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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
1st Module Assessment
Question 1. _ is the technique in which each worker is supervised by eight supervisors.
Select one:
a. Functional foremanship
b. Centralisation
c. Unity of action
d. Simplification of work
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which one of the following is not an importance of management?
Select one:
a. Inculcating creativity
b. Disciplining employees
c. Integrating various interest groups
d. Developing society ()
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which one of the following is not a principle of scientific management?
Select one:
a. Functional foremanship
b. Development of personnel
c. Maximum, not restricted output
d. Harmony, not discord
Clear my choice
Question 4. Top management is concerned with formulation of
Select one:
a. short-term plans.
b. long-term plans
c. None of these
d. guidelines for supervisors.
Clear my choice
Question 5. Gang plank is related to
Select one:
a. incentives to workers.
b. supervision of workers.
c. motivation.
d. communication.
Clear my choice
Question 6. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Select one:
a. Management is a rigid process.
b. Management is a goal-oriented process
c. Management is a continuous process.
d. Management is a dynamic process.
Clear my choice
Question 7. _ means one plan, one boss.
Select one:
a. Unity of command
b. Gang Plank
c. Unity of direction
d. Centralisation
Clear my choice
Question 8. denotes concentration of authority at the top level
Select one:
a. Coordination
b. Decentralisation
c. Delegation
d. Centralisation
Clear my choice
Question 9. principle of management puts emphasis on judicious application of penalties by the management.
Select one:
a. Order
b. Esprit de corps
c. Division of work
d. Discipline
Clear my choice
Question 10. In which category does management fall?
Select one:
a. Emerging profession
b. Well-established profession
c. Semi-profession
d. Marginal profession
Clear my choice
principle of management states that there should be a place for everything and everything should be in its place.
Select one:
a. Discipline
b. Esprit de corps
c. Equity
d. Order
Question 11. Management should find ‘one best way’ to perform a task. Which technique of scientific management is defined in this sentence?
Select one:
a. Time Study
b. Motion Study
c. Fatigue Study
d. Method Study
Clear my choice
Question 12. Management principles differ from pure science principles because management principles are
Select one:
a. easy to learn
b. rigid.
c. situation-bound
d. vague.
Clear my choice
Question 13. Management is a directed process as it aims at achieving specified goals.
Select one:
a. Future
b. Continuously
c. Goal
d. Deliberately
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which title is given to an individual who is in charge of and coordinates the activities of a group of employees engaged in related activities within a unit of an organization?
Select one:
a. contractor
b. manager
c. employee
d. vender
Clear my choice
Unity of command is related to
Select one:
a. cooperation among employees.
b. management and workers
c. planned actions.
d. superiors and subordinates
Question 15. Coordination is required at _ levels of management in all management functions.
Select one:
a. bottom
b. only top
c. few
d. all
Clear my choice
Question 16. The element that aims at integrating group efforts to achieve group objectives is called .
Select one:
a. Coordination
b. Directing
c. Management
d. Cooperation
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which level of management is responsible for establishing a vision for the organization, developing broad plans and strategies, and directing subordinate managers?
Select one:
a. executive managers
b. middle managers
c. second level managers
d. first level managers
Management Foundation (MGMT101)-Semester I
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. _ is a feature of planning, which is also referred to as primacy of planning.
Select one:
a. Continuous
b. Primary function of management
c. Integrating
d. Pervasive
Clear my choice
Question 2. Importance of planning lies in
Select one:
a. Selecting the most appropriate plan
b. Reducing uncertainty
c. Identifying alternatives critically
d. Developing leadership
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which one of the following is a single-use plan?
Select one:
a. Budget
b. Method
c. Rule
d. Strategy
Clear my choice
Question 4. Plans which prescribes chronological steps for performing activities is
Select one:
a. Method
b. Policy
c. Procedure
d. Rule
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following is not true for forecasting?
Select one:
a. Short range forecasts are less accurate than long range forecasts
b. Forecast for group of items is accurate than individual item
c. Forecasts are rarely perfect
d. The underlying casual system will remain same in the future
Clear my choice
Question 6. _ is a statement of expected results in numerical terms
Select one:
a. Plan
b. Estimate
c. Forecast
d. Budget
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which one of the following is a step of planning?
Select one:
a. Analysis of organisation structure
b. Analysis of employee morale
c. Analysis of employee behaviour
d. Analysis of environment
Clear my choice
Question 8. The basic role of strategy is to provide
Select one:
a. direction for motivation.
b. direction for control.
c. setting procedures.
d. direction for action
Clear my choice
Question 9. __ is a comprehensive plan for achieving its objectives.
Select one:
a. Rule
b. Strategy
c. Policy
d. Method
Clear my choice
Question 10. Pervasiveness of planning usually indicates that planning
Select one:
a. is the first element of management process.
b. extends throughout the organisation.
c. is a top management function.
d. is a future-oriented activity
Clear my choice
Objectives are decided by
Select one:
a. Subordinates
b. Superior
c. None of the above
d. Mutual consultations of both superior and subordinates

Question 11. Organisations are not always able to accomplish all their objectives because
Select one:
a. Planning May not Work in a Dynamic Environment
b. All of these
c. Planning Leads to Rigidity
d. Planning Involves Huge Cost
Clear my choice
Question 12. In which of the following forecasting technique, data obtained from past experience is analyzed?
Select one:
a. All of the above
b. Time series forecast
c. Associative model
d. Judgemental forecast
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following statements is false?
Select one:
a. If a plan has worked before it will work again
b. Managers have a tendency to rely on previously tried and tested successful plans
c. Any plan needs to be translated into action or it becomes meaningless
d. he success of an enterprise is possible only when plans are properly drawn up and implemented
Clear my choice
Question 14. Choose the INCORRECT option
Select one:
a. Planning is Continuous
b. Planning is basically doing and not an intellectual activity of thinking
c. Planning Involves Decision Making
d. Planning is Futuristic
Clear my choice

The following is not true for Management by objectives (MBO)
Select one:
a. It acts an effective Performance appraisal tool
b. The superior evaluate the individual concerned
c. It forces the management to plan the activities in a systematic way
d. Better management and improved communication
Question 15. Long term objectives are aimed to be achieved
Select one:
a. In more than 3 years
b. In more than 5 years
c. Within one year
d. Within 2 years
Clear my choice
Question 16. Mangement objectives when it is being considered must have
Select one:
a. Single objective
b. Three objectives
c. Two objectives
d. Multiple objectives
Clear my choice
Question 17. Decision-making is the case of _.
Select one:
a. Directing
b. Staffing
c. Planning
d. Organising
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Management Foundation (MGMT101)-Semester I
3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. An advantage of functional structure is
Select one:
a. Flexibility
b. Responsibility for end results
c. Personalised attention
d. Easier employee learning
Clear my choice
Question 2. __ involves giving authority and responsibility to subordinates.
Select one:
a. Delegation
b. Decentralisation
c. Centralisation
d. Division of work
Clear my choice
Question 3. Organising process involves one of the following:
Select one:
a. Prescribing disciplinary action
b. Grouping of activities
c. Determining objectives
d. Prescribing work schedule
Clear my choice
Question 4. Divisional structure leads to conflict in
Select one:
a. motivation
b. planning process
c. marketing management
d. resource allocation
Clear my choice
Question 5. The number of subordinates who report directly to a manager is called that manager’s _
Select one:
a. Delegation
b. Span of control
c. Authority
d. Range
Clear my choice
Question 6. Formal organisation differ from informal organisation with respect to
Select one:
a. Structuring
b. Production process
c. Financial procedure
d. Purchasing
Clear my choice
Question 7. Organisation structure establishes relationships between
Select one:
a. people, work and resources
b. organisation and environment
c. organisation and society
d. suppliers and customers
Clear my choice
Question 8. Following is NOT an importance of organising:
Select one:
a. Performance appraisal
b. Role clarity
c. Growth and expansion
d. Adaptation to change
Clear my choice
Question 9. is the organisational structure in which activities are grouped together on the basis of products.
Select one:
a. Formal
b. Informal
c. Divisional structure
d. Functional structure
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which one of the following does not follow scalar chain?
Select one:
a. Functional structure
b. Informal organisation
c. Divisional structure
d. Formal organisation
Clear my choice
is the process of grouping similar activities together and creating departments.
Select one:
a. Departmentalisation
b. Division of work
c. Centralisation
d. Delegation
Question 11. Which organisation structure is generally followed by big steel plants?
Select one:
a. All of the above
b. Line organisation
c. Functional organisation
d. Line and staff organisation
Clear my choice
Question 12. _ cannot be delegated.
Select one:
a. Responsibility
b. Accountability
c. Both (a) and ( C)
d. Authority
Clear my choice
Question 13. _ is the organisational structure in which no department is responsible for end results.
Select one:
a. Informal
b. Divisional structure
c. Functional structure
d. Formal
Clear my choice
Question 14. The purpose of an organisational structure is NOT
Select one:
a. To formalise authority
b. To organise lines of communication
c. To limit workers’ rights
d. To coordinate people and resources
Clear my choice
_ is the duty for job performance.
Select one:
a. Both (a) and ( C)
b. Responsibility
c. Authority
d. Accountability
Question 15. spans of management control create structures with many levels of management.
Select one:
a. Narrow; tall
b. Wide; tall
c. Wide; unpredictable
d. Narrow; flat
Clear my choice
Question 16. A virtual organisation is
Select one:
a. An organisation that uses information and communications technologies (ICT’s) to coordinate activities without any physical boundaries between different functions
b. An organisation that coordinates the workforce via video conferencing
c. An organisation that manages their supply chain using digital technologies
d. An organisation that uses internet technologies to sell its products to the customers
Clear my choice
Question 17. In hospitals, the following type of departmentation is common
Select one:
a. By function
b. By geographical region
c. All of the above
d. By committee
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
4th Module Assessment
Question 1. Promotion is an source of recruitment.
Select one:
a. internal
b. global
c. External
d. poor
Clear my choice
Question 2. For which group of persons is vestibule training relevant?
Select one:
a. Supervisory management
b. Operatives
c. Top management
d. Middle management
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which type of learning is management development concerned with?
Select one:
a. Inventory development
b. Manual skill development
c. Specific job skill development
d. Multi-skill development
Clear my choice
Question 4. In staffing function, which one of the following groups of managers is involved?
Select one:
a. Only human resource managers
b. Only middle managers
c. All managers
d. Only top managers
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following can not be considered as importance of staffing?
Select one:
a. Suitable division of work among employees
b. Efficient use of human resources
c. Employee satisfaction
d. Developing skills in employees
Clear my choice
Question 6. The most relevant sources for recruiting managerial personnel is
Select one:
a. Advertisement
b. Casual callers
c. Direct recruitment
d. Employment exchange
Clear my choice
Question 7. _ is an internal source of recruitment
Select one:
a. Transfer
b. Personal contacts
c. Campus recruitment
d. Employee recommendations
Clear my choice
Question 8. _ is the process of increasing knowledge and skills. Select one: a. Development b. Selection c. Interview d. Training Clear my choice Question 9. _____ is a process of learning and growth.
Select one:
a. Training
b. Both (a) and (C )
c. Development
d. Recruitment
Clear my choice
Question 10. Preliminary _ is a step in the selection process.
Select one:
a. interview
b. rejection
c. screening
d. sampling
Clear my choice
In staffing function, which combination of activities in a sequential order is correct?
Select one:
a. Recruitment, selection, placement, training
b. Selection, training, recruitment, placement
c. Recruitment, selection, training, placement
d. Recruitment, training, selection, placement

