BBA 2 sem 2019

Fundamentals of Financial Management (FIBA201)-Semester II
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1st Module Assessment
Question 1. is concerned with the acquisition, financing, and management of assets with some overall goal in mind.
Select one:
a. Financial management
b. Profit maximization
c. Agency theory
d. Social responsibility
Clear my choice
Question 2. Interest paid (earned) on both the original principal borrowed (lent) and previous interest earned is often referred to as _.
Select one:
a. Simple interest
b. Future value
c. Present value
d. Compound interest
Clear my choice
Question 3. The long-run objective of financial management is to __.
Select one:
a. Maximize earnings per share
b. Maximize the value of the firm’s common stock
c. Maximize return on investment
d. Maximize market share
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following items would most likely be classified as an operating activity?
Select one:
a. Issuance of debt
b. Acquisition of a competitor
c. Sale of automobiles by an automobile dealer
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Financial structure refers to ____.
Select one:
a. Short-term resources.
b. Long-term resources
c. All the financial resources
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. Which of the following are not among the daily activities of financial management?
Select one:
a. Sale of shares and bonds
b. Credit management
c. Inventory control
d. The receipt and disbursement of funds
Clear my choice
Question 7. The market value of the firm is the result of__________.
Select one:
a. Dividend decisions
b. Working capital decisions
c. Capital budgeting decisions
d. Trade-off between risk and return
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which ratio would a company most likely use to measure its ability to meet short – term obligations?
Select one:
a. Current ratio
b. Payables turnover
c. Gross profit margin
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 9. Basic objective of Financial Management is ____.
Select one:
a. Maximization of profit
b. Maximization of share holder’s wealth
c. Ensuring Financial discipline in the firm.
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. _ is concerned with the maximization of a firm’s earnings after taxes
Select one:
a. Shareholder wealth maximization
b. Profit maximization
c. Stakeholder maximization
d. EPS maximization
Clear my choice
Question 11. ______ is the most appropriate goal of the firm.
Select one:
a. Shareholder wealth maximization
b. Profit maximization
c. Stakeholder maximization
d. EPS maximization
Clear my choice
Question 12. When capital market is booming, firms can take market route to _. Select one: a. Raise capital b. Decrease capital c. Stop growing d. Stagnate Clear my choice Question 13. If a company issues bonus shares, the debt equity ratio .
Select one:
a. Remain unaffected
b. Will be affected
c. Will improve
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. Comparison of a company ’ s financial results to other peer companies for the same time period is called

Select one:
a. horizontal analysis.
b. time – series analysis.
c. cross – sectional analysis.
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. The present value of €100 that will be received two years from today is:
Select one:
a. less than €100.
b. equal to €100
c. more than €100.
d. more than €100.
Clear my choice
Question 16. The present value of an annuity of INR. 80 a years for 20 years at 5% p.a is
Select one:
a. 997 (appx.)
b. 900
c. 1000
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 17. What does the P/E ratio measure?
Select one:
a. The “ multiple ” that the stock market places on a company ’ s EPS.
b. The relationship between dividends and market prices.
c. The earnings for one common share of stock.
d. None of the above

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2nd Module Assessment
Capital budgeting is done for
Select one:
a. Evaluating short term investment decisions.
b. Evaluating medium term investment decisions
c. Evaluating long term investment decisions
d. None of the above

