Entrepreneurship and New Venture Creation (ENTR601)-Semester III

Entrepreneurship and New Venture Creation (ENTR601)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment

Question 1. Someone who improves an existing business can be called __?
Select one:
a. A professional
b. An intrapreneur
c. A co-worker
d. A changeling
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is the reason for business failure?
Select one:
a. Poor financial control
b. Lack of market research
c. Poor management
d. All the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. An individual who initiates, creates and manages a new business can be called _.
Select one:
a. A professional
b. A manager
c. A leader
d. An entrepreneur
Clear my choice
Question 4. Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:
Select one:
a. They earn a handsome profit from new business
b. They are familiar with the needs of the market
c. They have well-developed sales force
d. They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss
Clear my choice
The French word from which the word entrepreneur has been derived is called . Select one: a. entreprenture b. entroprenture c. entreprendure d. Ontreprendure Question 5. EDP (Entrepreneurship Development Programmes) is required to help: Select one: a. First generation entrepreneurs b. Existing entrepreneurs c. Future generation entrepreneurs d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 6. Entrepreneurs are best as __________ .
Select one:
a. Venture Capitalists
b. Planners
c. Doers
d. Managers
Clear my choice
Question 7. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business name and sell its products or services is known as__________.
Select one:
a. A franchise
b. A cooperative.
c. An owner-manager business
d. A limited company
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which one of the following is not the broad categories of External forces?
Select one:
a. Competitive forces
b. Economic forces
c. Technological forces
d. S Socioeconomic forces
Clear my choice
Question 9. Why are small businesses important to a country’s economy?
Select one:
a. They can provide specialist support to larger companies
b. They can be innovators of new products.
c. They give an outlet for entrepreneurs.
d. All the above.
Clear my choice
Question 10. .______ requires proper review and reconsideration of the selected alternative before implementing it.
Select one:
a. Selecting the best alternative
b. Developing possible alternatives
c. Checking the decision
d. None of the given options
Clear my choice
A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business name and sell its products or services is known as__________.
Select one:
a. A franchise.
b. A cooperative.
c. An owner-manager business.
d. A limited company
Question 11. Foundation companies are formed from:
Select one:
a. Research and development
b. Most popular business
c. Fashion
d. winding up company
Clear my choice
Question 12. The best definition of Inovation is :
Select one:
a. The evolution of new ideas
b. The genertion of new ideas
c. The opposite of creativity
d. the successful exploitation ofnew ideas
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following actions by an entrepreneur is most likely to contribute to creative destruction?
Select one:
a. Take-over of a competitor
b. Issuing Shares
c. Development of a new product
d. Reducing Prices
Clear my choice
Question 14. Schumpeter considered that innovative entrepreenurs would:
Select one:
a. Disappear
b. Thrive
c. Be absorbed within large innovative firms
d. BE absorbed within non-innovtive firms
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which one of the following theory has the attribute of moderate risk taking as a function of skill, not chance?
Select one:
a. Need for independence
b. Need for achievement
c. Need for affiliation
d. Need for authority
Clear my choice
Question 16. Innovative small frms are more likely in :
Select one:
a. Biotechnology
b. Knowledge-based sectors
c. Aerospave manufacture
d. Automobile macfactue
Clear my choice
Question 17. Why are small businesses important to a country’s economy?
Select one:
a. They can provide specialist support to larger companies
b. They give an outlet for entrepreneurs.
c. They can be innovators of new products
d. All the above.