Question 11. is a limitation of internal source of recruitment.
Select one:
a. Lengthy process
b. Higher costs
c. Unreliability
d. Inbreeding
Clear my choice
Question 12. Time perspective in training is
Select one:
a. Medium or Long term
b. Long term
c. Short term
d. Medium term
Clear my choice
Question 13. _ is the “On the Job Training” method used to train electricians.
Select one:
a. Web publishing
b. Coaching
c. Job rotation
d. Apprenticeship
Clear my choice
Question 14. Web publishing is a/an ___ source of recruitment.
Select one:
a. Both (b) and (c )
b. Internal
c. Campus
d. External
Clear my choice
leads to optimum use of resources.
Select one:
a. Recruitment
b. Training
c. Staffing
d. Development
Question 15. Horizontal job rotation refers to _ Select one: a. Lateral promotion b. Lateral motivation c. Lateral transfer d. All of these Clear my choice Question 16. For higher management employees, are influenced by the size of a company, specific industry and the process of decision making.
Select one:
a. All of the above
b. Bonuses
c. Salaries
d. Promotions
Clear my choice
Question 17. Persons interested in enhancing their reputations and receiving recognition will respond to .
Select one:
a. Awards
b. Verbal praise
c. All of the above
d. Treats
Clear my choice
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
5th Module Assessment
Question 1. Which one of the following is a semantic barrier?
Select one:
a. Lack of attention
b. Status
c. Technical jargon
d. Organisational policy
Clear my choice
Question 2. Grapevine is a form of
Select one:
a. channel of communication
b. informal communication
c. barrier to communication
d. formal communication
Clear my choice
Question 3. Directing takes place at _ levels of management.
Select one:
a. Lower
b. Top
c. All
d. Middle
Clear my choice
Question 4. Need hierarchy theory of motivation was given by
Select one:
a. Taylor
b. Fayol
c. Maslow
d. Koontz
Clear my choice
Question 5. Meeting all of Maslows (1970) needs should result in
Select one:
a. Unconditional positive regard
b. Self-actualisation
c. Self-efficacy
d. Loci on control
Clear my choice
Question 6. Leadership is based on a superiors _ Select one: a. responsibility b. authority c. persuasive communication d. accountability Clear my choice Question 7. Motivation is not
Select one:
a. an easy process
b. a complex process
c. a goal-directed behaviour
d. related to satisfaction
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which one of the following is a step of controlling?
Select one:
a. Taking corrective action
b. Assessing environment
c. Assessing personnel required
d. Taking disciplinary action
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which one of the following is not a feature of controlling?
Select one:
a. Action-oriented
b. Continuous process
c. Pervasive function
d. Keeping employees busy
Clear my choice
Question 10. Contingency theories of leadership is based upon Select one: a. None of the above b. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations c. That there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations d. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers Clear my choice Question 11. __ aims at instructing, guiding and motivating people to achieve the desired results.
Select one:
a. Communication
b. Directing
c. Motivation
d. Organising
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following aspects appears in sociocultural approaches?
Select one:
a. Relatedness
b. Identity
c. Participation in communities
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which one of the following is NOT an importance of controlling?
Select one:
a. Better planning
b. Better coordination
c. Better grievance handling
d. Better use of resources
Clear my choice
Question 14. _ is the process of stimulating people to engage in a goal-directed behaviour
Select one:
a. Communication
b. None of these
c. Directing
d. Motivation
Clear my choice
Question 15. Regarding leadership, which statement is FALSE?
Select one:
a. When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined
b. Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an organisation
c. Not every leader is a manager
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 16. Social cognitive perspectives often hold which of the following to be important aspects of motivation?
Select one:
a. Operant and classical conditioning
b. Expectancy and value
c. Positive self-regard and hierarchy of needs
d. Schemas and prototypes
Clear my choice
Question 17. __ motivation is associated with activities that are rewarding or satisfying in themselves
Select one:
a. Trait motivation
b. State motivation
c. Extrinsic motivation
d. Intrinsic motivation

Management Foundation (MGMT101)-Semester I
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Assignment 2
Case Study: Bajaj Auto
It is believed that “tomorrow’s CEO must be today’s empowered manager”. This is reflected in the case of CEO of the two-wheeler brand Bajaj Auto – Mr. Rahul Bajaj, , wherein he delegated his responsibilities to a successor systematically. His two sons, Rajiv and Sanjiv were qualified enough to carry on the business. It was a bold decision on his part as he was used to taking charge of every critical area in the traditional family and managing the company. He had complete charge of production, finance, design changes, production systems and labour relations at the company, and personally oversaw all the operations for over two decades from1968 to 1990.
He never felt the need for delegation of authority and decentralisation of responsibilities. resulting which the company remained a fat, cost-callous, inflexible giant. Although there was rise in sales and increase in consumer demand, the company could not progress exponentially. The second line of executives were not groomed to manage day-to-day operations, nor they had required freedom to take even simple decisions independently.
Due to various additional responsibilities as the chairman of Indian Airlines, CII, AIAM, etc., he realized the need for creating a second line of command in his absence. To handle the onset of a recession and the advent of competition, the company quickly, combined delegation with succession planning. Both sons joined as apprentices initially, selected their respective areas and underwent training in those areas- Rajiv in manufacturing and Sanjiv in marketing.
Another cousin of Rahul Bajaj, Mathur was made the in charge of HR functions and began to represent Rahul in meetings. Responsibilities were delegated to Mathur slowly but steadily. Rahul Bajaj also started to distance himself from his followers, after his son Rajiv took charge of the Akrudi plant independently. As a result, the report card of the company became quite encouraging – with sales picking up in motor cycle as well as scooter segments.
Question1 : Span of management is sometimes also referred to as span of………………..or……………..
Select one:
a. Authority, Control
b. Supervision, authority or control
c. Delegation, authority
d. Operations, supervision
Clear my choice
Question 2. Decentralisation refers to the physical ……………… of facilities and the extent of ……………… of authority throughout an organisation.
Select one:
a. location, aggregation
b. location, dispersal
c. layout, dispersal
d. layout, aggregation
Clear my choice
Question 3. Centralisation is the opposite of ……………… and ……………… of authority
Select one:
a. dispersal, delegation
b. absorption, delegation
c. dispersal, holding
d. aggregation, control
Clear my choice
Question 4. is the assignment of authority and responsibility to another person (normally from a ) to carry out specific activities.
Select one:
a. Delegation, manager to a subordinate
b. control, manager to a subordinate
c. Delegation, subordinate to manager
d. Decentralization, subordinate to client
Clear my choice
Question 5. If the span of management is large, ………………levels would be needed in the organisation. If the organisation structure is…………… the span of control is very large at the lowest level
Select one:
a. more, flat
b. higher, flat
c. Fewer, Flat
d. fewer, tall
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

1st Module Assessment

Question 1. Accounts that normally have debit balances are:

a. assets, expenses, and share capital—ordinary
b. assets, expenses, and revenues
c. assets, liabilities, and dividends
d. assets, dividends, and expenses

Question 2. A trial balance shows –

a. Honesty of accountants
b. None of these
c. Accuracy of account
d. Only arithmetical accuracy of accounts

Question 3. Accounts related to assets or properties or possessions.

a. Artificial Personal Account
b. Personal Account
c. Real Account
d. Nominal Account

Question 4. Debits:
a. increase assets and decrease liabilities
b. increase both assets and liabilities
c. decrease both assets and liabilities
d. decrease assets and increase liabilities

Question 5. Posting:

a. is an optional step in the recording process
b. transfers journal entries to ledger accounts
c. transfers ledger transaction data to the journal
d. normally occurs before journalizing.