Question 1. Capital rationing refers to a situation where
Select one:
a. Funds are restricted and the management has to choose from amongst available alternative investments:
b. Funds are unlimited and the management has to decide how to allocate them to suitable projects investments
c. Very few feasible investment proposals are available with the management
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 2. __ is a long term planning for financing proposed capital outlay.
Select one:
a. Capital Budgeting
b. Budgeting
c. Cash Budget
d. Sales Budget
Clear my choice
Question 3. In case a company considers a discounting factor higher than the cost of capital for arriving at present values, the present values of cash inflows will be
Select one:
a. Less than those computed on the basis of cost of capital
b. More than those computed on the basis of cost of capital
c. Equal to those computed on the basis of the cost of capital
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is the first step in capital budgeting process?
Select one:
a. Final approval
b. Screening the proposal
c. Identification of investment proposal
d. Implementing proposal
Clear my choice
Question 5. The term mutually exclusive investments mean:
Select one:
a. Choose only the best investments.
b. Selection of one investment precludes the selection of an alternative
c. The elite investment opportunities will get chosen
d. There are no investment options available
Clear my choice
Question 6. The project can be selected if its profitability index is more than . Select one: a. 1% b. 2% c. 5% d. 6% Clear my choice Question 7. In proper capital budgeting analysis we evaluate incremental Select one: a. Operating profit b. Accounting income c. Cash flow d. Earnings Clear my choice Question 8. The pay back technique is specially useful during times Select one: a. When the value of money is turbulent b. When there is no inflation c. When the economy is growing at a steady rate coupled with minimal inflation. d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 9. Which of the following features is not associated with capital budgeting decision? Select one: a. Long term b. Large Capital Outlay c. Reversibility d. High Risk Clear my choice Question 10. The term ___________ refers to the period in which the project will generate the necessary cash flow to recoup the initial investment.
Select one:
a. Internal return
b. Payback period
c. Discounting return
d. Accounting return
Clear my choice
Question 11. Multiple IRRs are obtained when,
Select one:
a. Cash flows in the early stages of the project exceed cash flows during the later stages
b. Cash flows reverse their signs during the project
c. Cash flows are uneven
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
In a single projects situation, results of internal rate of return and net present value lead to
Select one:
a. cash flow decision
b. cost decision
c. same decisions
d. different decisions
Question 12. In mutually exclusive projects, projects which are selected for comparison must have
Select one:
a. positive net present value
b. negative net present value
c. zero net present value
d. none of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. With respect to NPV, which of the following is incorrect?
Select one:
a. When NPV is zero, PI will be 1
b. When NPV is zero, IRR = Cost of Capital
c. When NPV is zero, we get the PBP
d. When NPV is zero, we get Discounted PBP
Clear my choice
Question 14. Payback period in which an expected cash flows are discounted with help of project cost of capital is classified as
Select one:
a. discounted payback period
b. discounted rate of return
c. discounted cash flows
d. discounted project cost
Clear my choice
Question 15. Initial outlay 50,000, life of the asset 5 yrs, estimated annual cash flow 12,500, IRR =_.
Select one:
a. 5%
b. 6%
c. 10%
d. 8%
Clear my choice
Question 16. Cost of the project is 6,00,000 , life of the project is 5 years annual cash flow is 2,00,000 cut off rate is 10% the discounted pay back period is ___.
Select one:
a. 2 yrs.
b. 2 yrs 6 months
c. 3 yrs.
d. 3 yrs 9 months.
Clear my choice
Question 17. A project costs Rs, 1,00,000 annual cash flow of Rs. 20,000 for 8 years. Its payback period is …………..
Select one:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years

