august 2017

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1 Why is role specialization an important factor in understanding the consumer behavior?
2 What is the long-term impact of compulsive buying behavior on the performance of a luxury brand? Support your answer with relevant examples.
3 Explain the concept of Elaboration Likelihood Model . Support your answer with relevant examples.
4 Give three examples of children’s influence in family decision making.
5 Explain the concept of post-purchase buyer behavior from the perspective of a consumer durable brand custodian. How can the brand manager use the findings to his/ her advantage? Support your answer with relevant examples.
6 Explain at length Mulitattribute Models of Attitude.
7 What role does brand perception play in consumer decision making in a consumer non-durable product category? Support your answer with relevant examples.
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Case Study
Domino’s entered India in 1996 through a franchise agreement with Vam Bhartia Corp. The first outlet was opened in Delhi. With the overwhelming success of the first outlet, the company opened another outlet in Delhi. By 2000, Domino’s had a presence in all the major cities and towns in India. Pizza Hut entered India in June 1996 with its first outlet in Delhi. Initially, the company operated company-owned outlets. However, keeping in line with its worldwide policy where Pizza Hut was gradually making a shift from company-owned restaurants to franchisee owned restaurants, Pizza Hut made the shift in India too. Pizza Hut had four company-owned franchisees – Universal Restaurants Pvt. Ltd. (Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan), Specialty Restaurants Pvt. Ltd. (Punjab), Dolsel Corporation (Gujarat, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh), Pizzeria Fast Food Pvt. Ltd. (Pune and Tamilnadu) and Wybridge Holdings (Mumbai).

When Domino’s entered the Indian market, the concept of home delivery was still in its nascent stages. It existed only in some major cities and was restricted to delivery by the friendly neighborhood fast food outlets. Eating out at ‘branded’ restaurants was more prevalent. To penetrate the Indian market, Domino’s introduced an integrated home delivery system from a network of company outlets within 30 minutes of the order being placed. However, Domino’s was not the trendsetter so far as home delivery was concerned. Delhi based fast food chain, Nirula’s was the first to start free home delivery in 1994. But where Domino’s stole the market was its efficient delivery record. Goutham Advani (Advani), Chief of Marketing, Domino’s Pizza India, said, “What really worked its way into the Indian mind set was the promised thirty minute delivery.” Domino’s also offered compensation: Rs.30/- off the price tag, if there was a delay in delivery. For the first 4 years in India, Domino’s concentrated on its ‘Delivery’ act. For its delivery promise to work, Domino’s followed a 11-minute schedule: one minute for taking down the order, one minute for Pizza-making, six minutes oven-time, and three minutes for packing, sealing and exit. Pizza Hut, on the other hand, laid more emphasis on its “restaurant dining experience.” It positioned itself as a family restaurant and also concentrated on wooing kids. Its delivery service was not time-bound.

Since its entry into India, Domino’s introduced nine new toppings for Pizzas to cater to the local tastes. Different flavors were introduced in different parts of India. Advani said, “The Indian palate is very definitive – people are extremely finicky and choosy, not too willing to experiment. Food tastes vary from region to region. To capture the market, we had to localize flavors.” Thus, Deluxe Chicken with Mustard Sauce’ and Sardines were confined to the East, Mutton Ghongura and Chicken Chettinad to the South and Chicken Pudina to Mumbai. Butter chicken, Makhani Paneer and the Chatpata Chana Masala were confined to the North. Very soon, Pizza Hut followed Domino’s and offered customized Spicy Paneer and Chicken Tikka toppings. Apart from this, it also opened a 100% vegetarian restaurant at Ahmedabad, a one-of-its-kind worldwide. The restaurant also offered a special Jain menu, which did not have a single root-based ingredient to fit in with the food habits of Jains.

By March 2000, Domino’s opened 37 outlets all over India. Between April 2000 and February 2001, Domino’s set up 64 more outlets in India. Delhi had the maximum number of outlets – 17, followed by Mumbai with 13. Domino’s had the largest retail network in the fast food segment in India- with 101 outlets across 40 cities. Domino’s had a tie-up with a real estate consultant Richard Ellis to help with locations, conduct feasibility studies, and manage the construction. It was also looking at non-traditional outlets like large corporate offices, railway stations, cinema halls and university campuses. In early 2000, Domino’s had opened an outlet at Infosys, Bangalore, which was very successful. It also had outlets at cinema halls – PVR in Delhi, Rex in Bangalore, and New Empire in Kolkata. By January 2001, Pizza Hut had 19 outlets across India. In a move to expand further, Pizza Hut planned to open an additional five restaurants in Mumbai and 30 restaurants across major cities in India, by 2001 end. Tricon announced that the company would invest Rs.30 million on each of the restaurants. In March 2001, Pizza Hut opened its first three-storeyed 125-seater dine-in restaurant at Juhu in Mumbai. Said a company official, “We are expanding the number of restaurants across the major cities to cater to today’s youth which has taken to pizzas as a cuisine.”
Answer Section
Q.No 1: Analyse the case from the perspetive of localization strategies followed by leading Pizza brands. State your assumptions clearly for every argument you present.
Q.No 2: What role does Advertising plan in influencing the buyer behavior related to Pizza Purchases?
Q.No 3: If you were to launch an international Pizza brand in India at this time, what insights would you look out for while strategizing from the perspetive of consumers’ expected behavior? Clearly state your assumptions as part of your argument.
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1. According to research, there are four factors that influence consumer buyer behavior
(A): psychological, personal, social, CRM systems
(B): cultural, organizational, personal, psychological
(C): cultural, social, personal, psychological
(D): none of the above
2. The psychological factors influencing consumer behavior are
(A): motivation, perception, learning, beliefs and attitudes
(B): culture, subculture, social class
(C): reference groups, family, roles and status
(D): none of the above

