august 2017

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1 “Insufficiency of consideration is immaterial but an agreement without consideration is void”. Comment.
2 Chequed crossed”not negotiable” are nevertheless transferable. Explain.
3 S admitted his only infant son in a private nursing home. As a result of strong dose of medicine adminstered by the nursing attendant, the child became mentally retarded. S wants to make a complaint to the district forum seeking relief by way of compensation on the ground that there was deficiency in service by the nursing home. Does his complaint give rise to a consumer dispute?
4 The legal personality of a company is distinct and different from its members individually and collectively”. Comment and point out the circumstances when the separate of a company is disregarded by the courts.
5 State the procedure District Forum follows on receipt of a complaint from a consumer.
6 Has a holder of a cheque any remedy against the banker for wrongful dishonour of the cheque?
7 What is the practical importance of knowing the exact moment when the property in goods passes from the seller to the buyer? State and illustrate the rules which determine such moment or Risk facie passes with property. Elucidate.
8 What are the provisions of the Companies Act 1956, in respect of extraordinary general meeting to be held on requisition?
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Q.No 1: M agreed on Monday to sell his property to N by a written agreement which stated that :” this offer to be left over until Saturday 10am”.In the meantime, on Wednesday M enters into a contract to sell the property to O. N who was sitting in the next room, hears about the deal betweem M and O. On friday , N accepts the offer and delievers to M, the letter of acceptance. Is N’s acceptance valid?
Q.No 2: J, the owner of a Maruti car, wants to sell his car. For this purpose he hands over the car to P, a mercantile agent for sale at aprice not less than Rs 90,000. The agent sells the car for Rs 80,000 to A, who buys the car in good faith and without notice of any limitation on P’s authority.P misappropriated the money also. J sues A to recover the car.Decide giving reasons whether J would succeed.
Q.No 3: A consigned goods by railways.The consignment, at the time of delivery, was found damaged.After obtaing a certificate of damages from the Railways Officer, A cliamed from the Railways compensation of Rs 2,300. The general manager of the Railways sent him a cheque for Rs 1,300 in full and final settlement. The cheque was encashed , but after a lapse of sometime. A claimed that the payment had satisfied only a part of his claim and demanded payment of the balance. Discuss the claim of A for payment of the balance amount.
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1. Consideration
(A): must be adequate to the promise made
(B): need not be adequate to the promise made
(C): must be of reasonable value
(D): must be of more value than the value of promise made.
2. In case of private company the quorum should be
(A): 2 members
(B): 3 members
(C): 4 members
(D): None of these
3. Flaw in a capacity to contract may arise from –
(A): want of consideration
(B): unsoundness of mind
(C): illegality of object
(D): uncertainty of object
4. Which of the following meeting can be held more than once in a calendar year?
(A): E.G.M
(B): S.G.M
(C): A.G.M
(D): None of the above
5. A wagering agreement is
(A): forbidden by law
(B): immoral
(C): opposed to public policy
(D): none of the above.
6. On the face of the ticket for a journey the words ?for conditions see back? are printed in small print .The passenger –
(A): is bound by the conditions whether he takes care to read them or not
(B): is not bound by the conditions
(C): may not take note of the conditions
(D): none of the above
7. Anticipatory breach of a contract takes place –
(A): during the performance of the contract
(B): at the time when the performance is due
(C): before the performance is due
(D): at the time when the contract is entered into
8. In case of a wrongful dishonour of a cheque by a banker having funds to the credit of the customer ,the court may award—-
(A): ordinary damages
(B): nominal damages
(C): exemplary damages
(D): contemptuous damages
9. Share holders are _________
(A): Owners
(B): Creditors
(C): Debtors
(D): None of the above
10. Which of the following have voting rights _______
(A): Share holders
(B): Debenture holder
(C): Both (a) & (b)
(D): None of the above
11. Debentures which have the charge on the property of the company is ________
(A): Secured
(B): Unsecured
(C): Registered
(D): None of the above
12. Commencement of winding up of a company does not affect the nature of ______
(A): A fixed charge
(B): A floating charge
(C): Both a) & b)
(D): None of the above
13. What is the time limit for conducting statutory meeting?
(A): 1 to 5 months
(B): 1 to 6 months
(C): 1 to 9 months
(D): None of these
14. Responsibility of a consumer includes
(A): Exercise rights
(B): Quality conscious
(C): Insist on cash memo
(D): All
15. Which of the following right is not provided by the Consumer Protection Act to the consumers ?
(A): Right to safety
(B): Right to scold
(C): Right to choose
(D): Right to seek redressal
16. The central council shall meet as and when necessary but at least ___ meeting of the council shall be held every year
(A): One
(B): Two
(C): Three
(D): Four
17. Which one of the following know as Consumer disputes redressal agency
(A): District forum
(B): State commission
(C): National commission
(D): All the above
18. President of district forum is
(A): Collector of the district
(B): A person who are qualified as advocate
(C): A person who are qualified to be a district judge
(D): None of these
19. Provided that the minimum amount of sum so payable shall not be less than ____ of the value of such defective goods sold or services provided, as the case may be to such consumers.
(A): Rs 25000/-
(B): 10%
(C): 5%
(D): None of these
20. Maximum members in case of private company
(A): 50
(B): 100
(C): 75
(D): None of these We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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21. When you receive a check made out to you in your name, you are called the
(A): maker.
(B): holder
(C): assignee
(D): drawer
22. Managing director will be counted as _____________ while calculating maximum limit in case of private company.
(A): Member
(B): Employee
(C): Shareholder
(D): None of these
23. When the date is omitted
(A): the date when the instrument is negotiated is considered the date of issue.
(B): the instrument must be returned and the date inserted.
(C): the date when the instrument is received is considered to be the date of issue.
(D): the instrument is not negotiable
24. In case of Non –Profit making Companies books of accounts are required to be preserved for ________years
(A): 2
(B): 4
(C): 6
(D): 8
25. A blank indorsement
(A): requires the words “without recourse” on the back of the check
(B): requires the words “with recourse” on the back of the check.
(C): consists of the signature alone on the instrument
(D): requires the words “pay to the order of” on the back of a check
26. M.M. ltd is incorporated on Jan 1, 2007. It must hold its first AGM before.
(A): Dec 312007
(B): Dec 312008
(C): June 302007
(D): June 30 – 2008
27. A bad cheque is one that
(A): the bank deems to old to honor.
(B): the bank is liable for any loss that you might suffer
(C): is drawn on an account in which there is insufficient funds
(D): is signed by someone other than the drawer
28. Notice of Adjourn meeting is not required of a meeting is
(A): Adjourn for want of quorum
(B): Adjourn sine die
(C): Adjourn for more than 30 days
(D): None
29. AGM should be held at
(A): Company
(B): Registered office
(C): Corporate office
(D): None of these
30. In which one of the following cases an ordinary resolution may be passed _________
(A): Commencement of a new business
(B): alteration of articles
(C): Compulsory winding up of the company
(D): none of the above
31. Company should file a prospectus in case of conversion of private company into a public company with in __________ from the date of resolution
(A): 30 days
(B): 45 days
(C): 60 days
(D): none of these
32. ______ is the conclusive evidence in case of company that statutory requirements have complied with
(A): Certificate of Incorporation
(B): Certificate of commencement of Business
(C): Both
(D): None of the above
33. A company can change its name at its own discretion by passing _________
(A): Ordinary resolution
(B): Special resolution
(C): Boards resolution
(D): None of the above
34. For calculating number of members in a private company joint holders will be as __________
(A): 1
(B): 2
(C): 3
(D): 4
35. ______ are the contracts entered into by promoters on behalf of a prospectus company.
(A): Provisional contracts
(B): PreIncorporation Contracts
(C): Preliminary contracts
(D): Both a) & b)
36. A company can accept or renew deposits for a period less than 6 months if they do not exceed 10% of the aggregate of
(A): Paid up Capital
(B): Free reserves
(C): Paid up capital and Free reserves
(D): None of the above
37. Which of the given below members are not shareholders
(A): Death of members
(B): Insolvent
(C): Share warrant holders
(D): All of the above
38. In the event of appointing a proxy joint holders shall sign the proxy form
(A): Singularly
(B): Jointly
(C): None of the above
(D): both (a) & (b)
39. A company can become a members of another company if it is so authorized by _________
(A): MOA
(B): AOA
(C): Both (a) & (b)
(D): None of the above
40. Which of the following is not true _________
(A): Every member is a contributory
(B): Every contributory is a member.
(C): Both (a) & (b)
(D): None of the above We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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Small Business Management & Strategies
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1 Explain the orientation to small business.
2 What are ingredients of success ? Explain.
3 Explain the issues facing small business in 21st century.
4 Explain the issues related to faculty planning in SSI.
5 Explain the compensation planning and financing the SME.
6 Write a note on Exit rout for SME’s or extact money from a business
7 Expalin the concept of small Business Ownership vs Entrepreneurship
8 What are the schemes of financial assistance to SSI.
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Q.No 1: Expalin the state aid to industries act.
Q.No 2: Expalin in details the strategic planning for small business
Q.No 3: Expalin the analysis of financial ratios.
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1. Small and Medium Enterprise represnt………………… of all industrial units in india
(A): 85
(B): 75
(C): 60
(D): 50
2. Micro, SME currently contribute around ………………. of the national GDP
(A): 45
(B): 75
(C): 60
(D): 50
3. what is/are traditional industries
(A): Handicrafts
(B): Handlooms
(C): Sericulture
(D): All the above
4. what is/are the charaterstices od SSI
(A): Capital investiment is small
(B): Most have fewer than 10 workers
(C): Located in rural and semi urban araes
(D): all of the above
5. Which industry is not coming in the category of SSI
(A): Leather footwear
(B): Steel Industry
(C): Locks
(D): Electronics
6. What is/are ingrediants of sucess
(A): Spontaneity
(B): Risk Taking
(C): Foresight
(D): all of the above
7. small scale enterprise is the beehive of …………….
(A): Entrepreneurship
(B): innovation
(C): growth & innovation
(D): all of the above
8. ……………… is beautiful, but what is really beautiful is the appropriate scale.
(A): small
(B): large
(C): medium
(D): big
9. what is/are imporatnce of small enterprises ?
(A): small is beautiful
(B): Innovative and productive
(C): Individual tastes
(D): all of the above
10. The smal enterprises are more …………..than the giants, but are highly vulnerable to anyy setback.
(A): Flexible
(B): Rigid
(C): Dynamic
(D): None of them
11. The problems follow the entrepreneurship like a …………..
(A): shadow
(B): seller
(C): buyer
(D): sensex
12. what is/are the major external problems and issues of SSI
(A): indentification of industrial projects for development
(B): project preparation and evaluation
(C): consultancy and counselling services
(D): all of the above
13. what is/are the mojor internal problems of SSI
(A): quality
(B): marketing
(C): inadequate finance
(D): all of the above
14. ……………. from the SME sector have witnessed unprecedented growth since the turm of the new millenium
(A): export
(B): import
(C): trade
(D): mechanization
15. what is/are the major external probelms of SSI
(A): Entrepreneurship development
(B): industrial training and skill promotion
(C): quality control and testing facilities
(D): all of the above
16. what is/ are the major internal problems of SSI
(A): choice of an idea
(B): feeble structure
(C): faculty palnning
(D): all of the above
17. what is/are the problems faced by SSI in marketing
(A): Lack of standardization
(B): poor desigining
(C): poor quality
(D): all of the above
18. what is/are the problems faced by SSI in marketing
(A): lack of quality control
(B): lack of precision
(C): poor finish
(D): all of the above
19. ………… is a key input of production, distribution and development
(A): Finance
(B): Marketing
(C): Human Resorce
(D): Production
20. Finance is a key input of
(A): Oroduction
(B): Distribution
(C): Development
(D): All of the above
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21. ……….. is life blood of company
(A): Finance
(B): Marketing
(C): HUman Resource
(D): Production
22. Medium term finance may be raised by
(A): issue of shares
(B): issue of debenture
(C): Borrowing from banks
(D): all of the above
23. What is/are the important sources of long term finance
(A): issue of shares
(B): issue of debenture
(C): Loan from financial institutions
(D): all of the above
24. what is/are short term sources of finance
(A): Bank Credit
(B): Trade credit
(C): Installment credit
(D): all of the above
25. What is/are medium term sources of finance
(A): Issue of share
(B): issue of debenture
(C): Loans from finacial insttitutions
(D): all of the above
26. what is/are paid up capital
(A): ordinary shares
(B): preference shares
(C): deferred shares
(D): all of the above
27. what is/are reserved surplus
(A): capital resrve
(B): developmentt rebate reserve
(C): both a & b
(D): none of the above
28. what is/are the main criteria of finance
(A): production
(B): employment generation
(C): modernization
(D): all of the above
29. The sucess of small scale industry soley depend upon one’s doing the ………………
(A): right things at right time
(B): finance
(C): Human resource
(D): marketing
30. what is/are the phase of development of SSI
(A): selection if small industry and prepartaion of feasibility and project report
(B): accommodation , power and other infrastrtual facilities
(C): finance
(D): all of the above
31. What is/are the steps involving in preparing the promotion plan
(A): project implementation
(B): feedback
(C): commercial production
(D): all of the above
32. what is/are the steps of creating nad propelling a fast growing company
(A): from idea to launch
(B): getting started and early funding
(C): getting ready to scale up
(D): all of the above
33. what is the steps involving in preparing the promotion plan
(A): conceivinf the business idea
(B): screeing the ideas
(C): business analysis
(D): all of the above
34. the district industries centre programme was launched on ………………
(A): May 8, 1978
(B): June 10, 1979
(C): May 8, 1980
(D): June 10, 1982
35. in which area SIDCO offers a consultancy services
(A): Quality Control
(B): Production
(C): Finance
(D): All of the above
36. The business should trive for
(A): innovation
(B): invention
(C): modernization
(D): all of the above
37. why younger generation should be trained
(A): they know how a business is run
(B): what all activities take place everyday in a business
(C): ahat problem might arise and how they can be solved
(D): all the above
38. Which city was considered Manchester of India
(A): Ahmadabad
(B): Gandhinagar
(C): Surat
(D): Mumbai
39. Finance is a key input of…………………
(A): Production
(B): Distribution
(C): Development
(D): all of the above
40. In which area SIDCO offers a consultancy services
(A): technical
(B): managerial
(C): marketing
(D): all of the above
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Innovation in Business & Enterprise
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1 Discuss briefly the role of cultural, social, economic and personality factors responsible for growth of innovations.
2 What are the main hurdles faced in impleting innovations in businesses and enterprises.
3 Briefly discuss the role of leadership in creating an innovative environment in businesses..
4 Explain how innovation is used by businesses to achieve sutainable competitive advantage? Support your response with examples.
5 What are the key characteristics of an innovative organisation?
6 Discuss innovation as a disruptive technology. Give examples
7 Discuss the main tenets of static versus radical innovation.
8 Discuss Handerson and Clark model of innovations. Give bexamples.
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(Case Study)
Procter & Gamble(P&G)