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3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. security is known as variable income security.
Select one:
a. None of these
b. Preference shares
c. Equity shares
d. Debentures
Clear my choice
Question 2. Expand ADR
Select one:
a. American Domestic Receipts
b. All-India Domestic Receipts
c. All-India Depository Receipts
d. American Depository Receipts
Clear my choice
Question 3. Debt capital refers to:
Select one:
a. Funds raised by borrowing that must be repaid
b. Money raised through the sale of shares
c. Inventory loans
d. Factoring accounts receivable
Clear my choice
Question 4. External sources of finance do not include
Select one:
a. Leasing
b. Retained earnings
c. Debentures
d. Overdrafts
Clear my choice
Question 5. A debenture
Select one:
a. Is a short-term loan
b. Does not require security
c. Receives dividend payments
d. Is a long-term loan
Clear my choice
Question 6. Expand GDR
Select one:
a. Global Depository Receipts
b. General Depository Receipts
c. Global Domestic Reports
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Long term finance is required for ___.
Select one:
a. Current assets
b. Intangible assets
c. None of these
d. Fixed assets
Clear my choice
Question 8. The most popular source of short-term funding is:
Select one:
a. Trade credit
b. Family and friends
c. Commercial banks
d. Factoring
Clear my choice
Question 9. Quick asset does not include _.
Select one:
a. Advance for supply of raw materials
b. Government bonds
c. Inventories
d. Book debts.
Clear my choice
Question 10. Equity shares:
Select one:
a. Have an unlimited life, and voting rights but receive no dividends
b. Have a limited life, and voting rights and receive dividends
c. Have an unlimited life, and voting rights and receive dividends
d. Have a limited life, with no voting rights but receive dividends
Clear my choice
Question 11. ADRs are issued in
Select one:
a. USA
b. China
c. Canada
d. India
Clear my choice
Question 12. Under the lease agreement, the lessee gets the right to
Select one:
a. Use the asset for a specified period
b. Participate in the management of the organisation
c. Sell the assets
d. Share profits earned by the lessor
Clear my choice
Question 13. Public deposits are the deposits that are raised directly from
Select one:
a. The owners
b. The public
c. The auditors
d. The directors
Clear my choice
Question 14. Under the factoring arrangement, the factor
Select one:
a. Produces and distributes the goods or services
b. Transfer the goods from one place to another
c. Collects the client’s debt or account receivables
d. Makes the payment on behalf of the client
Clear my choice
Question 15. The maturity period of a commercial paper usually ranges from
Select one:
a. 90 to 364 days
b. 20 to 40 days
c. 60 to 90 days
d. 120 to 365 days
Clear my choice
Question 16. Lease which includes a third party (a lender) is known as
Select one:
a. Sale and leaseback
b. Leveraged Lease
c. Inverse Lease
d. Direct Lease
Clear my choice
Question 17. Commercial paper are generally issued at a price
Select one:
a. Equal to redemption value
b. Less than face value
c. Equal to face value
d. More than face value
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4th Module Assessment
Question 1. Which of the following is the danger of too high amount of working capital?
Select one:
a. It results in overall inefficiency.
b. It results in unnecessary accumulation of inventories and gives chance to inventory mishandling, wastage, pilferage, theft, etc., and losses increase.
c. All of the above.
d. Excess working capital means idle funds which earns no profits for the business
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is not a technique for cash management?
Select one:
a. Decentralized disbursements
b. Avoidance of early payments
c. Decentralized collection
d. Early conversion of payments into cash
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following is not a cost involved in credit management?
Select one:
a. Collection cost.
b. Capital cost
c. Delinquency cost
d. Repayment cost
Clear my choice
Question 4. Baumol’s Model of Cash Management attempts to:
Select one:
a. Minimization of transaction cost
b. Minimization of cash balance
c. Minimization of total cost
d. Minimise the holding cost
Clear my choice
Question 5. Net working capital refers to .
Select one:
a. current assets minus inventories
b. current assets minus current liabilities
c. total assets minus fixed assets
d. current assets
Clear my choice
Question 6. In finance, “working capital” means the same thing as _.
Select one:
a. Current assets minus current liabilities
b. Current assets
c. Fixed assets
d. Total assets
Clear my choice
Question 7. A firm following an aggressive working capital strategy would:
Select one:
a. Finance fluctuating assets with long term financing.
b. Minimize the amount of short term borrowing.
c. Minimize the amount of fund in very liquid assets.
d. Hold substantial amount of fixed assets.
Clear my choice
Question 8. Current ratio of a concern is 1, its net working capital will be .
Select one:
a. Neutral.
b. None of the above
c. Positive.
d. Negative
Clear my choice
Question 9. Permanent working capital .
Select one:
a. Varies with seasonal needs
b. Is the amount of current assets required to meet a firm’s long-term minimum needs
c. Includes fixed assets
d. Includes accounts payable
Clear my choice
Question 10. To financial analysts, “net working capital” means the same thing as _.
Select one:
a. total assets
b. current assets
c. current assets minus current liabilities.
d. fixed assets
Clear my choice
Question 11. Which is the source of mid-term finance?