3. Which of the following statements is not true?
(A): Sigmund Freud assumed that people are largely unconscious about the real psychological forces shaping their behavior
(B): The term motivation research refers to qualitative research designed to probe consumers` hidden, subconscious motivations
(C): Abraham Maslow sought to explain why people are driven by particular needs at particular times
(D): Selective retention means that marketers must try to understand the mind-sets of consumers and how these will affect interpretations of advertising and sales information
4. The consumers’ five steps of adopting a new product refer to which of the following?
(A): Awareness, interest, evaluation, trial, adoption
(B): Awareness, promotion, evaluation, trial, adoption
(C): Adoption, interest, evaluation, trial promotion
(D): Awareness, interest, cash cows, trial, adoption
5. In ‘stages of adoption process’ , customer decides to become regular user in
(A): awareness stage
(B): interest stage
(C): evaluation stage
(D): adoption
6. Adopter group ‘laggards’ are
(A): deliberate
(B): guided by respect
(C): skeptical
(D): tradition bound
7. Social class group which earns through exceptional ability is best classified as
(A): upper middles
(B): working class
(C): lower uppers
(D): upper uppers
8. Tendency to which results of innovation are communicated to others is classified as
(A): relative advantage
(B): divisibility
(C): communicability
(D): compatibility
9. Person’s own living or interacting and acting pattern is classified as
(A): lifestyle
(B): personality and self concept
(C): social class
(D): None of above 10. Needs of customers are triggered by
(A): internal stimuli
(B): external stimuli
(C): both a and b
(D): none of above
11. Group which can exert influences on other because of specialized knowledge and skills is called
(A): opinion leader
(B): leading adopters
(C): influential
(D): all of above
12. A need that is aroused up to sufficient level is called
(A): want
(B): motive or drive
(C): Both a and b
(D): none of above 13. Customers keeping such information that supports their attitudes towards brand is classified as
(A): selective attention
(B): selective distortion
(C): selective retention
(D): all of above
14. Personal factors include
(A): online communities
(B): social class
(C): personality and self concept
(D): roles and status
15. Ads affecting consumers subconscious minds are classified as
(A): online advertising
(B): subliminal advertising
(C): luminal advertising
(D): both b and c 16. Tendency to which experiences of potential customers fits with innovation is called
(A): relative advantage
(B): divisibility
(C): communicability
(D): compatibility
17. Types of consumer buying behavior are
(A): two types
(B): three types
(C): four types
(D): five types
18. Highly involved consumer buying behavior and customers perceive fewer differences among brands is called
(A): complex buying behavior
(B): variety seeking buying behavior
(C): dissonance reducing buying behavior
(D): habitual buying behavior
19. Cultural factors must include
(A): beliefs and attitudes
(B): social class
(C): occupation
(D): roles and status 20. If product performance exceeds customer expectations, customer is
(A): satisfied
(B): dissatisfied
(C): delighted
(D): none of above We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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21. That minor stimuli which determines when and how customer will respond in certain way is called
(A): perception
(B): cues
(C): motives
(D): both a and c
22. Less involved consumer buying behavior in which customers perceive few differences between brands is called
(A): complex buoying behavior
(B): variety seeking buying behavior
(C): dissonance reducing buying behavior
(D): habitual buying behavior 23. According to brand personality traits, ‘sophistication’ is concluded as brand being
(A): reliable and intelligent
(B): daring and imaginative
(C): cheerful and wholesome
(D): charming and upper class
24. Social class who rely on relatives for assistance in trouble times and economic support considered as
(A): upper middles
(B): working class
(C): middle class
(D): upper uppers
25. Well known brand ‘Apple’ is related to brand personality trait of
(A): ruggedness
(B): competence
(C): sophistication
(D): excitement 26. In ‘adoption process for new products’ , customer seek information in the
(A): awareness stage
(B): interest stage
(C): evaluation and trial stage
(D): all of above
27. evaluation and trial stage is
(A): adoption process
(B): cognitive dissonance
(C): pre purchase behavior
(D): post-purchase behavior
28. In social class grouping, white and blue collar workers with average pay can be classified as
(A): upper middles
(B): working class
(C): middle class
(D): upper uppers
29. Buyer decision process starts with
(A): information search
(B): need recognition
(C): evaluation of alternatives
(D): both 1 and 2 30. In ‘stages of adoption process’, stage in which customer considers whether to try product or not to is classified as
(A): awareness stage
(B): interest stage
(C): evaluation and trial stage
(D): adoption
31. stages in adoption process’ involves
(A): awareness
(B): interest
(C): evaluation and trial
(D): all of above
32. According to brand personality traits, ‘excitement’ is concluded as brand being
(A): outdoorsy and tough
(B): daring and imaginative
(C): cheerful and wholesome
(D): charming and upper class
33. Highly involved consumer buying behavior while perceiving significant differences between brands is called
(A): complex buoying behavior
(B): variety seeking buying behavior
(C): dissonance reducing buying behavior
(D): habitual buying behavior
34. Procedure in marketing which consists of enlisting opinion leaders as “brand ambassadors” is called
(A): Leading marketing
(B): buzz marketing
(C): online marketing
(D): none of above 35. If customer ‘s expectations and products performance matches, customer is
(A): satisfied
(B): dissatisfied
(C): delighted
(D): none of above
36. In buyer decision process, stage in which purchase intention is transformed in to purchase decision is called
(A): need recognition
(B): information search
(C): purchase decision
(D): both b and c 37. Tendency of difficult understanding related to use of market offering is called
(A): relative advantage
(B): complexity
(C): communicability
(D): compatibility 38. Adopter group who is suspicious of change is classified as
(A): late majority
(B): early majority
(C): laggard
(D): early adopter
39. Remembrance of good points that are related to chosen brand as compared to competing brands is called
(A): selective attention
(B): selective distortion
(C): selective retention
(D): both a and b 40. Low involved buying behavior of consumers while perceiving significant differences between brands is called
(A): complex buying behavior
(B): variety seeking buying behavior
(C): dissonance reducing buying behavior
(D): habitual buying behavior We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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Organizational Change & Development
1. Explain Business Process Re-engineering
2. Is there any future of OD interventions in India?
3. What factors affect Organizational Development?
4. Why should organizations change?
5. Explain Teams and Groups with relevant examples
6. What is Action Research?
7. Explain the role of politics in Organizational Growth?
8. Explain the role of change manager in an organization. Would you recommend the change manager to be from within the company or outside?
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AXZ was a 40 yr. old organization. The company’s profits had dipped by 25%.This was the major cause of concern for the CEO. The top management wanted change in the organization. The old ways of working were deep rooted into the organization. But the senior management was divided on the opinion of introducing any change in the company. The external consultant could understand that this would involve not only extra effort on their part but also the issue of insecurity had taken seed in their mind too.
Q.No 1: How can the insecurities of the senior management team be put at rest?
Q.No 2: What OD intervention/s would you suggest in this case?
Q.No 3: Is the top management right in asking for change?
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1. Which of the following is not a way of overcoming resistance to change?
(A): Incentives
(B): Using symbols to signify a new era
(C): Involving those involved in the change process
(D): Bullying and harassing people in towing the line 2. Why might individuals resist organizational change?
(A): Lack of interest
(B): Pessimism
(C): Irritation
(D): All of the above
3. Which of the following is not one of the stages in Kurt Lewin’s famous three-stage prescriptive model of change developed in the 1950s?
(A): Moving to a new level
(B): Melting resistance
(C): Unfreezing current attitudes
(D): Refreezing attitudes at the new level
4. What do we mean by the term ‘strategic change’?
(A): Formal organisation structures
(B): The changes that inevitably result in organisations as they evolve in a changing environment
(C): The proactive management of change to achieve strategic objectives
(D): An mportant oranizational Change
5. Recognizing the need to change but responding in ways that have poor strategic fit with the business” refers to which of the following difficulties face by companies when they want to be innovative?
(A): Failure of perception
(B): Episodic Innovation
(C): Steady State Innovation
(D): Inappropriate innovation 6. Change agents facilitate the diagnostic phase by gathering, interpreting and presenting _________.
(A): Data
(B): Solutions
(C): Problems
(D): Alternatives
7. Which of the following is an organizational culture in which teams are formed to solve particular problems
(A): Power Culture
(B): Role Culture
(C): Person Culture
(D): Task Culture
8. Change management is mostly aligned with
(A): Marketing
(B): Financial management
(C): Strategic management
(D): Project management
9. Which of the following focuses on the choice of technologies and processes to be used for production and distribution?
(A): Entrepreneurial problem
(B): Managerial problem
(C): Administrative problem
(D): Engineering problem
10. Which of these best describes restraining forces?
(A): Resistance to change
(B): Unfreezing
(C): Negotiation
(D): Refreezing
11. When organizational systems and structures are realigned with the desired behaviours, this is referred to as:
(A): Refreezing
(B): Unfreezing
(C): Feedback
(D): Resistance
12. Which of the following terms describes “the process of planning, coordinating, and implementing changes to the information processing production, distribution, and system facilities”?
(A): Management
(B): Conflict Management
(C): Change management
(D): Crisis Management

13. Which of the following states is the most vulnerable to changes in the firm’s environment?
(A): Stable
(B): Unstable
(C): Neutral
(D): Constant
14. Identify the state in which a firm can withstand most environmental changes?
(A): Stable
(B): Unstable
(C): Neutral
(D): Constant
15. Which of the following management activities is most likely to use data mining from the sales data of business
(A): Cash Flow Forecasting
(B): Recruitment Interviewing
(C): Customer Relationship Management
(D): Strategic Management

