Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

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1st Module Assessment

Which of the following is/are objective(s) of Accounting?

Select one:

a.

Ascertainment of Results of above Transactions

b.

All of the above

c.

Providing Information to the Users for Rational Decision-making

d.

Systematic Recording of Transactions

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Which of the following is/are function(s) of Accounting?

Select one:

a.

All of the above

b.

Forecasting

c.

Measurement

d.

Decision-making

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Which of the following statements gives the best definition of the objective of accounting?

Select one:

a.

To record, categorise and summarise financial transactions.

b.

To provide useful information to users

c.

To calculate the amount of dividend to pay to shareholders.

d.

To calculate the taxation due to the government.

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Business is an economic activity undertaken ___________________.

Select one:

a.

None of the above

b.

to maximize the wealth for the owners.

c.

with the motive of earning profits and to maximize the wealth for the owners.

d.

with the motive of earning profits

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Accounting is considered as a/an ___________ of the business.

Select one:

a.

Art

b.

Face

c.

Language

d.

None of the above

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The art of recording transactions in a set of books is referred to as __________.

Select one:

a.

Auditing

b.

Book Keeping

c.

Writing

d.

Accounting

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Which of the following is a basic assumption?

Select one:

a.

None of the above

b.

Matching concept

c.

Conservatism concept

d.

Historical cost concept

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“The process of identifying, measuring and communicating economic information to permit informed judgments and decisions by the users of accounting”. This definition was given by ____________________.

Select one:

a.

None of the above

b.

British Accounting Association

c.

American Accounting Association

d.

Indian Accounting Association

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Who issues International Financial Reporting Standards?

Select one:

a.

The International Accounting Standards Board

b.

The government

c.

The stock exchange

d.

The IFRS Advisory Committee

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What is the role of the IASB?

Select one:

a.

Review defective accounts

b.

Formulate international financial reporting standards

c.

Control the accountancy profession

d.

Oversee the standard setting and regulatory process

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The IASB Conceptual framework identifies user groups. Which of the following is not an information need for the ‘Investor’ group?

Select one:

a.

Measuring performance, risk and return

b.

Taking buy/sell decisions

c.

Assessment of repayment ability of an entity

d.

Taking decisions regarding holding investments

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Which of the following statements is/are true? 1 The IFRS Interpretations Committee is a forum for the IASB to consult with the outside world. 2 The IFRS Foundation produces IFRSs. The IFRS Foundation is overseen by the IASB. 3 One of the objectives of the IFRS Foundation is to bring about convergence of national accounting standards and IFRSs.

Select one:

a.

3 only

b.

1 and 3 only

c.

2 only

d.

2 and 3 only

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Which of the following is not an accounting convention?

Select one:

a.

Accruals

b.

Prudence

c.

Depreciation

d.

Consistency

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According to the IASB Conceptual framework which of the following is not an objective of financial statements?

Select one:

a.

Enabling users to assess the performance of management to aid decision making()

b.

Helping to assess the going concern status of a business

c.

Providing information regarding the financial position of a business

d.

Providing information regarding the performance of a business

The insistence of the concept of ________ would result in avoidance of window dressing the results by choosing the accounting method by convenience and thereby either inflating or understating net income.

a.

Consistency

b.

Matching

c.

Dual aspect

d.

Revenue Realisation

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In times of rising prices, the historical cost convention:

Select one:

a.

overstates asset values and understates profi ts.

b.

understates asset values and profits.

c.

overstates asset values and profi ts.

d.

understates asset values and overstates profi ts.

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Which of the following correctly defines ‘equity’ according to the IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting?

Select one:

a.

Equity is the residual interest in the assets of the entity after deducting all its liabilities.

b.

Equity is a present obligation of the entity arising from past events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the entity of resources embodying economic benefit.

c.

Equity is increases in economic benefits during the accounting period in the form of inflows or enhancements of assets or decreases of liabilities.

d.

Equity is a resource controlled by an entity as a result of past events and from which future economic benefits are expected to flow to the entity.

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If, at the end of the financial year, a company makes a charge against the profits for stationery consumed but not yet invoiced, this adjustment is in accordance with the convention of:

Select one:

a.

accruals.

b.

materiality

c.

objectivity

d.

consistency

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2nd Module Assessment

Accounts related to assets or properties or possessions.

Select one:

a.

Artificial Personal Account

b.

Nominal Account

c.

Personal Account

d.

Real Account

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Accounts that normally have debit balances are:

Select one:

a.

assets, liabilities, and dividends

b.

assets, dividends, and expenses

c.

assets, expenses, and share capital—ordinary

d.

assets, expenses, and revenues

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Which of the following is a type of Voucher?

Select one:

a.

Payment Voucher

b.

Non-Cash or Transfer Voucher

c.

All of the above

d.

Receipt Voucher

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Posting:

Select one:

a.

normally occurs before journalizing.

b.

transfers ledger transaction data to the journal

c.

transfers journal entries to ledger accounts

d.

is an optional step in the recording process

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The purchase of supplies on account should result in:

Select one:

a.

a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Supplies

b.

a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts Receivable.

c.

a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts Payable

d.

a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Cash.

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Debits:

Select one:

a.

decrease assets and increase liabilities

b.

increase both assets and liabilities

c.

increase assets and decrease liabilities

d.

decrease both assets and liabilities

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A ledger:

Select one:

a.

should show accounts in alphabetical order

b.

is a book of original entry.

c.

contains only asset and liability accounts.

d.

is a collection of the entire group of accounts maintained by a company

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Imprest system is used in-

Select one:

a.

Ledger

b.

Petty cash book

c.

Journal

d.

Cash book

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The following account has a credit balance

Select one:

a.

Purchase A/c

b.

None of the above

c.

Sundry Creditors A/c

d.

Plant and Equipment A/c

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A revenue account:

Select one:

a.

is decreased by credits

b.

is increased by credits

c.

has a normal balance of a debit

d.

is increased by debits

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Which of the following statements about a journal is false?

Select one:

a.

It discloses in one place the complete effect of a transaction.

b.

It is not a book of original entry.

c.

It helps to locate errors because the debit and credit amounts for each entry can be readily compared.

d.

It provides a chronological record of transactions

Which of the following would be recorded in the sales day book? Select one:  a. Trade discounts  b. Credit notes received  c. Sales invoices  d. Discounts allowed

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In which book of prime entry will a business record debit notes in respect of goods which have been sent back to suppliers?

Select one:

a.

The purchase day book

b.

The sales returns day book

c.

The purchase returns day book

d.

The cash book

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Ram purchased a car INR. 10,000 paid INR. 3000 as cash and balance amount will be paid in three equal installments due to this __________________.

Select one:

a.

Assets will increase by 7000 with corresponding increase in liability by 7000

b.

Total assets increase by 10,000

c.

Both (b) and (c)

d.

Total liabilities increase by 3000

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From the following details estimate the capital as on 31.03.2017, Capital as on 01.04.2016 INR. 4,10,000. Drawings INR. 40,000, Profit during the year INR. 50,000

Select one:

a.

4,50,000

b.

4,20,000

c.

4,10,000

d.

4,00,000

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Before posting a payment of €5,000, the Accounts Payable of Senator Company had a normal balance of €16,000. The balance after posting this transaction was:

Select one:

a.

€ 21,000

b.

€ 11,000

c.

€ 5,000

d.

Cannot be determined

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At 30 November 20X5 Jenny had a bank loan of $8,500 and a balance of $678 in hand in her bank account. How should these amounts be recorded on Jenny’s opening trial balance at 1 December 20X5?

Select one:

a.

Credit $7,822

b.

Debit $8,500 and Credit $678

c.