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2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. When selecting a line of action, an Entrepreneur must keep in mind:
Select one:
a. Risk involved
b. Profit
c. Profitability
d. All the given options
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is among the aspects of technical feasibility study?
Select one:
a. Location
b. Demand
c. Security
d. Instruction
Clear my choice
Question 3. is the process of determining whether an event idea is viable.
Select one:
a. Opportunity recognition
b. Feasibility analysis
c. Achievability analysis
d. Viability analysis
Clear my choice
Question 4. All the things needed for an event to work are . Select one: a. Role b. Resources c. Organisation d. Goal Clear my choice Question 5. MSMED stands to ____
.
Select one:
a. Mini, Small & Medium Enterprises Development
b. Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development
c. Micro, Small & Medium Entrepreneurship Development
d. Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Department
Clear my choice
Question 6. The financial plan presents _ for the future of the company. Select one: a. Finances b. Forecasts c. Trends d. Studies Clear my choice Question 7. A _________________ establishes the scope and purpose of a company and reflects its values and beliefs.
Select one:
a. Vision Statement
b. Mission Statement
c. executive summary
d. None of the following
Clear my choice
Question 8. The proper time to conduct a feasibility analysis.
Select one:
a. Late in thinking
b. Early in thinking
c. Hey, it might snow!
d. Who cares!
Clear my choice
Question 9. The _ plan shows whether the business is economically feasible or not.
Select one:
a. Business
b. Financial
c. Economic
d. Marketing
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which of the following is not the purpose of Feasibility Study?
Select one:
a. Establish market trends
b. Provide quality information for decision making
c. Give focus to the project and outline alternatives
d. Specify business alternatives
Clear my choice
Which of the following is not the expectation of acc A feasible or viable event idea?
Select one:
a. Generate adequate cash flow and profits
b. Generate adequate cash flow and profits
c. Meet the goals of the founders
d. Remain viable in short period
Question 11. Why is it important for an entrepreneur to do a feasibility study for starting a new venture?
Select one:
a. To identify possible sources of funds
b. To see if there are possible barriers to success
c. To explore potential customers
d. To estimate the expected sales
Clear my choice
The next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process is:
Select one:
a. Product Planning Stage
b. Idea Stage
c. Product Development Stage
d. Test Marketing Stage
Question 12. Which of the following factors shouldnot be included in PESTLE analysis?
Select one:
a. Proposed reduction in interest rates
b. Government re-cycling policy
c. Demographic changes.
d. Competitor activity
Clear my choice
Question 13. The period of business when an entrepreneur must position the venture in a market and make necessary adjustments to assure survival is called the:
Select one:
a. Startup stage
b. Pre-startup stage
c. Early growth stage
d. Later growth stage.
Clear my choice
Question 14. External links may provide incentives to:
Select one:
a. Introduce improvements to products
b. Raise finance
c. Introduce new working practives
d. Attend business exhibitions
Clear my choice
Question 15. Planning for profits includes:
Select one:
a. Evaluating profit potential
b. Controlling cost & budgeting
c. Forecasting sales & Budgeting
d. All the given options
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following geographical area is having least interest to U.S. entrepreneurs?
Select one:
a. The Far East
b. Central Asia
c. Europe
d. Transition Economies
Clear my choice
Question 17. According to peter Drucker, entrepreneurship is:
Select one:
a. An Art
b. A Practice
c. A Science
d. All of the given options
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3rd Module Assessment

This is a planned set of questions to which individuals or groups of people respond.

a.

Survey

b.

Invoice

c.

None of the above

Question 2. ________ feasibility is an assessment of the overall appeal of the product or service being proposed.

a.

Industry/market segment

b.

Product/service

c.

Industry/market

d.

Purchaser/end-user

Question 3. How can an entrepreneur learn about and understand the industry related to their idea for a new event?

a.

Take a class or course related to the industry.

b.

Read books and journals about the industry.

c.

Interview people who currently work in the industry.

d.

All of these are correct.

Question 4. Risk in project management is defined as Understanding Startup Finances, Capital & Other Requirements and Developing Team and Presenting Business Plan.

a.

An uncertain event that, if it occurs, has a negative effect on project objectives

b.

An uncertain event that, if it occurs, has a positive effect on project objectives

c.

An uncertain event that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on project objectives

d.

.An uncertain event that do not have any effect on project objectives

Question 5. What are internal sources of capital?

a.

Generated through loans from commercial banks.

b.

Generated through issue of shares.

c.

Generated within the business.

d.

Generated through outsiders such as suppliers

Question 6. A ______________ is a professional money manager who makes risk investment from a pool of equity capital to obtain a high rate of return on investments.

a.

Entrepreneur

b.

Venture capitalist

c.

Businessman

d.

Buyer

Question 7. Financial feasibility analysis can be done by comparing ______________ with the estimated sales figure.

a.

break-even point

b.

cash flow statement

c.

balance sheet

d.

profit and loss statement

Question 8. Entrepreneurs and ventures capitalists:

a.

Are in conflict

b.

Get along well

c.

Are the best friends

d.

Are cordial friends

Question 9. The funds needed for buying current assets are:

a.

Fixed capital requirement

b.

Lease financing.

c.

Working capital requirement

d.

Ploughing back of profits.

Question 10. Government reports would be which kind of market research?

a.