While P&G is widely recognized for its marketing might, its legacy as an innovator is equally rich. Over its 175-year history, the Cincinnati firm has consistently created new categories of consumer goods — from the first disposable diaper (Pampers) to the first toothpaste with fluoride (Crest) to the first synthetic laundry detergent (Tide).
The problem of growth
But in March of 2000, a slight decline in P&G’s sales and an earnings warning sent its stock price tumbling. By June, P&G named a new CEO, A.G. Lafley, who brought in fresh thinking about corporate strategy and welcomed new perspectives on innovation. When an internal analysis revealed that only 15% of innovation projects were meeting success targets, senior executives began searching for ways to turn around this key metric.
During this time, a number of top P&G leaders were exploring ideas in The Innovator’s Dilemma, the groundbreaking book by Innosight co-founder Clay Christensen. And not long after, P&G began collaborating with an Innosight team to build innovation capabilities that would spawn new brands and business models. The idea was to institute a process that was analogous to a factory — making innovation systematic, repeatable and reliable.
Innovation assembly lines
Via its new Connect & Develop program, P&G stepped up the sourcing of raw materials — in the form of product ideas from outside the company. “It didn’t matter where the ideas came from,” says Nathan Estruth, vice president of P&G FutureWorks. “We had to systematize a process to find them, to partner, to bring them in, and to turn raw ideas into innovations in our growth factory.”
A key part of improving its innovation success rate was setting up “innovation assembly lines” by seeking growth from four major categories of innovation:
1. sustaining innovations to improve on existing products (i.e Gillette Fusion)
2. disruptive innovations that bring high-end services to mass markets (i.e Crest White Strips)
3. transformative innovations based on performance breakthroughs (i.e Olay Pro-X)
4. commercial innovations to enhance the consumer experience (i.e BrandSaver events)
Small bets labs
Innosight’s “emergent strategy” approach of testing and refining market approaches was applied to a string of new product ideas.
For instance, P&G had tapped into university research for a potentially transformative innovation: a probiotic supplement to improve digestive health. But there was a large degree of uncertainty as to whether the new dietary product, called Align, was a worthwhile opportunity.
Instead of committing to a national retail launch, P&G created a website and promoted Align in just three mid-sized metro areas. “We placed a small bet,” says Bruce Brown, P&G’s Chief Technology Officer. “And that was one of the smartest things we did in terms of rapidly progressing the Align brand.”
P&G also conducted a small-scale market trial for the concept of attaching the venerable Tide brand to a new consumer experience. Deploying “jobs to be done” research, P&G found that there was high dissatisfaction with existing dry cleaners and potential room for a national brand.
Tide Dry Cleaners was initially launched in just two or three locations. That allowed P&G to refine the customer value proposition and the operating plan before it began to scale to more locations.
Innovation transformation
All in all, thousands of P&Gers applied its improved innovation framework to scores of new projects and products. “Innosight has been a close partner in P&G’s innovation transformation,” said A.G. Lafley, who retired in 2010 but returned as CEO in May 2013.
The result is that P&G has dramatically improved its innovation success rate, moving from about 15% to over 50%, meaning about half of its new product efforts are meeting benchmarks for success. That has helped boost overall corporate performance. Over the decade, P&G’s revenue more than doubled, and profits quintupled.
The commitment to the growth factory principles has continued through management changes, including the return of CEO A.G. Lafley in 2013. So it’s about more than just hitting financial numbers. “There is a confidence inside P&G,” says Estruth, “that the systematic approach enabled by Innosight will continue to drive our growth factory, and help us meet our goals for many years to come.”
Q.No 1: While P&G is known for its marketing its legacy as an innovative enterprise is equally rich. Discuss this statement in the light of the case study.
Q.No 2: The problem was that only 25% of the innovation products were meeting success targets. What in your opinion is the reason for this to be true?
Q.No 3: What stratey did P&G adopt to increase innovation success rate?
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1. Intrapreneurship isn’t just about coming up with a new product – although this is a great example of Intrapreneurial behavior. It could be taking an existing product………
(A): to new heights
(B): developing new markets
(C): improving efficiencies – all manners in which the company is propelled forwards towards its goals
(D): all of these
2. Intrapreneurship mobilizes the individual to put their ………………………………into play to invigorate their career to maximise their personal potential and achievements
(A): talents
(B): creativity
(C): passion
(D): all of these
3. Usually one finds vacancies being advertised for the following except
(A): Managers
(B): Sales representatives
(C): Scientists
(D): Intrapreneurs
4. Intrapreneurs are also seen as except one
(A): Agents of change
(B): Different
(C): people who think out of the box
(D): Non-performers
5. Based on ownership structure and Resource Authority -The Enabler, The Producer, The Opportunist and The advocate are the four models for…….
(A): Corporate Entrepreneurship
(B): Product Development
(C): Market Development
(D): None of these
6. All of the following are characteristics of an entrepreneurial opportunity except:
(A): attractive.
(B): achievable.
(C): affordable.
(D): value creating.
7. Which of the following are common causes of small business failure?
(A): high stress level
(B): poor management
(C): inability to cope with growth
(D): all of the above
8. One of the most significant strengths of small businesses is their ability to ______.
(A): organize
(B): innovate
(C): raise funds
(D): communicate
9. Which of the following is an advantage of an entrepreneurial unit?
(A): ability to gain a solid reputation
(B): flexibility and focus
(C): independence
(D): all of the above
10. Since Brian Thomas decided to purchase the rights to own and operate a Baskin Robbins ice cream shop rather than start his own operation, he is
(A): an entrepreneur.
(B): a franchisee.
(C): an industrialist.
(D): a franchiser
11. Which of the following is not an advantage of an entrepreneurial unit?
(A): lower cost of formation
(B): flexibility and focus
(C): independence
(D): high failure rate
12. Xerox, Apple Computer, and IBM have all done what in recent years to improve competitiveness?
(A): gone public
(B): hired new CEOs
(C): downsized
(D): all of the above
13. Dell Computers and Procter & Gamble began as what type of organization?
(A): limited partnerships
(B): hybrid organizations
(C): small businesses
(D): cooperatives
14. Entrepreneurial units can target their efforts toward a few key customers or on a precisely defined market niche. This advantage of small business is
(A): focus
(B): flexibility.
(C): reputation.
(D): hierarchical organization
15. To start any business you must first have
(A): a business plan.
(B): an idea.
(C): financial resources.
(D): all of the above
16. Estimates of income, estimates of expenses, an explanation of the business, and an analysis of the competition are typically included in the
(A): mission statement.
(B): corporate charter.
(C): business plan.
(D): corporate statement
17. Retailing, services, and high technology are attractive to entrepreneurs for which of the following reasons?
(A): High initial capital investment requirements and ease of entry
(B): Low initial capital investment requirements and difficulty of entry
(C): Low initial capital investment requirements and ease of entry
(D): High initial capital requirements and difficulty of entry
18. Which of the following best describes corporate entrepreneurship?
(A): Application of entrepreneurship within a firm
(B): Application of entrepreneurship on behalf of a firm by an outside party
(C): Application of entrepreneurship outside the firm
(D): Any application of entrepreneurship that affects the firm
19. What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities without regard to resources they currently control?
(A): Startup management
(B): Entrepreneurship
(C): Financial analysis
(D): Feasibility planning
20. Which one of the following may need the business plan?
(A): Employees
(B): Investors
(C): Advisors
(D): All of the given options We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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21. Strategic renewal is a____________
(A): Top down approach
(B): Bottom up approach
(C): Flanked entry approach
(D): all of the above
22. Corporate Entrepreneurship is a ____________
(A): Top down approach
(B): Bottom up approach
(C): Flanked entry approach
(D): all of the above
23. Quality/(ies) required for an entrepreneur to succeed is/are
(A): Focus
(B): Risk aversion
(C): power over people
(D): all of the above
24. In their organizations intrapreneurs are generally ….
(A): ridiculed
(B): isolated
(C): misfits
(D): all of the above
25. Which of the following is not a part of the organizational life cycle?
(A): Startup/growth
(B): maturity/decline
(C): renewal/death
(D): conceptualizing/product prototyping
26. The correct set of models of corporate entrepreneurship is….
(A): idealist/enabler/advocate/producer
(B): opportunist/enabler/advocate/humanist
(C): opportunist/enabler/advocate/producer
(D): opportunist/enabler/scientist/producer
27. A feasibility study contains a study of ……
(A): Market feasibility
(B): Finacial feasibilty
(C): Technical feasibility
(D): all of the above
28. The word Intrapreneurship was coined by…..
(A): Gifford & Pinchot
(B): Stevenson & Ginsberg
(C): Sandberg & MacDougall
(D): all of the above
29. Bootstrapping involves
(A): using one’s own resources
(B): help from family
(C): help from friends
(D): all of the above
30. The foure levels of corporate entrepreneurship are
(A): Enterprise level/ corporate level/business unit level/ functional level
(B): Top Management level/ middle management level/line manager level/ worker level
(C): Level 1/Level 2/Level 3/Level 4
(D): all of the above
31. Partnership between large companies and new entrepreneurial firms is a result of …..
(A): complimentarity
(B): flexibilty of smaller firms
(C): rigidity of large firms
(D): all of the above
32. To start a business one must first have
(A): idea
(B): product
(C): market
(D): finance
33. In corporate entrepreneurship the differences between management and promoters of ideas are because of…….
(A): differences in prospects
(B): lack of capital
(C): lack of resouces
(D): all of the above
34. Which of the following is an online connection between a company and its customers
(A): Internet advertising
(B): e-commerce
(C): website
(D): all of the above
35. Which of the following factor does not affect a person for being an entrepreneur?
(A): Family background
(B): Education
(C): Gender
(D): all of the above
36. Most of the finance for the new firm comes from following resources EXCEPT:
(A): Friends
(B): Foreign aid
(C): Relatives
(D): Personal savings
37. Which one of the following will necessarily need the business plan?
(A): Employees
(B): Investors
(C): Advisors
(D): All of the given options
38. Which of the following are detrimental to intrapreneurship
(A): Not enough insight into customers
(B): Lack of time and resources
(C): Risk adverse culture/ resistant to change
(D): All of the above