Credit $8,500 and Debit $678

d.

Debit $7,822

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The trial balance of Clooney Corporation had accounts with the following normal balances: Cash $5,000, Service Revenue $85,000, Salaries and Wages Payable $4,000, Salaries and Wages Expense $40,000, Rent Expense $10,000, Share Capital— Ordinary $42,000, Dividends $15,000, and Equipment $61,000. In preparing a trial balance, the total in the debit column is: ………..

Select one:

a.

$131,000

b.

$216,000

c.

$116,000

d.

$91,000

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3rd Module Assessment

Gross profit is the difference between

Select one:

 

a.

Sales and operating expenses

 

b.

Sales and cost of goods sold

 

c.

None of the above

 

d.

Sales and non-operating expenses

The financial statements of an organisation are drafted using the ___________.

(a) Transactions

(b) Events

(c) Ledger balances

(d) None of the above.

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Among the financial statements, ___________ is/ are referred to as ‘period statement’.

Select one:

 

a.

Both (a) and (b)

 

b.

Trading Account.

 

c.

Balance Sheet

 

d.

Profit & Loss Account

 

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The financial statement that reflects information about the financial performance of an entity is referred to as the ___________.

Select one:

 

a.

Balance Sheet

 

b.

None of the above

 

c.

Cash Flow Statement

 

d.

Income Statement

 

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Current Liabilities means

Select one:

 

a.

Liabilities which are readable within 3 months

 

b.

Liabilities which are payable immediately

 

c.

Liabilities which are payable within 12 months

 

d.

Liabilities which payable after one accounting year

 

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A trial balance will have no balance, if ____

Select one:

 

a.

The purchase on credit basis is debited to purchases and credited to cash

 

b.

500 cash payment to creditors is debited to creditors for 50 and credited to cash as 500

 

c.

correct entry is posted twice

 

d.

None of the above

 

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Payment to a creditor

Select one:

 

a.

Only reduce an asset.

 

b.

Increase an asset, reduce a liability

 

c.

Only reduce a liability

 

d.

Reduce an asset, reduce a liability

 

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Which of the following is a position statement?

Select one:

 

a.

Profit and loss account

 

b.

Trial balance

 

c.

funds flow statement

 

d.

Balance sheet

 

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________ Account charges the COGS and other direct expenses and losses against the sales revenue to determine the gross operating result of the concern during a particular accounting period.

Select one:

 

a.

Receipts & Payments

 

b.

Income & Expenditure

 

c.

Profit & Loss

 

d.

Trading

 

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Assets are listed on the balance sheet in the order of their

Select one:

 

a.

balance.

 

b.

adjustments

 

c.

liquidity.

 

d.

purchase date.

 

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Balance sheet is prepared

Select one:

 

a.

At a particular date

 

b.

For the close of a period

 

c.

For showing performance of an organisation

 

d.

At the close of a day

 

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What does carriage inwards effect

Select one:

 

a.

Capital

 

b.

Drawing

 

c.

Purchases

 

d.

Sales

 

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Where is discount received disclosed?

Select one:

 

a.

Trial balance

 

b.

Trading account

 

c.

Profit and loss account

 

d.

Balance sheet

Which of the following is the correct formula for cost of sales?

Select one:

 

a.

Purchases – closing inventory + sales

 

b.

Opening inventory – purchases + closing inventory

 

c.

Opening inventory – closing inventory + purchases

 

d.

Opening inventory + closing inventory – purchases

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Carriage outwards is disclosed in

Select one:

 

a.

Balance sheet

 

b.

Trading account

 

c.

Trial balance

 

d.

Profit and loss account

 

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Where is carriage inwards disclosed?

Select one:

 

a.

Trial balance

 

b.

Trading account

 

c.

Profit and loss account

 

d.

Balance sheet

 

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Given that values of opening inventory, purchases and Cost of Goods Sold for a particular accounting period are INR. 1,00,000, INR. 9,30,000 and INR. 7,50,000, the closing inventory will be:

Select one:

 

a.

4,80,000

 

b.

8,20,000

 

c.

2,40,000

 

d.

2,80,000

 

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Prisha has not kept accurate accounting records during the financial year. She had opening inventory of $6,700 and purchased goods costing $84,000 during the year. At the year end she had $5,400 left in inventory. All sales are made at a mark up on cost of 20%. What is Prisha’s gross profit for the year?

Select one:

 

a.

$16,540

 

b.

$17,060

 

c.

$20,675

 

d.

$13,750

 

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If a company wants to earn a 25% profit on sales, what will be the profit mark up on the cost.

Select one:

 

a.

33.33%

 

b.

25%

 

c.

30%

 

d.

20%

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4th Module Assessment

Comparisons of data within a company are an example of the following comparative basis:

Select one:

a.

Intracompany.

b.

Industry averages.

c.

Both intracompany and intercompany.

d.

Intercompany.

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A measure useful in evaluating the effi ciency in managing inventories is:

Select one:

a.

average days to sell inventory.

b.

Both (a) and (b).

c.

inventory turnover

d.

return on shareholders’ equity.

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Which of the following is technique of financial statement analysis?

Select one:

a.

All

b.

Comparative statement

c.

Trend analysis

d.

Common‐size statement

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Free cash flow provides an indication of a company’s ability to:

Select one:

a.

generate net income.

b.

generate cash to pay dividends

c.

generate cash to invest in new capital expenditures.

d.

Both (b) and (c).

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In horizontal analysis, each item is expressed as a percentage of the:

Select one:

a.

base year amount

b.

equity amount

c.

net income amount

d.

total assets amount

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Which technique used for figures of two or more periods are placed side by side to facilitate easy and meaningful comparisons?

Select one:

a.

Trend Analysis

b.

Comparative statement

c.

None

d.

Common‐size statement

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Which of the following is the main objective of a financial statement?

Select one:

a.

to know the earning capacity

b.

to know the solvency

c.

to know the debt capacity

d.

All

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The term financial statement refers to…

Select one:

a.

Cash flow and Fund Flow

b.

Balance sheet

c.

Income statement

d.

All

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The process of comparing various financial factors of a company over a period of time is known as …

Select one:

a.

Intra‐firm comparison

b.

Inter‐firm comparison

c.

Inter‐industry comparison

d.

Ratio Analysis

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What is followed while preparing the financial statements?

Select one:

a.

Accounting concepts

b.

Accounting principles

c.

Accounting conventions

d.

All

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Which of the following items is reported on a statement of cash fl ows prepared by the direct method?

Select one:

a.

Cash payments to suppliers

b.

Increase in accounts receivable.

c.

Depreciation expense.

d.

Loss on disposal of building

Which of the following measures is an evaluation of a firm’s ability to pay current liabilities?  

a. Return on assets. 

b. Current ratio. 

c. Both (a) and (b).

d. Acid-test ratio.

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The statement of cash flows classifies cash receipts and cash payments by these activities:

Select one:

a.

investing, financing, and non-operating.

b.

financing, operating, and non-operating.

c.

operating and non-operating.

d.

investing, financing, and operating.

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Which of the following is incorrect about the statement of cash flows?

Select one:

a.

The statement shows the cash provided (used) for three categories of activity.

b.

The operating section is the last section of the statement.

c.

The indirect method may be used to report cash provided by operations.

d.

The direct method may be used to report cash provided by operations.

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Which is an example of a cash flow from an operating activity?

Select one:

a.

Payment of cash to reacquire shares.

b.

None of the above.

c.

Receipt of cash from the sale of ordinary shares

d.

Payment of cash to lenders for interest

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Sammy Company reported net sales of £300,000, £330,000, and £360,000 in the years, 2012, 2013, and 2014, respectively. If 2012 is the base year, what is the trend percentage for 2014?