Select one:
a. Discounting the Bills Receivable
b. Specialized Financial Institution
c. Collect Advances from Purchasers
d. Micro Credit
Clear my choice
Question 12. Under the lease agreement, the lessee gets the right to
Select one:
a. Participate in the management of the organisation
b. Share profits earned by the lessor
c. Use the asset for a specified period
d. Sell the assets
Clear my choice
Question 13. Under the factoring arrangement, the factor
Select one:
a. Collects the client’s debt or account receivables
b. Makes the payment on behalf of the client
c. Transfer the goods from one place to another
d. Produces and distributes the goods or services
Clear my choice
Question 14. ADRs are issued in
Select one:
a. Canada
b. India
c. China
d. USA
Clear my choice
Question 15. The proprietors fund is INR. 45,00,000 and ratio of fixed assets to proprietors fund is 0.75. What will be the amount of Net Working Capital?
Select one:
a. 11,25,000
b. 1,25,000
c. 5,25,000
d. 12,00,000
Clear my choice
Question 16. Average collection period is 2 months. Cash sales and average receivables are INR. 5,00,000 and INR. 6,50,000 respectively. What will be the amount of total sales?
Select one:
a. 22,00,000
b. 39,00,000
c. 44,00,000
d. 6,50,000
Clear my choice
Question 17. Baumol’s Model of Cash Management attempts to:
Select one:
a. Minimization of total cost
b. Minimization of cash balance
c. Minimise the holding cost
d. Minimization of transaction cost
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5th Module Assessment
Question 1. ___ is a specific risk factor.
Select one:
a. Interest rate risk
b. Inflation risk
c. Market risk.
d. Financial risk.
Clear my choice
Question 2. Operating Leverage is calculated as
Select one:
a. Contribution ÷ EBIT
b. EBIT ÷ PBT
c. EBIT ÷ Interest
d. EBIT ÷ Tax
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following cost of capital require tax adjustment?
Select one:
a. Cost of Equity Shares
b. Cost of Debentures
c. Cost of Preference Shares
d. Cost of Retained Earnings
Clear my choice
Question 4. Financial leverage can be measured in _______.
Select one:
a. Flow term
b. Stock term
c. None of these
d. Both (a) and (b).
Clear my choice
Question 5. Risk-return trade off implies_____________
Select one:
a. Taking decision in such a way which optimizes the balance between risk and return.
b. Not taking any loans which increases the risk
c. granting credit to risky customers
d. Increasing the portfolio of the firm through increased production
Clear my choice
Question 6. Firm’s Cost of Capital is the average cost of
Select one:
a. All sources of finance
b. All Bonds & Debentures
c. All Borrowings
d. All share capital
Clear my choice
Question 7. Financial Leverage is calculated as
Select one:
a. EBIT ÷ Sales
b. EBIT ÷ PBT
c. EBIT ÷ Contribution
d. EBIT ÷ Variables Cost
Clear my choice
Question 8. There is a reciprocal relationship between ……………….
Select one:
a. DFL and margin of safety ratio
b. DOL and DFL
c. DOL and break-even-point
d. DOL and margin of safety ratio.
Clear my choice
Question 9. Cost of capital is ______.
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. Equal to the dividend expectations of equity shareholders for the coming year
c. Lesser than the cost of debt capital
d. Equal to the last dividend paid to the equity shareholders
Clear my choice
Question 10. In order to calculate Weighted Average Cost of Capital, weights may be based on:
Select one:
a. Book Values
b. Market Values
c. Anyone
d. Target Values
Clear my choice
A firm is said to be financially unlevered if the firm has ……….
Select one:
a. only external equity in its capital structure.
b. only equity share capital in its capital structure.
c. both external equity and owner‟s equity in its capital structure.
d. only owner‟s equity in its capital structure.
Question 11. Marginal Cost of capital is the cost of:
Select one:
a. Additional Funds
b. Additional Interests
c. Additional Revenue
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. Financial leverage refers to the rate of change in earnings per share for a given change inearnings…………
Select one:
a. Before interest and tax
b. Before interest
c. Before tax
d. After interest and tax
Clear my choice
Question 13. _ is the minimum required rate of earnings or the cut off rate of capital expenditure.
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. Working capital
c. Equity capital
d. Cost of capital
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding earnings per share (EPS) maximization as the primary goal of the firm?
Select one:
a. EPS maximization does not specify the timing or duration of expected EPS
b. EPS maximization is concerned with maximizing net income
c. EPS maximization naturally requires all earnings to be retained
d. EPS maximization ignores the firm’s risk level
Clear my choice
Question 15. X ltd issues rupees 50,000 8% debentures at a discount of 5%. The tax rate is 50% the cost of debt capital is __.
Select one:
a. 0.05
b. 0.04
c. 4.2%.
d. 0.046
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following is not a generally accepted approach for Calculation of Cost of Equity?
Select one:
a. Dividend Discount Model
b. CAPM
c. Price-Earnings Ratio
d. Rate of Pref. Dividend Plus Risk
Clear my choice
Question 17. Company X issues 11% bonds of INR. 100 for an amount aggregating INR. 200,000 at 10% premium, redeemable at par after 5 years. Corporate tax rate is 35%. The cost of bonds would be:
Select one:
a. 0.06
b. 0.052
c. 0.05
d. 0.049
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Assignment 2
Case Study:
The expected cash flows of three projects are given below. The cost of capital is 10 percent.