39. Which of the following model of entrepreneurshiphas a dedicated resouirce authority but a diffused organizational ownership structure
(A): opportunist
(B): enabler
(C): advocate
(D): producer
40. Which of the following model of entrepreneurshiphas a dedicated resouirce authority but a focussed organizational ownership structure
(A): opportunist
(B): enabler
(C): advocate
(D): producer
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Evaluating Business Opportunities

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1 Describe the key components of a Term Sheet.
2 Discuss briefly the various aspects of a feasibility study that are essentially considered before setting up a New Venture.
3 What are the main sources of finance for a new venture?
4 Conduct a SWOT analysis of any new business opportunity you know. Explain the different stages of the SWOT analysis
5 Business Plans have an executive summary. What is the purpose of an executive summary and what should it contain?
6 You have an opportunity to start the business of a cyber café. What steps would you take to help you decide if this business is a viable business opportunity for you or not?
7 Discuss the problems faced by first generation entrepreneurs.

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(Case Study)
TURNING GARBAGE INTO OPPORTUNITY
In 2003, Jim Poss , a solar technology energy expert, was walking down a Boston street when he noticed a trash vehicle in action. The truck was idling at a pickup point, blocking traffic, with smoke pouring out of its exhaust. Litter was still all over the street.

There has to be a better way, he thought to himself.

Through discussions with diverse stakeholders, he turned the problem upside down: the answer might not be about developing a more efficient collection process, but about reducing the need for frequent trash collection. As he considered this solution, he discovered multiple benefits: if trash receptacles held more trash, they would not need to be emptied so often; if trash did not need to be collected so often, collection costs and associated pollution would be reduced; and if receptacles did not overflow, there would be less litter on the streets. There were many advantages to this approach.

By applying the solar technology he used at work, Poss envisioned how a new machine might better manage trash. His initial concept of a solar-powered trash compactor was dismissed in favor of other ideas for environmentally friendly inventions, including a machine that would generate electricity from the movement of the ocean. Nonetheless the problem and the potential solutions continued to occupy his mind.

His assembled team experimented with a variety of options and finally returned to — “The Big Belly” — an innovation that provides clear solutions to the problems he noted on the city street that day. The current version can hold up to five times more trash than traditional receptacles. As a result, it dramatically decreases the frequency of trash pickup and cuts fuel use and trash-truck emissions by up to 80 percent.
Thus he could turn garbage into an opportunity.
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Q.No 1: Discuss about Jim’s core competence.
Q.No 2: Jim did not try to do something new but something differently. Discuss this statement in the light of the case study.
Q.No 3: Instead of making a/an (efficient trash collection process) he reduced the need for…………………………….
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1. Which of the following ratio will be helpful for assessing the firm’s capital structure?
(A): Current ratio
(B): Acid test ratio
(C): Profitability ratio
(D): Debt to equity ratio

2. Which of the following factor can create the HRM related difficulties in joint ventures between foreign companies?
(A): Cultural differences
(B): Economic policies
(C): Public ignorance
(D): Government taxes

3. Which of the following makes the formation of new venture difficult within a corporate culture?
(A): Lack of intrapreneurial talent
(B): Lack of freedom to make autonomous decisions
(C): Lack of market opportunity
(D): All of the given options

4. Barriers to new product creation and development are known as:
(A): Trial and error
(B): Opportunity parameters
(C): Opportunity cost
(D): Intrapreneurship culture

5. Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?
(A): Idea Stage
(B): Product Planning Stage
(C): Product Development Stage
(D): Test Marketing Stage

6. Who should prepare the business plan?
(A): Entrepreneurs
(B): Consultants
(C): Engineers
(D): Small business administration services

7. Which of the following is NOT among the three perspectives that should be considered in preparing a business plan?
(A): Marketing perspective
(B): Perspective of the entrepreneur
(C): Investor perspective
(D): Technical perspective
8. Which of the following is a liquidity ratio?
(A): Acid test ratio
(B): Average collection period
(C): Inventory turnover
(D): Debt to equity ratio
9. Which of the following is the key factor for choosing the type of financing?
(A): Availability of funds
(B): Assets of the venture
(C): Prevailing interest rates
(D): All of the above options

10. Which of the following analysis represent the review of “where the company has been”?
(A): Situation analysis
(B): Competitor Analysis
(C): Goal analysis
(D): Program Analysis
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11. An entrepreneur is someone who is willing to take a _____________________ to start or expand a business.
(A): risk
(B): profit
(C): opportunity
(D): all of these

12. The amount left over after a business subtracts all costs from total sales revenues is called _____________________.
(A): cash
(B): profit
(C): dividend
(D): EBIT

13. A ______________________ is a type of business organization
(A): proprietorship
(B): partnership
(C): pvt ltd company
(D): all of these

14. Which of the following is not a productive resource?
(A): water
(B): money
(C): teacher
(D): hammer
15. An entrepreneur must pay to get productive resources because they are:
(A): scarce
(B): expensive
(C): in great supply
(D): likely to be taxed

16. To be successful, a business must:
(A): produce goods instead of services.
(B): produce goods or services with a high price.
(C): produce goods or services that consumers want.
(D): produce goods or services using mostly capital resources

17. Joshi bought a soccer ball for $20 from a local soccer store. As a result of this purchase
(A): Joshi gained, but the store lost.
(B): both Joshi and the store lost.
(C): both Joshiand the store gained.
(D): the store gained, but Joshi lost

18. Robert and Erica want to produce candles, birdhouses, and refrigerator magnets. They only have enough time to produce one of them. Producing candles is their first choice, birdhouses their second choice, and magnets their third choice. They choose to p
(A): producing the candles
(B): producing the magnets
(C): producing the birdhouses
(D): producing the birdhouses and the magnets
19. Sam, Tony, and Willie run a cookie business. In the business, Sam mixes the dough, Tony cuts the cookies, and Willie bakes them. The different jobs the boys have is an example of:
(A): marketing
(B): specialization
(C): marginal cost
(D): economic exchange
20. In the cookie business in the question above, Sam, Tony, and Willie have different jobs because they want to:
(A): learn different jobs.
(B): make more cookies.
(C): increase the price of their cookies.
(D): increase the demand for their cookies
21. Sharma gets aRs.500 loan from the bank to start a business. She must pay back the Rs.500 bank loan and also pay the bank
(A): interest.
(B): dividends.
(C): excess profits.
(D): production costs
22. Joshi and Sharma pass out flyers to advertise their lawn mowing business. By advertising, they are hoping to increase the ___________________ for their mowing services.
(A): supply
(B): demand
(C): capital costs
(D): opportunity costs

23. Kelli has a cookie business. The table below shows the sales revenues and the explicit costs of her cookie business – wages, ingredients, and rent. What is Kelli’s profit? Sales revenues
(A): $60
(B): $120
(C): $45
(D): $15

24. Which is not a way that entrepreneurs raise money to start a business?
(A): savings
(B): borrow
(C): issue stock
(D): collect taxes
25. For the success of business plan the goals should be
(A): Limitless
(B): Generalized
(C): Specific
(D): Imaginary

26. LLP stands for
(A): Limited Liability Payment
(B): Limited Labled Part
(C): Letter of Late Payment
(D): None of the above

27. Which one of the factors should be considered while assessing the space for business?
(A): Parking
(B): Access from roadways to facility
(C): Delivery rates
(D): All of the given options
28. A contract must be signed by:
(A): At least one party
(B): Both the parties
(C): Not necessary to sign
(D): By third party
29. While assessing a loan proposal, lenders are primarily interested in the:
(A): Personal relationship
(B): Ability to pay back loan
(C): Progress of the venture
(D): Markets or the product

30. Which of the followings give the owners a negative right, preventing anyone from making, using, or selling the invention?
(A): Patent
(B): Copyright
(C): Trade mark
(D): Trade secret
31. The stages of financing in a new venmture are
(A): Seed
(B): Start up
(C): Second stage
(D): Third stage and IPO
32. At the seed stage the venture is financed from
(A): own sources
(B): angels
(C): venture capitalists
(D): banks

33. Bootstrapping is arranging funds from
(A): own sources
(B): outside sources
(C): angels
(D): banks

34. Risk in any venture is highest at the
(A): seed stage
(B): startup stage
(C): first stage
(D): second stage

35. Term sheet is
(A): an agreement
(B): an undertaking
(C): legally enforceable in a court of law
(D): a document containing he agreed upon terms and conditions between the entrepreneur and the financer

36. Investment preferences are based on
(A): industry and amount of investment
(B): stage of venture
(C): geographic locations
(D): all of these
37. The basic qualities that financers look for in a new venture while evaluating business opportunities are
(A): management team
(B): marketability of he product
(C): proprietory rights or innovations
(D): differentition and competitive advantage
38. Due diligence is ghe process of
(A): checking and validating the information presented to the VC by the venture
(B): asking the venture capitalist for more margins
(C): preparing for the IPO
(D): divesting the venture to other parties
39. Legal documentation is prepared after the
(A): due diligence
(B): seed stage
(C): feasibility study
(D): Business Plan preparation

40. Pre money valuation is equal to
(A): post money valuation-new investment
(B): post money valuation + new investment
(C): post money valuation * new investment
(D): post money valuation / new investment