Select one:

a.

130%

b.

108%.

c.

120%.

d.

77%.

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Tiger Equipment Sales Co. had accounts receivable at the beginning and end of the year of $200,000 and $300,000, respectively. The net sales were $1,000,000. Determine the accounts receivable turnover and number of days’ sales in accounts receivable.

Select one:

a.

3.3, 109

b.

3.3, 91

c.

4.0, 109

d.

4.0,  91.25

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Horizon Company has the following current account information for a recent balance sheet: Cash $ 25,000;Temporary investments 25,000; Accounts receivable 125,000; Merchandise inventory 100,000; Accounts payable 75,000; Accrued expenses 25,000 What are the current and quick ratios?

Select one:

a.

2.50, 1.50

b.

1.75, 2.50

c.

2.75, 1.75

d.

2.75, 0.50

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5th Module Assessment

(24)

Which of the following statement is true in case of a Foreign Company?

Select one:

a.

A Company incorporated in India and has place of business outside India

b.

A Company incorporated outside India and has a place of business in India

c.

None of the above

d.

A Company incorporated in India and has a place of business in India.

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If expenses of liquidation of the vendor company are paid by the purchasing company then, in purchasing company’s book, the account debited is

Select one:

a.

None of the above

b.

Liquidation expense account.

c.

Goodwill account

d.

Vendor company account

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Debenture interest

Select one:

a.

Accumulates in case of losses or inadequate profi ts

b.

None of the above

c.

Is payable before the payment of any dividend on shares

d.

Is payable after the payment of preference dividend but before the payment of equity dividend ___.

Question 4

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The Securities Premium amount may be utilized by a company for __________.

Select one:

a.

Writing off any loss of revenue nature

b.

Writing off any loss on sale of fi xed asset

c.

None of the above

d.

Writing off the expenses/discount on the issue of debentures

Question 5

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The accumulated losses under scheme of internal reconstruction are written off against

Select one:

a.

Capital Reduction account

b.

None of the above

c.

Shareholders’ account

d.

Share Capital account

Question 6

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When the object of reconstruction is usually to re-organise capital or to compound with creditors or to effect economies then such type of reconstruction is called

Select one:

a.

Internal reconstruction without liquidation of the company

b.

Internal reconstruction with liquidation

c.

None of the above

d.

External reconstruction

Question 7

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The excess price received over the par value of shares, should be credited to __________.

Select one:

a.

Securities premium account

b.

Calls-in-advance account

c.

Share capital account

d.

None of the above

Question 8

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In case of amalgamation, the entry for elimination of unrealized profit or loss on stock is made

Select one:

a.

By the vendor company

b.

None of the above

c.

By the third party

d.

By the purchasing company

Question 9

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Amalgamation adjustment reserve is opened in the books of the amalgamating company to incorporate

Select one:

a.

Assets of the amalgamating company

b.

Non- Statutory reserves of the amalgamating company

c.

Statutory reserves of the amalgamating company

d.

None of the above

Question 10

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Which of the following statement is not a feature of a Company?

Select one:

a.

None of the above

b.

Members have unlimited liability

c.

Perpetual Existence

d.

Separate legal entity

Question 11

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Reconstruction is a process by which affairs of a company are reorganized by

Select one:

a.

Both (a) and (b)

b.

Revaluation of assets and Reassessment of liabilities.

c.

Writing off the losses already suffered by reducing the paid up value of shares and/or varying the rights attached to different classes of shares.

d.

None of the above

A process of reconstruction, which is carried out without liquidating the company and forming a new one is called

Select one:

a.

None of the above

b.

Internal reconstruction.

c.

External reconstruction

d.

Amalgamation

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When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited with ________ and the share forfeiture account is credited with __________.

Select one:

a.

Paid-up capital of shares forfeited; Called up capital of shares forfeited

b.

Called up capital of shares forfeited; Calls in arrear of shares forfeited

c.

None of the above

d.

Called up capital of shares forfeited; Amount received on shares forfeited

Question 13

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Under the ‘pooling of interests’ method, the difference between the purchase consideration and share capital of the transferee company should be adjusted to

Select one:

a.

Goodwill or capital reserve

b.

Amalgamation adjustment account

c.

None of the above

d.

General reserve

Question 14

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At the time of amalgamation, purchase consideration does not include

Select one:

a.

None of the above

b.

Preference shares issued by the transferee company to the preference shareholders of the transferor company

c.

The sum which the transferee company will directly pay to the creditors of the transferor company

d.

Payments made in the form of assets by the transferee company to the shareholders of the transferor company

Question 15

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G Ltd. acquired assets worth INR. 7,50,000 from H Ltd. by issue of shares of INR. 100 at a premium of 25%. The number of shares to be issued by G Ltd. to settle the purchase consideration = ?

Select one:

a.

8,550 shares

b.

7,500 shares

c.

6,000 shares

d.

9,375 shares

Question 16

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F Ltd. purchased Machinery from G Company for a book value of INR. 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10% debentures of INR. 100 each at a premium of 25%. The debenture account was credited with ______.

Select one:

a.

5,00,000

b.

4,00,000

c.

3,20,000

d.

4,20,000

Question 17

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T Ltd. proposed to issue 6,000 equity shares of INR. 100 each at a premium of 40%. The minimum amount of application money to be collected per share as per the Companies Act, 2013

Select one:

a.

INR. 10.00

b.

INR. 6.00

c.

INR. 7.00

d.

INR. 5.00

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Assignment 2

15

Case Study

Use the following financial statement information as of the end of each year to answer following Questions.  
 20142013
Inventory $54,000$48,000
Current assets81,0001,06,000
Total assets 3,82,0003,26,000
Current liabilities 27,00036,000
Total liabilities1,02,00088,000
Share capital—preference 40,00040,000
Ordinary shareholders’ equity2,40,0001,98,000
Net sales7,84,0006,97,000
Cost of goods sold 3,06,0002,77,000
Net income 1,34,00090,000
Tax expense22,00018,000
Interest expense 12,00012,000
Dividends paid to preference shareholders 4,0004,000
Dividends paid to ordinary shareholders 15,00010,000

Compute the times interest earned for 2014.

a.

65.3 times

b.

13.0 times

c.

14.0 times.

d.

11.2 times.

Question 2. Compute the days in inventory for 2014.

a.

6 days.

b.

64.4 days

c.

24 days.

d.

60.8 days.

Question 3. Compute the current ratio for 2014.

a.

1.26:1.

b.

3.0:1.

c.

3.75:1.

d.

.80:1.

Question 4. Compute the profi t margin for 2014.

a.

18.10%

b.

5.90%

c.

37.9%.

d.

17.1%.

Question 5. Compute the return on ordinary shareholders’ equity for 2014.

a.

61.2%.

b.

47.9%.

c.

51.7%.

d.