16. Which of the following terms describes “selection of strategies from among alternative courses of action, both for the enterprise as a whole and for every department or section”?
(A): Planning
(B): Leading
(C): Organizing
(D): Controlling
17. Which of the following is Not an internal source of strategic organizational change?
(A): New corporate mission
(B): New company leadership
(C): Decline in employee’s morale
(D): Government regulations
18. Identify a model in which change is depicted in terms of process and content.
(A): Burke Litwin model
(B): Kurt Lewin Model
(C): Punctuated Equilibrium Model
(D): Organizational development model
19. Merger and acquisition is an example of which of the following
(A): Process Change
(B): Strategic Change
(C): Generative Change
(D): Adaptive Change
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20. A change agent is only a ____________to change
(A): Analyst
(B): Facilitator
(C): Person with Authority
(D): None of these
21. Which of the following is an OD intervention Technique?
(A): Exit Interview
(B): Quality Circle
(C): Organizational Restructuring
(D): Team Building 22. Which of the following statements is true with respect to training and development?
(A): Training is the process of developing the ability to perform both present and future jobs
(B): Development is the process of developing the necessary skills to perform the present job.
(C): Training is used to develop technical skills of non-managers
(D): Development is used to develop technical skills of non-managers.
23. Some of the indications of requirement of organisational development efforts are
(A): Reduced Customer Satisfaction
(B): Rapidly Increasing costs
(C): All of the above
(D): None of these
24. Some of the major benefits of the OD interventions are
(A): Improved Productivity
(B): Improved image of the organization
(C): Increase in home package
(D): None of these
25. Organizational Development interventions to reduce group conflicts are critical because
(A): It has an impact on organization’s functioning
(B): it’s impact on individual satisfaction
(C): it’s impact on team functioning
(D): All of the above
26. Most of the Organizational Development activities are based on all except
(A): Data based
(B): Problem Solving
(C): Interviews
(D): Scientific Method of Enquiry
27. Some of the changes in the performance due to OD, were seen in all tthese areas except
(A): Improved Quality level of the products
(B): Reduction in the manpower of the organization
(C): Increase in profit levels
(D): Increase in quality of Services
28. The refreezing stage of the model consists of
(A): Helping the client to integrate a new point of view
(B): Enhance Knowledge
(C): Get Support
(D): None of these
29. The essence of large scale systems change programme is
(A): Majority of participants agree on the nature of actions to be taken and the net desired result to be achieved
(B): Majority of the participants understand the situation
(C): Both (a) and (b)
(D): None of these
30. The OD consultant can build trust and commitment by way of all of these except
(A): By announcing confidentiality of the responses
(B): By announcing his authority
(C): by bringing openness amongst the members
(D): By inculcating candour amongst the members and consulltant
31. The team building interventions are directed towards main areas of
(A): Diagnosis
(B): Team and organizational processes
(C): Team Relationships
(D): All of the above
32. The unfreezing stage of the Changed process, consists of all except
(A): Provision of psychological safety
(B): Improved Listening Skills
(C): Creation of guilt or anxiety
(D): Disconfirmation
33. The organizational diagnosis means:-
(A): To identify strengths, weaknesses problem areas
(B): To find out discrepancies, between vision and desired future and current situations
(C): Both (A) and (B)
(D): None of the above
34. Cultural intervention concentrates on
(A): Traditions
(B): Precedents
(C): Practices
(D): All of the above
35. People in the organisation should be treated as
(A): Important resource
(B): Natural resource
(C): Working capital
(D): All of the above
36. For an Interdependency Intervention, in a group of Ten people, in order to interview others, how many individuals member of the team, each member would be required to do meet:-
(A): 6 members
(B): 7 members
(C): 8 members
(D): 9 members
37. As a result of recent studies in OD, number of views are now being developed, one of the most important concept on which the OD is constructed is that, of
(A): A normative value for culture and change
(B): Individual leadership
(C): both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D): None of the above
38. Various types of tactics used by managers to accomplish their goals are known as
(A): Use of social networks
(B): Playing it straight
(C): Going around the formal system
(D): all of the above
39. The data collection on organisation is undertaken by the Consultant, by way of
(A): Interviews
(B): Press Briefings
(C): Social Network
(D): All of the above
40. In an organization there should be a ________ to be taken on business decisions
(A): Team approach
(B): Consistent Approach
(C): both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D): None of the above We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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Performance & Competency Management
1 Define the purpose of Career Managemnet and developmentsystem
2 What are the main determinants of Job Performance?
3 Define Competency and the various types of Competencies?
4 Define Performance management?
5 Explain the factors which affect the human performance system?
6 what is Performance Review?
7 What is Job Evaluation?
8 What is result oriented approach?

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Case study
Mr. Shroff is a talented and well experienced human resources manager of Britestar Company. He undertakes his role of HR manager by being an administrative expert and a change agent. He has always been an inspiration for his subordinates and the employees whose performance is measured and appraised by him. It is because of Mr.Shroff’s 15 years of experience of working in HR departments helped him to get acquainted with various Performance Appraisal methods for evaluating the performance of his employees in a better way every time.
He had always been implementing only those methods which he found result-oriented in terms of enabling the employees to know about their performance in the organization, to help them in providing adequate training, if required, to increase their potential, to provide concrete feedback and evaluate their current job performance to determine transfer, retention and termination of employees. He has been working in Britestar since last 5 years and has gained good amount of respect and faith from his employees due to his appropriate and fair performance appraisal techniques that facilitated the uses of performance appraisal. The mostly used techniques by him are Checklist method, 360°Feedback and Assessment centers.

Because of Mr. Shroff’s good rapport and close relations in the recent months with his subordinates Ram Kumar and P.K. Gupta, he has developed a new tendency to appraise the performance of those employees known to Kumar and Gupta with leniency and because he finds them similar to him (personality and knowledge wise). As a result of this unfair and inappropriate appraisal of Mr.Shroff, he also evaluates the performance of the employees taking into account their recent performances only. Hence, most of the employees’ productivity has reduced and is inefficient, even some of the good employees have become irresponsible towards their tasks along with different behavior showing no interest to put in their best efforts to realize the goals and mission of the company. Some employees are planning to resign as no proper feedbacks are provided when required and no better prospects for Promotions are expected to see the light of the day.
Q.No 1: Discuss different performance appraisal methods used by Mr.Shroff.

Q.No 2: Discuss the role of Mr.shroff as an HR manager?

Q.No 3: Does 360 degree appraisal method is effective way to find out productivity of an employee?
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1. Which of these is an issue while designing an appraisal programme?
(A): Quality
(B): What methods of appraisal are to be used
(C): Quantity
(D): Cost of effectiveness
2. _______ is defined as the record of outcomes produced on a specific job function or activity during a specific time period
(A): Performance
(B): Work function
(C): Evaluation
(D): None of the above
3. ______ is the personnel activity by means of which the enterprise determines the extent to which the employee is performing the job effectively.
(A): Job evaluation
(B): Work evaluation
(C): Performance evaluation
(D): None of the above
4. College Professors are generally evaluated on the following Work function(s)
(A): Teaching
(B): Service
(C): Research
(D): All of the above
5. In which evaluation method, the evaluator is asked to describe the strong and weak aspects of the employee’s behaviour.
(A): Graphic rating scale
(B): Forced choice
(C): Essay evaluation
(D): Management by Objective
6. The following system combines the superior and self evaluation systems?
(A): Graphic rating scale
(B): Forced choice
(C): Essay evaluation
(D): Management by Objective

7. In this technique, personnel specialists and operating managers prepare lists of statements of very effective and very ineffective behavior for an employee.
(A): Critical incident technique
(B): Forced choice
(C): Essay evaluation
(D): Management by Objective

8. The following technique(s) is based on the critical incident approach.
(A): Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)
(B): Critical incident technique
(C): Both (A) and (B)
(D): None of the above
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9. Paired comparison method can be used by
(A): Superiors
(B): Peers
(C): Subordinates
(D): All of the above
10. The multiple-input approach to performance feedback is sometimes called ____ degree assessment.
(A): 90
(B): 180
(C): 270
(D): 360
11. a/an ______ is a plan or programmes to motivate individual or group performance.
(A): Incentive scheme
(B): Promotion scheme
(C): Reward
(D): None of the above
12. An incentive plan may consist of
(A): Monetary
(B): Nonmonetary
(C): Both monetary’ and nonmonetary
(D): None of the above
13. A/An ______ is a vertical move in rank and responsibility.
(A): Increment
(B): Appraisal
(C): Promotion
(D): None of the above
14. The following technique is used to evaluate an employee individually.
(A): Graphic scale rating
(B): Ranking
(C): Paired comparison
(D): Forced distribution
15. The technique that have been used to evaluate an employee in comparison with other employees
(A): Ranking
(B): Forced choice
(C): Essay evaluation
(D): Critical incident technique