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Entrepreneurship Process & Behavior
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1 Briefly explain the motivations for starting a new business enterprise.
2 Discuss briefly the role of cultural, social, economic and personality factors responsible for growth of entrepreneurial enterprises.
3 What is creative destruction? Elucidate with examples.
4 Discuss the behaviourial characteristics of an entrepreneur in terms of the model for entrepreneurial decision making.
5 Out of the leadership styles that you have studied which do you think is best suited for an entrepreneur like you and why?
6 Discuss the phases of an organizational’s lifecycle.
7 Do you think profit maximisation is the main motivation to entrepreneurial behaviour? Discuss your response with examples.
8 Discuss David Kolb’s model for a successful entrepreneur.
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(Case Study)
HENRY FORD-THE ENTREPRENEUR
In September 1891, Ford joined the Edison Illuminating Company (EIC) in Detroit as a night operating engineer at its sub-station at Woodward and Willis (Detroit) at a monthly salary of $45. In just a couple of years, he became the Chief Engineer, earning $100 per month. His responsibilities included ensuring uninterrupted electric supply in the city for all 24 hours in a day. The work schedule and timings were highly irregular, but this provided him the much-needed opportunity, time and finances to carry out his own experiments on internal combustion engines. Ford experimented with petrol-driven engines and horseless carriages for many years. In the early 1890s, he labored to develop a cost-effective small farm tractor.
He was successful in building a steam tractor with a single cylinder engine, but failed to make a suitable boiler light, which would make the tractor operational. In 1892, he put together a “gasoline buggy” with two cylinder engines which generated 4HP (horsepower). His experiments finally yielded results in June 1896, when he came out with his new invention – a self-driven vehicle called ‘Quadricycle.’ The quadricycle was a 4 HP vehicle, consisting of four wire wheels similar to heavy bicycle wheels, powered with a handle like a boat, and had only two forward speeds, with no backpedal.
The chassis of the quadricycle was placed on the four bicycle wheels. Richard S. Tedlow (Tedlow), Harvard Business School professor, said, “Henry Ford had done what not one top automobile executive in the world could do today. He had built a complete car with his bare hands.”Commending the great invention of the quadricycle, another writer Sidney Olson said, “To non-mechanical people, which mean most people, the natural question about his first car may be: What took him so long? Well, there was no such thing as a spark plug; it hadn’t been invented.
Answer Section
Q.No 1: In the light of the case study discuss the factors that enabled Henry Ford to work on his inventions.
Q.No 2: Ford’s failures and persistence led to the invention of the quadricycle. Discuss this int light of entrepreneurial behaviour.
Q.No 3: For an entrepreneur seed capital is one of the biggest hurdles in starting an enterprise. Discuss how Ford overcame this hurdle?
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1. Which of the following model of entrepreneurship has a dedicated resouirce authority but a diffused organizational ownership structure
(A): opportunist
(B): enabler
(C): advocate
(D): producer

2. Which of the following model of entrepreneurship has a dedicated resouirce authority but a focussed organizational ownership structure
(A): opportunist
(B): enabler
(C): advocate
(D): producer
3. Which of the following model of entrepreneurshiphas an ad hoc resouirce authority but a diffused organizational ownership structure
(A): opportunist
(B): enabler
(C): advocate
(D): producer
4. Which of the following model of entrepreneurship has an ad hoc resouirce authority but a focussed organizational ownership structure
(A): opportunist
(B): enabler
(C): advocate
(D): producer
5. Skunkworks’ is the name given to
(A): develop an airframe around the most powerful jet engine
(B): develop an engine for the mercedes car company
(C): develop a rocket fulel for the NASA
(D): all of the above
6. Which of the following is/are correct for the equation E = BM + BMV + SE + P + 26X + C (s) + L
(A): SE=Sweat Equity and BM=Business Model
(B): 26X= 26 unknown factors and P=Partnering
(C): C(s)=Capital sometimes, and L=Luck
(D): all of the above
7. Which of the following is/are true for entrepreneurial organizations
(A): Balance central/top down control with entrepreneurial freedom of movement.
(B): Efficiency is still required to deliver today’s products profitably.
(C): Being profitable today while creating the future requires a balance of efficiency and entrepreneurial flexibility.
(D): all of the above
8. Which of the following factor does not affect a person for being anentrepreneur
(A): Family background
(B): Education
(C): Personal values
(D): Gender
9. Which one of the following will necessarily need the business plan?
(A): Employees
(B): Investors
(C): Advisors
(D): All of them
10. Intrapreneurial activity includes the following except
(A): New business venturing
(B): Increasing productivity
(C): Proactiveness
(D): Innovativeness
11. Which of the following statement about the intrapreneurial climate is true?
(A): Trial and error are discouraged
(B): Resources of the firm need to be available and easily accessible
(C): A multidisciplinary approach is discouraged
(D): Failures are not allowed
12. Blue Ocean strategy refers to
(A): making new products
(B): competing in existing markets
(C): Making competions redundant
(D): None of these
13. Individuals influencing an entrepreneur’s career choice and style are known as which of the following?
(A): Role model
(B): Moral-support network
(C): Professional support network
(D): Support system
14. The activity which occurs when the new venture is started is called:
(A): Motivation
(B): Business skills
(C): Departure point
(D): Goal orientation
15. The level at which an individual is viewed by society is called:
(A): Financial status
(B): Qualification
(C): Social status
(D): Achievement
16. Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to their familiarity with the needs of market?
(A): Existing products and services
(B): Distribution channels
(C): Federal government
(D): Consumers
17. Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:
(A): They are familiar with the needs of the market
(B): They earn a handsome profit from new business
(C): They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss
(D): They have well-developed sales force
18. Which one of the following is the most important characteristic of a successful business website?
(A): Speed
(B): Innovation
(C): Graphics
(D): Products
19. Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?
(A): Idea Stage
(B): Product Planning Stage
(C): Product Development Stage
(D): Test Marketing Stage We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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20. Why should an entrepreneur do a feasibility study for starting a new venture?
(A): To see if there are possible barriers to success
(B): To identify possible sources of funds
(C): To estimate the expected sales
(D): To explore potential customers
21. Information regarding all of the following is related to operations, EXCEPT:
(A): Location
(B): Promotion
(C): Raw materials
(D): Labor skills
22. Which of the following is a method of selling goods to another country by taking care of transactions?
(A): Indirect exporting
(B): Direct exporting
(C): Importing
(D): Management contract
23. Which of the following analysis represent the review of “where the company has been”?
(A): Situation analysis
(B): Competitor Analysis
(C): Goal analysis
(D): Program Analysis
24. Which of the following is a separate entity that involves a partnership of two or more participants?
(A): Merger
(B): Joint venture
(C): Corporation
(D): Acquisition
25. Which of the following plan describes market conditions and strategy related to products?
(A): Production plan
(B): Operational plan
(C): Financial plan
(D): Marketing plan
26. Which one of the following guide the firm through the long term decision making?
(A): Mission statement
(B): Product forecast
(C): Industry analysis
(D): None of the given options
27. The resistance of employees in an organization against flexibility, growth, and diversification can be overcome by developing:
(A): Entrepreneurship
(B): Intrapreneurship
(C): Managerial domain
(D): Administrative domain
28. __________ is commonly used to measure the short-term solvency of the venture?
(A): Debt to equity ratio
(B): Current ratio
(C): Profitability ratio
(D): Activity ratio
29. A contract must be signed by:
(A): At least one party
(B): Both the parties
(C): By third party
(D): None of these
30. Which of the following shows the example of collateral?
(A): Real State
(B): Shares
(C): Tangible property
(D): All of the given options
31. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a marketing plan?
(A): It should be flexible
(B): It should be long and detailed
(C): It should be based on facts and valid assumptions
(D): It should provide a strategy
32. The full form of MSME is:
(A): Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(B): Mini, Small and Multinational Enrerprises
(C): Minute, Small and Macro Entities
(D): None of these
33. Sharma gets aRs.500 loan from the bank to start a business. She must pay back the Rs.500 bank loan and also pay the bank
(A): interest.
(B): dividends.
(C): excess profits.
(D): production costs
34. Joshi and Sharma pass out flyers to advertise their lawn mowing business. By advertising, they are hoping to increase the ___________________ for their mowing services.
(A): supply
(B): demand
(C): capital costs
(D): opportunity costs
35. Kelli has a cookie business. The table below shows the sales revenues and the explicit costs of her cookie business – wages, ingredients, and rent. What is Kelli’s profit? Sales revenues
(A): $60
(B): $120
(C): $45
(D): $15
36. Which is not a way that entrepreneurs raise money to start a business?
(A): savings
(B): borrow
(C): issue stock
(D): collect taxes
37. For the success of business plan the goals should be
(A): Limitless
(B): Generalized
(C): Specific
(D): Imaginary
38. LLP stands for
(A): Limited Liability Payment
(B): Limited Labled Part
(C): Letter of Late Payment
(D): None of the given options
39. Which one of the factors should be considered while assessing the space for business?
(A): Parking
(B): Access from roadways to facility
(C): Delivery rates
(D): All of the given options
40. A contract must be signed by:
(A): At least one party
(B): Both the parties
(C): Not necessary to sign
(D): By third party
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Economic Theory & Applications
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1 How could you check whether the instruments are weak? Explain.
2 What is an Economic problem? Give examples.
3 Explain the law of supply.
4 Explain the Revenue concepts. Prepare a Revenue Schedule and draw curves.
5 State and explain Circular Flow of Income and Expenditure.
6 Describe the Price and Output Determination under Monopoly.
7 Critically examine the Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest.
8 Describe Price and Output Determination under Monopolistic Competition.
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Case Study: Government intervention
In Germany in 2009 there was considerable debate about the extent to which the government should be intervening in the economy.
For example, its citizens were worried about the future of Opel, a German car brand that was part of the ailing General Motors. Some wanted the government to make sure jobs were saved no matter what. Others, however, were more hesitant and worried about becoming the government becoming too interventionist. Traditionally since the Second World War the German government has seen itself as a referee in market issues and has avoided trying to control parts of the economy. It would regulate anti-competitive behaviour, for example, but not try to run many industries. However in the recession of 2009 when the economy was shrinking the government was forced to spend more to stimulate demand and had to intervene heavily to save the banking sector from collapse. The government also had to offer aid to businesses to keep them alive.
Q.No 1: What are the possible benefits of a government intervening in an economy?
Q.No 2: What prompted greater intervention by the German government in 2009?
Q.No 3: What would determine whether the German continued to intervene on this scale in the future?
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1. A qualitative forecast
(A): predicts the quality of a new product.
(B): predicts the direction, but not the magnitude, of change in a variable.
(C): is a forecast that is classified on a numerical scale from 1 (poor quality) to 10 (perfect quality).
(D): is a forecast that is based on econometric methods.
2. Which of the following is not a qualitative forecasting technique?
(A): Surveys of consumer expenditure plans
(B): Perspectives of foreign advisory councils
(C): Consumer intention polling
(D): Time-series analysis
3. The first step in time-series analysis is to
(A): perform preliminary regression calculations.
(B): calculate a moving average.
(C): plot the data on a graph.
(D): identify relevant correlated variables.
4. Forecasts are referred to as naive if they
(A): are based only on past values of the variable.
(B): are short-term forecasts.
(C): are long-term forecasts
(D): generally result in incorrect forecasts.
5. Time-series analysis is based on the assumption that
(A): random error terms are normally distributed.
(B): there are dependable correlations between the variable to be forecast and other independent variables.
(C): past patterns in the variable to be forecast will continue unchanged into the future.
(D): the data do not exhibit a trend.
6. Which of the following is not one of the four types of variation that is estimated in time-series analysis?
(A): Predictable
(B): Trend
(C): Cyclical
(D): Irregular
7. The cyclical component of time-series data is usually estimated using
(A): linear regression analysis.
(B): moving averages.
(C): exponential smoothing.
(D): qualitative methods.
8. In time-series analysis, which source of variation can be estimated by the ratio-to-trend method?
(A): Cyclical
(B): Trend
(C): Seasonal
(D): Irregular
9. If regression analysis is used to estimate the linear relationship between the natural logarithm of the variable to be forecast and time, then the slope estimate is equal to
(A): the linear trend.
(B): the natural logarithm of the rate of growth.
(C): the natural logarithm of one plus the rate of growth.
(D): the natural logarithm of the square root of the rate of growth.
10. The use of a smoothing technique is appropriate when
(A): random behavior is the primary source of variation.
(B): seasonality is present.
(C): data exhibit a strong trend.
(D): all of the above are correct.
11. The greatest smoothing effect is obtained by using
(A): a moving average based on a small number of periods.
(B): exponential smoothing with a small weight value.
(C): the root-mean-square error.
(D): the barometric method.
12. The root-mean-square error is a measure of
(A): sample size.
(B): moving average periods.
(C): exponential smoothing.
(D): forecast accuracy.
13. Barometric methods are used to forecast
(A): seasonal variation.
(B): secular trend.
(C): cyclical variation.
(D): irregular variation.
14. A leading indicator is a measure that usually
(A): changes at the same time and in the same direction as the general economy.
(B): responds to a change in the general economy after a time lag.
(C): changes in the same direction as the general economy before the general economy changes.
(D): has all of the properties listed above.
15. If 3 of the leading indicators move up, 2 move down, and the remaining 6 are constant, then the diffusion index is
(A): 3/6 = 50%
(B): 3/11 = 27%
(C): 5/11 = 45%
(D): 6/11 = 55%
16. A single-equation econometric model of the demand for a product is a ________ equation in which the quantity demanded of the product is an ________ variable.
(A): structural, exogenous
(B): structural, endogenous
(C): definitional, exogenous
(D): definitional, endogenous
17. A reduce form equation expresses
(A): an exogenous variable as a function of endogenous variables.
(B): an endogenous variable as a function of exogenous variables.
(C): an exogenous variable as a function of both endogenous and exogenous variables.
(D): an endogenous variable as a function of both exogenous and endogenous variables.