59.40%

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Business Statistics (QAM103)-Semester I

Business Statistics (QAM103)-Semester I

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Help

AMITY (Assignment)  BBA  Semester 1

Question 1. On the basis of number of variables __________correlation is a type of correlation.
a. negative
b. zero
c. positive
d. partial

Question 2. Regression line equation is in which form of equation?
a. none of these
b. two point form of equation
c. point slope form of equation
d. intercept form of equation

Question 3. Range of Correlation coefficient is _.
a. minus one to zero
b. minus one to plus 1
c. zero to plus one
d. minus infinity to plus infinity

Question 4. In rank correlation coefficient formula, sum of squared differences between the ranks is divided by _.
a. n(1+n^2)
b. n(1-n^2)
c. n(n^2+1)
d. n(n^2-1)

Question 5. Correlation is denoted by _
a. ρ
b. r
c. both of these
d. none of these

Question 6. On the basis of change in proportion, which amongst the following is a type of correlation.
a. Zero
b. none of these
c. Simple
d. Multiple

Question 7. If cov (x,y) is negative, then variable x __ as variable y increase.
a. decrease
b. None of these
c. remains constant
d. increase

Question 8. If cov (x,y) = 0 is zero, then is __ correlation.
a. none of these
b. zero
c. negative
d. positive

Question 9. If cov (x,y) is positive, then variable x __ as variable y increase.
a. remains constant
b. None of these
c. decrease
d. increase

Question 10. General equation of the regression line x on y is __.
a. (x-xbar)=b_xy (y-ybar)
b. (x+xbar)=b_xy (y+ybar)
c. (y-ybar)=b_xy (x-xbar)
d. (x-xbar)=b_yx (y-ybar)

“If a car increases speed, travel time to a destination decreases”, is an example of _ correlation.
Select one:
a. Partial
b. Positive
c. Multiple
d. Negative

Question 11. Variables like Advertisement and Sales which would yield a positive correlation, can be considerred as an examples of __ correlation.
a. partial
b. multiple
c. zero
d. simple

Question 12. Which amongst the following is not required to find Karl pearson coefficient of correlation?
a. covariance
b. Standard deviation
c. None of these
d. variance

Question 13. Regression coefficient b_yx can be calculated as _ * [S.D. (y) / S.D. (x)]
a. alpha
b. sigma
c. phi
d. rho

Question 14. Which amongst the following is not required to find rank correlation coefficient?
a. All of these
b. Pearson correlation coefficient
c. Difference between ranks
d. Number of items

Variable of sales dependent upon both advertisement and price variables, can be considerred as an examples of __ correlation.
Select one:
a. multiple
b. simple
c. partial
d. zero

Question 15. Following data refers to the years of service (variable X) put in by seven specialized workers in a factory and their monthly incomes (variable Y) in hundreds of rupees. X variable values with corresponding Y variable values can be listed as,, 11 years of service with income 700, 7 years of service with income 500, 9 years of service with income 300, 5 years of service with income 200, 8 years of service with income 600, 6 years of service with income 400, 10 years of service with income 800. Bases on the regression equation y on x, for 12 years of service in the similar field, what would be the recommended salary in hundreds of rupees?

a. 600
b. 700
c. 800
d. 500

Question 16. Following data refers to the years of service (variable X) put in by seven specialized workers in a factory and their monthly incomes (variable Y). X variable values with corresponding Y variable values can be listed as,, 11 years of service with income 700, 7 years of service with income 500, 9 years of service with income 300, 5 years of service with income 200, 8 years of service with income 600, 6 years of service with income 400, 10 years of service with income 800. Regression equation y on x is __.

a. y=4/3x-1
b. y=1-3/4x
c. y=3/4x-1
d. y=3/4x+1

Question 17. Following data refers to the years of service (variable X) put in by seven specialized workers in a factory and their monthly incomes (variable Y). X variable values with corresponding Y variable values can be listed as,, 11 years of service with income 700, 7 years of service with income 500, 9 years of service with income 300, 5 years of service with income 200, 8 years of service with income 600, 6 years of service with income 400, 10 years of service with income 800. Find the correlation coefiicient.

a. 0.29
b. 0.36
c. -0.45
d. 0.75

MODULE 5

Increase and decrease noticed in the general trend of any time series is always _________.
Select one:
a. regular
b. linear
c. both of these (wrong answer)
d. none of these

Question 1. Method of moving average is especially useful in the case of the time series with ________.
Select one:
a. regular seasonal fluctuations
b. regular cyclical movements
c. regular irregular variations
d. all of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. Normal Distribution is a continuous frequency distribution of _______ range.
Select one:
a. finite
b. infinite
c. both of these
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. Addition rule of probability is P(A union B)= P(A)+P(B) for ______ events.
Select one:
a. mutually exclusive
b. equally likely
c. non exhaustive
d. all of these
Clear my choice
Question 4. In an experiment of tossing a coin. If A = getting a head and B = getting a tail. Then A and B are _________ events.
Select one:
a. mutually exclusive
b. equally likely
c. exhaustive
d. all of these
Clear my choice
Question 5. Events are said to be _______ when one does not occur more often than the others.
Select one:
a. equally likely
b. complementary
c. disjoint
d. mutually exclusive
Clear my choice
Question 6. Range or scale of probability is ____.
Select one:
a. minus one to plus one
b. zero to one
c. minus one to zero
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 7. Binomial distribution is symmetrical when ____ .
Select one:
a. p>q
b. p<q
c. p=q
d. p≠q
Clear my choice
Question 8. According to empirical rule _____ percentage of data lies between one standard deviation of data.
Select one:
a. 99.7
b. 13.5
c. 68
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 9. If p represents the probability of success of a player in any game and M represents the sum of money he will receive in case of success Then his expectation = ______.
Select one:
a. p/M
b. p*M
c. p+M
d. p-M
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which component of time series can be considered to be present due to the occurrence of business or trade cycles in the economic world
Select one:
a. seasonal fluctuations
b. cyclical movements
c. irregular variations
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 11. Consider an experiment of rolling a fair dice. The probability that both dice show a 4 is ____
Select one:
a. 1/2
b. 1/36
c. 1/4
d. 1/12
Clear my choice
Question 12. In which case amongst the following can we use Poisson Distribution?
Select one:
a. No. of defective screws per box of 100 screws
b. No. of typographical errors per page
c. both of these
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. Total number of items in the sample space of an event of tossing two coins together is _____.
Select one:
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following will present a symmetrical graph when plotted?
Select one:
a. B(0.3,10)
b. B(0.5,10)
c. B(0.8,10)
d. B(0.9,10)
Clear my choice
In which case will the binomial distribution be applied? Select one:
a. When we have to find the probability of 6 heads in 10 throws of a fair coin
b. When we have to find the probability that 3 out of 10 items produced by a machine, which produces 8 % defective items on an average, will be defective
c. both of these
d. None of these
Question 15. Births in a hospital occur randomly at an average rate of 1.8 births per hour. What is the probability of observing 4 births in a given hour at the hospital?
Select one:
a. 0.3628
b. 0.0723
c. 0.7329
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 16. Regarding a certain normal distribution concerning the income of the individuals we are given that mean = 500 rupees and standard deviation = 100 rupees. Find the possibility that an individual selected at random will belong to the income group Rs. 420 to Rs. 570.
Select one:
a. 0.183
b. 0.213
c. 0.546
d. none of these
Clear my choice
Question 17. A table of 4 students has 1 is senior and 3 juniors. The teacher is going to pick 2 students at random from this group to present homework solutions. Probability that both students selected are juniors is _____.
Select one:
a. 1/3
b. 1/2
c. 1/4
d. 1/6

Assignment 2
A nutritionist need to study the daily protein intake of a client (during 3 week period), present in different food items and the data collected by him is as follows:

32, 21, 12, 43, 16, 48, 56, 24, 40, 45, 34, 11, 43, 33, 25, 34, 55, 32, 22, 20, 42

Question 1. Making 6 class intervals for the range, the length of each interval would approximately be .
Select one:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 8
d. 10
Clear my choice
Question 2. Starting to make the intervals from 10.5 and ending at 58.5, each interval being of length 8 units, how many intervals would exist?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 7
c. 6
d. 4
Clear my choice
Question 3. Frequency of second interval 18.5 to 26.5 is
.
Select one:
a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1
Clear my choice
Question 4. Frequency of first interval 10.5 to 18.5 is .
Select one:
a. 1
b. 4
c. 5
d. 3
Clear my choice
Question 5. Frequency of the last interval 50.5 to 58.5 is
.
Select one:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 2
d. 3
Clear my choice
Business Statistics (QAM103)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Business Statistics (QAM103)-Semester I

Principles &Practices of Management

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Principles &Practices of Management

1. What were the Hawthorne studies? What effect did they have on the Management practices?
2. What steps can an organisation take to increase the motivational force for high levels of performance?
3. Explain briefly various Management Functions. What is the basis for saying that planning is the most crucial management function? Discuss.
4.Explain the MBO Process.
5. Elucidate the relationship between planning and control.