16. The Recognition may be shown in the form of
(A): A pat on the back of employee
(B): Promotion
(C): Assignment of more interesting tasks
(D): All of the above
17. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual’s performance against well-defined benchmarks.
(A): Performance Appraisal
(B): HR Planning
(C): Information for goal identification
(D): None of the above
18. What is linked with performance appraisal?
(A): Job Design
(B): Development
(C): Job analysis
(D): None of the above
19. Which of the following is an alternate term used for performance appraisal?
(A): Quality and quantity of output
(B): Job knowledge
(C): Employee assessment
(D): None of the above
20. Which of these is the main purpose of employee assessment?
(A): Making correct decisions
(B): To effect promotions based on competence and performance
(C): Establish job expectations
(D): None of the above
21. How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm’s competitive advantage?
(A): Ensures legal compliances
(B): Minimising job dissatisfaction and turnover
(C): Improves performance
(D): All of the above
22. From the strategic point of view, in which three categories can an organisation be grouped?
(A): Defenders
(B): Prospectors
(C): Analysers
(D): All of the above
23. Successful defenders use performance appraisal for identifying ____________.
(A): Staffing needs
(B): Job behaviour
(C): Training needs
(D): None of the above
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24. Analysers tend to emphasise both ______ and _______ and employee extensive training programmes.
(A): Skill building and skill acquisition
(B): Current performance and past performance
(C): Strategy and behaviour
(D): None of the above
25. What do successful analysers tend to examine?
(A): Division and corporate performance evaluation
(B): Current performance with past performance
(C): Ideal appraisal process
(D): None of the above
26. Second step in process of management by objectives is to
(A): guided setting of objective
(B): ongoing performance discussion
(C): review job and agreement
(D): develop performance standards
27. Competitive advantage in form of human capital of organization is considered as
(A): strategic human resource management
(B): workforce management
(C): effectivity management
(D): efficiency management
28. Concept in which pay for jobs that require similar skills, abilities and knowledge without taking duties into consideration is called
(A): pay equity
(B): pay exemption
(C): pay primacy
(D): distributive pay
29. Payments made to employees for amount of time in which employee has worked are classified as
(A): variable pay
(B): salaries
(C): base pay
(D): wages
30. Compensation given with base pay linked to individual team or organizational performance is classified as
(A): variable pay
(B): salaries
(C): base pay
(D): wages
31. Which best describes the difference between mission and strategy?
(A): The mission sets goals for the board of directors while the strategy sets targets for managers.
(B): The mission includes objectives for the next five years whereas the strategy sets them out for just the year ahead
(C): Mission sets the vision of a business while strategy sets out the plan to achieve the mission
(D): The mission describes the business plan in words while the strategy sets it out in numbers.
32. Which best describes the process of benchmarking?
(A): Comparison of actual performance with budget
(B): Comparison of the costs of one product with another
(C): Comparison of direct competitors’ performance
(D): Comparison of the performance of one operation or business with another
33. In which of the four perspectives of a balanced scorecard would Return on Capital Employed (ROCE) be likely to appear?
(A): Financial
(B): Customer
(C): nternal processes
(D): Learning and growth
34. In which of the four perspectives of a balanced scorecard is the objective ‘reduce staff turnover’ mostly likely to be?
(A): Financial
(B): Customer
(C): nternal processes
(D): Learning and growth

35. What is a lagging performance indicator?
(A): An indicator that can anticipate future performance
(B): Delayed reporting of performance
(C): An indicator that highlights past performance
(D): An indicator that depends on another performance measure

36. What is ‘strategy mapping’ in the balanced scorecard?
(A): Identifying causal links between the four perspectives
(B): Mapping the business’ processes
(C): Setting the mission
(D): Agreeing the strategy with the director of the business
37. If a business reports on the number of products not made to a sufficiently high quality, what kind of measure is this?
(A): A qualitative measure
(B): A quantitative measure
(C): Neither a qualitative measure nor a quantitative measure
(D): Both a qualitative measure and a quantitative measure
38. Which costing system is often used to calculate customer profitability?
(A): Absorption costing
(B): Marginal costing
(C): Activity-based costing
(D): Variable costing
39. Which costing systems can often be used to calculate product profitability?
(A): Absorption and activity-based costing
(B): Marginal costing
(C): Activity-based costing
(D): Variable costing
40. Which of the following are the principles in the Code of Ethics set out by the International Federations of Accountants.
(A): Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality and professional competence
(B): Integrity, objectivity, professional competence, confidentiality and professional behaviour.
(C): Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality and professional behaviour
(D): Integrity, objectivity, professional competence and confidentiality

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1 Is there any relationship between brand personality and human personalty if so comment briefly & what may be the consequences?
2 A Brand extension is the common phenomenon in the brand market, Illustrate the need for brand extension?
3 “Positioning the image of brand in the mind of customers is an art.” Do you agree with the statement? Discuss with examples how would you differentiate it with re_launch of brand?
4 Explain briefly the process of brand re-launch? what are strategies used by the marketer to re launch his brand in the market?Define target market?what is the role of marketer he has to play in positioning the brand in the minds of customer?
5 What do you understand by brand management? Is the scenario changed with the recent developments in the market? explain with example related to recent turns in the market?
6 Explain how the branding will help organisation in
(1) Retail Sector
(2) Hospitality Sector
7 Differentiate among the different lines, the product line,product mix, product width? Being the marketer manager of an FMCG company what strategies you apply in your company for better results?
8 Discuss the various levels of brand loyalty What can be done by the marketers to make ensure that they remain brand loyal?
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Case Study

Patanjali Ayurveda was founded by Baba Ramdev and Acharya Balkrishna in the year 2006. The latter owns 94% of Patanjali Ayurveda. Patanjali is the fastest growing FMCG company in India. It has grown more than 10 times in revenue in last five years, an unprecedented feat in India’s FMCG (fast-moving consumer goods) industry. In 2015, Patanjali’s sales grew by 150 percent to Rs. 5000 crore and now the company is targeting for Rs. 10,000 crore revenue in 2016-17. They have 4000 distributors, 10,000 stores and 100 mega-marts. They have also tied up with retail chains like Future Group and Reliance Retail. The company is in talks to raise around Rs. 1000 crore in project loans so as to set up four new manufacturing plants.

Patanjali’s Key To Success

1. Increasing number of health-conscious people: In recent times, people have become more health conscious which is evident from the fact that many companies are investing money in organic and Ayurvedic products. According to Nielsen, the health and wellness segment is worth a sizeable Rs. 33,000 crore. It grew 6% over 2014. Patanjali, with its Ayurvedic product line, is able to somehow capitalise on this changing consumer behaviour and hence capture more market share.

2. Less price: Patanjali products are available at an attractive discount as compared to their competition. The company sources products directly from farmers and cuts on middlemen to boost profits. Hence, they are able to reduce their raw material procurement cost and are able to produce goods at a much cheaper price. Currently, Patanjali is making 20% operating profit which is higher than the industry average.

3. Strong distribution channels: Patanjali products are sold through three types of medical centres. These include Patanjali Chikitsalayas which are basically clinics. Then there are Patanjali Arogya Kendras which are health and wellness centres. They also have non-medicine outlets called Swadeshi Kendras. The group has 15,000 exclusive outlets across India. They also distribute through general retail stores. As mentioned above, they have also tied up with well-known retail chains also. They plan to grow to 1,00,000 outlets in the next few years.

4. Strong brand association with health: Patanjali is able to create a brand perception of health and wellness among the Indian masses, primarily because of Baba Ramdev’s association with the brand who is considered to be a veteran of yoga. Hence, more people are getting attracted to Patanjali’s products and are re-buying products more frequently.

5. Simple packaging, that gives it a ‘natural’ look: If you notice, Patanjali sells its products with a very simple packaging. Now, many would feel that it is not a good strategy but the truth is it is working for Patanjali. With a product like Patanjali, where the message is to promote ‘Ayurveda’ and ‘Health’, simple packaging can be a very effective way of promotion and that is why the company is able to do miracles with its simple yet effective packaging. With a ‘natural’ look (especially with leaves and herbs), consumers get a feeling of health and wellness and they are attracted to buy the product.

6. Media promotions: Baba Ramdev is considered to be a veteran guru of yoga across the globe. He has been very co-operative with press and media and has maintained good relationships with them. Also, he is known to have good connections with many politicians. So he used both the facts to publicise his company free of cost. Take for instance when Baba Ramdev approached Lalu Prasad Yadav and gave his face a massage with a Patanjali face cream and it was covered by media. Or the Maggi scandal when Baba Ramdev came forward and gave a statement that he would launch safer and better-quality noodles.

7. Word-of-mouth promotion: Advertising and promotions typically account for 12-20% of revenue expenditure by consumer goods companies. When a new company gets into the business, this spending is significantly higher. During the introduction stage, Patanjali followed a unique word-of-mouth publicity model and the entire revenue was without any advertising. It was because of the brand loyalty of its customers that the word-of-mouth promotion proved so successful for the company.
Answer Section
Q.No 1: Explain at length the Marketing Mix strategies of Patanjali with the information provided in the above passage.

Q.No 2: What role does consumer behavior play in the success of the brand like Patanjali? Support your answer with examples.