Question 6. The following account has a credit balance
a. Plant and Equipment A/c
b. Sundry Creditors A/c
c. Purchase A/c
d. None of the above

Question 7. A revenue account:

a. has a normal balance of a debit
b. is increased by credits
c. is increased by debits
d. is decreased by credits

Question 8. Which of the following is a type of Voucher?

a. Non-Cash or Transfer Voucher
b. Payment Voucher
c. All of the above
d. Receipt Voucher

Question 9. A ledger:

a. is a collection of the entire group of accounts maintained by a company
b. contains only asset and liability accounts.
c. should show accounts in alphabetical order
d. is a book of original entry.

Question 10. The purchase of supplies on account should result in:

a. a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Cash.
b. a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts Payable
c. a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Supplies
d. a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts Receivable.

Question 11. Ram purchased a car INR. 10,000 paid INR. 3000 as cash and balance amount will be paid in three equal installments due to this ______.

a. Assets will increase by 7000 with corresponding increase in liability by 7000
b. Both (b) and (c)
c. Total liabilities increase by 3000
d. Total assets increase by 10,000

Question 12. In which book of prime entry will a business record debit notes in respect of goods which have been sent back to suppliers?

a. The sales returns day book
b. The cash book
c. The purchase day book
d. The purchase returns day book

Question 13. Which of the following would be recorded in the sales day book?
a. Trade discounts
b. Credit notes received
c. Discounts allowed
d. Sales invoices

Question 14. From the following details estimate the capital as on 31.03.2017, Capital as on 01.04.2016 INR. 4,10,000. Drawings INR. 40,000, Profit during the year INR. 50,000

a. 4,20,000
b. 4,10,000
c. 4,00,000
d. 4,50,000

Question 15. Before posting a payment of €5,000, the Accounts Payable of Senator Company had a normal balance of €16,000. The balance after posting this transaction was:

a. Cannot be determined
b. € 5,000
c. € 21,000
d. € 11,000

Question 16. At 30 November 20X5 Jenny had a bank loan of $8,500 and a balance of $678 in hand in her bank account. How should these amounts be recorded on Jenny’s opening trial balance at 1 December 20X5?

a. Credit $8,500 and Debit $678
b. Credit $7,822
c. Debit $8,500 and Credit $678
d. Debit $7,822

Question 17. The trial balance of Clooney Corporation had accounts with the following normal balances: Cash $5,000, Service Revenue $85,000, Salaries and Wages Payable $4,000, Salaries and Wages Expense $40,000, Rent Expense $10,000, Share Capital— Ordinary $42,000, Dividends $15,000, and Equipment $61,000. In preparing a trial balance, the total in the debit column is: ………..

a. $131,000
b. $91,000
c. $216,000
d. $116,000
30 out of 30
Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. Current Liabilities means

a. Liabilities which are payable immediately
b. Liabilities which are payable within 12 months
c. Liabilities which are readable within 3 months
d. Liabilities which payable after one accounting year

Question 2. Payment to a creditor

a. Only reduce an asset.
b. Increase an asset, reduce a liability
c. Only reduce a liability
d. Reduce an asset, reduce a liability

Question 3. Assets are listed on the balance sheet in the order of their

a. liquidity.
b. purchase date.
c. balance.
d. adjustments

Question 4. __ Account charges the COGS and other direct expenses and losses against the sales revenue to determine the gross operating result of the concern during a particular accounting period.

a. Income & Expenditure
b. Trading
c. Receipts & Payments
d. Profit & Loss

Question 5. Balance sheet is prepared

a. At a particular date
b. For the close of a period
c. At the close of a day
d. For showing performance of an organisation

Question 6. Among the financial statements, _ is/ are referred to as ‘period statement’.

a. Profit & Loss Account
b. Balance Sheet
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Trading Account.

Question 7. A trial balance will have no balance, if __

a. None of the above
b. The purchase on credit basis is debited to purchases and credited to cash
c. 500 cash payment to creditors is debited to creditors for 50 and credited to cash as 500
d. correct entry is posted twice

Question 8. Gross profit is the difference between

a. None of the above
b. Sales and non-operating expenses
c. Sales and cost of goods sold
d. Sales and operating expenses

Question 9. Which of the following is a position statement?

a. Trial balance
b. Balance sheet
c. funds flow statement
d. Profit and loss account

Question 10. The financial statements of an organisation are drafted using the _.

a. Transactions
b. Ledger balances
c. None of the above.
d. Events

Question 11. Where is carriage inwards disclosed?

a. Profit and loss account
b. Trading account
c. Trial balance
d. Balance sheet

Question 12. Where is discount received disclosed?

a. Trial balance
b. Profit and loss account
c. Trading account
d. Balance sheet

Question 13. Which of the following is the correct formula for cost of sales?

a. Opening inventory – closing inventory + purchases
b. Purchases – closing inventory + sales
c. Opening inventory – purchases + closing inventory
d. Opening inventory + closing inventory – purchases

Question 14. Carriage outwards is disclosed in

a. Balance sheet
b. Trial balance
c. Trading account
d. Profit and loss account

Question 15. If a company wants to earn a 25% profit on sales, what will be the profit mark up on the cost.

a. 30%
b. 25%
c. 20%
d. 33.33%

Question 16. Given that values of opening inventory, purchases and Cost of Goods Sold for a particular accounting period are INR. 1,00,000, INR. 9,30,000 and INR. 7,50,000, the closing inventory will be:

a. 2,40,000
b. 4,80,000
c. 2,80,000
d. 8,20,000

Question 17. Prisha has not kept accurate accounting records during the financial year. She had opening inventory of $6,700 and purchased goods costing $84,000 during the year. At the year end she had $5,400 left in inventory. All sales are made at a mark up on cost of 20%. What is Prisha’s gross profit for the year?

a. $16,540
b. $13,750
c. $20,675
d. $17,060

30 out of 30
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

4th Module Assessment
Question 1. Which of the following is the main objective of a financial statement?

a. to know the solvency
b. All
c. to know the earning capacity
d. to know the debt capacity
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is technique of financial statement analysis?

a. Trend analysis
b. Common‐size statement
c. Comparative statement
d. All
Clear my choice
Question 3. Comparisons of data within a company are an example of the following comparative basis:

a. Both intracompany and intercompany.
b. Intracompany.
c. Industry averages.
d. Intercompany.
Clear my choice
Question 4. The term financial statement refers to…

a. Income statement
b. Balance sheet
c. Cash flow and Fund Flow
d. All
Clear my choice
Question 5. In horizontal analysis, each item is expressed as a percentage of the:

a. total assets amount
b. base year amount
c. net income amount
d. equity amount
Clear my choice
Question 6. A measure useful in evaluating the effi ciency in managing inventories is:

a. return on shareholders’ equity.
b. average days to sell inventory.
c. inventory turnover
d. Both (a) and (b).
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which technique used for figures of two or more periods are placed side by side to facilitate easy and meaningful comparisons?

a. Trend Analysis
b. None
c. Common‐size statement
d. Comparative statement
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which is an example of a cash flow from a financing activity?

a. None of the above
b. Purchase of equipment for cash.
c. Issuance of debt for cash
d. Receipt of cash from sale of land.
Clear my choice
Question 9. Free cash fl ow provides an indication of a company’s ability to:

a. generate cash to pay dividends
b. generate cash to invest in new capital expenditures.
c. generate net income.
d. Both (b) and (c).
Clear my choice
Question 10. The process of comparing various financial factors of a company over a period of time is known as …

a. Ratio Analysis
b. Inter‐industry comparison
c. Inter‐firm comparison
d. Intra‐firm comparison
Clear my choice
Which of the following items is reported on a statement of cash fl ows prepared by the direct method?

a. Increase in accounts receivable.
b. Cash payments to suppliers
c. Loss on disposal of building
d. Depreciation expense.