18. Trend projection is an example of which kind of forecasting?
(A): Qualitative
(B): Time-series
(C): Barometric
(D): Econometric
19. Turning points in the level of economic activity can be forecast by using
(A): Time-series analysis
(B): Exponential smoothing
(C): Barometric methods
(D): Moving average
20. Econometric forecasts require
(A): accurate estimates of the coefficients of structural equations.
(B): forecasts of future values of exogenous variables.
(C): appropriate theoretical models.
(D): all of the above. We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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21. Which of the following is an example of a capital input?
(A): Money.
(B): Shares of stock.
(C): Long-term bonds.
(D): A hammer. 22. Which of the following is an example of an intermediate product?
(A): A personal computer.
(B): A barrel of crude oil.
(C): A sports car.
(D): A house.
23. Customers are normally classified as part of a firm’s:
(A): contextual environment.
(B): internal environment.
(C): operational environment.
(D): general environment.
24. Microeconomic influences are defined as those which:
(A): affect smaller businesses.
(B): are related to changes in economic aggregates.
(C): operate at the level of the firm, industry or market.
(D): operate on an economy-wide basis.
25. Economic scarcity refers to:
(A): a general shortage of goods available for consumption.
(B): shortages of a particular good available for consumption.
(C): finite demands for resources coupled with infinite resources.
(D): infinite demands for resources coupled with finite resources.

26. If the government has an extra £5billion to spend on healthcare or education over the next 2 years and chooses to spend it on healthcare, then the ‘real cost’ of this decision is:
(A): £2.5 billion per year of extra spending.
(B): £5 billion spent on healthcare.
(C): £5billion spent on healthcare divided by the size of the population.
(D): £5 billion not spent on education.
27. An economy in which most decisions on resource allocation are taken by the government is known as:
(A): a capitalist economy.
(B): a command economy.
(C): a free enterprise economy.
(D): a market-based economy.
28. Which of the following does not necessarily apply to a market?
(A): It involves the processes of demand and supply.
(B): It is found in a given geographical location.
(C): It involves interaction between buyers and sellers.
(D): It is a mechanism designed to effect exchange.
29. Which of the following is NOT TRUE of the process of outsourcing?
(A): It results in the sharing of risk between both companies.
(B): It allows the outsourcing company complete control over production.
(C): It can cuts production costs for the outsourcing company.
(D): It allows the outsourcing firm to concentrate on it’s core competencies.

30. When a company outsources production but the employees of the sub-contractor company do not put in sufficient effort, this is an example of:
(A): division of labour.
(B): vertical integration.
(C): adverse selection.
(D): moral hazard.
31. If you hired a painter to decorate your house, you would be:
(A): the principal.
(B): an intermediary.
(C): the agent.
(D): a network.
32. Vertical integration refers to the process:
(A): where a company undertakes successive stages of the production process.
(B): where a company diversifies into other markets.
(C): where a company opens a branch overseas.
(D): where production takes place as part of a team.
33. In the Resource Based View of the firm the firms’ resources are divided into three types. Which of the following is NOT one of those types?
(A): Physical capital resources.
(B): Organisational capital resources
(C): Land physical resources.
(D): Human capital resources.
34. Which of the following would make a firm MORE likely to outsource an activity?
(A): The activity is standardised.
(B): The activity is very important for the organisation.
(C): Specific assets are required for the activity.
(D): The activity took place only infrequently.
35. Which of the following is NOT an organisational structure recognized by the theoretical literature?
(A): Divisional structure.
(B): Government organisation.
(C): Functional organisation.
(D): Matrix organisation.
36. A demand function for a product is constructed on the assumption that all the following remain constant except:
(A): the price of alternative goods.
(B): consumers’ tastes.
(C): disposable income.
(D): the price of the product.
37. Which of the following would shift the demand curve for a specific brand of ice-cream to the left?
(A): A fall in the price of the above brand.
(B): The onset of hot weather.
(C): A fall in the price of a rival brand.
(D): An increase in disposable income.
38. Which of the below conditions will result in the appearance of a ‘Giffen Good’?
(A): The good is inferior.
(B): The good is inferior and following a fall in price the income effect is greater than the substitution effect.
(C): The good is seen as unpopular.
(D): The good takes up a relatively small amount of consumers’ disposable income.
39. Consumer surplus comes about as a result of:
(A): consumers having a strong desire for the good.
(B): the consumer having an excess of disposable income.
(C): the producer charging a different price for each unit consumed.
(D): the consumer being willing to pay more than the market price.

40. The value of price elasticity as price falls on a downward sloping linear demand curve that starts at a point on the price axis and finishes at a point on the quantity axis:
(A): is always elastic so long as the curve is relatively shallow.
(B): will become increasingly less elastic as you move down the curve.
(C): is constant due to the linearity of the demand curve.
(D): is always inelastic so long as the slope of the demand curve is relatively steep We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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1 As HR manager, would you prefer make or buy strategy for talent managent for your organization. State suitable justification for your option.
2 Explain the Idea of Multi-Skill working as the recent trend in HR Management
3 Talent acquisition could be eaiser than retention. Evaluate the sentence
4 For the three primary causes of voluntary turnover (desirability of leaving, ease of leaving, alternatives), might their relative importance depend on the type of
employee or type of job? Explain.
5 Which of the costs and benefits of voluntary turnover are most likely to vary according to type of job? Give examples.
6 Explain the reason why job analysis is important to an organization. Define and discuss the relationship among job analyis, job description and job specification.
7 Why should an organization seek to retain employees with performance or discipline problems? Why not just fire them?
8 Discuss Kirkpatic model of training evaluation.
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Modern Machining Works is a manufacturing unit with total strength of 50 workers grouped in e few sections or departments . Ram rao Deshmukh is working there for the last twenty five years as a technician in Section ( I ) . He knows all the activities there . He is sincere and efficient .
Considering all this , company made him Production officer in-charge for his section ( I ) and section ( II ) . Initially he felt satisfied and rewarded . But later on he started feeling difficulties . While he was confident about all aspects of Section I .. men , machines , processes , he was not familiar with section II which made him feel inferior. Also , section II was on upper floor. Running about and going up-and down made him tired . As such he started remaining in Section I only on the pretext of some urgent work. Also he started remaining absent under the excuse of sickness.
His happiness on account of promotion was fading out .

Answer Section
Q.No 1: Should Ram rao decline the promotion and request the management to let him resume his earlier position ?
Q.No 2: Should the production manager follow recent Trend of employing only highly qualified persons?
Q.No 3: What should be the approach of Ram rao for success ?
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1. In talent management end to end process, workforce compensation management leads to
(A): succession planning
(B): performance management
(C): learning management systems
(D): e-recruiting
2. Professional competence and consistency is exhibited by
(A): effective mentors
(B): performance manager
(C): appraisal manager
(D): none of above 3. Modifying selection procedures for senior employees is a step towards
(A): keeping retirees
(B): keeping employees
(C): retirement benefits
(D): talent management

4. Process of attracting, selecting, training and promoting employees through a particular firm is called
(A): phased retirement
(B): preretirement counseling
(C): talent management
(D): modifying selection procedure
5. In talent management end to end process, workforce and succession planning leads to
(A): compensation management
(B): performance management
(C): learning management systems
(D): e-recruiting
6. Coordination of workforce acquisition is futile part of
(A): phased retirement
(B): pre-retirement counseling
(C): talent management
(D): modifying selection procedure
7. In career development focus, matching job and individual competencies is part of
(A): training and development
(B): performance appraisal
(C): recruiting and placement
(D): compensation and benefits
8. Offering flexible part-time work, to retirement age senior employees is a technique to
(A): keep retirees
(B): keep employees
(C): retirement benefits
(D): talent management
9. People having ‘social work’ as their careers are classified as
(A): realistic orientation
(B): investigative orientation
(C): social orientation
(D): artistic orientation
10. Career stage, in which person age is between 45 and 65 is concluded as
(A): exploration stage
(B): growth stage
(C): midcareer crisis sub stage
(D): maintenance stage
11. Loss of customer contacts, break-in time of employees and unfamiliarity with products of organization are classified as
(A): separation costs
(B): productivity costs
(C): training costs
(D): hiring costs
12. Exit interview time, expenses of unemployment and legal fees of challenged separations are classified as
(A): training costs
(B): Hiring cost
(C): separation cost
(D): productivity cost
13. Recruiting expense, relocation costs and employment testing costs are classified as
(A): separation costs
(B): productivity costs
(C): training costs
(D): hiring costs
14. Kind of interviews taken place in organizations to ask about possible reasons leads to job turnover are classified as
(A): employee firing interviews
(B): transfer interviews
(C): termination interviews
(D): exit interviews
15. Number of employees separation during a specific period is divided by number of employees at midmonth and is multiplied to 100 is used to calculate
(A): absenteeism rate
(B): satisfaction rate
(C): turnover rate
(D): employment rate
16. In Lewin organization change process, introduction of new attitudes and behaviors is included in
(A): unfreezing stage
(B): moving stage
(C): refreezing stage
(D): nonmoving stage
17. Comparison of on-the-job behavior before and after training programs can be classified as
(A): measuring reaction
(B): measuring learning
(C): measuring behavior
(D): measuring result
18. Training technique, which allows trainees to solve problems and work in different departments is called
(A): job rotation
(B): action learning
(C): lifelong learning
(D): management development

19. Changing process in which change is formulated and implemented by employees is called
(A): organizational development
(B): organizational change
(C): lewin change process
(D): Maslow’s change hierarchy
20. A systematic method to teach skills for job while presenting facts and getting feedback is called
(A): job rotation
(B): off job training
(C): job instruction training
(D): programmed learning We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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21. _____ is attributing our own thoughts and feeling to others.
(A): Stereotyping
(B): Halo effect
(C): Projection
(D): All of the above
22. Which of these is one of the six habits that distorts the communication process?
(A): Dismissing a subject prematurely as uninteresting
(B): Message can be understood in different ways
(C): Failure of mechanical equipment
(D): None of the above
23. Safe, efficient and effective practices necessary for smooth and lawful business operations are classified as
(A): retaliation necessity
(B): business necessity
(C): disparate necessity
(D): All of the above
24. Most flexible type of training in which employees are trained while performing tasks and responsibilities associated with job is classified as
(A): informal training
(B): formal training
(C): on job training
(D): off job training
25. One of development technique in which trainees are placed at immediate staff positions under manager is classified as
(A): learning organization
(B): assistant to positions
(C): online development
(D): coaching
26. Which of these is the purpose of recruitment?
(A): Make sure that there is match between cost and benefit
(B): Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing the number of visibly underqualified or over qualified job applicants
(C): Help the firm create more culturally diverse work – force
(D): None of the above
27. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and supervision.
(A): Training
(B): Recruitment
(C): Work Quality
(D): None of the above
28. Which of these is the most important external factor governing recruitments?
(A): Sons of soil
(B): Labour market
(C): Unemployment rate
(D): Supply and demand