Section B

CASE STUDY

When play becomes work Sheeted Banavali’s daily routine as a Team Leader at UK 3 in anything but ordinary. Eight straight hours of handling a team of executives servicing customers from halfway across the world is bound to leave anyone exhausted. “I either go to Unwind, which plays great music, or Cuisine, where the food is top of the world. Sometimes I even go to Finesse to get my hairdo right,” she says. Unwind and Cuisine, by the way, are theme cafeterias, while Finesse is a beauty salon. And yes, all three are located within the 3 office premises at Mind space, Malady. “We are setting the benchmark in HR practices,” says 3 Head (Recruitment and HR Support) Achill Sharma, who prefers describing the 5,000-employees strong 3 as a Customer Relationship Management (CRM) company rather than a plain Jane BPO. “Our focus is the employee and we believe in nurturing his or her talent.” With a Citibank ATM inside the office, a full-fledged gaming arcade, a higher education programme – Gurukul – that has a tie-up with institutions like NorseMonee Institute of Management Studies and the Institute of Chartered Financial Analysts of India allowing employees to pursue an MBA or a CA, the only thing missing is bed and breakfast. “By the way, we have three company guesthouses if the staff wants to stay overnight,” says Sharma with a laugh, even market leaders joins the game. If BPOs are upping the ante, the IT companies, small and big, aren’t far behind. Sudheesh Denktash, Vice- President, HR, of the India operations of Tesco, the world’s largest grocery home-shopping service in the world, puts the paradigm shift in perspective calling it the ‘death of the personnel manager'” The IT industry has effectively ensured that the old personnel department is gone and done away with. Human resources today is completely about talent management and retention,” he says. And walking the talk, Tesco offers employees not only maternity and paternity leave, but also adoption leave. “We are an equal opportunity employer and if any employee of ours wants to adopt a child, we will support him or her in every possible ways,” he says. The Tesco campus at Whitefield in Bangalore also houses a learning centre where employees can register themselves for a retail certification course from no less than the Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Bangalore. “We have also done away with the probation period because we are in the business of training people,” says Denktash. Gurgaon-based Eon Technologies, which handles offshore projects across Europe, is a small company by Indian IT standards. “But we have practices which are cutting edge,” says Preamp Pillai, head of HR at the company. “Tele-commuting, flexi-time and retreats focused on team building are our strong points.”

QUESTION 1. What principles of motivation are being used here?
QUESTION 2. What control tools would be most effective in this kind of work environment?
QUESTION 3. Can such efforts lead to a consistent behaviour in organisations? Give reasons.

QUESTION 1

Decreasing the role of subordinates in decision-making is known as?

Decentralisation

Stabilization

Centralization

Organization

QUESTION 2

Which of the following refers to the flow of information among people on the same or similar organizational levels?

Diagonal

Upward

Horizontal

Downward

QUESTION 3

Which of the following is a question that needs to be answered in job analysis?

What physical and mental tasks does the worker accomplish?

What qualifications are needed to perform the job?

When is the job to be completed?

All of the above.

QUESTION 4

______________refers to the ability of individuals or groups to induce or influence the beliefs or actions of other individuals or groups.

Power

Responsibility

Delegation

Discipline

QUESTION 5

Which one management function helps maintain managerial effectiveness by establishing guidelines for future activities?

Organizing

Planning

Staffing

Leading

QUESTION 6

Which is not a leadership theory?

Trait theory

ERG theory

Contingency theory

Transactional theory

QUESTION 7

Which is an esteem need?

Basic pay

Safety regulations

Prestigious office location

Training

QUESTION 8

“What interview is comprehensive, and the interviewer encourages the applicant to do much of the talking?”

Unstructured

Structured

Stress

Directive

QUESTION 9

What are the typical products of job analysis?

Job descriptions and job specifications

Work standards

Work schedules

Desired financial incentives

QUESTION 10

In Basket Technique is used in

Production

Marketing

Training

Accounting

QUESTION 11

Key result areas are usually terms as

Objectives

Missions

Goals

KRAs

QUESTION 12

Which one is not a stage of Group process?

Forming

Norming

Welcoming

Performing

QUESTION 13

MBO was first suggested by

F.W. Taylor

Henri Fayol

Peter F. Drucker

Watson

QUESTION 14

Which managerial function gives attention to influencing and motivating employees to improve performance and achieve corporate objectives?

Leading

Organizing

Staffing

Controlling

QUESTION 15

Job Evaluation is a technique which aims at:

Establishing fair and equitable pay structure

Analysing of requirement of updating technology

Assessing safety requirement of jobs

Improving productivity

QUESTION 16

Which is an advantage of decentralization?

Encourages decision-making

Easy to have uniform policy

Greater Control

Decreases complexity of coordination

QUESTION 17

Performance review is done to

Reward work done

Focus on areas requiring improvement

Giving appropriate feed back to individuals

All of the above

QUESTION 18

The general conclusion of the ‘Relay Assembly Test Room Experiments’ was that employees would work better if the management were concerned about their welfare and superiors paid special attention to them. This phenomenon was subsequently labeled as the

Relay effect

Hawthorne effect

Behavioural effect

Human effect

QUESTION 19

Which is not a way to overcome the initial resistance to change in organizations?

Education and Communication

Group inertia

Participation and involvement

Negotiation and agreement

QUESTION 20

Management of change refers to

Help people to adopt to the change

Changing people

Change the organization structure

Change the top management

QUESTION 21

Requisites of effective supervision are

Technical knowledge of the work

Managerial knowledge

Knowledge of rules & regulations

All of the above

QUESTION 22

According to Herzberg and his associates are job content factors which lead to job satisfaction?

Motivators

Hygiene factor

Context factors

Physiological factors

QUESTION 23

“The establishment of a distinct area, unit of subsystem of an organization over which a manager has authority for the performance of specialized activities and results is termed_____________”

Centralization

Depart mentation

Decentralization

Functionalization

QUESTION 24

Democratic leadership is also know as leadership.

Autocratic

Participative

Bureaucratic

Laissez-faire

QUESTION 25

A/an _______is a vital tool for providing information about organizational relationships.

Organizational chart

Functional chart

Organizational model

Functional model

QUESTION 26

Which control principles suggests that managers should be informed about a problem only when the data shows a significant deviation from established standards?

Management by walking around

Management by objectives

Management by goals

Management by exception

QUESTION 27

Line Managers are:

Supervisors

Staff authorities

Managers with authority to direct operations in their spheres of activity

Managers with authority to direct operations in their spheres of activity

QUESTION 28

“When an employee asks a question or reports a problem to his or her supervisor, this is an example of which direction of communication?”

Grapevine

Lateral

Downward

Upward

QUESTION 29

You have decided to send a message to your supervisor requesting vacation time. You brainstorm some basic concepts and now must decide how to phrase this information for your supervisor. You are at which of the following steps in the communication process?

Sending

Receiving

Encoding

Decoding

QUESTION 30

Group decision-making has certain advantages over individual decision-making. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to group decision-making?