Question 11. Which is an example of a cash flow from an operating activity?

a. Payment of cash to lenders for interest
b. None of the above.
c. Receipt of cash from the sale of ordinary shares
d. Payment of cash to reacquire shares.
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following measures is an evaluation of a firm’s ability to pay current liabilities?

a. Acid-test ratio.
b. Both (a) and (b).
c. Return on assets.
d. Current ratio.
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following is incorrect about the statement of cash flows?

a. The indirect method may be used to report cash provided by operations.
b. The operating section is the last section of the statement.
c. The direct method may be used to report cash provided by operations.
d. The statement shows the cash provided (used) for three categories of activity.
Clear my choice
Question 14. The statement of cash flows classifies cash receipts and cash payments by these activities:

a. operating and non-operating.
b. investing, financing, and non-operating.
c. investing, financing, and operating.
d. financing, operating, and non-operating.
Clear my choice
Question 15. Sammy Company reported net sales of £300,000, £330,000, and £360,000 in the years, 2012, 2013, and 2014, respectively. If 2012 is the base year, what is the trend percentage for 2014?

a. 130%
b. 77%.
c. 108%.
d. 120%.
Clear my choice
Question 16. Tiger Equipment Sales Co. had accounts receivable at the beginning and end of the year of $200,000 and $300,000, respectively. The net sales were $1,000,000. Determine the accounts receivable turnover and number of days’ sales in accounts receivable.

a. 3.3, 109
b. 3.3, 91
c. 4.0, 109
d. 4.0, 91.25
Clear my choice
Question 17. Horizon Company has the following current account information for a recent balance sheet: Cash $ 25,000;Temporary investments 25,000; Accounts receivable 125,000; Merchandise inventory 100,000; Accounts payable 75,000; Accrued expenses 25,000 What are the current and quick ratios?
a. 2.50, 1.50
b. 2.75, 1.75
c. 2.75, 0.50
d. 1.75, 2.50

30 out of 30
Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

5th Module Assessment

Question 1. If expenses of liquidation of the vendor company are paid by the purchasing company then, in purchasing company’s book, the account debited is

a. Liquidation expense account.
b. Goodwill account
c. Vendor company account
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following statements is not a feature of a private company?

a. None of the above
b. Does not involve participation of public in general.
c. Restricts the rights of members to transfer its shares.
d. Does not restrict on the number of its members to any limit.
Clear my choice
Question 3. The Securities Premium amount may be utilized by a company for __.

a. Writing off the expenses/discount on the issue of debentures
b. Writing off any loss of revenue nature
c. None of the above
d. Writing off any loss on sale of fi xed asset
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following statement is true in case of a Foreign Company?

a. A Company incorporated in India and has a place of business in India.
b. A Company incorporated in India and has place of business outside India
c. None of the above
d. A Company incorporated outside India and has a place of business in India
Clear my choice
Question 5. In case of amalgamation, the entry for elimination of unrealized profit or loss on stock is made

a. None of the above
b. By the purchasing company
c. By the third party
d. By the vendor company
Clear my choice
Question 6. Amalgamation adjustment reserve is opened in the books of the amalgamating company to incorporate

a. Assets of the amalgamating company
b. Non- Statutory reserves of the amalgamating company
c. None of the above
d. Statutory reserves of the amalgamating company
Clear my choice
Question 7. When the object of reconstruction is usually to re-organise capital or to compound with creditors or to effect economies then such type of reconstruction is called

a. Internal reconstruction with liquidation
b. None of the above
c. Internal reconstruction without liquidation of the company
d. External reconstruction
Clear my choice
Question 8. The excess price received over the par value of shares, should be credited to __.

a. Securities premium account
b. Share capital account
c. Calls-in-advance account
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 9. Debenture interest

a. Accumulates in case of losses or inadequate profi ts
b. Is payable before the payment of any dividend on shares
c. None of the above
d. Is payable after the payment of preference dividend but before the payment of equity dividend _.
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which of the following statement is not a feature of a Company?

a. None of the above
b. Perpetual Existence
c. Members have unlimited liability
d. Separate legal entity
Clear my choice
Question 11. When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited with and the share forfeiture account is credited with __.

a. Called up capital of shares forfeited; Calls in arrear of shares forfeited
b. None of the above
c. Paid-up capital of shares forfeited; Called up capital of shares forfeited
d. Called up capital of shares forfeited; Amount received on shares forfeited
Clear my choice
Question 12. Under the ‘pooling of interests’ method, the difference between the purchase consideration and share capital of the transferee company should be adjusted to

a. Amalgamation adjustment account
b. General reserve
c. None of the above
d. Goodwill or capital reserve
Clear my choice
Question 13. At the time of amalgamation, purchase consideration does not include

a. None of the above
b. Preference shares issued by the transferee company to the preference shareholders of the transferor company
c. Payments made in the form of assets by the transferee company to the shareholders of the transferor company
d. The sum which the transferee company will directly pay to the creditors of the transferor company
Clear my choice
Question 14. A process of reconstruction, which is carried out without liquidating the company and forming a new one is called

a. None of the above
b. Amalgamation
c. External reconstruction
d. Internal reconstruction.
Clear my choice
Question 15. G Ltd. acquired assets worth INR. 7,50,000 from H Ltd. by issue of shares of INR. 100 at a premium of 25%. The number of shares to be issued by G Ltd. to settle the purchase consideration = ?

a. 9,375 shares
b. 7,500 shares
c. 8,550 shares
d. 6,000 shares
Clear my choice
Question 16. F Ltd. purchased Machinery from G Company for a book value of INR. 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10% debentures of INR. 100 each at a premium of 25%. The debenture account was credited with __.

a. 4,20,000
b. 3,20,000
c. 5,00,000
d. 4,00,000
Clear my choice
Question 17. T Ltd. proposed to issue 6,000 equity shares of INR. 100 each at a premium of 40%. The minimum amount of application money to be collected per share as per the Companies Act, 2013

a. INR. 5.00
b. INR. 6.00
c. INR. 10.00
d. INR. 7.00
30 out of 30

Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

Question 1. Compute the times interest earned for 2014.
Select one:
a. 11.2 times.
b. 14.0 times.
c. 65.3 times
d. 13.0 times
Clear my choice
Question 2. Compute the days in inventory for 2014.
Select one:
a. 60.8 days.
b. 24 days.
c. 64.4 days
d. 6 days.
Clear my choice
Question 3. Compute the current ratio for 2014.
Select one:
a. 3.75:1.
b. 1.26:1.
c. 3.0:1.
d. .80:1.
Clear my choice
Question 4. Compute the profi t margin for 2014.
Select one:
a. 5.90%
b. 17.1%.
c. 18.10%
d. 37.9%.
Clear my choice
Question 5. Compute the return on ordinary shareholders’ equity for 2014.
Select one:
a. 47.9%.
b. 61.2%.
c. 51.7%.
d. 59.40%

15 out of 15
Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

Business Economics
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MODULE I : INTRODUCTION TO BUSINESS ECONOMICS
Case Study
Suppose that Russ has budgeted $20 a month to buy candy bars, music downloads, or some combination of each. If Russ buys only candy bars he can obtain 40 bars a month; if he buys only downloads, he can buy 20 a month.
Question 1: If an economy moves from producing 10 units of A and 4 units of B to producing 7 As and 5Bs, the opportunity cost of the 5th B is:
a. 7As
b. 10As
c. 3As
d. 1A

Question 2: In a free market the combination of products produced will be determined by:
a. Market forces of supply and demand
b. The government
c. The law
d. The public sector

Question 3: The basic economic problems will not be solved by:
a. Market forces
b. Government intervention
c. A mixture of government intervention and the free market
d. The creation of unlimited resources

Question 4: The sacrifice involved when you choose a particular course of action is called the:
a. Alternative
b. Opportunity cost
c. Consumer cost
d. Producer cost

Question 5: What is the opportunity cost of a candy bar?
a. 0.6
b. 0.2
c. 0.5
d. 0.6

Question 6: What is the opportunity cost of a music download?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5

Question 7: What is the price of a candy bar?
a. 20 cents
b. 50 cents
c. 40 cents
d. 10 cents

Question 8: What is the price of a music download?
a. $1
b. $3
c. $4
d. $5

Question 9: Which of the following is a normative statement in economics?
a. More spending by the government will reduce poverty
b. Higher taxes will lead to less desire to work
c. The UK economy is growing fast relative to other European Union members
d. The government should concentrate on reducing unemployment

Question 10: Which one of the following is not one of the basic economic questions?
a. What to produce
b. Who to produce for
c. How to produce
d. How to minimize economic growth
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MODULE II : DEMAND, SUPPLY AND EQUILIBRIUM
Case Study
Suppose that the government of Zanzi decides that there is a need to reduce cigarette smoking in their country. The cigarette market in Zanzi can currently be described by the following demand and supply equations:
Demand for cigarettes: Q = 1125 – 12.5P
Supply of cigarettes: Q = 1100P – 1100
The government proposes implementing a quantity control of 500 units: this quantity control would limit the number of cigarettes that could be sold in Zanzi to exactly 500 units. The government has asked you to evaluate this program by answering the following series of questions.