Period Project A (INR.) Project B (INR.) Project C (INR.)
0 (5,000) (5,000) (5,000)
1 900 700 2000
2 900 800 2000
3 900 900 2000
4 900 1000 1000
5 900 1100
6 900 1200
7 900 1300
8 900 1400
9 900 1500
10 900 1600

Question 1. Payback Period for Project A, B & C
Select one:
a. 4.23 years, 5.42 years & 3.5 years
b. 2.23 years, 5.42 years & 4.5 years
c. 5.56 years, 5.42 years & 2.5 years
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 2. Net Present Value (NPV) for Project A, B & C
Select one:
a. 530, 1591 & 655
b. None of the above
c. 732, 1500 & 555
d. 430, 1400 & 610
Clear my choice
Question 3. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) for Project A, B & C
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. 12.42%, 16.72% & 16.52%
c. 11.05%, 15.05% & 18.90%
d. 10.05%, 11% & 15.05%
Clear my choice
Question 4. Accounting Rate of Return for Project A, B & C
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. 12%, 25%, & 17%
c. 13%, 22% & 19%
d. 16% , 26% & 20%
Clear my choice
Question 5. Ranking of all the project based on NPV
Select one:
a. Rank 1-project C, Rank 2-project B & Rank 3-project A
b. Rank 1-project B, Rank 2-project C & Rank 3-project A
c. Rank 1-project A, Rank 2-project B & Rank 3-project C
d. None of the above
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1. Describe the history of computer. Present the classification of computers according to their development. Give major highlights in each classification.
2. Present the analytical difference between primary & secondary storage devices. Write any four significant applications of computer system.
3. Describe the important Input – output Devices of computer system. Highlight the important role of each one also.
4. Discuss the importance of Central Processing Unit. How this unit interacts with other units in computer system? Explain.
5. Differentiate the System software and Application software. Explain the important role of utility software in the software industry.

SECTION B
Case Study –
A commercial organization performs various activities. The important ones among them include financial accounting, inventory control, and payroll. Most of these activities are carried out manually. As the dimensions of these activities increase, the organization may prefer to mechanize the activities to operate smoothly. Computer manufacturers have come to the rescue of business organizations. They have developed packages/programs, for carrying out the activities like payroll preparation, inventory control, invoicing system, and financial accounting. A computer software package on payroll thus becomes an integral part of a large business organization. Similarly, financial accounting is another field where computerization can play an important role. The financial accounting package is one which helps the organization in preparing various financial reports, ledgers, and journals of monetary transactions. In a large production-oriented organization, it is essential to have a control over the investment in inventory of raw materials. A computerized inventory control system can reduce considerable amount of time in processing the data which is necessary to control inventory. Software development for business applications is not an easy task. In developing a large software (e.g., MIS), many people are involved and many months or even years are spent. However, a small application (e.g., Payroll) can be developed in few weeks or months by a single or few programmers. For such small systems, software development activities maybe done implicitly without proper documentation. But, for large systems, these activities must be done explicitly with proper planning and documentation. Whether a system is small or large, software development revolves around a life cycle that begins with the recognition of users´ needs and understanding their problem.
1. Feasibility study is the first phase in development of a new system. Describe the various steps to perform feasibility study.
2. Financial accounting is one of the field where computerization can play an important role. Justify the statement in detail.
3. Explain the role of computer system in the successful operation of business organiztion.
MCQ’s are also available
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Organisational Behavior
SECTION A
Q.1. What are the causes of organizational conflict? How could they get over come, state suitable examples.
Q.2. Discuss transactional analysis and also elaborate the JOHARI WINDOW.
Q.3. List the traits of personality. Define various types of personality.
Q.4. How learning leaves its impact on the mind of people? What is the role of learning on organization behavior?
Q.5. What is OB? Discuss importance and scope of organisation behaviour.

SECTION B
CASE STUDY:
Rohit is the Associate Director of a non-profit agency that provides assistance to children and families. he is the head of a department that focuses on evaluating the skill-building programs the agency provides to families. he reports directly to the agency leadership. As a whole, the agency has been cautious in hiring this year because of increased competition for federal grant funding. However, they have also suffered high staff turnover. Two directors have left, as well as three key research staff, and one staff person from the finance department.
Rohit has a demanding schedule that requires frequent travel; however he supervises two managers, who in turn are responsible for five staff members each. Both managers have been appointed within the last six months.
Manager 1: Mohan has a specific background in research. he manages staff who provide research support to another department that delivers behavioral health services to youth. Mohan supports his staff and is very organized; however, he often takes a very black and white view of issues. Upper level leadership values Mohan’s latest research on the therapeutic division’s services. Mohan is very motivated, driven, and expects the same from his staff.
Manager 2: Rajat has a strong background in social science research and evaluation. he manages staff that work on different projects within the agency. he is known as problem solver and is extremely supportive of his staff. he is very organized and has a wealth of experience in evaluation of family services. he is very capable and can sometimes take on too much.
The managers are sensing that staff are becoming over-worked as everyone takes on increased responsibilities due to high staff turnover. Staff have also mentioned that Rohit’s “glass half-empty” conversation style leaves them feeling dejected. In addition, rohit has not shared budgets with his managers, so they are having difficulty appropriately allocating work to staff. mohan said he has not received sufficient information from the finance department to complete the budgets. The finance department said they have sent him all the information they have available.
As staff become distressed, the managers are becoming frustrated. They feel like they are unable to advocate for their staff or problem solve without key information like the departmental budget
1. What kind of problem the department is facing?
2. What is the solution of problem in your point of view?
3. What step must be taken to build up staff confidence?
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SECTION C
QUESTION 1
Organization Behaviour is not a /an

A separate field of study
Applied science
Normative science
Pessimistic approach
QUESTION 2
Most valuable asset in an organization is

Land and building
Cash and bank balances
Human being
technology
QUESTION 3
A study of human behaviour in organizational settings is

Individual behaviour
Group behaviour
Organizational behaviour
None of these
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a method of measuring attitude?

