work-load analysis?

Which of the following is not a quantitative method of forecasting HR demand

Requirement is not:

Which of the following is not a stage in the process of selection?

Which is not a Psuedo way of selecting applicant?

Which of the following is not a psychometric test?

Which of the following is not a psychological test?

Which of the following statement with regard to scientific methods of selection is not true?

Which of the following information is not sought through the Application Blank?

Psychological tests are not used in the field of :

Which of the following is not an approach to staffing in International Human Resource Management?

In the paired comparison technique of performance appraisal, which of the following formulae is applied?

Which of the following is not one of the modern methods of performance appraisal?

Which of the following statements regarding MBO is not true?

Which of the following methods that have not contributed to the weakening the meaning of job as a well defined and clearly delineated set of responsibilities?

Decision theory is typically pursued by researchers who identify themselves as:

Which of the following is not a type of Internet Job Board?

Which of the following is not an intangible requirement of a job?

Which of the following is not one of the five stages of competency-based interviews?

What percentage of Competency-based questions usually constitute an interview (supplemented by other types of questions

Which of the following statement is not correct?

Which, according to Simon, is not one of the phases in decision making?

In which area FIRO-B does not measure your inter personal needs?

Which of the following is not an alternative to recruitment?

Which of the following is not a Big Five that describe behavioural traits that may explain 75 per cent of an individual’s personality?

Which of the following is not a type of validity (in the context of Selection Criteria)?

Which of the following is not a type of interview?

Which of the following is not a Cognitive Ability Test?

Which of the following qualities of an individual’s personality is not measured by the Myers-Briggs Type indicator?

Some studies have not found strong support for:

Briggs and Myers recognized that each of the cognitive functions cannot operate in the external world of :

TAT is not intended to evaluate a person’s:

In the case of TAT, the subject is asked to tell the examiner a story about each card that does not include:

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