Q.No 3: Critically evaluate the role of Word-of-Mouth in the success of the brand Patanjali.
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1. …………………refers to a brands objective (functional) attributes in relation to other brands.
(A): Brand position
(B): Product position
(C): Brand relationship
(D): Both 1 and 2
2. …………defines what the brand thinks about the consumer, as per the consumer.
(A): Brand attitude
(B): Brand positioning
(C): Brand relationship
(D): Brand image

3. …………………includes two aspects of a brand – its associations and its personality.
(A): Brand attitude
(B): Brand positioning
(C): Brand relationship
(D): Brand image
4. …………………includes all that is linked up in memory about the brand. It could be specific to attributes , features, benefits or looks of brand.
(A): Brand attitude
(B): Brand Associations
(C): Brand relationship
(D): Brand image

5. ……………..includes two visual signals of a brand – its character (e.g. Amul girl, Pillsbury doughboy) and its logo. Both are elements of brand identity.
(A): Brand attitude
(B): Brand Image
(C): Brand Symbol
(D): Brand Positioning

6. ………………….can be thought of as a perceptual map of in which like products of the same company (say, toothpaste) are positioned very close to one another and compete more with one another than with brands of other companies.
(A): Brand Comparison
(B): Cannibalization
(C): Positioning
(D): Brand Associations

7. A marketer need to understand that some ‘general traits’ of a brand name are:
(A): Easy to recognize
(B): Easy to pronounce
(C): Easy to memorize or recall
(D): All of the above

8. Close up, Doordarshan, Frooti, Babool, Fair and Lovely, Band aid and Ujala are the examples of………..
(A): Descriptive Brand Name
(B): Suggestive brand name
(C): Free Standing brand name
(D): None of the above

9. Kodak, Xerox, Exxon, Fuji are the examples of
(A): Free Standing brand name
(B): Descriptive Brand Name
(C): Suggestive brand name
(D): none of the above
10. Whisper, Visa, Tropicana, Surf, Limca, Crush, Denim are the examples of
(A): Descriptive Brand Name
(B): Suggestive brand name
(C): Free Standing brand name
(D): None of the above

11. Watches sold as a Jewellery is related to
(A): Titan Raga
(B): Tanishq
(C): Swatch
(D): GoldPlus
12. Whichever positioning you may like to choose, it has to stem from the point of view of which one of the following so that they can own it?
(A): Customers
(B): Competitors
(C): Manufacturers
(D): Suppliers
13. Which of the following is NOT a dimension of brand differentiation? Select correct option:
(A): Persona recognition
(B): Contract fulfillment
(C): Awareness
(D): Purchase frequency
14. Which one of the following strategic factor is NOT relevant brand equity model by Young and Rubicam?
(A): Brand
(B): Differentiation
(C): Relevance
(D): Esteem
15. Which of the following industries generally do well during strong periods of growth and do poorly during recessions?
(A): Pharmaceutical
(B): Food
(C): Cyclical
(D): Chemical
16. If a market is very mature, the challenges are
(A): Intense
(B): Weak
(C): Concentrated
(D): Deep
17. “Fluoride ingredient” could be used for toothpaste, is the example of which one of the following?
(A): Copy
(B): Copy strategy
(C): Advertisement
(D): Promotion
18. Which one of the following is NOT the part of indirect channels?
(A): Distributors
(B): Wholesalers
(C): Retailer
(D): Telemarketer
19. The multi-brand policy comes out due to which one of the following option?
(A): Limitation of brand extension
(B): Limitation of market segment
(C): Limitation of brand equity
(D): Limitation of brand loyalty
20. The verbal portion of an advertisement, including headlines, body, and signature, is called:
(A): Copy
(B): Storyboard
(C): Layout
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21. IMC stands for what?
(A): Integrated Marketing Communication
(B): Integrated Management communication
(C): Integrated Marketing customer
(D): Integrated Management customer

22. The basic role of promotion is
(A): Information
(B): Manipulation
(C): Communication
(D): Interpretation
23. Advertising appropriations are largest for which type of product?
(A): Industrial products
(B): Convenience goods
(C): Specialty goods
(D): Infrequently purchased goods

24. The unique selling proposition (USP) was started in:
(A): Product era
(B): Advertising era
(C): Image era
(D): The positioning era
25. The changing market necessitates that managers must see the impact of all EXCEPT:
(A): Technologies
(B): Lifestyles
(C): Product line
(D): Benchmarks of quality
26. Which one of the following is related to the brand?
(A): Cooking oil
(B): Shampoo
(C): Detergent
(D): Xerox
27. When any brand of cooking oil is launched with new formula (for more safety of health), it is the example of which of the following?
(A): Extending your target market
(B): Extending the definition of business
(C): Extending your point of difference
(D): Extending the entire positioning

28. The target audience for an advertising campaign is which one of the following?
(A): Information base on which to develop the campaign
(B): Location and geographic distribution of persons
(C): Group of people toward whom the advertisements are directed
(D): Overall goal of the advertising campaign
29. According to researches under brand perception, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
(A): 25 percent of customers spend no time in their decision making
(B): 56 percent of customers spend less than 8 seconds in decision making
(C): Customers use little information in routine purchases of low involvement items
(D): The brand messages must not be so simple and much focused

30. You do not give the same treatment to a fake brand even if it carries the label that may look genuine because:
(A): The actual brand is not there
(B): The actual product is not there
(C): The actual brand is there
(D): Actual product is there
31. Usually brand managers may not get into a large portfolio of brands due to some reasons. Which one of the following in NOT the reason for the growth of brand portfolio?
(A): Owing to growth
(B): Owing to acquisition
(C): Need to have small portfolio
(D): Cannibalization
32. Which one of the following options will be enhanced by delivering the key benefits of a brand that are important to the customers?
(A): Positioning
(B): Competition
(C): Extension
(D): Repositioning

Question

33. __________ is a reflection of what we projected to send to the public.
(A): Brand identity
(B): Brand function
(C): Brand image
(D): Brand positioning