29. While recruiting for non – managerial, supervisory and middle – management positions which external factor is of prime importance?
(A): Political – Legal
(B): Unemployment rat
(C): Labour market
(D): Growth and Expansion
30. What is the natural perception of people on the process of recruitment and selection?
(A): Positive
(B): Negative
(C): Both positive and negativeq
(D): None ot the above
31. __________ is the process of forecasting an organisations future demand for, and supply of, the right type of people in the right number
(A): Human Resource Planning
(B): Recruitments
(C): Human Resource Management
(D): Human Capital Management
32. Which of the following factors state the importance of the Human Resource Planning?
(A): Creating highly talented personnel
(B): International strategies
(C): Resistance to change and move
(D): All of the above
33. A process that is used for identifying and developing internal people with the potential to fill key business leadership positions in the company is called ______.
(A): Highly talented personnel creation
(B): Investing in human resource
(C): Succession planning
(D): None of the above
34. Which of the following option is not the factor that hinders with the human resource planning process?
(A): Type and quality of forecasting information
(B): Time horizons
(C): Environmental uncertainties
(D): Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers
35. What is the major issue faced while doing personal planning?
(A): Type of information which should be used in making forecasts
(B): Types of people to be hired
(C): Multiple positions to be filled
(D): All of the above
36. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?
(A): Political and legislative issues
(B): Economic factors
(C): Technological changes
(D): None of the above
37. ____ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people required to meet future needs of the organisation.
(A): Demand forecasting
(B): Supply forecasting
(C): Environmental forecasting
(D): None of the above

38. Through test measuring for Checking what we intended is known as
(A): Test validity
(B): Criterion Validity
(C): Content Validity
(D): Reliability

39. An underlying talent management components in software suites are
(A): e-recruiting
(B): e-training
(C): performance reviews and rewards
(D): All of the above 40. A manager have line or staff authority is determined by
(A): person in charge
(B): Name of person in charge
(C): type of department
(D): nature of relationship We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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1 What are the various modes of service delivery in international trade? Discuss with the help of examples.
2 Why do customers switch service providers? Can you do anything as a marketer to prevent the customers from switching?
3 Briefly explain the characteristics of a good service guarantee. Formulate a service guarantee for a fixed Landline telecom service provider.
4 Discuss the importance of non-monetary costs in pricing decisions for services taking the example of health services.
5 Identify and explain the product support services which automobile manufacturers can offer to remain competitive/for gaining competitive advantage.
6 Write short notes on any three of the following :

(a) Reasons for growth of the service sector
(b) Franchising
(c) Measurement of Service Quality
(d) Channels of distribution for bank
(e) Classification schemes for services
7 How is information search behavior different in case of services as compared to goods? Explain giving suitable examples.
8 Discuss the characteristics of a good service guarantee. Evaluate the following service guarantee offered by a restaurant for its home delivery services, on the basis of the characteristics discussed by you.

“30 MINUTES GUARANTEE.
10% DISCOUNT ON DELAYED DELIVERY ORDERS*
*Discounts not applicable for orders over Rs.500”
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Case Study

Premier Courier Ltd. (PCL) is an innovative overnight delivery company that helped change the way companies do business. It was the first company to offer an overnight delivery system, but the company markets more than just a delivery service. What PCL really sells is on-time reliability. The company markets risk reduction and provides the confidence that people shipping packages will be “Absolutely, positively, certain their packages will be there by 10.30 in the morning”.

In fact, PCL sells even more than reliable delivery. It designs tracking and inventory management systems for many large companies. In other words, its customers buy more than just delivery service they buy a solution to their distribution problems. For example, a warehouse designed and operated by PCL is part of the distribution centre for a very large computer firm. In other organisations, customers can place an order for inventory as late as midnight, and the marketer, because of PCL’s help, can guarantee delivery by the next morning. PCL has positioned itself as a company with a service that solves its customers’ problems,
Answer Section
Q.No 1: What is PCL’s product? What are the tangible and intangible elements of this service product?
Q.No 2: What are the elements of service quality for a delivery service like PCL?
Q.No 3: In what way does technology influence PCL’s service quality?
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1. The purchase of goods or services for use by an organization in producing other goods and services or to support the daily operations of the organization or for resale is called:
(A): wholesale marketing.
(B): business-to-business marketing
(C): corporate marketing
(D): distribution marketing

2. Which of the following is not a tangible dominant?
(A): Detergents
(B): Automobiles
(C): Investment Management
(D): Soft drinks

3. Select name of the country having maximum percent of GDP attributed to services
(A): United States
(B): China
(C): Germany
(D): India

4. Which of the following is not an element of physical evidence?
(A): Employee dress
(B): Employee Training
(C): Equipment
(D): Facility design

5. Which of the following is not an element of People?
(A): Motivation
(B): Teamwork
(C): Flow of activities
(D): Customer training

6. Standardized and customized flow of activities, simple and complex number of steps and customer involvement by which a service is delivered is called……..
(A): Place Mix
(B): Physical Evidence Mix
(C): Process Mix
(D): People Mix
7. ………………..is the environment in which the service is delivered and where the firm and customer interact and any tangible components that facilitate performance or communication of the service.
(A): Physical evidence
(B): Process
(C): Place
(D): People

8. All human actors who play a part in service delivery and thus influence the buyer’s perceptions: namely, the firm’s personnel, the customer and other customers in the service environment.”
(A): Process
(B): Physical Environment
(C): People
(D): Place
9. ……………is the difference between customer expectations and perceptions.
(A): Customer Delight
(B): Customer Satisfaction
(C): Customer Gap
(D): The supplier Gap

10. Which of the following is difficult to evaluate?
(A): Jewellery
(B): Auto repair
(C): Furniture
(D): Clothing

11. Evaluation of Medical Diagnosis service is mainly depends on
(A): High in experience quality
(B): High in credence quality
(C): High in search quality
(D): Both 1 and 2

12. …………..is defined a the caring, individualized attention that the firm provides its customers.
(A): Empathy
(B): Responsiveness
(C): Sympathy
(D): Assurance

13. Which of the following is not a type of Service encounters?
(A): Remote encounters
(B): Phone encounters
(C): Face to face encounters
(D): Check in Encounters

14. ………………..is a tool for simultaneously depicting the service process, the points of customer contact, and the evidence of service from the customer’s point of view.
(A): Front end planning
(B): Service Blueprinting
(C): Service Standardization
(D): None of these

15. …………………is the physical surroundings or the physical facility where the service is produced, delivered and consumed.
(A): Servicespace
(B): Servicescape
(C): Serviceplace
(D): Servicescope

16. “…….is the culture where an appreciation for good service exists and where giving good service to internal as well as ultimate, external customers is considered a natural way of life and one of the most important norms by everyone.”
(A): Service culture
(B): Corporate culture
(C): Service Triangle
(D): Service Quality Dimensions

17. SSTs stands for…….
(A): Stable Service Technologies
(B): Social Service Technologies
(C): Smart Service Technologies
(D): Self Service Technologies
18. ……………are the only service distributors which do not require direct human interactions.
(A): Electronic Channels
(B): SSTs
(C): Direct Service Channels
(D): Speculative channels
19. A triangle of Company, Customers, Employees, Internal Marketing, External Marketing communications and Interactive marketing is known as…………..
(A): Marketing Triangle
(B): Service Triangle
(C): Communication Triangle
(D): Both 1 and 2

20. Intangibility, Perishability, Inseparability & Variability are the characteristics of
(A): Products
(B): Services
(C): Goods
(D): Both 1 and 2 We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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21. In the simplest terms, _____ are deeds, processes and performances.
(A): Attributes
(B): Experiences
(C): Services
(D): Goods
22. The maintenance contract offered by Sears on its Kenmore refrigerators, dishwashers and microwaves is an example of a(n)
(A): Service
(B): Experience
(C): Attribute
(D): Benefit
23. When Heather goes to the local gym, she has a personal trainer who helps make sure she is using the equipment correctly. The personal trainer is an example of
(A): Service
(B): Experience
(C): Attribute
(D): Benefit
24. Many people when they go on vacation are choosing to leave their dogs in posh pet resorts that offer a variety of activities for the dogs, such as swimming pool frolics, nature walks and hayrides. Dog owners are paying $17 per night for basic boarding a
(A): Attributes
(B): Satisficers
(C): Services
(D): Goods

25. _____ is a key determinant of whether a product offering should be classified as a product or a service.
(A): Physicality
(B): Tangibility
(C): Perception
(D): Abstraction

26. Which of the following is an intangible component of a car repair shop?
(A): Replacement parts
(B): Employee uniforms
(C): Barrel for storing recyclable motor oil
(D): The training the mechanic has received
27. Which of the following is an example of a tangible component provided by a hotel?
(A): Wake-up call
(B): Guest rooms
(C): Room service
(D): Express check-out
28. Which of the following is NOT an example of a service business?
(A): Amusement park
(B): Hotel
(C): Soft drink bottler
(D): Department store
29. Which of the following trends has directly influenced the development of services marketing concepts and strategies?
(A): he decreasing importance of service industries to the U.S. and world economies
(B): The growth in information-based technology
(C): Decreased competition in professional services
(D): The fact that manufacturing firms are placing increased emphasis on providing services
30. On his way to work today, Terry saw a billboard for a physician’s group that specialized in vascular surgery. In his local newspaper there was a full-page ad for a medical clinic that performed similar surgery. Then in his mail, he got a brochure from y
(A): he increasing importance of service industries to the U.S. and world economies
(B): The increase of government regulation of professional service industries
(C): The growth in database marketing
(D): ncreased competition in professional services
31. Which of the following statements about services is true?
(A): A service economy produces services at the expense of other sectors
(B): The skills needed for managing services differ from those used for managing manufacturing businesses
(C): ervice is a necessary evil for manufacturing firms
(D): None of these
32. Without good mailing lists, businesses cannot engage in effective direct-marketing advertising. On average 20 percent of the U.S. population moves annually. Return Path is a company that provides changes of addresses to businesses. It takes a business’s
(A): The increasing importance of service industries to the U.S. and world economies
(B): The decrease of human interaction as a result of widespread use of technology-based services
(C): The growth in the use of technology-based services
(D): Increased competition in the direct-mail industry
33. Garrett and Hugh were having breakfast when they decided they wanted to have pizza and watch a video that night. Garrett turned on her computer, brought up the site of a local video store and ordered the movie Cold Mountain to be delivered to her doorstep
(A): The increasing importance of service industries to the U.S. and world economies
(B): The decrease of human interaction as a result of widespread use of technology-based services
(C): The growth in the use of technology-based services
(D): Increased competition in the entertainment industry
34. Which of the following statements has been suggested as a plausible explanation for the customer perception that service quality is declining?
(A): Customer expectations are higher because of the excellent service they receive from some companies
(B): Even though it is to provide consistent, high-quality service, many companies do not want to do it
(C): Technology-based services, which are superior to human-based services, are not being implemented enough
(D): None of these
35. Which of the following statements has been suggested as a plausible explanation for the customer perception that service quality is declining?
(A): Increasing use of technology is perceived by many customers as less service because there is no human interaction
(B): Companies provide unclear tactics for customers to follow when dealing with service providers
(C): Delivering consistent, high-quality service becomes routine
(D): Customers have no concept of what conditions produce to quality service
36. Which of the following statements about how technology has positively influenced service is true?
(A): Technology provides vehicles for delivering existing services in more accessible, convenient, productive ways
(B): Technology facilitates basic customer service functions
(C): Technology facilitates transactions by offering a direct vehicle for making purchases
(D): All of the above statements about how technology has influenced service are true
37. Which of the following statements describes how consumers and employees are responding to technology-based services?
(A): Services can readily calm fears that privacy may be sacrificed if technology is used
(B): An infusion of technology can lead to an increase in human interaction
(C): he payback for investments in technology is a certainty
(D): Employees are often reluctant to integrate technology into their work lives
38. The most basic and universally cited, difference between goods and services is:
(A): Perishability
(B): Intangibility
(C): Divisibility
(D): Compatibility
39. On a recent visit to The Home Depot store, a sales associate greeted Gigi when she entered the store, helped her locate the items she needed to repair her gutters and suggested how she could prevent gutter problems in the future. The assistance provided b
(A): Perishability
(B): Intangibility
(C): Divisibility
(D): Compatibility
40. Which of the following statements describes a marketing implication that results from the intangibility of services?
(A): Customers participate in and affect the transaction
(B): Service quality depends on many uncontrollable factors
(C): Services can be readily communicated
(D): Services cannot be inventoried We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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1 Write a short note on value dynamics in technology and innovation. Support your answer with relevant examples from IT industry.
2 What is Technology S-Curve? How can you effectively use the S-Curve to predict the future. Please specify the assumptions clearly to support your answer.
3 Discribe the 5 Steps of ideation.
4 Critically evaluate the statement ” Without change there is no innovation, creativity, or incentive for improvement. Those who initiate change will have a better opportunity to manage the change that is inevitable”. Support your argument with relevant examples.
5 Write a short note on the process of innovation in an FMCG company. Does Innovation help thee organization sustain for longer period of time? Support your answer with relevant examples from Consumer Durables industry.
6 What role does patents play in success of an organization? If an organization has no patents, can it still survive? Support your answer with relevant examples from Indian pharmacuitical companies which have achieved big in recent past.
7 What is your understanding of the term technological diffusion? How does it impact the overall growth of an industry? Support your answer with relevant Indian examples.
8 Can collaboration work for organizations working on innovation? How does collaboration between indistry leaders define the future of the industry? Support your answer with relevant examples.
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Case Study

To survive and stay competitive in the current economic climate shipping companies must find innovative ways of working by embracing modern technology. In a complex industry known for being conservative and slow to adapt to new technologies, are companies aware of the possibilities?