Question 1: Before implementing the quantity control, what is the equilibrium price of cigarettes in Zanzi?
a. $4
b. $2
c. $3
d. $7
Question 2: Before implementing the quantity control, what is the equilibrium quantity of cigarettes in Zanzi?
a. 700 cigarettes
b. 900 cigarettes
c. 1100 cigarettes
d. 800 cigarettes
Question 3: Before implementing the quantity control, what is the value of consumer surplus in the market for cigarettes in Zanzi?
a. $48,400
b. $48,200
c. $43,400
d. $38,400

Question 4: Before implementing the quantity control, what is the value of producer surplus in the market for cigarettes in Zanzi?
a. $220
b. $550
c. $5
d. $320
Question 5: Suppose the government implements the quantity control. What is the deadweight loss due to this program?
a. $13, 656
b. $14,565
c. $12,343
d. $12,345
Question 6: Suppose the government implements the quantity control. What is the value of consumer surplus with this program?
a. $6,000
b. $4,000
c. $10,000
d. $15,000

Question 7: Suppose the government implements the quantity control. What is the value of producer surplus with this program?
a. $113
b. $112
c. $123
d. $235

Question 8: Suppose the government implements the quantity control. What price must consumers pay in order to only demand 500 cigarettes in Zanzi?
a. $40
b. $30
c. $30
d. $50

Question 9: Suppose the government implements the quantity control. What price must producers receive in order to only supply 500 cigarettes in Zanzi? (Round your answer to the nearest cent.)
a. $1
b. $1
c. $2
d. $2
Question 10: Suppose the government implements the quantity control. What price will the government sell the right to sell a unit of cigarettes for in Zanzi if the government sets the quantity control at 500 cigarettes?
a. $49
b. $49
c. $55
d. $47

10 on 10

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MODULE III: PRODUCTION ANALYSIS
Case Study
Consider the Beiswanger Company, a small firm engaged in engineerng analysis. Beiswanger’s president has estimated that the firm’s output per month (Q) is related in the following way to the number of engineers € and technicians used (T): Q = 20E – E^2 + 12T – 0.5T^2 . The monthly wage of an engineer is $4,000, and the monthly wage of a technician is $2,000. President allots $28,000 per month for the combined wages of engineers and technicians.
Question 1: By re-stating the firm’s supply decision, we have the following:
a. if at the best production level ‘q*’ greater than the average variable cost, then the firm should choose to produce ‘q*’
b. if at the best production level ‘q*’ greater than the average fixed cost, then the firm should choose to produce ‘q*’
c. if at the best production level ‘q*’ less than the average variable cost, then the firm should choose to produce ‘q*’
d. if at the best production level ‘q*’ greater than the marginal cost, then the firm should choose to produce ‘q*’
Question 2: Diminishing marginal returns occurs when
a. when the opportunity cost the extra output increases
b. when the opportunity cost the extra output decreases
c. output remains constant as more of variable factor is added to a fixed factor, output initially increases, then peaks before finally declining
d. output declines as more of variable factor is added to a fixed factor, output initially increases, then peaks before finally declining
Question 3: If the president is to maximize output, he must choose a bundle of engineers and technicians such that
a. MP^e / P^e = MP^t / P^t
b. MP^e / P^t = MP^t / P^e
c. MP^t / P^e = MP^e / P^t
d. None of the above
Question 4: The firm should consider temporary shut down when:
Select one:
a. if at output ‘q*’, price is greater than average variable cost
b. if at output ‘q*’, price is equals average variable cost
c. if at output ‘q*’, price is less than average variable cost
d. if at output ‘q*’, price is greater than marginal cost
Question 5: Total costs are:
a. total fixed cost plus average variable costs
b. total fixed costs plus total variable costs
c. total average fixed costs plus total average variable costs
d. total costs plus opportunity costs
Question 6: What amount of engineers should be hired?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Question 7: What amount of technicians should be hired?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 6
d. 8

Question 8: What will be the calculated MP^e?
a. 10 – 2E
b. 20 – 2E
c. 30 – 3E
d. 16 – 3e
Question 9: What will be the calculated MP^t?
a. 12 – T
b. 13 – T
c. 22 – T
d. 15 – T
Question 10: What will be the value of T?
a. E – 2 (wrong answer)
b. E + 2
c. E – 6
d. E – 4

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MODULE IV : MARKET STRUCTURES
Case Study
Assume that two identical firms in a purely oligopolistic industry selling a homogenous product agree to share the maket equally. The total market demand function for the commodity is Qd = 240 – 10P. The cost schedules of the firms are given in the following table:

q1 40 50 60 80 q2 50 70 100
SMC1 (Rs.) 8 10 12 16 SMC1 (Rs.) 4 6 9
SAC1 (Rs.) 13 12.3 12 13 SAC1 (Rs.) 7 6 7

Question 1: Profits for this firm will be:
a. Rs. 420
b. Rs. 130 (wrong)
c. Rs. 350
d. Rs. 450
Question 2: When q1 = 40, What will be MR1?
a. 2
b. 8
c. 5
d. 4
Question 3: When q1 = 40, what will be the profit maximising output for the first firm?
a. 30
b. 60
c. 40
d. 20
Question 4: When q1 = 50, what will be MR1?
a. 7
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3
Question 5: When q1 = 60, what will be MR1?
a. 0
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
Question 6: When q1 = 80, what will be MR1?
a. 7
b. -4
c. 5
d. -8
Question 7: When q2 = 100, then MR2 will be
a. 16
b. 32
c. -32
d. -16
Question 8: When q2 = 50, price at this level of output will be
a. 12
b. 14
c. 24
d. 32
Question 9: When q2 = 50, then MR2 will be
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Question 10: When q2 = 70, then MR2 will be
a. 4
b. -9
c. -4
d. -5

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MODULE V : BUSINESS CYCLES
Case Study

The president of the Martin Company is considering two alternative investments, X and Y. If each investment is carried out, there are four possible outcomes. The present value of net profit and profitability of each outcome follow:
Investment X Investment Y
Outcome Net Present Value Probability Outcome Net Present value Probability
1 $ 20 million 0.2 A $ 12 million 0.1
2 8 million 0.3 B 9 million 0.3
3 10 million 0.4 C 6 million 0.1
4 3 million 0.1 D 11 million 0.5
Question 1: Risk management is responsibility of the
a. Customer
b. Investor
c. Developer
d. Project team
Question 2. The president of the Martin Company has the utility function U = 10 + 5P – 0.01 P^2. Which investment should she choose?
a. Investment x
b. nor investment X neither investment Y
c. Investment Y
d. None of the above
Question 3. What is the coefficient of variation of investment X?
Select one:
a. 37%
b. 23%
c. 47%
d. 65%
Question 4. What is the coefficient of variation of investment Y?
a. 37%
b. 23%
c. 47%
d. 18%
Question 5. What is the expected present value of investment X?
a. $ 6 million
b. $ 10.7 million
c. $ 4 million
d. $ 11.09 million
Question 6. What is the expected present value of investment Y?
a. $11 million
b. $ 9 million
c. $ 5 million
d. $ 7 million
Question 7. What is the standard deviation of investment X?
a. $ 5.06 million
b. $ 6 million
c. $ 5 million
d. $ 4 million
Question 8. What is the standard deviation of investment Y?
a. $ 5.06 million
b. $ 1.95 million
c. $ 5 million
d. $ 4 million

Question 9. Which investment is risker?
a. Investment X
b. Investment Y
c. Investment X and Y both
d. None of the above

Question 10. Which of the following technique will ensure that impact of risk will be less?
a. Risk avoidance technique
b. Risk Mitigation technique
c. Risk contingency technique
d. All of the above

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ASSIGNMENT 2
Case Study
The market for study desks is characterized by perfect competition. Firms and consumers are price takers and in the long run there is free entry and exit of firms in this industry. All firms are identical in terms of their technological capabilities. Thus the cost function as given below for a representative firm can be assumed to be the cost function faced by each firm in the industry. The total cost and marginal cost functions for the representative firm are given by the following equations:
TC = 2qs^2+ 5qs + 50
MC = 4qs + 5
Suppose that the market demand is given by:
PD = 1025 – 2QD
Note: Q represents market values and q represents firm values. The two are different.

Question 1: At the new long-run equilibrium, how many firms will be in the industry?
a. 32
b. 45
c. 150
d. 230
Question 2. At the new long-run equilibrium, what will be the output of each representative firm in the industry?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
Question 3. Determine the equation for average total cost for the firm
a. 2qs + 2 + 50/qs
b. 2qs + 5 + 50/qs
c. 3qs + 5 + 50/qs
d. None of the above
Question 4. Determine the market quantity Q from the market demand curve, given that we know the above calculated market price.
a. 23
b. 504
c. 34
d. 89
Question 5. In the long-run given this technological advance, how many firms will there be in the industry?
a. 34
b. 84
c. 32
d. 56
Question 6. Now suppose that the number of students increases such that the market demand curve for study desks shifts out and is given by, PD = 1525 – 2QD . What will be the new long-run equilibrium price in this industry?
a. 25
b. 34
c. 23
d. 45
Question 7. Now, consider another scenario where technology advancement changes the cost functions of each representative firm. The market demand is still the original one (before the increase in the number of students). The new cost functions are: TC = qs^2+5qs + 36 MC = 2qs + 5 What will be the new equilibrium price?
a. 17
b. 4
c. 2
d. 6
Question 8. What is the long-run equilibrium price in this market?
a. 12
b. 14
c. 25
d. None of the above
Question 9. What is the long-run output of each representative firm in this industry?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 6
d. 7
Question 10. When this industry is in long-run equilibrium, how many firms are in the industry?
a. 3
b. 80
c. 40
d. 100

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Business Mathematics
Case Study
In order to find out the inverse of the matrices below, answer the questions associated.
Case Study 1.
A= [4 -2 1 7 3 3 2 0 1]
Case Study 2.
B= [1 2 -3 2 3 2 3 -3 -4]