34. According to Scot Davis, how many years are required to change the brand positioning?
(A): Three to five years
(B): Two to five years
(C): Eight to Ten years
(D): Not specific
35. If a company introduce same brand name for several product in different markets then company is applying which one of the following brand strategy?
(A): Product brand strategy
(B): Line brand strategy
(C): Rand brand strategy
(D): Umbrella brand strategy
36. To fill the financial contribution gap, brand managers use different strategies EXCEPT:
(A): Expand markets and availability
(B): Improve distribution
(C): Improve communication
(D): Improve supply chain management
37. Which one of the following is the characteristic of brand strength?
(A): Price premium
(B): Patents and rights
(C): Perceived brand personality
(D): Brand reputation
38. __________ is a reflection of what we projected to send to the public.
(A): Brand identity
(B): Brand function
(C): Brand image
(D): Brand positioning
39. Financial objective deals with __________.
(A): Revenue growth
(B): Winning greater market share
(C): Overtaking competitors on quality
(D): Staging innovations
40. A brand manager is responsible for the destination planning of the brand in terms of its future movements related to all, EXCEPT:
(A): Marketing research
(B): Distribution improvements
(C): Overtaking competition
(D): Markets to serve
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Project Planning, Appraisal & Control
1.Discuss the five broad phases of capital budgeting?
2. What is meant by “Environment Impact Assessment”? What are the methodologies for Impact Assessment? Explain?
3. What are the various sources of finance available for the projects in India? Describe briefly the various means of financing of project?
4. Distinguish between the physical life and economic life of an asset. How would you determining the latter?
5. How will you prepare a project budget? What are the various budgets?
6. What is meant by “Environment Impact Assessment”? What are the methodologies for Impact Assessment? Explain?
7. State the essential elements/steps involved in the project planning process?
8. Explain Porter’s model of profit potential of industries?
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Case Study # What it takes to be a great project manager?
Many challenges confront today’s project managers — new technologies, remote workforces and a global market to name a few. To take a project from inception to finish can be grueling and you’ve got to have great dedication and skills if you’re going to be successful. But what sets apart good project managers (PMs) from the truly great ones? What does it take to go from being the manager of projects to a game-changing leader? Here are six skills the great PMs share.
Become a customer relationship management expert
Develop positive mutually aligned connections with stakeholders: The first thing any project leader should work on is developing a positive relationship or connection with key stakeholders and project sponsors within an organization. Simply jumping into a project and bypassing this step can elevate risks right out of the gate and could further increase communication gaps down the road. Being able to understand the perspective, experience and resulting behaviors of the primary players helps to create a platform for improved communication and reduces friction.
Develop an understanding of a specific business and its needs: It’s not important to know every detail there is to know about a customer’s industry; however, making an effort to research key facts, norms and challenges demonstrates sincere interest as it relates to potentially unique business needs. After all, how can you sell any company on the benefits of your skills as a PM without understanding potential challenges, opportunities and impacts to their business? Once you are able to clearly articulate that you understand their obstacles and their needs, it’s less of an uphill battle selling the benefits of a project and alleviating fears.
Pay attention to the big picture, but don’t miss the details: The ability to see the broader picture yet not skip over the details is another skill that enables good project leaders to become great project leaders. Being able to connect the dots from start to finish, all the while keeping the higher-level end goal in sight is a valuable skill that offers organizations peace of mind. Organizational leadership simply doesn’t have time to ensure project leaders are on top of things. These leaders rely heavily on a project manager to understand their business needs and goals, and also navigate project tasks and milestones with minimal guidance.
Don’t just manage teams — motivate and influence them
Be an effective project leader by leading people, not managing them: Teams need to be able to rely on a project manager to provide them with sufficient guidance when needed and to excel in areas like motivation and communication. As a PM you can’t be everywhere or do everything, and this highlights the need to trust the knowledge, skills and abilities of team members. Establishing trusting relationships with stakeholders and team members provides smoother navigation through difficult situations and creates a greater degree of transparency.
Help to build respect among teams and stakeholders: Projects offer opportunities for a diverse set of individuals to bring unique skills, experiences and ideas to the table and helps to build better solutions. Problems often arise when individuals are in conflict and demonstrate a lack of respect for difference or override the contributions of others. This is where tact and skill as a project manager can alleviate tension and encourage team members to refocus on what’s best for the stakeholder(s), rather than remaining self-focused. A strong PM is always able to shed light on key factors and help individuals to see the merits of both sides. The need for mutual respect should be expected and communicated from the start, and ground rules and applicable consequences should be laid out to avoid disruption and lost productivity.
Influence individuals and teams to optimize their contributions. A large part of the role of a project leader is to influence each team member to give their best regardless of personal views, obstacles, and conflicts. Influence is both an art and learned behavior that is often undervalued and overlooked. It’s important to note that influence shouldn’t be confused with manipulation. The real value in positive influence is the ability to translate this soft skill into action that results in a win-win for the stakeholders and team. Further, it’s imperative individual team members and the team as a whole not only understand their role and how it fits within the project goals, but also that they are committed to continuous improvement for optimal results that benefit the customer.
Putting it all together
Companies are increasingly seeking well-rounded project leaders who exhibit the technical know-how and leadership prowess required to see things and execute from different vantage points. A project manager who has the underlying training combined with these core soft skills can uniquely position him or herself to stand out in their field, achieve optimal results and become a sought after thought leader.
Q.No 1: What are the essentials for becoming a good project manager?
Q.No 2: Why it is said that you don’t just manage teams — motivate and influence them first?
Q.No 3: How to become a customer relationship management expert?
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1. A project management methodology characterized by building products that customers really want, using short cycles of work that allow for rapid production and constant revision is called
(A): Agile
(B): Allocation
(C): Porter’s Five Forces
(D): Strategy
2. The act of assigning available resources is known as …………….
(A): Allocation
(B): Formation
(C): Persue
(D): Allotment
3. A general list of planned expenses is called….
(A): Auditing
(B): Budget
(C): Budgetory Control
(D): Budgeting
4. The act of managing all aspects of a project, from team to tasks to tools.
(A): Project Control
(B): Project Management
(C): Project Appraisal
(D): none
5. A condition where a task or milestone relies on other tasks to be completed (or started) before it can be performed.
(A): Performance
(B): Allotment
(C): Dependancy
(D): Allocation 6. Which American mechanical engineer and management consultant, developed the Gantt chart in the 1910s.
(A): Henry Gantt
(B): Henry Feyol
(C): Henry Ford
(D): Michael Henry 7. In project management, an objective or milestone set by an individual or organization is called………….
(A): Goal
(B): Performance
(C): Milestone
(D): Target 8. ACWP stands for Actual Cost of Work …………….
(A): Persist
(B): Performed
(C): Per Piece
(D): per Assignment 9. ……………. Is the methodology that focuses on streamlining and cutting out waste. The goal is to do more with less: i.e., deliver value to the customer using less manpower, money, and time.
(A): SWOT
(B): PESTEL
(C): Lean
(D): Six Sigma 10. Cost ……………. is defined as excess of actual cost over budget.
(A): Overrun
(B): Over Charge
(C): Over Priced
(D): Over Budget
11. An X-Y axis graph that shows the number of tasks that need to be completed (on the vertical axis) versus the time remaining (on the horizontal axis) is Burn …………… Chart.
(A): Horizontal
(B): Down
(C): Upper
(D): Cluster
12. A method used to model projects that includes all tasks, time estimates, task dependencies, and final deliverables.
(A): HIFO
(B): LIFO
(C): CPM
(D): CAPM 13. A statistical tool used to visualize a project’s schedule, sequence of tasks, and even the critical path of tasks that must be completed on time in order for the project to meet its deadline.
(A): PERT
(B): CPM
(C): None
(D): Both
14. A graphical representation of a sequence of events.
(A): Timeline
(B): Time Clash
(C): Time Boundry
(D): Time Tag
15. A statistics-based methodology that seeks to improve the quality of a process by measuring the defects or bugs present and getting it down as close to zero as possible.
(A): Six Sigma
(B): Three Sigma
(C): Seven Sigma
(D): Four Sigma
16. The professional in charge of planning and executing a project and leading a project team.
(A): Project Surveyor
(B): Project Evaluator
(C): Project Controller
(D): Project Manager 17. ……………. is part of a set of actions which accomplish a job, problem or assignment.
(A): Task
(B): project
(C): Program
(D): Policy
18. Six Sigma is a business management strategy, originally developed by …………
(A): Panasonic
(B): Samsung
(C): Sony
(D): Motorola 19. BCWS is short form of Budgeted Cost of Work ……………….
(A): Surfed
(B): Scattered
(C): Sacrificed
(D): Scheduled
20. ………….. engineering is an interdisciplinary field of engineering that focuses on how complex engineering projects should be designed and managed.
(A): Policy
(B): Project
(C): Program
(D): Structured
Correct answer is “system” but not given in option.
21. ……………. are what is required to carry out a project’s tasks.
(A): Resources
(B): Product
(C): Profile
(D): Programme 22. Wideband …………..is a consensus-based estimation technique for estimating effort.
(A): Deliphie
(B): Delphi
(C): Delhip
(D): Dellpphi
23. Quality, Cost, ………….. (QCD) as used in lean manufacturing measures a businesses activity and develops Key performance indicators.
(A): Date
(B): Diary
(C): Determination
(D): Delivery 24. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
(A): Program
(B): Project
(C): Product
(D): Profile
25. ……………….. breakdown structure (PBS) in project management is an exhaustive, hierarchical tree structure of components that make up an item, arranged in whole-part relationship.
(A): Project
(B): Product
(C): Profile
(D): Programme
26. ……..referes generally to a list of all planned expenses and revenues.
(A): Budget
(B): Budgetory Control
(C): Budgeting
(D): All
27. An imaginative arrangement of a set of ideas.
(A): Principle
(B): Concept
(C): Policy
(D): Procedure
28. A person who takes on personal responsibility for the successful completion of a “visionary project.”
(A): Insurer
(B): Banker
(C): Champion
(D): Charger

29. A hierarchical tree structure that breaks down a project into smaller deliverables.
(A): WBS
(B): PPM
(C): CPM
(D): PERT1
30. Project Portfolio …………. (PPM) — is a method used by organizations to ensure that all their projects align with the overall business objectives.
(A): Mapping
(B): Mascot
(C): Marginal
(D): Management
31. A significant event in the project usually completion of a major deliverable.
(A): Project
(B): Product
(C): Profile
(D): Milestone 32. A task or activity that precedes, or comes before, another task or activity.
(A): Synonym
(B): Predecor / Predecessor
(C): Numerator
(D): Denominator