Quantitative Research

b.

Field Research

c.

Desk Research ?

d.

Target Research

Question 11. In __________________, the entrepreneur has the right to sell any assets.

a.

Partnership

b.

Proprietorship

c.

Limited Liability Company

d.

None of the given options

Question 12. The purpose of all good small business strategy is:

a.

To increase profitabily

b.

To increase turnover

c.

to achieve stated objectives

d.

To achieve competitive advantage

Question 13. Government grants are generally offered to businesses in:

a.

Cold areas

b.

Properous areas

c.

Economically deprived areas

d.

Areas with high employment

Question 14. Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur with managerial control is called ___________.

a.

Majority interest

b.

Joint venture

c.

Horizontal merger

d.

Diversified activity merge

Question 15. The entrepreneur was distinguished from capital provider in:

a.

17th century

b.

Middle ages

c.

18th century

d.

19th and 20th century

Question 16. A Micro Enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and machinery does not exceed (According to MSMED Act, 2006):

a.

Rs. 20 Lakh

b.

Rs. 25 Lakh

c.

Rs. 15 Lakh

d.

Rs. 30 Lakh

Question 17. Sepcial issues are faced by innovative entrepreneurs in raising:

a.

Seed Capital

b.

Structured Capital

c.

Human Capital

d.

Development Capital

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4th Module Assessment

What are the advantages of creating a business plan?

a.

It allows the entrepreneur to focus on what they want to accomplish

b.

Allows the process they will take to do it become simple and easy

c.

Allows them to accomplish their desired task

d.

All of the given options

Question 2. The cover page of a business plan should contain:

a.

Contact information

b.

key financial highlights

c.

the funding request

d.

None of the given options

Question 3. The _____________ section of the business plan should be written last.

a.

executive summary

b.

appendices

c.

financial statements

d.

None of the given options

Question 4. Large investment is made in fixed assets, the project will be termed as __________.

a.

Opportunity Scanning

b.

Project

c.

Idea generation

d.

Strategy

Question 5. To provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs the government has set up a number of___________.

a.

Financial Intermediaries

b.

Industrial Estates

c.

Financial Advisors

d.

Financial Institutions

Question 6. ______________ is a form of financing especially for funding high technology, high risk and perceived high reward projects.

a.

Current Capital

b.

Fixed Capital

c.

Venture Capital

d.

Seed Capital

Question 7. Why are business plans used for potential investors and banks?

a.

They are not used by investors and banks

b.

For start up funds

c.

They are only used by banks NOT investors

d.

None of the given options

Question 8. The activity which occurs when the new venture is started are called:

a.

Motivation

b.

Business Skills

c.

Depature Point

d.

Goal Orientation

Question 9. What is a business plan?

a.

A written plan that is a description of all the aspects of the business and includes the business’s goals

b.

A gallery of photos that explains the location and construction of the business

c.

A collection of plans that are combined from different business and then analyzed  and compared to your business

d.

none of the above are correct; a business plan is simply a list of guidelines that tell successful business’s how to run their company in order to make a profit

Question 10. State True or False: If your executive summary is more than three pages it will most likely not be read.

a.

True: too much is not needed when writing an executive summary the readers will be bored

b.

False: More is always needed when writing an executive summary

c.

Both of the given options

d.

None of the given options

What is the most important part of your business plan? Select one: 

a. Table of Contents  b. Financial Plan  c. Background  d. Executive Summary

Question 11. Which of the following parts of a business plan include the cash flow projection and the repayment plan?

a.

Financial Plan

b.

Background and History

c.

Market Research

d.

Executive Summary

Question 12. Which could provide an indicidual with the motivation to start a new business veture?

a.

A desire to be independent

b.

The financial rewards

c.

Risk taking

d.

All the above

Question 13. A new venture’s business plan is important because ______.

a.

Can help demonstrate the viability of the venture.

b.

It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.

c.

Provides a guide for business activities by defining objective

d.

All the above

A _____________ is a document that thoroughly explains a business idea and how it will be carried out.

Select one:

a.

Financial Analysis

b.

Marketing Plan

c.

Business Plan

d.

None of the given options

Question 14. The quick verbal summary of a business plan is called a(n):

a.

Concept pitch

b.

Elevator pitch

c.

Concept pitch

d.

None of the given options

Question 15. Which part of the business plan explains the process of attraction of customers to your business and how you determined the appropriate customers?

a.