Question 1: Based on Case study 1 – Determinant value of Matrix A = _____
a. 8
b. 5
c. 0
d. 14
Question 2: Based on Case study 1 – Matrix A is a ________ matrix
a. 2 x 3
b. 3 x 2
c. 2 x 2
d. None of these
Question 3: Based on Case study 1 – Matrix A is ______ matrix
a. singular
b. non – singular
c. degenerate
d. indeterminate
Question 4: Based on Case study 1 – The value of C_22 (second row second column entry) in the Co – factor matrix of A is ______
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. None of these
Question 5: Based on Case study 1 – Which amongst the following is not required in order to get the inverse of matrix A?
a. Adjoint of A
b. Determinant of A
c. Transpose of A
d. All of these
Question 6: Based on Case study 2 – The sum of first row entries (i.e. a_11, a_12, a_13) in the adjoint matrix of A is _______
a. 39
b. 26
c. 19
d. 21
Question 7: Based on Case study 2 – The value of second row third column entry in the adjoint matrix of A is ______
a. -1
b. -8
c. 3
d. -6
Question 8: Based on Case study 2 – The value of third row and third column entry in the inverse matrix of A is ______
a. -0.25
b. -0.089285714
c. -0.014925373
d. -0.044776119
Question 9: Formula for finding inverse of A is ______
a. [1/det(A)] * adj A
b. [1/det(A)] ^ adj A
c. [1*det(A)] / adj A
d. None of these
Question 10: Relation between Co – Factors and Minors can be written as _________

a. C_ij = (-1)^(i-j). M_ji
b. C_ij = (-1)^(i-j). M_ij
c. C_ij = (-1)^(i+j). M_ij
d. C_ij = (-1)^(j-i). M_i+j

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MODULE II : DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
Case Study
Case Study 1. Consider XYZ manufacturer’s total cost function is given as C(x)= 2x^2+3x+1000. Answer the questions associated with this information.
Case Study 2. A monopolist’s demand function is p = 300 – 5x. Answer the questions associated with this information.
Case Study 3. A company XYZ has cost function for ‘x’ number of units as C(x) = x^3-(15/2)x^2+18x+10
Question 1: Based on Case Study 1 – The average cost function of XYZ manufacturer is __________
a. 2x+3+(100)/x
b. 2x+3+(1000)/x
c. 2+3x+(1000)/x
d. None of these
Q 2 Based on Case Study 1 – The formula for finding average cost is __________
a. C(x) * x
b. C(x) / x
c. 754
d. 234

Q 3 Based on Case Study 1 – The Marginal cost function of XYZ manufacturer is __________
a. 2x + 3
b. 4x – 3
c. 4x + 3
d. 3x + 4

Q 4 Based on Case Study 1 – The Marginal cost when 5 units are produced is __________
a. 21
b. 22
c. 23
d. 24
Q 5 Based on Case Study 2 – Relationship between the slope of MR and AR can be explained by_______
a. slope of MR is twice the slope of AR
b. slope of MR is thrice the slope of AR
c. slope of AR is twice the slope of MR
d. None of these

Q 6 Based on Case Study 2 – The Marginal revenue function is __________
a. x / 30
b. 10x – 300
c. 300 – 10x
d. 300 + 10x
Q 7 Based on Case Study 2 – The marginal revenue is zero at the price_______
a. 150
b. 100
c. 200
d. 50

Q 8 Based on Case Study 3 – Average cost for the number of units which minimize the marginal cost is_______
a. 20
b. 22.45
c. 24
d. 26
Q 9 Based on Case Study 3 – Number of units for which the Marginal Cost is minimum is_______
a. 1
b. 2.5
c. 3
d. 5
Q 10 Based on Case Study 3 – Total cost for the number of units which minimise the marginal cost is_______
a. 9.5
b. 11
c. 9
d. None of these
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MODULE III: INTEGRAL CALCULUS
Case Study
Case Study 1. The marginal cost of producing x units of a commodity in a day is given as MC = 16x -1591. The selling price is fixed at Rs. 9 per unit and the fixed cost is Rs. 1,800 per day. Answer the questions associated with this information.
Case Study 2. A company suffers a loss of Rs. 560 if one of its product does not sell. Marginal revenue and Marginal cost functions for the product are given by MR = 170 – 25x and MC = -50 + 15x

Question 1: Based on Case Study 1 – Critical point for profit function can be found by equating dp/d to ______.
a. -1
b. 2
c. 1
d. 0

Question 2: Based on Case Study 1 – Critical point value for profit function is _______.
a. 120
b. 50
c. 99
d. 100

Question 3: Based on Case Study 1 – Determine the Cost function.
a. 8x^2 – 1591x + k
b. 4x^3 – 1591x + k
c. 8x^2 – 1580x + k
d. 8x^2 – 158x + k

Question 4: Based on Case Study 1 – Determine the maximum profit that can be attained in one day.
a. 67800
b. 78200
c. 76000
d. None of these

Question 5: Based on Case Study 1 – Determine the Profit Function.
a. -4x^2 + 1600x -1800
b. 8x^2 – 1600x -1800
c. -8x^2 + 1600x -1800
d. 8x^2 – 1600x +1800

Question 6: Based on Case Study 1 – Determine the Revenue function.
a. 9x
b. 2x
c. 15x
d. 3x

Question 7: Based on Case Study 2 – Determine the break even points.
a. x = 3 and x = 5
b. x = 4 and x = 7
c. x = 2 and x = 5
d. x = 5 and x = 9

Question 8: Based on Case Study 2 – Determine the total profit between the break even points.
a. 756
b. 825
c. 450
d. 945

Question 9: Based on Case Study 2 – Determine the total profit fucntion.
a. 220x + 20 x^2 -560
b. 220x – 20 x^2 + 560
c. 220x – 20 x^2 -560
d. None of these

Question 10: Based on Case Study 2 – The total profit between the break even points can be found by integrating the profit function between the limits of __________
a. break even points
b. 0 to 1
c. negative infinity to positive infinity
d. None of these

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MODULE IV : MATHEMATICS OF FINANCE
Case Study
Case Study 1. Considering an amount of Rs. 100 deposited in the account, answer the questions associated with this deposit.
Case Study 2. If the principle amount of Rs. X is to be invested at 8 % per annum, so that after four years the amount will be Rs. 5000. Answer the questions associated with the given information.

Question 1: Based of Case Study 1 – Considering & ___________ will be the amount
at the effective rate of interest 3 % per annum for 10 years, 4 % per annum for 4 years and 5 % per annum for 2 years & as base question , answer that what constant force of interest would produce the same amount after 16 years at the rate in thebase question?

a. 0.0228
b. 0.02
c. 0
d. 0

Q 2 Based of Case Study 1 – ___________ will be the amount at the rate of interest 12 % per annum compounded quarterly for 10 years.

a. 245
b. 267
c. 326
d. 259

Q 3 Based of Case Study 1 -___________ will be the amount at the effective rate of interest 3 % per annum for 10 years, 4 % per annum for 4 years and 5 % per annum for 2 years.

a. 173.33
b. 154.3
c. 139
d. 175

Q 4 Based of Case Study 1 -___________ will be the amount at the force of interest 3% per annum, for 3.5 years.

a. 324
b. 237
c. 111
d. 544

Q 5 Based of Case Study 1 -___________ will be the amount at the rate of interest
corresponding to 3 % per annum effective rate of discount for 8 years.

a. 127.59
b. 158
c. 159
d. 130
Q 6 Based of Case Study 2 – Formula for finding principle when interest
compounded continuously is _______

a. A*e^(r/t)
b. A/e^(r*t)
c. A*e^(r*t)
d. A^e*(r*t)

Q 7 Based of Case Study 2 – Formula for finding principle when interest
compounded annually is _______
a. A(1+r)^(-n)
b. P(1+r)^(-n)
c. A(1+r)^(n)
d. None of these

Q 8 Based of Case Study 2 – The amount of principle when the interest is
compounded annually is _______

a. 4292
b. 3675
c. 3209
d. 1789

Q 9 Based of Case Study 2 – The amount of principle when the interest is compounded quarterly is _______
a. 3989
b. 3287
c. 3642
d. 4300

Q 10 Based of Case Study 2 – The amount of principle when the interest is compounded continuously is _______
a. 3603.75
b. 3788.92
c. 3578
d. 3631