It allows pooling of knowledge and information

It’s a source of personnel development

It discourages risk taking

It’s time consuming and costly

QUESTION 31

The idea that workers look for meaning in their work and will actively seek out new responsibility is most consistent with which of these needs identified by Maslow?

Safety

Social

Self-actualization

Physiological

QUESTION 32

A manager’s posture during a communication with a colleague is an example of which aspect of the communications process?
Decoding

Non-verbal behavior

Informal channel

The grapevine

QUESTION 33

The organization chart is a way of showing

How the tasks of an organization are divided and co-ordinated

The informal patterns of communication

The stakeholders who have an interest in the company

The physical layout of the buildings on a site

QUESTION 34

“When a manager secures the agreement of a colleague to work on a project in return for the promise of providing the colleague with some extra remuneration, what type of power is he or she exercising?”

Expert power

Coercive power

Referent power

Reward power

QUESTION 35

_______________________spans of management create __________structures with many levels of management.

Wide ; tall

Narrow ; tall

Wide ; unpredictable

Narrow ; flat

QUESTION 36

Which of the following is not one of the steps identified as part of the controlling process?

Setting performance standards or goals

Measuring performance

Writing the reports

Taking corrective action

QUESTION 37

“According to Herzberg, which of the following can be classified as a motivator?”

Working conditions

Pay

Supervision

Recognition

QUESTION 38

“Which of the following refers to changing a task to make it inherently more rewarding, motivating and satisfying?”

Enlargement

Rotation

Enhancement

Enrichment

QUESTION 39

The tendency to place the primary responsibility for one’s success or failure either within oneself or on outside forces is referred to as

Authoritarianism

b) Emotional stability

c) Locus of control

Extroversion

QUESTION 40

________________is a process whereby companies find out how others do something better than they do and then try to imitate or improve on it.

TQM

Continuous improvement

Benchmarking

Empowerment

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Question 1- Explain Countable and Uncountable Nouns. Give examples to illustrate your
Question 2 .Give three examples of Positive, Comparative and Superlative adjectives.
Question 3: Name three main characters in the novel – The Financial Expert.

CASE STUDY
Case Study

POONA COFFEE HOUSE
Improved operations under new management
It looks as if a miracle has taken place. Poona Coffee House stands at the same place, opposite Deccon Gymkhana bus stand, one of the busiest places in the town where it is operating for the last 15 years. As against a morose outlook it used to give with hardly 15-20 customers at a time, perhaps outnumbered by a motley crew of unshaven and disheveled waiters slouching around, now it’s a bustling place with at least 100-150 customers at any time of the day. These comprise college students, family groups and people from almost all walks of life. The reason is that the place has been bought over by a young entrepreneur and is thus under new management.
Poona Coffee House was started by one Mr. Bhave who has considerable experience in running restaurants. He has two more restaurants running in the town which is doing fairly good business. One of the two also offers lodging facilities. Surprisingly, Poona Coffee House could never do well. No systematic efforts were made to improve the working. So when he was made a lucrative offer some four years ago by Mr. Nand Kumar Shetty, he jumped at it.
It is quite strange to note that Mr. Shetty has no previous experience in the line. He was in the Indian Army and retired at the rank of a Major. Neither does his family have any prior experience in the catering line, though the community is famous for the same.
Mr. Shetty completely renovated the place by putting in attractive interior decoration. The menu offered was also trebled thereby giving a wide choice to customers. Even though it was kept as a vegetarian restaurant, South Indian, Gujarati and Punjabi delicacies were also offered. Some other entertainment items like stereophonic music were also added.
The unexpected degree of success has baffled Mr. Shetty himself. So much so, that he has even stopped borrowing from the banks for his working capital requirements within only six months of commencing operations. Today, Poona Coffee House is the talk of the town, and a favourite rendezvous for all who want to have a nice meal in a congenial atmosphere.

Q. 1″Poona Coffee House could not do well.” What were the reasons?
Q.2-How did the new management bring changes required to make the Coffee House a success?
Q.3-What is your learning from this case study?

Section- C

Question 1 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Choose the correct spelling
Oblivous
Obleevious
Obilivious
Oblivious

Question 2 0 / 0.75 pts
Choose the correct spelling
Forcast
Forecast
Forecaste
Furecast

Question 3 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Mark the odd word
Dial
Fork
Call
Ring

Question 4 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Mark the odd one out
Theater
Minute
Clock
Time

Question 5 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Find the word which does not belong to the group
Valour
Courage
Bravery
Cowardice

Question 6 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Choose the odd word
Optimistic
Sanguine
Despondent
Hopeful

Question 7 0.75 / 0.75 pts
The train travels from London ____ Paris.
by
and
to
at

Question 8 0.75 / 0.75 pts
We stood at the back____ the theater.
Forecast
with
on
of

Question 9 0.75 / 0.75 pts
She went to Agra ____ Delhi.
via
in
versus
by

Question 10 0.75 / 0.75 pts
A comes ___ B in the alphabets.
behind
after
before
for

Question 11 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Look ___ me at the station. I’ll be at the bookstall.
back
on
out for
up

Question 12 0.75 / 0.75 pts
We will be gone ___ two days.
by
for
since
till

Question 13 0.75 / 0.75 pts
I have known her ___ three days.
through
back
since
by

Question 14 0.75 / 0.75 pts
The party went ___ very well; we all enjoyed ourselves.
on
out
off
up

Question 15 0.75 / 0.75 pts
You need to concentrate ___ what you are doing.
in
pick
on
over

Question 16 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Most executives do not object ___ them by their first name.
for calling
to my calling
that I do call
that I call

Question 17 0.75 / 0.75 pts
The antonym of motorist is ___ .
vehicle
cycle
pedestrian
walking

Question 18 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Pessimist is the opposite in meaning to___ .
happy
dentist
optimist
opportunist

Question 19 0 / 0.75 pts
The opposite to vacant is ___ .
vacant
opposite
occupied
none

Question 20 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Choose the word which is the synonym of gain ___ .
profit
obtain
all the above
win

Question 21 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Emancipate means ___ .
liberate
intricate
colourful
habit

Question 22 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Mark the word which is not a synonym for – educate.
teach
decline
instruct
guide

Question 23 0 / 0.75 pts
I went to the ___ shop to buy pens.
stationary
grocery
stationery
ingenious

Question 24 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Rita gave Sita a ___ .
eminent
none
compliment
complement

Question 25 0.75 / 0.75 pts
___ meansures earthquakes.
gyrographs
pericope
seismographs
anemometer

Question 26 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Dynamo produces ___ .
electricity
gases
revolutions
calculations

Question 27 0.75 / 0.75 pts
The science that studies earth’s structure is called ___.
phonology
surveying
mythology
geology

Question 28 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Pick out the homonym for the word -heir
there
hole
right
air

Question 29 0 / 0.75 pts
Blue and ___ are homonyms.
blue
black
hue
none

Question 30 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Choose the word which is not the homonym.
prays
plays
praise
preys

Question 31 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Mark the correct antonym of the word – cheerless
cheerful
cheerfull
cheerles
cheer

Question 32 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Ebb means to ___ .
recede
wane
decline
all the above

Question 33 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Reena is ___ beautiful than Sheena.
none
more
most
little

Question 34 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Missing the bus is no excuse ___ being late.
to
of
for
ingenious

Question 35 0 / 0.75 pts
Nikhil looked ___ the book to see if he had read it before.
up
on
through
beside

Question 36 0.75 / 0.75 pts
I have no recollection ___ the event.
for
off
of
on

Question 37 0.75 / 0.75 pts
___ is only one example of what I mean.
these
This
those
this

Question 38 0.75 / 0.75 pts
The orator ___ the auditorium before the audience stood up.
was left
had been left
leaving
had left

Question 39 0.75 / 0.75 pts
The plural of lady is ___
ladess
many lady
ladies
ladiess

Question 40 0.75 / 0.75 pts
Mark the correct spelling
editer
edditor
editor
edittor
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Business Mathematics (OBB 104) – Semester I

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Business Mathematics (OBB 104) – Semester I

Section A
QUESTION
1. Write the formula of sum an A.P. When first term, last term and number of terms are given. Also find 11th term of A.P. 90, 80, 70, 60……..
2. “Solve the system of equations by matrix method. x + y + z = 62, y + 5z = -4 , 2x + 5y – z = 27 ”
3. Find derivative of e^x/x^2
4. Integrate ∫x^5 dx
5. Simple interest on a certain sum is 9 /16 of the sum. Find the rate percent and time, if both are equal.
6. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price, but he uses a weight of 960 gm for a kg. Find his gain percent.
7. y =2x^3+ 5x^2+4x. Find maxima and minima.
8. Find the difference between the simple interest and the compound interest on $ 5000 for 2 years at 6% per annum.