Financial Plan

b.

Market Research/anaylsis

c.

Background and History

d.

All the above.

Question 16. Which statement is correct about the difference between the Start Up Plan and the Occupational Plan?

a.

Occupational Plan describes in detail how your business will operate

b.

Start Up Plan- Includes diagrams of production or areas of service

c.

Start Up Plan- explains why you chose the business frame and location

d.

The Occupational Plan tells where you want and plan to start the busines

Question 17. A business plan should be _______________ to convey critical information to potential investors.

a.

Complex and technical

b.

crisp and concise

c.

lond and detailed

d.

None of the above

29

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5th Module Assessment

29

________ is primarily concerned with the identification of the project demand potential and the selection of the optimal technology.

a. Feasibility analysis. 

b. Techno-economic analysis. 

c. Input analysis. 

d. Financial analysis.

Innovative small firms are more likely in:

a.

Biotechnology

b.

Automobile manufacture

c.

Aerospace manufacture

d.

Knowledge-based sectors

Question 2. Memorandum of association of a firm contains _______.

a.

Management Competencies

b.

Rules regarding the internal management of the company.

c.

Rules regarding the constitution.

d.

Rules regarding the external management.

Question 3. The term ___________ denotes bonus or financial aid which is given by a government to an industry to help it compete with other units.

a.

Incentive

b.

Bounty

c.

Concession

d.

Subsidy

Question 4. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business Name and sell its products or services is known as a/an __________.

a.

franchise

b.

cooperative.

c.

limited company

d.

owner-manager business

Question 5. Strategic plan formulate the effective management concentrates on opportunities and threats in:

a.

Short-range plans

b.

Long-range plans

c.

Medium range plans

d.

Capital Plans

Question 6. Which of the following is NOT recognized as a misconception about entrepreneurship?

a.

Entrepreneurship is found only is small businesses

b.

Successful entrepreneurship needs only a great idea.

c.

Entrepreneurship is easy.

d.

Entrepreneurial ventures and small businesses are different

Question 7. Innovative entrepreneurs may have to pay high insurance premiums due to the:

a.

The need to protect patents

b.

greater employee liability

c.

Greater customer liability

d.

Greater trading risks

Question 8. Networking by innovative entrepreneurs may be most encouraged by:

a.

Business Incubators

b.

Science Parks

c.

Business Associations

d.

Chambers of Commerce

Question 9. The _________ plan should contain control points to ascertain progress.

a.

Marketing

b.

Business

c.

Financial

d.

Operational

Question 10. Which one of the following is not considered as one of the building blocks of the model entrepreneur?

a.

Management Competencies

b.

Business Awareness

c.

Personal Attributes

d.

Technical Skills

Question 11. Ongoing scanning at an almost unconscious level is:

a.

Indirect Scanning

b.

Passive Scanning

c.

Active Scanning

d.

Directed Scanning

Question 12. The internal environmental scanning includes _____________________.

a.

Culture (beliefs, expectations, values)

b.

Structure (Chain of command)

c.

Resources (assets, skills,competencies, Knowledge)

d.

All the options given

Question 13. Decisions taken by an entrepreneur on behalf of his enterprise are known as _________.

a.

Personal Decisions

b.

Strategic Decisions

c.

Organistional Decisions

d.

Routine Decisions

Question 14. An entrepreneur works for _______________________.

a.

Remuneration

b.

Salary

c.

Profits

d.

Commission

Trademarks relate to: Select one:  a. Practice & knowledge acquired through experience  b. The right to reproduce ones own original work.  c. Brand Identity  d. The protection of propriety information of commercial value.

Question 15. Decisions which are concerned with policy matters and exercise fundamental influence on the objectives of the organization are called as____________.

Select one:

a.

Personal Decisions

b.

Organistional Decisions

c.

Strategic Decisions

d.

Routing Decisiosns

Question 16. The main objective of business planning is to provide and implement the:

a.

Good & systematic business plan

b.

Formal & straight business plan

c.

Informal & systematic business plan

d.

Formal & systematic business plan

Question 17. _________ is the process of conducting programs (activities needed to accomplish a plan),budgets (cost of the programs), and procedures (sequence of steps needed to do the job).

Select one:

a.

Strategy Implementation

b.

Strategy Formulation

c.

Both (A) and (B)

d.