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MODULE V : LINEAR PROGRAMMING
Case Study
A company produce three type of electric components – Resistance, Capacitor and Inductor whose selling price per unit are Rs. 5, 7 and 10 respectively. All the components can be sold. The cost of raw form resistance, capacitor and inductor are Rs. 3, Rs. 4 and Rs. 6 respectively. Before selling these components, the company is required to polish, charge and shape them. The company possesses only of each type of machine. Cost per hour to run each of the three machines are Rs. 15 for polishing, Rs. 20 for charging and Rs. 25 for shaping. The capacities (parts per hour) for each part on each machine are shown in the following table.
Capacity per hour
Machine Resistance Capacitor Inductor
Polishing 35 25 30
Charging 15 30 30
Shaping 50 45 40
If x_1, x_2 and x_3 denotes the number of each type product to be produced per hour, answer the following question based on the problem above.
Question 1: Combined profit of the company from all three components to be maximised is _________
a. 0.26 x_1 + 1.17 x_2 + 2.2 x_3
b. 2 x_1 + 2.42 x_2 + 2.68 x_3
c. 2.2 x_1 + 0.26 x_2 + 1.17 x_2
d. None of these
Q 2 Constraint of the problem on the avaialability of charging machine is ________
a. x_1/25 + x_2/30 + x_3/45 less than or equal to 1
b. x_1/15 + x_2/30 + x_3/30 less than or equal to 1
c. 15/x_1 + 30/x_2 + 30/x_3 less than or equal to 1
d. x_1/15 + x_2/30 + x_3/30 less than 1
Q 3 Constraint of the problem on the avaialability of polishing machine is ________
a. x_1/35 + x_2/15 + x_3/50 less than or equal to 1
b. 35/x_1 + 25/x_2 + 30/x_3 less than or equal to 1
c. x_1/35 + x_2/25 + x_3/30 less than or equal to 1
d. x_1/35 + x_2/25 + x_3/30 less than 1
Q 4 Constraint of the problem on the avaialability of shaping machine is ________
a. x_1/30 + x_2/30 + x_3/40 less than or equal to 1
b. x_1/15 + x_2/45 + x_3/40 less than or equal to 1
c. 30/x_1 + 30/x_2 + 40/x_3 less than or equal to 1
d. x_1/15 + x_2/45 + x_3/40 less than 1
Q 5 Total cost of manufacturing per unit of capacitor is _____
a. 3.79
b. 7.6
c. 6
d. 8
Q 6 Total cost of manufacturing per unit of inductor is _____
a. 6.79
b. 7.32
c. 7
d. 8
Q 7 Total cost of manufacturing per unit of resistance is _____
a. 5.26
b. 4
c. 2
d. 5

Q 8 Total profit per unit of capacitor is ______
a. 2.42
b. 0.5
c. 2
d. 1
Q 9 Total profit per unit of inductor is ______
a. 2.68
b. 2.2
c. 3
d. None of these
Q 10 Total profit per unit of resistence is ______
a. 0.26
b. 0.37
c. 2
d. 4
100 on 100
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ASSIGNMENT 2
Case Study
Case Study 1 A loan of Rs. 50000, at the rate of interest 5% compounded annually, is to be amortized by equal payments at the end of each year for 10 years. Answer the questions associated with this information.
Case Study 2 A company manufactures two models of car – X(800) and X(1000).
The contrinution per model is rs. 50,000 and Rs. 65,000 on X(800) and X(1000)respectively. The material required for X(800) is in short supply and company can only prduce maximum of 150 units per week. Each car manufactured has to undergo activity of assembeling and painting. However there are limitation on capacity of these activities. The details are given as under.
Model Assembling (per week) Painting (per week)
X(800) 150 80
X(1000) 200 90
Answer the questions associated with this information.

Question 1: Based on Case Study 1 – The annual payment is _________
a. 6475.25
b. 6578.26
c. 2639
d. 6357

Q 2 Based on Case Study 1 – The interest in 8th payment is __________
a. 880.38
b. 835.27
c. 801
d. None of these

Q 3 Based on Case Study 1 – The principle contained in 8th payment is _______
a. 5492.43
b. 5792.37
c. 5594
d. 7639

Q 4 Based on Case Study 1 – The principle outstanding at the beginning of 8th period will be ________
a. 1689.9
b. 17633.4
c. 2898
d. None of these
Q 5 Based on Case Study 1 – The total interest paid is _______
a. 14129
b. 15892
c. 14753
d. 17882
Q 6 Based on Case Study 2 – The common constraint on the production of X(800) and X(1000) model is the _____
a. non – negative restriction
b. non – positive restriction
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Q 7 Based on Case Study 2 – The constraint on assembeling job is ________
a. x_1/150 + x_2/80 less than or equal to 1
b. 150/x_1 + 200/x_2 less than or equal to 1
c. x_1/150 + x_2/200 less than or equal to 1
d. x_1/150 + x_2/200 less than 1
Q 8 Based on Case Study 2 – The constraint on prinitng job is ________
a. x_1/80 + x_2/90 less than or equal to 1
b. 80x_1 + 90/x_2 less than or equal to 1
c. x_1/80 + x_2/90 less than 1
d. x_1/200 + x_2/90 less than or equal to 1
Q 9 Based on Case Study 2 – The constraint on the production of X(800) model is _____
a. x_2 less than 150
b. x_1 less than 150
c. x_1 less than or equal to 150
d. x_2 less than or equal to 150
Q 10 Based on Case Study 2 – The objective function of this peoblem will be to maximize the profit Z = __________
a. 50000x_1 + 650000x_2
b. 50000x_1 + 65000x_2
c. 65000x_1 + 50000x_2
d. None of these
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English Language
MODULE I : COMPOSITION AND COMPREHENSION
Case Study
“There is a long tradition of treating agreement on verbs and agreement on adjectives as two quite different phenomena. Indeed, the two are sometimes given different names: concord for the phenomenon of adjectives agreeing with the nouns they modify, as opposed to agreement proper for the relation verbs have with their subjects and objects. For example, [Noam] Chomsky (2001:34n.5) writes ‘There is presumably a similar but distinct agreement relation, concord, involving Merge alone.’ And there are some good reasons for this traditional distinction.” (Mark C. Baker, “The Syntax of Agreement and Concord,” Cambridge University Press, 2008)
Question 1: A large sum of money ___ stolen.
a. were
b. had
c. was
d. are

Question 2: A lot of houses___collapsed in the storm
a. has
b. have
c. is
d. had been

Question 3: All students____in their work
a. handed
b. have handed
c. hand
d. had handed

Question 4: Cats and dogs___not get along
a. do
b. does
c. are
d. is

Question 5: Every morning she____up early and gets ready for work
a. is waking
b. has woken
c. woke
d. wakes

Question 6: Man and woman___complementary to each other

a. were
b. was
c. is
d. are

Question 7: The moon___around the earth
a. is revolving
b. has revolved
c. revolves
d. revolve

Question 8: The students accompanied by their teacher___ gone on a picnic.
a. has
b. have
c. was
d. were

Question 9: We____Greece next month
a. visit
b. would visit
c. will have visited
d. are visiting

Question 10: When I opened my eyes, I____a strange sight.
a. saw
b. was seeing
c. have seen
d. had seen
10 on 10 
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MODULE II : ESSAY, BUSINESS LETTER AND VOCABULARY
Case Study
A participle is a form of a verb that is used in a sentence to modify a noun, noun phrase, verb, or verb phrase, and plays a role similar to an adjective or adverb. It is one of the types of nonfinite verb forms. Its name comes from the Latin participium, a calque of Greek μετοχή (metokhḗ) “partaking” or “sharing”; it is so named because the Ancient Greek and Latin participles “share” some of the categories of the adjective or noun (gender, number, case) and some of those of the verb (tense and voice). In Old English, past participles of Germanic strong verbs were marked with a ge- prefix, as are most strong and weak past participles in Dutch and German today, and often by a vowel change in the stem. Those of weak verbs were marked by the ending -d, with or without an epenthetic vowel before it. Modern English past participles derive from these forms (although the ge- prefix, which became y- in Middle English, has now been lost). Old English present participles were marked with an ending in -ende (or -iende for verbs whose infinitives ended in -ian)
Question 1: Everyone knows Zidane is good____fault
a. after
b. at
c. for
d. in

Question 2: He lived alone_____by everybody
a. forgetting
b. forgot
c. forgotten
d. had forgotten

Question 3: He was wearing_____shirt
a. tearing
b. tear
c. torn
d. had torn

Question 4: He______occupied with work could not meet us
a. been
b. being
c. had been
d. will be

Question 5: I am very pleased____your result
a. with
b. at
c. of
d. for

Question 6: I love the sea,_____my friends prefer the mountains
a. instead
b. whereas
c. unless
d. until

Question 7: She admitted_____the money
a. steal
b. stolen
c. had stolen
d. stealing

Question 8. She delayed____out of bed
a. gotten
b. get
c. had gotten
d. getting

Question 9: The house looked____
a. abandoned
b. abandoning
c. had abandoned
d. abandon