Opinion survey
Interview
Scaling techniques
All the above
QUESTION 5
Sathish has a low absenteeism rate. He takes responsibility for his health and has good health habits. He is likely to have a(an):

Internal locus of control
External locus of control
Core locus of control
High emotional stability level
QUESTION 6
Cognitive theory of learning was given by

Skinner
Pavlov
Tolman
Piajet
QUESTION 7
What role did the meat play in Pavlov s experiment with dogs?

an unconditioned response
a conditioned stimulus
a conditioned response
an unconditioned stimulus
QUESTION 8
Most of the learning that takes place in the Class room is

Classical conditioning
Operant conditioning
Cognitive learning
Social learning
QUESTION 9
…is a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of experience

Behaviour modification
Learning
Motivation
Skills
QUESTION 10
Experiments performed by Ivan Pavlov led to what theory?

classical conditioning
operant conditioning
social learning
behavior shaping
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is not a biographical characteristic?

political affiliation
age
Sex
tenure
QUESTION 12
Factors other than satisfaction that impact one s decision to leave a current job include all of the following EXCEPT:

Labour market conditions
Length of tenure with the organization
Organizational citizenship behaviour
Expectations about alternative job opportunities
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a reason that the study of organizational behaviour is useful?

Human behavior does not vary a great deal between individuals and situations.
Human behavior is not random.
Human behavior is not consistent.
Human behavior is rarely predictable
QUESTION 14
is a relatively permanent change in behaviour that occurs as a result of experience

Behaviour modification
Learning
Motivation
Skills
QUESTION 15
Which of the following is/are OD intervention techniques Solve by www.solvezone.in contact for details at 8882309876

Sensitivity training
MBO
Quality of work life
All the above
QUESTION 16
Today s organization are

Open system
Closed system
Open as well as closed
None of these
QUESTION 17
“Which dimension of Big 5 personality traits represents artistically sensitive, refined etc. ”

Culture
Emotional stability
Conscientiousness
Extroversion
QUESTION 18
Two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently. Where do the factors that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside?

the perceivers
the target
the timing
the context
QUESTION 19
What do we call the view that we can learn both through observation and direct experience?

situational learning theory
classical learning
social learning theory
the Pavlov principle
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QUESTION 20
Extension of behaviour modification into organization is called

Enrichment
Enlargement
OB Mod
OB Ext
QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements about the field of organizational behavior is FALSE?

“OB is the study of what people think, feel and do in and around organizations.”
OB emerged as a distinct field of inquiry in the 1940s.
“OB is a self-contained discipline, independent of other disciplines”
OB theories are usually tested using the scientific method.
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is/are the key features of organization

Social invention
Accomplishing goals
Group efforts
All of these
QUESTION 23
Psychology s major contributions to the field of organizational behavior have been primarily at what level of analysis?

the level of the group
the level of the individual
the level of the organization
the level of the culture
QUESTION 24
What is the most relevant application of perception concepts to OB?

the perceptions people form about each other
the perceptions people form about their employer
the perceptions people form about their culture
the perceptions people form about society
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a trait dimension in Big 5 personality trait?

Extroversion
Agreeableness
Ego
Culture
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is / are not direct method to solve intergroup conflicts

Domination by the management
Removing key figures in conflict
Persuasion
Problem solving
QUESTION 27
What is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment?

Interpretation
environmental analysis
Outlook
perception
QUESTION 28
What do we call it when we judge someone on the basis of our perception?

Stereotyping
Categorizing
Halo effect
Prototyping
QUESTION 29
Which of the following is an environmental force that shapes personality?

Gender
Height
Experience
Brain size
QUESTION 30
Which is also known as a non- reinforcement

Punishment
Negative reinforcement
Extinction
all the above
QUESTION 31
is the dynamic organization within the individual that determine his unique adjustment to the environment

Perception
Attitude
Behaviour
personality
QUESTION 32
Operant conditioning argues that .

behaviour is reflexive
behaviour is unlearned
behaviour is a function of its consequences
the tendency to repeat a behaviour is very strong
QUESTION 33
Which of the following is / are included as structure of human mind a. Id

Ego
Super ego
ID
All the above
QUESTION 34
is a person s belief about his chances of successfully accomplishing

specific task
Self esteem
Job satisfaction
Self efficacy
QUESTION 35
..is once view of reality

Attitude
Perception
Outlook
Personality
QUESTION 36
Organization Behaviour is

An interdisciplinary approach
A humanistic approach
Total system approach
All of these
QUESTION 37
“Mr. Sunil s one-day salary was deducted because of his uninformed leave, as he was already warned about this behaviour. It is an example of which method of shaping behaviours?”