Outside the industry technology is causing the biggest shake up of processes and ways of working since the industrial revolution and shipping companies are beginning to understand its potential. Global management consultants McKinsey recently highlighted: “Over the past few years, rapid technological advances in digitisation and data and analytics have been reshaping the business landscape, supercharging performance and enabling the emergence of new business innovations and new forms of competition and business disruption.”

Many technologies used in other sectors can be applied to shipping. There is now a huge opportunity to accelerate the digital transformation of the shipping industry. Technology enables shipping companies to optimise the management of their entire fleet, automate processes, increase their business performance, improve operational efficiencies and drive down costs.

We see enormous potential for further progress driven by technology. Already, there’s been commitment from the industry to bring the internet on board and make it available constantly. This will bring great advances in terms of real-time data exchange, integrating the fleet directly into all processes and enabling operators to gain a 360 ° overview of all events that are happening within their fleet. This is a major step forward. Currently most ships are hardly integrated into the internal processes of the companies.

As an industry with such complex management processes, this lack of ability to collaborate and poor visibility of operations is risky and can lead to decisions and forecasts being made based on minimal information. But even without the option for constant internet connection on board – the use of modern management solutions, potentially cloud-based ones which offer one central source of information for the office and the fleet is already bringing great benefits in terms of improved data and information exchange, as well as reduction of communication expenditures.

There will also be great advances in terms of data analysis. Starting in 2018, the new EU MRV regulation will become effective. This will force shipping companies to monitor a variety of parameters. This also marks the first step towards actual performance management and should lay the foundation for an increase in the use of data analytics, leading to better predictions for optimal routes, fuel consumptions and the maintenance of machinery. The result will be a massive saving of costs.

Other potential game changers include mobility and cloud-technology, which are expected to have a significant impact on the way shipping companies operate in the future. There have been considerable advances in these fields. The benefits of using cloud technology, as well as mobile devices, are numerous. They include the ease of data access and the availability of information regardless of time or location. Additionally, the cloud makes it much easier to integrate external systems and processes, through interfaces (APIs), e.g. web hooks into each other.
The cloud is being embraced by some of the world’s leading shipping companies who are taking advantage of increasingly affordable and accessible cloud platforms to implement smarter, faster and more effective processes.
Answer Section
Q.No 1: What role does data analytics play in shaping of an industry? Refer the text above and offer your understanding of it from the perspective of shipping industry.
Q.No 2: What whould happen to the shipping companies that avoid working on technological innovation management? How can these companies create a sustainability plan?
Q.No 3: How does cloud platform help a typical shipping company in ensuring proper management of customer service?
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1. Innovation is defined as
(A): the commercialization of a new product or process
(B): the invention of a new product or process
(C): the implementation of a new production method
(D): a new product or process idea 2. Which of the following describes the totality of the means people employ to accomplish desired tasks?
(A): innovation
(B): creativity
(C): option 1 and 2
(D): none of the above
3. Which of the following might be regarded as a volatility-induced innovation?
(A): Automated teller machines
(B): Negotiable certificates of deposit
(C): Interest rate futures
(D): Securitisation 4. Which of the following might be regarded as a technology-induced innovation?
(A): Eurodollars
(B): Interest bearing sight deposits
(C): Electronic payment at point of sale
(D): Securitisation 5. If technology lowers the cost of financial intermediation, other things being equal we might expect:
(A): Lower interest rates
(B): Higher interest rates
(C): More lending and borrowing
(D): Higher velocity of circulation 6. Technology acceleration is
(A): The speeding-up in research required to develop new technologies
(B): The growth of technology networks encouraged by market success
(C): A common way of managing research
(D): The rate of performance increase in a particular technology for a given price
7. According to Siegel at al. (2007) the technology transfer objectives of TTOs is to
(A): Seek profits
(B): Share and disseminate their knowledge
(C): To protect and generate revenue for IP
(D): None of the above
8. The Linear Model of Technology Transfer
(A): Regards technology transfer as a process that can, and should, be planned
(B): Emphasises multi-directional linkages, interdependency between hard technology and softer issues of people, management and information flows
(C): Regards technology transfer as something that should not be planned
(D): Emphasises the relationship aspect of technology transfer

9. The Non-Linear Model of Technology Transfer:
(A): Emphasises multi-directional linkages, interdependency between hard technology and softer issues of people, management and information flows
(B): Regards technology transfer as something that should not be planned
(C): Emphasises the relationship aspect of technology transfer
(D): All of the above
10. Technology Transfer can potentially:
(A): Generate revenues for universities
(B): Create research connections between academia and industry
(C): Enhance regional economic growth and development
(D): All of the above
11. According to Siegel et al. (2003) the role taken by most TTOs is:
(A): To facilitate technological diffusion through the licensing to industry of inventions or intellectual property resulting from university research
(B): To facilitate ‘mega agreements’ between individual companies and universities
(C): To facilitate the licensing of university-owned intellectual property to existing companies
(D): To facilitate university support for start-up companies
12. The sequencing of events in terms of university technology transfer usually begins with:
(A): Invention disclosure
(B): Scientific discovery
(C): Evaluation of the commercial potential
(D): Filing a patent
13. Which of the following enabled universities and public reseach laboratories to patent their own inventions?
(A): The Bayh-Dole Act 1980
(B): European Patent Convention
(C): Patent Cooperation Treaty
(D): US Patent and Trade Mark Office
14. Which of the following can influence whether TTO will patent a technology:
(A): When there is a possible cost benefit
(B): If the TTO has a high level of investment
(C): If the TTO has the support of research councils
(D): When there is a clear cost benefit
15. A spin-off company is:
(A): A firm that includes among its founding members a person affiliated with the university
(B): A firm that is not founded by a staff member of the university but is developing technology originating at the university
(C): A firm that has been granted the permission of a piece of intellectual property by the inventor
(D): A firm that includes only members from the university
16. Which of the following is not a macro level factor that influences technology transfer?
(A): Proximity to industrial clusters
(B): Support of developmental agencies/research councils
(C): Quality of Technology Transfer Office
(D): Government support and investment
17. Which of the following is not an inhabitor that is experienced by publicly funded principal investigators/scientists?
(A): Political and environmental factors
(B): Institutional inhabitors
(C): Project inhabitors
(D): Social and economic factors
18. IP valuations can have:
(A): An insignificant influence for technology entrepreneurs during the company formation stage
(B): A significant influence for technology entrepreneurs during the company formation stage
(C): A significant influence for technology entrepreneurs during the scientific discovery stage
(D): A significant influence for technology entrepreneurs during the invention disclosure stage
19. Administration and Power of Industry Partners are:
(A): Political and environmental factors
(B): Institutional inhabitors
(C): Social and economic factors
(D): Project inhibitors
20. An entrepreneurial university is a:
(A): Natural incubator
(B): Abnormal incubator
(C): Convergent technology space
(D): None of the above We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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21. According to Harman (2010) the most important perceived barrier by technology transfer specialists was:
(A): Distance from reseach clusters
(B): Lack of funds to support commercialisation activities
(C): Lack of governmental support
(D): Competing stakeholder interests
22. Creative destruction is when:
(A): Innovative solutions are introduced by SMEs, which undermines the current practice in the economy and thereby moves entrepreneurs out of business.
(B): Innovative solutions are introduced by entrepreneurs, which undermines the current practice in the economy and thereby moves other products, production methods and even companies out of business.
(C): Innovative solutions are introduced by universities, which undermines the current practice in the economy and thereby moves other products, production methods and even companies out of business.
(D): Innovative solutions are introduced by large multinationals, which undermines the current practice in the economy and thereby moves entrepreneurs out of business.
23. is a term commonly used when users or market forces drive changes within an innovation.
(A): Technology push
(B): Market pull
(C): Market push
(D): Technology pull
24. An example of process innovation is:
(A): Online services such as Dropbox
(B): Tablet computers
(C): Dell’s production and delivery of mass customised computer
(D): All of the above
25. Incremental innovation involves than radical innovation:
(A): Lower risk
(B): Higher risk
(C): Higher degree of change
(D): None of the above
26. Incremental innovations consist of:
(A): Big changes in products
(B): Disruptive changes in products
(C): Radical changes in products
(D): Smaller improvements in products
27. are novel technological solutions that serve as a platform for distribution of services.
(A): Incremental innovation
(B): Radical innovation
(C): Platform innovation
(D): Infrastructure innovation
28. The aim of the Diagnose stage within the technology innovation life cycle is to:
(A): Identify and evaluate new ideas for products and processes
(B): Transform the idea into a viable product or process
(C): Introduce the product to the market
(D): Monitor and assess the product
29. Open innovation is based on the acknowledgement that:
(A): The best competence and the best ideas are often found within the company needing it
(B): An innovation brings significant upheaval within an industry
(C): An innovation has major implications for all of the major stakeholders
(D): The best competence and the best ideas often are outside the company needing it
30. Which of the following is a key characteristic of disruptive innovations?
(A): Solution is more simple and lower-quality
(B): Solution is more user-friendly
(C): Solution is cheaper
(D): None of the above
31. Within the Technology Adaption Life Cycle, innovators are known as:
(A): Visionaries
(B): Technology Enthusiasts
(C): Pragmatists
(D): Conservatives
32. Which of the following groups provide good testing ground for new technologies?
(A): Visionaries
(B): Technology Enthusiasts
(C): Pragmatists
(D): Conservatives
33. Which of the following is not one of the five stages in the innovation decision process theory?
(A): Knowledge
(B): Decision
(C): Complexity
(D): Implementation
34. The theory states that an innovation goes through a period of slow, gradual growth before a period of speedy and significant growth.
(A): Rate of adoption theory
(B): Innovation decision process theory
(C): Theory of perceived attributes
(D): Individual innovativeness theory
35. The group that are quickest to adopt a new innovation are known as:
(A): Innovators
(B): Early adopters
(C): Early majority
(D): Laggards
36. Within the Contrary Forces Model, mobilisation:
(A): Leads to divergence of the innovation
(B): Is directed towards formulating and testing propositions
(C): Seeks to converge and simplify the idea
(D): Explores the innovation’s potential
37. Outsourcing of innovation globally is more likely where
(A): Innovations are autonomous
(B): Innovations are systemic
(C): Innovations are systemic or autonomous
(D): Innovations are made by service sector firms
38. Being a manager, with no environmental uncertainty or threat of competitors’ new products, would be simple without ______________.
(A): government regulations
(B): diversity
(C): cultural differences
(D): organizational change
39. Managing change is an integral part of ______________
(A): top management’s job
(B): middle-level management’s job
(C): the first-line manager’s job
(D): every manager’s job
40. Which of the following is not an external force of change?
(A): marketplace
(B): government laws and regulations
(C): economic changes
(D): workforce We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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1 Discuss the concept of compensation. What factors affect compensation of employees in industrial organizations?
2 What is the basic purpose behind the establishment of a sound Compensation and Reward administration system in the organizations?
3 What do you understand by the term need-based minimum wage and explain the importance of it in compensation management?
4 Discuss the factors affecting wage determination.
5 What do you understand by rate range? Discuss the types of rate ranges.
6 How does an organization align compensation strategy with its HR strategy and Business strategy.
7 What are the various elements of executive compensation? Explain.
8 What are the components of discretionary core fringe compensation? Explain.
Micro-Diversification Study
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A Case of a Labour Contractor at Dharmaram
Introduction
This case focuses on the migration of labourers in search of daily wage during the dry season. Mr Prabhakar is one such labour contractor who has a tie up with a sugar factory. In addition to earning for himself, he provides daily wages to nearly 100 labourers during the lean season. .
The Village Context Paidipally is a small village in the Narayankhed mandal of Medak district. It is situated five Kms away from the town of Naryankhed. The village has more of a Kannada influence as it lies very near to the state of Karnataka.
The town of Bidar in Karnataka is only 60 Kms away from Paidipally. Paidipally has nearly 300 households with around 1,000 people. Most of the people are engaged in agriculture.
Majority of the people are small and marginal farmers who practice traditional agriculture. As agriculture is dependent on rainfall, often uncertain, people migrate to other places in search
of wage labour.
The soil is black cotton type. People mostly grow jowar and pulses. Only one crop is grown due to scarcity of water. There is lack of irrigation facility and people mostly have to depend on
rainfall which is less than 600 mm per year. Few farmers have bore-well and are engaged in cultivation of vegetables.
It is well connected with buses to Narayankhed every hour. The supply of electricity is very erratic although everybody has connections.
Since Narayankhed town is very near to the village, people mostly go there for all their needs. There is a hospital and both primary and high schools in Narayankhed.
Family Details
Prabhakar is now around 40 years of age. He has been staying in this village from his childhood. His family consists of his wife, three sons and one daughter who are dependent on him.
His parents stay in the neighbouring village. His children go to school and his wife looks after affairs of the house. The main income source for the family is earnings from the labour contract.
The family has three acres of agricultural land the value of which would be Rs. 45,000. Jowar and pulses are cultivated in this land during the kharif season. The family also has one cent of residential land with a house. The value of this property would be about Rs. 75,000.
Diversification History
Prabhakar’s father used to work as a daily wage labourer. He often had to go out of his village in search of wage labour in the lean season. In this process, he came across a private sugar factory newly established near Narayankhed. The only other sugar factory existent at that time in Narayankhed was the Nizam Sugars Public Limited. He got in touch with the owner of the sugar factory and got a contract of drying the sugarcane Bagas1 which was used as fuel for the boilers for heating the sugarcane juice.
This contract gave them work for additional three to four months during the lean season often from December to February. Prabhakar assisted his father for four years in this business and learnt the required skills. From the income earned from this source, he and his father could acquire three acres of
land and a residential house.
Prabhakar was married by this time to Saraswati. The income from agriculture was meagre as small surpluses were left after own consumption. All expenditure of the house had to be met from the profits from the above contract. In order to increase the family’s income, he decided to try and get similar contract elsewhere, instead of assisting his father.
Around 18 years ago, he got his first contract from the Sri Srinivasa Sugar factory in Ramayampet for the drying of bagas.
He is still continuing with the same contract. From these earnings, he could buy another house. He also invested some amount in digging a bore well. However, this was not successful.
When he got the contract, he started engaging labourers from his village by paying some advance wages to them. He in turn got an advance from the owner of the sugar factory. This advance payment to the labourers was necessary, as they had to support their families in their absence.
He gradually started using his labourers in the manufacturing process of sugar in addition to bagas drying. At present, he employs about 100 workers, of whom nearly 30 are working in the processing of sugar.
The workers are divided into various categories at the beginning and wages are paid according to the kind of work they do. The wage varies from Rs. 18 to Rs. 100 per day. The person at the boiler will get Rs. 100, labourer using his own bullocks for drying bagas will get Rs. 90 whereas a person engaged in drying the bagas will get Rs. 18.
Prabhakar explained that the income from this activity is mostly dependent on the amount of sugarcane supply to the factory for crushing. Higher the inflow of sugarcane in the factory, greater is requirement of bagas and therefore a higher income in the season.
He would incur losses if the factory does not run for the full season completely (i.e. for nearly three months) as the advance given to the workers could not be taken back for lack of any work.
Prabhakar suffered a heavy loss last year due to inadequate supply of sugarcane to the factory. The factory has a capacity to process 100 bags per day. Last year, it ran for a month. For the rest of the two months, it was not operating.
Due to this, he suffered a loss of Rs 30,000. He had to sell off one his house to recover this loss. Out of the sale proceeds, he had partly repaid this loss to the sugar factory and the rest was given as credit by the factory owner.
Thus was possible because of his association for the last 18 years. Often he has been supported by the factory owner in the event of any unforeseen circumstances.
Future Plans
Prabhakar is not very sure about his future plans. He wants to continue to do this business as it is providing wages to more than 100 families. The factory owner had offered him a job on several occasions but he is not keen on taking it as it is against his dignity.
He could have earned Rs. 4,000 per month easily as supervisor in the factory. He has plans to invest in a bore well again. He wants his children also to get into this business.