Question 10: The prisoners escaped yesterday from jail, the police are looking_____them
a. for
b. after
c. in
d. as a result
10 on 10 
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MODULE III: SHORT STORIES AND POETRY
Case Study
The idea behind the short story genre is to convey a message or point to the reader economizing on words. Unlike the novel, every part of the short story is important. Paragraphs and even the title mean much more to the story. In the short story the title is likely to be a way that the author emphasizes a message to the reader and points her in a direction of thinking. The title can also symbolize or capture a distinct purpose.
Question 1: One day Mr. Loisel received an invitation from:
a. The Minister of Health
b. The Minister of Home Affairs
c. The Defence Ministry
d. The Minister of Public Instruction
Question 2: In Katherine Mansfield’s story by the same name, the fly is symbolic of the _____ who died in the trenches of World War I.
a. Germans
b. Englishmen
c. Young soldiers
d. Leaders
Question 3: Why did Behrman become sick?
a. He was old and his immune system was weak
b. He stopped taking his medicine.
c. He became sick while painting the leaf
d. His apartment did not have fresh air.
Question 4: In the Luncheon where was the writer living before meeting the lady?
a. Marapyane
b. Paris
c. Rome
d. London
Question 5: What was the true illness which inflicted the Postmaster?
a. Pneumonia
b. Heart DIsease
c. Homesickness
d. He was not sick at all
Question 6: In which anthology of Kamala Das the poem An Introduction appeared?
a. My Story
b. Alphabet of Lust
c. Summer in Calcutta
d. Yaa Allah
Question 7: What type of language is “I wandered lonely as a cloud”?
a. Simile
b. Metaphor
c. Emotive Language
d. Personification
Question 8: What view of nature is presented by Wordsworth?
a. Nature can bring hatred, it can do things to the mind
b. Nature is powerful
c. Nature is unsettling
d. Nature is relied on to make people feel better
Question 9: “I took the one less travelled by,/ And that has made all the difference”. Whose the speaker?
a. William Wordsworth
b. Kamala Das
c. Katherine Mansfield
d. Robert Frost
Question 10: The fly episode in the short story “The Fly” is a symbolically dense episode which implies
a. An attempt to preserve the hegemonic idea of masculinity
b. The sado-masochistic tendencies of the boss
c. The boss’ attempt to enact as well as annihilate the ‘Other’
d. All of them
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MODULE IV : DRAMA
Case Study
“Riders to the Sea” by J.M Synge is a tragic play regarding the sacrifice one family has made to an invisible character over their years on an island west of Ireland. When Synge wrote “Riders to the Sea” in 1904 he had been traveling between the Aran Islands and Ireland in order to develop his writing skills and find his “writing voice” (Merriman online). During this time he immersed himself into the culture, learning Gaelic, living with the fisherman’s families and absorbing the island’s history. Historically this play represents the tragedy of living upon the Aran Islands and how a family copes with it in their everyday life.
“Riders to the Sea” notes numerous elements from Synge learned during his travels. Throughout the early 1900’s clothing was still primarily handmade by common families. They oftentimes would purchase the fabric to sew their clothes; however, they still relied heavily upon their own sheep to produce the wool they needed to spin yarn to make clothing completely by hand. This process was not easy and involved a lot of hard work from a family. Sheep were raised by families and could be sheared up to two times a year. After shearing the fleece is cleaned to remove the lanolin oil and any vegetable matter that may have accumulated in the wool. The wool then must be carded or combed in order to spin it into yarn. After yarn has been spun it can be crocheted, knitted or weaved into garments one can wear.
[Merriman, C.D. J.M. Synge. The Literature Network. Jalic Inc. 2005. Web. 24September, 2013.]

Question 1: Of what literary movement is J.M. Synge’s Riders to the Sea a part?
a. Irish Literary Renaissance
b. Symbolism
c. Realism
d. Romanticism

Question 2: What are the three women waiting for at the beginning of Riders to the Sea?
a. News of Michael
b. News of Bartley
c. News of the horse fair
d. News of the sea

Question 3: In Riders to the Sea, why is Bartley determined to go to Connemara?
a. He wants to make money at the horse fair.
b. He doesn’t want to live on the island anymore.
c. He resents Maurya’s favoritism towards Michael.
d. He thinks he might hear news of Michael.

Question 4: What items does the priest give for identification purposes?
a. A pair of trousers and stockings.
b. A shirt and jacket.
c. A shirt and a plain stocking.
d. A shirt and trousers.

Question 5: How is Michael described by Nora after they realize that the stockings given to Nora by the priest belong to him?
a. A man with great vision.
b. A great rower and fisher.
c. A great woodsman and farmer.
d. A man of the cloth.

Question 6: A one-act tragedy, the play is set in the ________, and like all of Synge’s plays it is noted for capturing the poetic dialogue of rural Ireland.
a. Northern Island
b. Aran Islands
c. Galway
d. Drogheda

Question 7: As the play begins Nora and Cathleen receive word that a body that may be their brother Michael has washed up on shore in ________, far to the north.
a. Galway
b. Aran Island
c. Dorgheda
d. Donegal

Question 8: How many stitches did Nora drop from the second of three pairs of stockings she knitted for Michael?
a. Three score
b. Two and a half score
c. Seven
d. She never dropped any stitches

Question 9: Who had witnessed the fearful sight of a dead man with a child in his arms?
a. Maurya
b. Cathleen
c. Dara
d. Bartley

Question 10: How does Bartley die?
a. He dies from pneumonia.
b. The gray pony knocks him into the sea
c. The red pony bucks him into the sea.
d. The ship sinks, swamped on the way to Cannemara
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MODULE V : RHETORIC AND COMMON MISTAKES IN ENGLISH

Case Study

Logos, ethos, and pathos are important components of all writing, whether we are aware of them or not. By learning to recognize logos, ethos, and pathos in the writing of others and in our own, we can create texts that appeal to readers on many different levels. This handout provides a brief overview of what logos, ethos, and pathos are and offers guiding questions for recognizing and incorporating these appeals. Aristotle taught that a speaker’s ability to persuade an audience is based on how well the speaker appeals to that audience in three different areas: logos, ethos, and pathos. Considered together, these appeals form what later rhetoricians have called the rhetorical triangle.

Question 1: Which of the following best defines pathos?

a. It’s a combination of logic and credibility
b. It’s a way to convince with emotion
c. It embodies all three appeals
d. All answers are correct

Question 2: Many rhetorical devices rely on repetition for their desired effects. Which of these is NOT repeated in one or more rhetorical devices?

a. Meaning
b. Words
c. Phrases
d. Sounds

Question 3: The Five Cannons of Rhetoric include:
a. Style
b. Memory
c. Invention
d. All answers are correct

Question 4: Which of the following is not usually found in a report of a quantitative study?
a. Measurements
b. Results
c. Confession
d. Validation

Question 5: The introductory section of a research report should aim to:
a. identify the specific focus of the study
b. provide a rationale for the dissertation, or article.
c. grab the reader’s attention.
d. All answers are correct

Question 6: A figure of speech in which two unlike things are explicitly compared using like or as is which of the following rhetorical devices?

a. Understatement
b. Oxymoron
c. Personification
d. Simile

Question 7: A statement that seems impossible because the ideas are opposites, but have an element of truth is which of the following rhetorical devices?

a. Paradox
b. Oxymoron
c. Satire
d. Allegory

Question 8: *Great Depression
*Jumbo shrimp
*Cruel to be Kind
*Pain for pleasure
*Clearly confused
*Act naturally
*Painfully beautiful
They are examples of which rhetorical device?

a. Anecdote
b. Hyperbole
c. Oxymoron
d. Satire

Question 9: Identify the rhetorical device:
“To think on death it is a misery,/ T o think on life it is a vanity;/ to think on the world verily it is,/ to think that here man hath no perfect bliss.’
a. Exemplum
b. Hyperbole
c. Parable
d. Anaphora

Question 10: Talking to someone who is not there, dead, not human is which rhetorical device?
a. Imagery
b. Apostrophe
c. Alliteration
d. Anaphora

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ASSIGNMENT 2

Case Study
Writing simply would not be writing without the rules that shape words and string together sentences into fluid paragraphs and comprehensible arguments. We use these rules every day while sending text messages, writing essays, producing business reports, or even when we update Facebook statuses. Yet, despite the prevalence of writing in our everyday lives, proper grammar has been kicked to the curb. The apparent grammar disconnect is hard to trace. Children are educated in grammar basics starting in elementary school, but despite efforts from the Common Core standards and other educational bodies, many professionals believe the informality of new technologies and the changing modes of communication have weakened the emphasis on proper grammar. My research primarily focuses on how professional grammar deficiencies stem from inadequate grammar teaching and changes in communication methods, and how, to some degree, the ability to construct sentences is analogous to the ability to construct thoughts. Therefore, understanding and employing proper grammar are important for both educational and professional success.

Question 1: “James said that __________ word with me.” “Yeah, come in and have a seat.”
a. you can have a
b. you wanted to have a
c. you will want to have a
d. You had a

Question 2: Which of these must be avoided in business letters?
a. Polite words
b. Abbreviation
c. clear details
d. Formal designations

Question 3: How would you plan to link the paragraphs to each other in an essay writing?
a. Write a lot of ideas in each paragraph
b. Making sure that each paragraph links to the conclusion
c. Making sure that each paragraph links to the introduction
d. Stating different key points in each paragraph

Question 4: Who does Maurya see riding the gray pony?
a. Her husband
b. A Ghost
c. Michael
d. Bartley

Question 5: In “The Fly”, Woodifield’s family (the wife and the girls) kept him boxed up in the house every day. What does this indicate about Woodifield?
a. He had become old and physically bereft
b. Shifting of the gender roles of women post First World War
c. The agencyless status of Woodified
d. All the answers are correct

Question 6: The necklace that is worn by the main character Matilda Loisel in the story is an example of…
a. Characterization
b. Symbolism
c. Irony
d. All of them

Question 7: What do the following lines from “The Road Not Taken” mean?
And sorry I could not travel both
And be one traveler,

a. The speaker is only one person and cannot go down two roads at the same time.
b. The speaker thinks both paths are equally good.
c. The speaker is only one person and cannot go down two roads at the same time.
The speaker would rather travel with someone, so they could each explore a path.
d. The speaker regrets not taking the other road at the start.

Question 8: Which of the following is NOT a theme of the short story The Last Leaf?
a. Pessimism
b. ambition
c. Friendship
d. Self-Sacrifice

Question 9: Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word:
Choose a name, a role. Don’t play pretending games.
Don’t play at ___________ or be a
Nympho
a. schizophrenia
b. Home
c. Emotions
d. None of these

Question 10: Which of these are the main themes in the short story The Postmaster?
a. Loneliness
b. Search for Meaning
c. Need for compassion
d. All are correct

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