Reinforcement
Positive Reinforcement
Punishment
Negative Reinforcement
QUESTION 38
“In Pavlov s experiment, the bell was a/an”

unconditioned stimulus
unconditioned response
conditioned stimulus
conditioned response
QUESTION 39
“_____ is the study of what people think, feel, and do in and around organizations.”

OB
Marketing
Sociology
Psychology
QUESTION 40
. A study of human behaviour in organizational settings is

Individual behaviour
Group behaviour
Organizational behaviour
None of these
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Assignment – A
1. Discuss the nature and dynamism of business environment. What factors trigger changes in the business environment?
2. Elaborate upon the major components of internal environment of a business firm?
3. Explain the main objectives as incorporated in various five-year plans of India.
4. ‘Social responsibility is a luxury which a few business organizations can afford’. Do you agree or disagree? Give arguments in support of your answer.
5. Write short answers to any three of the following: –
• Factors effecting technological environment of business
• Economic Liberalization
• Horizontal and vertical integration
• Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
7. Explain the regulatory role of the government in an economy. Is government intervention in the economy desirable?
8. Explain the role and functions of WTO and discuss its importance in promoting international trade.

Business Environment
Case Study –
Dumping is the process exporting goods at a price lower than what a good company can fetch in its domestic market. For eg. A baker sells a loaf of bread for Rs.100, but because there are no buyers in India she exports the loaf of bread to another country for Rs. 90.This will be called as dumping by that country. The retail price includes the profit margin of the seller. The loaf in the previous example may have been produced for Rs. 80 with the profit marging being Rs. 20 a loaf. This baker cuts down on his profits when he exports the loaf for Rs. 90. Exporters dump products when they cannot sell products in their domestic market even after slashing costs. This happens when domestic demand is very low as is the case with China, which is flooding the world with its cheap steel.
The prices are already down. One of the reasons is that China accounts for half of the world´s steel capacity of 1600 million tonnes (MT) per year and a slowdown has meant that even low -priced is not being bought domestically. In order to reduce excess capacity China recently announced a 1.8 million job cut in the coal and steel sector.
Yes, China exported 112MT of steel in 2015. This is 25% more than India´s total production of steel. Most of the countries to which China exports its steel say that the country is dumping the product causing adverse impact on their domestic industry. Tata Steel, which has begun the process of selling its UK operations, said one of its businesses in Europe was affected due to cheap Chinese imports flooding the continent.
Q.1. What is dumping process.
Q.2. Why did China recently announced a 1.8 million job cut in the coal and steel sector.?
Q.3. When does exporter´s dump their products.

SECTION C
QUESTION 1
MFN stands for

Most favoured Nation
Most fugitive nation
None of the above
All of the above
QUESTION 2
A period of rising prices and unemployement but little growth in consumer demand and business activity is known as

Stagflation
Inflation
Competition
None of the above
QUESTION 3
An increase in supply of currency or credit relative to the availability of goods and services resulting in higher prices

Competition
Stagflation
Inflation
All of the above
QUESTION 4
Economic Factors impacting business includes

“Tarriffs, Quotas etc”
Political risks
Acts of God
None of the above
QUESTION 5
Geological and ecological factors include

General Agreement on Tarrifs and Trades
Topograhical factors
Inflation of white Goods
Both (a) and (b)
QUESTION 6
“Use of economic theory , mathematical and statastical tools to forecast economic relations”

Economic Luck
Economic Efficiency
Econometric Methods
Decision Science
QUESTION 7
Which of the following are Brown Goods

“Refrigerator, Washing Machines”
“Radio , Transistors, televisons”
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
QUESTION 8
Markets with small number of large firms producing the bulk of its output

Monopoly
Oligopoly
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
QUESTION 9
MRTP act was replaced by this act

The consumer Protection Act
SEBI Act
Sick Industrial Companies Act
The Competition Act
QUESTION 10
“Act which authorizes the Government to protect and improve environmental quality, control and reduce pollution”

“Environmental Protection Act,1986”
MRTP Act
The consumer Protection Act
SEBI Act
QUESTION 11
The rate at which RBI lends money to commercial banks