Section B
CASE STUDY:
Of the 400 candidates who were interviewed for a position at a call center, 200 had a laptop, 140 had a calculator and 280 had a mobile phone. 80 of them had both, a laptop and a calculator, 60 had both, a calculator and a mobile phone and 120 had both, a laptop and mobile phone and 20 had all three. On the basis of above information answer the following questions.

QUESTION 1 How many candidates who attended the interview had at least one of the three gadgets?
QUESTION 2 How many candidates had none of the three?
QUESTION 3 How many candidates have only laptops?

Section C

QUESTION 1
“If a rubber ball consistently bounces back? of the height from which it is dropped, what fraction of its original height will the ball bounce after being dropped and bounced four times without being stopped?”
42974
16/27
16/81
81/16

QUESTION 2
“What is the sum of the following series? -64, -66, -68, ….. , -100
-1558
1558
-1458
-1658

QUESTION 3
A merchant marks his goods in such a way that the profit on sale of 50 articles is equal to the selling price of 25 articles. What is his profit margin?
0.25
0.5
0.6666
1

QUESTION 4
“If apples are bought at the rate of 30 for a rupee, how many apples must be sold for a Rupee so as to gain 20%?”
25
30
20
15

QUESTION 5
Rs.1000 doubled in 6 years when compounded annually. How many more years will it take to get another Rs.2000 compound interest?
5
4
6
12

QUESTION 6
f(x)= (x³/4)+2x² -6x. Find f(-2)
18
-18
4
-4

QUESTION 7
y=3×3 + 7×5; then dy/dx at x =7 is
84467
84476
84477
84478

QUESTION 8
What will be the amount of Rs1000 for 20 years at 5% per annum compound interst
Rs 2500
Rs 2600
Rs 2655
Rs 2665

QUESTION 9
What is the present value of an annuity of Rs 300 per annum for 5 years at 4% ?
Rs 1500
Rs 1335.30
Rs 1200
Rs 1333.50

QUESTION 10
Given that X²+5X+5 = -Z° then the value of x is:
“(-2,-3)”
“(2,3)”
“2,-3”
“3,-2”

QUESTION 11
“Find the 10th term in the series 8, 16, 24……..”
72
80
88
90

QUESTION 12
“Find the 7th term in the series 5, 25, 125…….”
78125
15625
3125
390625

QUESTION 13
dy/dx of x(x-10) is
2x+10
2x-10
x-10
2x

QUESTION 14
(256)0.16 x (256)0.09 = ?
16
32
256
4

QUESTION 15
“If 3(x y) = 27 and 3(x + y) = 243, then x is equal to”
0
2
4
3

QUESTION 16
(18)3.5 ÷ (27)3.5 x 63.5 = 2? :
3.5
7
10.5
4

QUESTION 17
If the order of matrix A is m * p. And the order of B is p*n. Then the order of AB is?
m*n
m*p
n*m
p*n

QUESTION 18
The matrix
[ 9 0]
[ 0 9]
is a ?
scalar matrix
identity matrix
even matrix
odd matrix

QUESTION 19
Find lim x?? ( 5x + sin x ) /x
5
5+sinx
5/x
sinx/x

QUESTION 20
The sum of three numbers in A.P. is 3 and sum of their square is 3. The numbers are..
“1,0,1”
“2,-1,0”
“1,1,1”
“2,1,0”

QUESTION 21
(0.04)2.5 + x = (0.04)5 find value of x
2
10
5
2.5

QUESTION 22
A man sold 20 articles for Rs. 60 and gained 20%.How many articles did he buy for Rs.60?
24
25
26
20

QUESTION 23
“If book bought at prices ranging from Rs. 200 to Rs. 350 are sold a prices ranging from Rs. 300 to Rs. 425, what is the greatest possible profit that might be made in selling 8 books?”
Rs 400
Rs 600
can´t be determined
none of these

QUESTION 24
“A plot is sold for Rs. 18,700 with a loss of 15%. At what price it should be sold to get profit of 15%.”
Rs 25300
Rs 22000
Rs 25000
Rs 18700

QUESTION 25
“By selling a book for Rs. 10, the publisher loses (1/11) of what it costs him. His cost price is:
Rs 11
Rs 10
Rs 9
Rs 10.50

QUESTION 26
“The smallest set A such that A? {1, 2} = {1, 2, 3, 5, 9} is”
“{2,3,5}”
“{3,5,9}”
“{1,2,3,.5.9}”
none of these

QUESTION 27
A set consisting of a definite number of elements is called a
Finite set
Infinite set
Null set
Singleton set

QUESTION 28
“The number of proper subsets of the set {1, 2, 3} is”
8
9
6
7

QUESTION 29
Two finite sets have n and m elements. The number of elements in the power set of first set is 48 more than the total number of elements in power set of the second set. Then the values of m and n are
“6,4”
“7,4”
“8,6”
“7,6”

QUESTION 30
“A survey showed that 63 % of the Americans like cheese whereas 76 % like apples. If x % of Americans like both cheese and apples, then find the maximum value of x?”
0.37
0.24
0.39
0.5

QUESTION 31
“If n (A) = 115, n (B) = 326, n (A-B) = 47, then n (A U B) is equal to”
370
373
441
none of these

QUESTION 32
Every set is a ___________ of itself
Proper subset
Compliment
Improper subset
None of these

QUESTION 33
“In the following question, one term in series is wrong. Find out the wrong term? 2, 5, 10, 50, 500, 5000”
500
50
10
5000

QUESTION 34
“If 92x 1 = 27x + 4, then x is equal to”
14
6
10
12

QUESTION 35
(2m)0 + 5(m)0 simplifies to
6m
5m
6
2

QUESTION 36
“Find the value of x, if 5x 3 * 32x 8 = 225.”
4
3
5
6

QUESTION 37
“If the difference between the simple interest and compound interests on some principal amount at 20% for 3 years is Rs. 48, then the principal amount is”
Rs 375
Rs 365
Rs 325
Rs 300

QUESTION 38
How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest?
5 years
4.5 years
4 years
5.5 years

QUESTION 39
Find dy/dx of x2+ex+2x when x=3
3 + e3
5 + e3
9 + e3
8 + e3

QUESTION 40
When we find maxima or minima then derivative of first order is equal to
1
-1
0
can not say
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Business Economics (OBB 102) – Semester I