Neither (A) nor (B)

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY : Kishfisher Airlines: A Case of Strategic Failure                                                                                                                                                                                                                    Kishfisher Airlines Limited was established  in 2003 as an airline group with its head office in Mumbai, India. The sirline group was once considered as one of the six five-star rated airlines of the world. It had a network of more than 77 destinations, including both domestic and international.                                                                                                                                                                                                                      Till 2011,  Kingfisher Airlines had the second largest share of the domestic  air travel market in India. However, the airline was never reported to earn profits since its starting . The situation became worse when it acquired Air Deccan in 2007. The company suffered loss of over Rs. 1,000 crore for the next thee executive years                                                                                                                                                                                          Many experts considered this acquisition as a huge mistake because Kishfisher  Airlines had always potrayed its image as a premium class-airline. Acquiring Air Deccan led to brand conflict among the customers, as it was a low-cost airline and therefore, miserably weakened the brand positioning of Kingfisher Airlines. Customers failed to differentiate the services of Kishfisher with the acquired airline that diluted the exiting brand equity of Kishfisher Airlines.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                          In September 2011, the chairman and managing director of Kingfisher Airlines made following disclosure to the Bombay Stock Exchange(BSE). “The Company has incurred substantial losses and its net worth has been eroded.”                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                       By 2012, the airline entered serious financial crisis, which resulted  into freezing of its bank accounts by the Indian Income Tax Department. The situation of loss and financial crisis made Kingfisher Airlines to suffer from huge debts and interest as well. Though Kingfisher Airlines build an image of luxurious and glamorous airline in consumer’s mind, it started failing to meet the consumers’ expectations due to poor financial conditons.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                  With increasing debts, Kisgfisher Airlines was unable to pay salaries, which negatively affected the promised delivery of services to the customers. Most of the unpaid employees resigned from their jobs which disrupted the airlines’ operation and led to reduction of per day flights. During late February, 2012 Kingfisher Airlines shut down most international  short-haul operations and also closed bookings ( temporarily).                                        All these reasons led to Kingfisher Airlines to result into a huge service failure to the customers, shareholders  and suppliers. The increasing operational costs slowed down their high-end services to customers. They failed to deliver services at reasonable cost and maintain punctuality. Kingfisher Airlines was always attentive on satisfying the higher level needs of the customer like travel delight and in-flight experience and failed to deliver basic services like safety and economy ricing to cater to Indian customers.                                                                                                                                                                                                                                The Kingfisher Airlines started losing its customer  base as the customers were deeply dissatisfied with its poor service quality. The increasing numbers of cancelled and delayed flights, poor quality  of basic amenities like food, drinking water and cleanliness,lack of communication, and pitiable employee assistance has not only made the situation worst for Kingfisher Airlines, but also became the massive reasons  of service failure for its customers.

What is the theme of the passage?

a.

Kishfisher Airlines enjoyed a premium image in the airline industry

b.

Most of the unpaid employees resigned from their jobs which disrupted the airlines’ operation

c.

The strategic failure of Kishfisher Airlines

d.

None of the given options

Question 2. Who was the Chairman and Managing Director of KishfisherAirlines?

a.

Mr. Ajay Singh

b.

Dr. Vijay Mallaya

c.

Captain G. R. Gopinath

d.

None of the given options

Question 3. What is the meaning of acquiring a company?

a.

A way for companies to expand their reach, expand into new segments, or gain market share.

b.

It is a corporate action where one company purchases most of or all of another company’s shares to gain control of that company.

c.

An agreement that unites two existing companies into one new company

d.

None of the given options

Question 4. Why was acquisition with Deccan Airlines considered as a huge mistake by the experts?

a.

Acquisition of Deccan Airlines led to brand conflict among the customers

b.

Kishfisher Airlines had always potrayed its image as a premium class airline.

c.

The acquition led to weaking of the brand positioning of Kingfisher Airlines.

d.

All of the given options.

Question 5. What was the outcome of the increasing debts of Kishfisher Airlines?

a.

The unpaid employees resigned from their jobs

b.

The company was unable to pay salaries to its employees

c.

None of the options given

d.