Repo rate
Reverse Repo rate
Cash reserve ratio
Bank Rate
QUESTION 12
Rate at which RBI borrows money from banks

Repo rate
Reverse Repo rate
Cash reserve ratio
Bank Rate
QUESTION 13
Industrial Policy is about

Controlling prics
Controlling Quantity
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
QUESTION 14
Market which has only one seller of a particular good or service

Monopoly
Oligopoly
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
QUESTION 15
FEMA stands for

Foreign Exchange Multinational Act
Foreign Exchange Managrial Ability
Foreign Exchange Management act
None of the above
QUESTION 16
The act which regulates relations between workers and employers for direct negotiations is known as

“The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947”
International Labour Organization
None of the above
All of the above
QUESTION 17
Socio-Cultural Environment includes

Life-Style Changes
Devaluation
Consumer Activism
Both (a) and (b)
QUESTION 18
FERA Stands for

Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
Foreign Exchange Registration Act
Funding Exchange Regulation Act
None of the above
QUESTION 19
RBI can restrict the following

Transfer of foreign security by Indian Resident and NRI
Transfer of Immovable property
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
QUESTION 20
Business on internet is known as

FMCG
Black Market
E-Biz School
E-Commerce
QUESTION 21
“Those who are willing to take risk in starting new business, pursuing opportunities and being innovative are known as”

Brain Drain
Budget Line
Entrepreneurs
Decision Science
QUESTION 22
Attaching a brand mark or brand name to a product in order to distinguish it from other product variants

Capitalism
Consumer Sovereignty
Common Economy
Branding
QUESTION 23
Imperfect Competition can be divided into three main categories

Monopoly and Monopsony
Oligopoly and Oligopsony
Monopolistic Competition
All of the above
QUESTION 24
The objectives of Fiscal Policy are

Development of country
Provide Employment
None of the above
Both (a) and (b)
QUESTION 25
Goal of NAFTA is to

Eliminate barriers to trade and investment between three countries
Eliminate barriers to trade and investment between all the countries of the world
Eliminate barriers to trade and investment between tribes
None of the above
QUESTION 26
A systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of reporting country and residents of foreign countries is known as

Balance of Trade
Balance of Payments
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
QUESTION 27
SAARC Agreement establishes a framework for

The exchange of trade concessions among the member states
Eliminate barriers to trade and investment between three countries
Accelerate Economic Growth
All of the above
QUESTION 28
TRIMs stands for

Trade Related Investment Measures
Trade Related Improvement Measures
Trade Related Initiation Measures
None of the above
QUESTION 29
The term refers to a corporation´s initiatives to assess and take responsibility for the company´s effects on environmental and social wellbeing

Business Cycle
Trend analysis
Corporate Social Responsibility
Expropriation Risk
QUESTION 30
The most useful information derived from a break-even chart is the

Amount of sales revenue needed to cover enterprise fixed costs
Amount of sales revenue needed to cover enterprise variable costs
Volume or output level at which the enterprise break-evens
Relationship between revenue and costs at various levels of an activity
QUESTION 31
Competition Act was passed in the year

1947
1956
2002
None of the above
QUESTION 32
The objective of cash discount is

to extend the goodwill of a firm
to reduce the price of a product
to encourage the customers to make prompt payment
to increase the number of customers
QUESTION 33
Opportunity cost is a term which describes

a bargain price for a factor of production
costs related to an optimum level of production
variable costs
cost of one product in terms of production of others forgone
QUESTION 34
Income which individuals have at their disposal after the payment of personal Tax is known as

Gross National Product
Net National Product
Disposable Income
Personal Income
QUESTION 35
GSTP establishes a framework for

Trade Related Investment Measures
Exchange of trade concessions among the members of the group
Accelerate Economic Growth
Incorrect
QUESTION 36
The objective of India Trade Promotion Organization is to

Promote exports and imports
Upgradation of technology through the medium of fairs held in India and abroad
Assist Indian companies in product development
All of the above
QUESTION 37
National Centre for Trade promotion was established to

“Provide the latest trade, business and economic information to helpIndian and foreign organizations”
Exchange of trade concessions among the members of the group
Bargain price for a factor of production
Issue Policies to the exporters
QUESTION 38
The main factors of micro-environment are

Suppliers
Customers
Marketing Intermediaries
All of the above
QUESTION 39
Number of units of the product which must be soldnto earn enough revenue to cover all the expenses-both fixed and variable is known as

Forecasting
Break-Even Point
Fixed Costs
Contribution Margin
QUESTION 40
The objectives of Information Technology Act are

To legalise digital signature
Store data electronicallly
To stop computer crime
All of the above
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