33. PERT stands for Program Evaluation and ………… Technique
(A): Repeat
(B): Review
(C): Right
(D): Reporting
34. The elapsed time from project start date through to project finish date.
(A): Milestone
(B): Completition Time
(C): Duration
(D): Start Time
35. The planned dates for performing activities and the planned dates for meeting milestones.
(A): Schedule
(B): Program
(C): Policy
(D): Procedure
36. Individuals and organizations who are involved in or may be affected by project activities.
(A): Stakeholder
(B): Shareholders
(C): Owners
(D): Residents
37. The act of revising the project’s scope, budget, schedule, or quality in order to reduce uncertainty on the project.
(A): Reversing
(B): Failing
(C): Mitigation
(D): Catching 38. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project’s objectives.
(A): Risk
(B): Uncertainty
(C): None
(D): Both
39. Something that lies ready for use or that can be drawn upon for aid or to take care of a need.
(A): Reverse
(B): Review
(C): Resource
(D): Plentuy 40. A quantifiable difference, deviation, or divergence away from the known baseline or expected value.
(A): Regression
(B): Correlation
(C): Sumation
(D): Variance

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Security Analysis & Portfolio Management (VVN)
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1 . Enumerate the basis principles of Technical Analysis?
2 . Discuss some recent trends in NSE? Explain the functions of NSDL?
3 . Discuss the steps involved in the process of book building?
4 . Discuss some prominent features of an investment program?
5 . Discuss the steps involved in the process of book building?
6 . Describe the concept of Industry Life Cycle?
7 . How does reverse book building works?
8 . How would you classify shares into growth, cyclical and defensive?
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Case Detail :
Shareholder’s Guide
With gold and shares being the most sought after investment arena for Indian investors, how can a beginner invest in shares? Well here is a guide to get started in Share market investment in India. Just stand in a crowd and utter the words “aaj market kaisa hai?” (how is the market today?), and there will be opinions pouring in from all directions. The best part is that even people who have never ever invested in shares will have strong opinions and even tips at times for how to invest in share markets. So if you are someone who simply does not want to stand and give tips without doing anything and wants to actually invest in share markets in India, then here is how to get started with share market investment in India. Here is a 6 step guide to help you out.

1. Get a PAN Card: PAN or Permanent Account Number is a primary requirement for entering any financial transactions in our country. It is unique 10 digit Alpha-Numeric number assigned to an individual by the Tax Authorities for assessing their tax liabilities. PAN is however required for opening a bank account, investing in mutual funds, filling Income Tax returns etc. Also the first thing you will need to be able to invest in shares in India is a PAN card, so get it first.

2. Get a Broker: You and I cannot directly go the stock exchange and buy or sell stocks/shares like we would buy or sell any other thing. People are authorized to buy and sell on the markets and they are called brokers. Brokers can be individuals or companies and even online agencies that are registered and licensed by SEBI or Securities and Exchanges Board of India, who regulates the share markets. Get a broker, they can be individuals you know and are reliable, or you can approach various companies that are licensed to trade and deal in securities in the markets.

3. Get a Demat and Trading Account: Once you have a broker, whether in form of a person, company or online, you will now need a Demat and Trading account. Demat account will hold the stocks or shares in your name and the same will reflect in your stock portfolio. You cannot hold shares in physical form or store them physically. They have to in Dematerialized state or Demat state. A Demat account does that for you. It will store the shares you buy from the markets through your brokers in your account in your name. The selling will also be from here and it will reflect in your Demat statements that you receive from time to time. You will never have a physical share certificate in your hands; it will be reflected in your Demat Account Statement.

The buying and selling of shares you wish to have or want to sell will however require a Trading account. Trading account will be like an intermediary who facilitates the buying and selling. Usually your broker takes care of all this. Whether you approach an individual broker, a broking firm or online agencies, the Demat and Trading accounts will be opened simultaneously as it is one without the other is useless for investing in shares in India.

4. Depository Participant: There is also a Depositary Participant that you need to be aware of. There are two depositories in India: NSDL and CDSL which stands for National Securities Depository Limited and Central Depository Services Limited. These two have their agents in the form of Depository Participants who will provide an account to store the shares you hold. It is not the same as Demat and Trading account as in Demat it shows the number shares you hold and the Trading reflects the buying and selling that has taken place in your account. Depository Participants will hold those shares you bought and release the shares you sold. However, it is usually taken care of by the broker who will also guide you through the Demat, Trading account opening process as well as register with a Depository. But you need to be aware of it none-the-less.

5. UIN if you want to invest BIG: UIN or Unique Identification Number is required in case you trade for Rs. 1,00,000 or more at a single time. If you plan to go BIG in share markets, UIN is needed. Otherwise, for regular investors it is not required.

6. Buying and Selling: For buying or selling shares, you need to inform your broker about which share in what quantity you wish to buy at which price. For example if you wish to buy 10 shares of Reliance Industries Ltd when it reaches a price of Rs. 885, you have to inform the same to you broker; Share: Reliance Industries Ltd. Quantity: 10, Price: 885. In case of online broker too, they usually have customer care numbers where you can place your order if you do not have access to the internet at that point. When the share reaches that price, transaction will be made on your behalf. Same is done in case of selling, for example Sell: Reliance Industries Ltd, Quantity: 3, Price: 895. The sell order will be processed when the share reaches that price. However the buy and sell orders remain valid only up to a certain time, usually the same day or the next. Your broker will inform you of the same. If during that time frame the buy or sell price is not reached, the order is cancelled and you need to place a new order.
Answer Section
Q.No 1: What the case is all about?

Q.No 2: What are the varios requirments for investing in share market?

Q.No 3: What are the learnings you would like to discuss with potential buyers?

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1. Liquidity risk is associated with secondary market transactions.
TRUE
FALSE
Can’t Say
Sometimes
2. Trustee is a self-governing organization that operates as bondholders ………………
Broker
Representative
Gaurdian
Gurantee
3. A price weighted index is an arithmetic mean of …………. Prices.
current
furure
quarter
None
4. Dalal Street is in …. City.
Delhi
Jaipur
Kolkatta
None
5
Financial hazard is most related with use of …………financing by corporations.
Equity
Debt
Private
Loan
6. Bondholders usually accept interest payments each ……………. Months.
3
6
9
12
7. Ambiguity introduced by way by which organization finances its investments is ……. Risk.
Monetary
Credit
Financial
Country
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8. Standard deviation determine ………….. risk of security.
Systematic
Unsystematic
Premium
Total
9. A corporate bond is a corporation’s write undertaking that it will refund a specific amount of money plus
Premium
Interest
Nothing
Security
10. When the investment banker bears the risk of not being able to sell a new security at the established price, this is known as ……………….. .
Arbitrage
FPO
Underwriting
Possession
11. A best efforts offering is sometimes used in connection with a ……………. of new, long-term securities.
Public Issue
Private Issue
Bonus Issue
Collected Issue
12. Rule ……… permits what is known as a shelf registration.
413
414
415
416
13. As per practice, reservation for retail investors in 100% book building process is only …….%.
5
35
25
15
14. Ranking of issues is done under following technique?
Probability Impact Matrix
Traditional Matrix
Modern Matrix
Compatible Matrix
15. Which is not the filter criterion to rank various issues?
Actionality
Criticality
Urgency
Merging
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16. It has beeen noticed that in …………. City there is much concentration of merchant bankers.
Delhi
Mumbai
Hyderabad
Chandigarh
17. Wide network of ……………. all over India and abroad is required for successful marketing of public issues.
Merchant bankers
Underwriters
Banks
Postal offices
18. NASQAQ stands for National Association of Securities Dealers ………….. Quotations
American
Australian
Automated
Automatic
19. Which of the following is not a method a firm can use to publicly issue common stock?
Private Placement
Publicity
Public Placement
Correlation
20. Which of the following is not a method a firm can use to finance their long-term needs externally?
Company Earnings
Accounted Earnings
New Earnings
Retained Earnings
21. FPO stands for follow on …………… offer.
Private
Public
Public-private
partnership
22. If an investment banker has agreed to sell a new issue of securities on a best-efforts basis, the issue results in no assumption of underwriting risk by the ………………. .
BOD
Government
Investment Banker
Underwriter
23. Role of merchant bankers
M&A
Project Councelling
Forming Joint Ventures
All
24. Formal merchant banking activity in India was originated in______.
1979
1969
1989
1999
25. The early growth of merchant banking in the country is assigned to the ________.
FEMA
FERA
Securities Act
IT Act
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26. A Merchant bank is a financial institution conducting money market activities and …………. .
Lending
Investment Service
underwriting
All
27. Issues identification is more important than it is in the …………………… approach.
Conventional
Modern
Traditional
Classical
28. What happens, according to the text, to the average common stock price immediately after the announcement of a new equity issue by a publicly traded firm?
Fall
Stable
Increase
No Change
29. NYSE stands for …………… Stock Exchange.
New-York
New Delhi
New Zeeland
Nariman Point
30. If the market price of a stock “rights-on” is $50 a share, the subscription price is $40 a share, and it takes nine rights to buy an additional share of common stock, the theoretical value of a right when the stock is selling “rights-on ” is how much?
$5
$4
$2
$1
31. The __________ is a disclosure document filed with the SEC in order to register a new security and includes the prospectus and other SEC required information.
Prospectus
Registration Document
Line Document
Straight Document
32. Who …………… earn a spread based on the difference between the purchase price from the firm and the sales price to investors of the securities being underwritten.
International Bankers
Merchant Bankers
Investment Bankers
indian Bankers
33. Disinvestment is normally done for ……………… shares.
Private
Public
Bonus
All
34. Capital Market Line is firstly initiated by …….
Adam
Sharpe
Martkowitz
Linterr
35. NSE stands for …………. Stock Exchange?
New Delhi
Nagpur
National
New york
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36. Internal Trends depict …………………… .
Strengths
Weaknesses
None
Both
37. FTD stands for ………… trading day.
First
Foremost
Future
Fast
38. NIFTY and DSE belong to …………… .
China
India
Japan
USA
39. UTI stands for …………… Trust of India.
United
Unit
Union
Unversal
40. Debentures are issued by …………. Companies.
Public
SMEs
Private
Financially Sound
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1 Discuss the waiting line management .
2 Differentiate between products and services.
3 Explain queueing theory.
4 Discuss services layouts.
5 Explain service costs.
6 Describe the components of Service Strategy.
7 Explain service quality.
8 Discuss the service expectation gap .