Both (A) and (B)

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Professional Ethics (PFE701)-Semester III

Professional Ethics (PFE701)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment

This principle of nonmaleficence reflects:
Select one:
a. Neither A nor B
b. Not engaging in actions that risk harming others
c. Both A & B
d. The idea of not inflicting intentional harm
Question 1. What is/are true regarding individual moral responsibility?
Select one:
a. Prospective responsibility
b. All of these
c. Responsible agency
d. Retrospective responsibility
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following statements regarding moral autonomy is correct?
Select one:
a. Ability to arrive at non-reasoned moral views based on the responsiveness to human values
b. Ability to arrive at reasoned moral views based on the non-responsiveness to human values
c. Ability to arrive at reasoned moral views based on the responsiveness to human values
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. This pertinent to legal questions concerning freedom, intention, belief, responsibility
b. Contemporary philosophy action is concerned with human action intending to distinguish between activity and passivity
c. All of these
d. It is related to the mind body problem, the concept of casualty and the issue of determinism
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. Ethics is a descriptive science
b. Ethics is a normative science
c. None of these
d. Ethics is a non-normative science
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. Philosophy does not expound ethical assumptions
b. All of these
c. Philosophy expounds non- ethical assumptions
d. Philosophy expounds ethical assumptions
Clear my choice
Question 6. This principle of nonmaleficence reflects:
Select one:
a. Not engaging in actions that risk harming others
b. The idea of not inflicting intentional harm
c. Both A & B
d. Neither A nor B
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of these is/are the branch(es) of ethical philosophy?
Select one:
a. Both A & B
b. Non-applied ethics
c. Meta Ethics
d. Neither A nor B
Clear my choice
Question 8. Is it correct that one moral principle can have two or more conflicting applications for a particular given situation?
Select one:
a. Yes
b. May be
c. Incomplete statement
d. No
Clear my choice
Question 9. What are the implications of philosophy and ethics?
Select one:
a. All of these
b. Avoid penal action
c. Insurance policy
d. Helps in quality management, strategic planning diversity management
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. Ethics has scope in religious sphere
b. Neither A nor B
c. Both A & B
d. Ethics has scope in political consideration
Clear my choice
Question 11. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. None of these
b. Both A & B
c. Deontology is a theory that suggests actions are good or bad not according to a clear set of rules.
d. Deontology is a theory that suggests actions are good or bad according to a clear set of rules.
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the principle of respect for beneficence?
Select one:
a. None of these
b. We have an obligation to bring about bad in all our actions.
c. We have an obligation to bring about good in all our actions.
d. We don’t have any obligation to bring about good in all our actions.
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ethics of contemporary Philosophy?
Select one:
a. It can give practical advice (normative ethics), or it can analyse and theorise about the nature of morality and ethics
b. It cannot give practical advice (normative ethics), or it can analyse and theorise about the nature of morality and ethics
c. None of these
d. It cannot analyse and theorise about the nature of morality and ethics
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following statements is correct regarding utilitarianism theory?
Select one:
a. an action is right if it results in the happiness of the greatest number of people in a society or a group
b. An action is wrong if it results in the happiness of the greatest number of people in a society or a group
c. an action is right if it results in the happiness of the smallest number of people in a society or a group
d. an action is right if it results in the sadness of the greatest number of people in a society or a group
Clear my choice
What is common in the moral values such as truth, freedom and charity?
Select one:
a. When they are functioning non-correctly, they are life protecting or life enhancing for all. But they are still relative values.
b. When they are functioning correctly, they are non-life protecting or life enhancing for all. But they are still relative values.
c. None of these
d. When they are functioning correctly, they are life protecting or life enhancing for all. But they are still relative values.
Question 15. What is moral autonomy?
Select one:
a. Moral autonomy is the ability to think critically and dependently about moral issues and apply this normal thinking to situations that arise during the professional engineering practice.
b. Moral autonomy is the inability to think critically and independently about moral issues and apply this normal thinking to situations that arise during the professional engineering practice.
c. Moral autonomy is the ability to think non-critically and independently about moral issues and apply this normal thinking to situations that arise during the professional engineering practice.
d. Moral autonomy is the ability to think critically and independently about moral issues and apply this normal thinking to situations that arise during the professional engineering practice.
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following statements is correct?
Select one:
a. Philosophy systematizes facts
b. Philosophy systematizes both facts and values
c. None of these
d. Philosophy systematizes values
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the principle of respect for autonomy?
Select one:
a. None of these
b. It addresses the responsibility of the counsellor to encourage clients, when appropriate, to make their own decisions and to act on their own values.
c. It addresses the responsibility of the counsellor to not encourage clients, when appropriate, to make their own decisions and to act on their own values.
d. It addresses the responsibility of the counsellor to encourage clients, when appropriate, to make someone else’s decisions and to act on their own values.