Answer Section
Q.No 1: What is the author trying to highlight with the help of this case?
Q.No 2: What kind of contractual arrangements exist in the processing sector?
Q.No 3: Is temporary migration a common phenomena in dryland regions? If so then when?
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1. Compensation can be _____ benefits
(A): Monetary
(B): Non-monetary
(C): both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(D): None of the above
2. Wages represents _____ rates of pay.
(A): Hourly
(B): Daily
(C): weekly
(D): Monthly
3. _______ are also called ‘payments by results’.
(A): Allowances
(B): Claims
(C): Incentives
(D): Fringe benefits
4. Incentives depends upon
(A): Productivity
(B): Sales
(C): Profits
(D): All of the above
5. The following is paid only at the time of employees exit after serving more than five years
(A): Perquisites
(B): Claims
(C): Gratuity
(D): Allowances
6. The following is a perquisites.
(A): Club membership
(B): Provident fund
(C): Medical allowance
(D): Group insurance
7. A behaviour which has rewarding experience is likely to be repeated’ is postulated by
(A): Reinforcement and expectancy theory
(B): Equity theory
(C): Agency theory
(D): None of the above
8. A fair day work for fair day pay’ denotes a sense of _______ felt by employees
(A): Responsibility
(B): Equity
(C): Happines
(D): Respect
9. The remuneration system needs to meet the following type(s) of equity
(A): Internal
(B): External
(C): Individual
(D): All of the above
10. Which of the following factor influence(s) employee compensation?
(A): Labour market
(B): Cost of living
(C): labour unions
(D): All of the above
11. Any compensation plan must be
(A): Understandable, workable, acceptable
(B): Reasonable, workable, acceptable
(C): Understandable, feasible, acceptable
(D): Understandable, workable, compensable
12. The following is not a part of remuneration model
(A): Job description
(B): Job Evaluation
(C): Job Hierarchy
(D): Job Analysis
13. Enlitist remuneration systems are prevalent among
(A): Well established firms
(B): Companies with mature products
(C): Companies with limited competition
(D): All of the above
14. In organized industrial establishments pay review takes place once in ____ years.
(A): Three
(B): Seven
(C): Ten
(D): Fifteen
15. Equal remuneration Act 1976, prohibits discrimination in matters relating to remuneration on the basis of
(A): Religion
(B): Region
(C): Sex
(D): All of the above

16. The following is not a concept of wage
(A): Daily wage
(B): Minimum wage
(C): Fair Wage
(D): Living wage
17. _______ can be fixed by comparison with an accepted standard wage
(A): Minimum wages
(B): Fair Wage
(C): Living Wage
(D): All of the above
18. A ______ must be fixed considering the general economic conditions of the country.
(A): Minimum wages
(B): Fair Wage
(C): Living Wage
(D): All of the above
19. In India, _____ wage is determined mainly for sweated industries
(A): Minimum
(B): Fair Wage
(C): Living
(D): Standard
20. Providing equal pay for jobs of equal nature based on job evaluation ensures _______ in compensation administration.
(A): external equity
(B): internal equity
(C): neutrality
(D): None of the above We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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21. Payment of cash rewards for the work extracted from the employee is normally called
(A): direct compensation
(B): indirect compensation
(C): non-monetary compensation
(D): None of the above
22. Which of the following is the fixed component in compensation packages?
(A): Profit-sharing
(B): Base salary
(C): Gain-sharing
(D): Equity stock options
23. Insurance schemes, retirement benefits and leave travel concession are examples of
(A): indirect monetary compensation
(B): direct monetary compensation
(C): non-monetary compensation
(D): None of the above
24. Ensuring a fair balance between an employee’s contributions to the job and the rewards received in return from that job is the essence of
(A): equity theory
(B): expectancy theory
(C): agency theory
(D): contingency theory
25. Which of the following theory states that the employees work hard in the job only when they are sure of positive outcomes from that job?
(A): Equity theory
(B): expectancy theory
(C): agency theory
(D): contingency theory
26. Managers never own complete responsibility for the all the decisions made by them since they are not the owners of the business is the assumption of
(A): Equity theory
(B): expectancy theory
(C): agency theory
(D): contingency theory
27. Wages which are usually positioned above the minimum wages but below the living wages are described as
(A): real wages
(B): fair wages
(C): minimum wages
(D): living wage
28. When there are several pay grades in a pay structure, it is called
(A): traditional pay structure
(B): broad-graded structure
(C): job family structure
(D): None of the above
29. Which of the following factors is not an external influencing factor in wages and salary administration?
(A): Cost of living
(B): Labour legislations
(C): Labour market conditions
(D): Ability to pay
30. Which of the following factors is not an external influencing factor in wages and salary administration?
(A): Capacity of the organization to pay
(B): Corporate policies and philosophy
(C): Performance evaluation report
(D): None of the above
31. Which of the following is not an objective of executive compensation plans?
(A): Separating ownership interest and controlling interest
(B): Enhancing employee motivation, involvement and commitment
(C): Promoting managerial efficiency
(D): Attracting and retaining the best executives
32. Provision for cars, parking lots and membership in country club are examples of
(A): base salary of executives
(B): short-term incentive plans
(C): executive perks
(D): None of the above
33. Stock option and performance shares are examples of
(A): base salary
(B): short-term incentive plan
(C): long-term incentive plan
(D): All of the above
34. Performance-based annual bonuses are an example of
(A): base salary
(B): short-term incentive plan
(C): long-term incentive plan
(D): All of the above
35. The factor/factors affecting Pay Structure is/are
(A): Corporate culture and values
(B): Management Philosophy
(C): External Economic Environment
(D): All
36. Personal car service to executive is
(A): Incentive
(B): Fringe Benefit
(C): Perquisite
(D): All
37. Executive compensation in India is built around
(A): Job complexity
(B): Employers ability to pay
(C): Executive human capital
(D): All
38. Paid Time-Off benefits are
(A): Financial Services
(B): Educational assistance
(C): Holidays & Vacations
(D): All
39. Benefit Audit is
(A): Defining objectives of organization
(B): Linking HR & Organizational objectives
(C): Assessing needs of employees
(D): None of the above
40. Employee Service is
(A): Paid sick leave
(B): Educational assistance
(C): Holidays & Vacations
(D): All We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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