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Service management in the manufacturing context, is integrated into supply chain management as the intersection between the actual sales and the customer point of view. The aim of high performance service management is to optimize the service-intensive supply chains, which are usually more complex than the typical finished-goods supply chain. Most service-intensive supply chains require larger inventories and tighter integration with field service and third parties. They also must accommodate inconsistent and uncertain demand by establishing more advanced information and product flows. Moreover, all processes must be coordinated across numerous service locations with large numbers of parts and multiple levels in the supply chain.
Answer Section
Q.No 1: Explain the concept of service management.
Q.No 2: Discuss the aim of service management.
Q.No 3: When can service management be applied?
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1. There are a few major areas in which technology now is able to help provide key advantages to businesses in engendering customer loyalty by improving customer service:
(A): wensite
(B): email
(C): advertisement
(D): all

2. The service sector, also called tertiary sector, is the …….. of the three economic sectors.
(A): first
(B): second
(C): third
(D): fourth
3. The service sector provides a service, not an actual …….. that could be held in your hand.
(A): cost
(B): cash
(C): profit
(D): product

4. A customer’s expectation of a particular service is determined by factors such as
(A): recommendadtions
(B): past experiences
(C): personal needs
(D): all
5. Customers generally have a tendency to compare the service they ‘experience’ with the ………….. they ‘expect’ .
(A): service
(B): cost
(C): cash
(D): profit
6. Increasingly service sector businesses focus on what is now being called the “ economy”
(A): knowledge
(B): politics
(C): banks
(D): companies
7. …………….. management deals with cases where the customer arrival is random
(A): process
(B): Queue
(C): both
(D): none
8. A cost is associated with customer ………. in line and there is cost associated with adding new counters to reduce service time.
(A): waiting
(B): stopping
(C): sleeping
(D): all
9. These are the types of workflow layouts that managers can choose from
(A): product
(B): process
(C): fixed position
(D): all
10. Facility layout decisions are based on criteria aimed at creating an effective and efficient ………. and high standard production.
(A): freeflow
(B): workflow
(C): both
(D): none
11. Facilities should be designed so that they can be …. expanded or adjusted to meet changing production needs.
(A): easily
(B): stupidly
(C): sternly
(D): closely
12. ………. manufacturing systems most often are highly automated facilities having intermediate-volume production of a variety of products
(A): fixed
(B): Flexible
(C): both
(D): none
13. The facility design should reflect a recognition of the importance of smooth ………….. flow.
(A): cash
(B): funds
(C): process
(D): all
14. ………tracking is to be avoided in whatever pattern is chosen.
(A): front
(B): side
(C): back
(D): along
15. When parts and materials move against or across the …… flow, personnel and paperwork become confused, parts become lost, and the attainment of coordination becomes complicated.
(A): overall
(B): front
(C): side
(D): back
16. Small business owners should make certain that the facility layout makes it possible to handle…..
(A): process
(B): man
(C): machinery
(D): materials
17. The facility should be laid out in a way that is conducive to helping the business meet its ……. needs.
(A): HR
(B): finance
(C): production
(D): markating
18. ……………. factors that can influence the degree of attractiveness of a facility include not only the design of the production area itself
(A): Design
(B): control
(C): development
(D): finance
19. Facility layout must be considered very carefully because we do not want to constantly redesign the ………..
(A): cost
(B): profit
(C): facility
(D): all
20. Office layout criteria, although hard to quantify, are ……. of communication cost and maximization of employee productivity
(A): maximisation
(B): minimization
(C): increase
(D): hike
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21. The needs of service-oriented businesses, for instance, are often predicated on whether customers receive their services at the location of the business
(A): virtual
(B): remote
(C): faroff
(D): physical
Most service-intensive supply chains require ….. inventories and tighter integration with field service and third parties.
(A): SMALLER
(B): higher
(C): larger
(D): lesset

22. The aim of high performance service management is to optimize the ……..-intensive supply chains, which are usually more complex than the typical finished-goods supply chain.
(A): service
(B): employee
(C): seller
(D): entrepreneur
23. Most service-intensive supply chains require ….. inventories and tighter integration with field service and third parties.
(A): SMALLER
(B): higher
(C): larger
(D): lesset
24. Improved service …. may increase economic competitiveness.
(A): cost
(B): time
(C): quality
(D): scope
25. A business with ………. service quality will meet customer needs whilst remaining economically competitive
(A): low
(B): zero
(C): high
(D): only
26. Customers form service expectations from……..
(A): past experiences
(B): word of mouth
(C): advertisement
(D): all

27. Customers compare perceived …………. with expected service in which if the former falls short of the latter the customers are disappointed.
(A): SERVICE
(B): employee
(C): seller
(D): entrepreneur
28. Individual service quality states the service …….. of employees as distinct from the quality that the customers perceived
(A): cost
(B): time
(C): quality
(D): scope
29. Service quality can be related to service
(A): potential
(B): process
(C): result
(D): all
30. The measurement of subjective aspects of ………. service depends on the conformity of the expected benefit with the perceived result.
(A): employee
(B): seller
(C): entrepreneur
(D): customer
31. If the experience does not match the expectation, there arises a ………..
(A): cost
(B): cash
(C): profit
(D): gap
32. Process mapping should underpin all ……………. redesign, demand, capacity, activity and queue management, patient flow modelling and service planning.
(A): service
(B): employee
(C): seller
(D): entrepreneur
33. Moreover, all processes must be coordinated across numerous ……….. locations with large numbers of parts and multiple levels in the supply chain.
(A): service
(B): employee
(C): seller
(D): entrepreneur
34. ……….costs are cost associated with purchasing of raw material and receiving raw materials.
(A): holding
(B): ordering
(C): setup
(D): all
35. ………..Cost are cost associated with installation of machine for production. They include clean- up cost, re-tooling cost and adjustment cost.
(A): holding
(B): ordering
(C): setup
(D): all

36. Outsourcing includes both………….. contracting
(A): foreign and domestic
(B): open and close
(C): black and white
(D): big and small
37. Companies primarily outsource to
(A): reduce profit
(B): increase cost
(C): reduce cost
(D): all
38. …………. has been identified as a means to ensure control, compliance and to gain competitive differentiation through vertical integration or the development of shared services
(A): Insourcing
(B): offshoring
(C): outsourcing
(D): all
39. ….. management in the manufacturing context, is integrated into supply chain management as the intersection between the actual sales and the customer point of view.
(A): SERVICE
(B): employee
(C): seller
(D): entrepreneur
40. In a waiting line scenario, there are cases of …. population of customers and infinite population of customers.
(A): infinite
(B): finite
(C): both
(D): none
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