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Business Economics (OBB 102) – Semester I
Section A
QUESTION
1 State and explain Circular Flow of Income and Expenditure.
2 What is Elasticity of Demand? Explain various types of Elasticity of Demand.
3 State and Explain Types of Cost.
4 Describe the Price and Output Determination under Monopoly.
5 Critically examine the Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest.
6 Describe Price and Output Determination under Monopolistic Competition.
7 State and explain the Law of Demand and explain determinants of Demand.
8 Write short notes: (any four)
(a) The Law of Supply
(b) Opportunity Cost
(c) Dynamic Theory of Profit
(d) Modern Theory of Rent
(e) Trade Unions and Collective Bargaining
(f) Scope of Business Economics

Section B
CASE STUDY:
U.S. Economy: Is Recession A Panacea?
Since the end of the Second World War in 1945, consumption propensity in the United States started to increase significantly. Domestic savings remained too low for the country compared to other industrialised and developed nations throughout the 20th century. The gap between the US and other developed nations in terms of personal savings rate has widened since the beginning of the 21st century. The astonishingly high consumption demand had a dual impact over the economy. While it contributed significantly to economic growth, at the same time it led to huge current account deficits. It was argued that high spending sprees and the low personal savings rate were hidden threats and the country might face difficulties in the long run. As past experiences proved that consumer spending reduced during recessions, a section of analysts advocated in favour of recession in order to eradicate the economic imbalance in the US. As another recession was looming large in the US, in 2008, economists were wondering whether the Federal Reserve should allow recession instead of preventing it.

QUESTION 1To highlight the distinctive characteristics of United States consumerism.
QUESTION 2To depict the United States economic scenario along with its high external borrowing.
QUESTION 3To analyse the impact and role of recession on the US economy.

Section C
QUESTION 1
The kinked demand curve explains?
1. Price rigidity
2. Price flexibility
3. Demand rigidity
4. Demand flexibility

QUESTION 2
Imperfect competition was introduced by ____?
1. Marshall
2. Chamberlin
3. Keynes
4. None

QUESTION 3
A situation in which the number of competing firms is relatively small is known as?
1. Incorrect
2. Perfect competition
3. Monopsony
4. Oligopoly

QUESTION 4
Demand is a function of?
1. Price
2. Firm
3. Product
4. Cost

QUESTION 5
The term group equilibrium is related to
1. Monopolistic competition
2. Oligopoly
3. Duopoly
4. Perfect competition

QUESTION 6
Price effect in indifference curve analysis arises?
1. When the consumer becomes either better off or worse off because price change is not compensated by income change.
2. When the consumer is betler off due to a change in income and price
3. When income and price change
4. None of the above

QUESTION 7
A situation where there is only one buyer is called
1. Monopoly
2. Oligopoly
3. Monopsony
4. Perfect competition

QUESTION 8
Elasticity of demand measures the
1. Sensitivity of sales to changes in a particular causal factor
2. Sensitivity of production to changes in a particular cost
3. Value of price and cost
4. Volume of product

QUESTION 9
Factors responsible for creating conditions for emergence and growth of monopoly are
1. Control over strategic raw materials
2. Patents
3. Licensing
4. All of the above

QUESTION 10
“In the case of an inferior good, the income effect”
1. Partially offsets the substitution effect
2. Is equal to the substitution effect
3. Reinforces the substitution effect
4. More than offsets the substitution effect

QUESTION 11
A market in which only two firms exist is
1. Oligopoly
2. Duopoly
3. Duopsony
4. Oligopsony

QUESTION 12
Value maximization theory fails to address the problem of
1. self-serving management.
2. risk
3. uncertainty
4. sluggish growth.

QUESTION 13
Selling costs have to be incurred in case of
1. Perfect competition
2. Monopolistic competition
3. Imperfect competition
4. None

QUESTION 14
Which type of competition leads to exploitation of consumer
1. Oligopoly
2. Monopolistic competition
3. Monopoly
4. All of the above

QUESTION 15
The equilibrium is unstable and indeterminate under
1. Edgeworth model
2. Cournot Model
3. Sweezy Model
4. Pareto Model

QUESTION 16
Demand curve is related to?
1. MU curve
2. Marginal revenue
3. Both a and b
4. None of these

QUESTION 17
Market with one buyer and one seller is called
1. Monopsony
2. Monopoly
3. Bilateral Monopoly
4. None of the above

QUESTION 18
The upper portion of the kinked demand curve is relatively
1. More inelastic
2. More elastic
3. Less elastic
4. Inelastic

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is an important dynamic variable?
1. Superior´s style and behaviour
2. Organisational nature
3. The task structure
4. Cultural variables

QUESTION 20
How many sellers are present in duopoly?
1. One
2. two
3. Three
4. four

QUESTION 21
Efficient allocation of resources is achieved to greatest extent under?
1. Monopoly
2. Perfect competition
3. Oligopoly
4. Monopolistic competition

QUESTION 22
“For maximisation of profit in the short run, the condition is”
1. AR = AC
2. MR = MC
3. MR = AR
4. MC = AC

QUESTION 23
Study of collusive agreement is
1. Collusive oligopoly
2. Non-Collusive oligopoly
3. Monopoly
4. All of the above

QUESTION 24
“Under perfect competition, price of the product”
1. Can be controlled
2. Cannot be controlled
3. Can be controlled within certain limit
4. None of the above

QUESTION 25
“If the demand curve confronting an individual firm is perfectly elastic, then firm is
1. Price taker
2. Adjust output
3. Adjust price
4. All of these

QUESTION 26
Cartels is a form of
1. Collusive oligopoly
2. Monopoly
3. Non-Collusive oligopoly
4. None of these

QUESTION 27
Which one is not normally possible in case of monopoly?
1. MC = MR
2. AC = AR
3. MR = AR
4. MR = PR

QUESTION 28
A firm´s marginal revenue?
1. is always negative
2. can be positive
3. is always positive
4. is positive at point at which the total revenue is maximum

QUESTION 29
“In a monopoly market, an upward shift in the market demand results in a new equilibrium with”
1. A higher quantity and a lower price
2. A higher quantity and the same price
3. A higher quantity and higher price
4. All of the above

QUESTION 30
Demand Analysis includes:
1. Demand Forecasting
2. Demand Differentials
3. Demand Determinations
4. All of the above

QUESTION 31
In the case of monopolistic competition
1. MR curve cannot be defined
2. AR curve cannot be defined
3. The short run supply curve cannot be defined
4. None of the above

QUESTION 32
Which economist stated the positive impact of monopoly?
1. Marshall
2. Adam Smith
3. Joseph Schumpeter
4. Pigou

QUESTION 33
Average revenue is calculated by
1. TRn – TRn-1
2. P x Q
3. TR / MR
4. TR/Q

QUESTION 34
Cross elasticity of demand between two perfect substitutes will be
1. low
2. high
3. zero
4. infinity

QUESTION 35
“At elasticity of one, marginal revenue is equal to”
1. one
2. zero
3. infinity
4. none

QUESTION 36
Shifts in demand curve include
1. Increase in Demand (Upward shift)
2. Extention in demand
3. Contraction in demand
4. None of the above

QUESTION 37
An indifference curve is always
1. A vertical straight line
2. Convex to the origin
3. Concave to the origin
4. A horizontal straight line

QUESTION 38
Price elasticity of demand provides?
1. “A measure of the responsiveness of the quantity demanded to changes in the price of the product, holding constant. The values of all other variables in the demand function.”
2. A technical change in the goodwill of the firm
3. A technical change in the cost of product
4. Technical change in the value

QUESTION 39
Given: Epx = Percentage change in Qy / Percentage change in Px. The above relationship is:
1. Arc Cross Price Elasticity
2. Cost Output
3. Cost Profit
4. Capital Budgeting

QUESTION 40
In the calculation of elasticity, there is error in case of
1. Arc elasticity
2. Point elasticity
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None
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