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2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. Identify the ethical responsibility towards employees:
Select one:
a. Maintain the principle of political neutrality
b. Treat with dignity, respect and justice
c. Guarantee the products and services of the company and deal quickly and efficiently
d. Not abuse a dominant or privileged market position
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following words refers to doing business with your grandchildren children’s interest at heart?
Select one:
a. Responsibility
b. Integrity
c. Sustainability
d. Agility
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following does the term corporate social responsibility relate to?
Select one:
a. All of these
b. Environmental practice
c. Ethical conduct
d. Human rights and employee relations
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is an argument for whistle-blower protection?
Select one:
a. Whistle-blowing infringes on the traditional right of employers to conduct business as they see fit.
b. A law that recognizes whistle-blowing as a right is open to abuse
c. Whistle-blowing creates more regulation to impede the efficient operation of business.
d. Whistle-blowing benefits society through the exposure of illegal activity.
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following statements about CSR is untrue?
Select one:
a. Its main concern is about maintaining a competitive edge in global market.
b. It is about striking balance between economic performance, meeting stakeholders’ expectations & responsibility towards society.
c. It is about recognizing that no organisation is an island & must operate in partnership with the outside world.
d. It has a strong impact on corporate reporting practices, investment strategies, SCM & public relations.
Clear my choice
Question 6. Which of the following is the principle of corporate responsibility?
Select one:
a. Principle of Stewardship
b. Trusteeship principle
c. All of these
d. Principle of charity
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is not the responsibility of confidentiality?
Select one:
a. Keep information confidential except when disclosure is authorized or legally required.
b. Refrain from using confidential information for unethical or illegal advantage.
c. Inform all relevant parties regarding appropriate use of confidential information. Monitor subordinates’ activities to ensure compliance.
d. Perform professional duties in accordance with relevant laws, regulations, and technical standards.
Clear my choice
Question 8. Social responsibility is to pursue those policies & decisions or to follow lines of actions which are desirable in terms of the objective & value of our society’ who said?
Select one:
a. H R Bowen
b. P F Deucker
c. G A Steiner
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which of the following are components of a well-designed whistle-blowing policy?
Select one:
a. A guarantee of retaliation
b. A suggestion box
c. A commitment to take appropriate action
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which of the following should be considered when deciding whether or not to blow the whistle?
Select one:
a. All of these
b. How will this look on my résumé?
c. Is there the possibility of promotion?
d. What is the best way to blow the whistle?
Clear my choice
Which clause of companies act 2013 details composition of CSR committee of the board?
Select one:
a. 125
b. 153
c. 135
d. 152
Whistle-blowers call attention to wrongdoing from within the organization in which they work to highlight abuse that threatens the .
Select one:
a. Employees
b. Public
c. government
d. Employer
Question 11. Which of the following is not examples of boundary challenges:
Select one:
a. The clients asks about your credentials.
b. The clients asks for your telephone number.
c. The client asks you to pick up some cigarettes for him at the store.
d. The client give you a gift.
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following is an example of a conflict of interest?
Select one:
a. A person working for Apple and Microsoft at the same time
b. An individual who works at 7-11 while also volunteering their time on their days off
c. A person working for Walgreens
d. An individual who is self-employed starting a computer business
Clear my choice
Question 13. Way to prevent boundary crossings/violations include:
Select one:
a. Resist flattery and flirtation
b. Review current policies and ethical codes
c. All of these
d. Reflect on how other staff members will perceive your intentions
Clear my choice
Question 14. Examples of boundary crossing include:
Select one:
a. All of these
b. Giving the client your cell phone numbe
c. Visiting a client on your day off
d. Attending a client’s wedding
Clear my choice
Question 15. Sequence the following CSR eligibility criteria and spending as per the provisions of Indian contract act 2013:
A. Positive net worth of 500 crores or more
B. 2% of average profit spent on CSR
C. Net profit of Rs.5 crore or more in a given financial year
D. Turnover of Rs.1000 crore or more
E. Penal action for non-compliance
Select one:
a. A, D, C, B and E
b. A, B, C, D and E
c. C, B, A, D and E
d. E, B, D, C and A
Clear my choice
Question 16. What might be the repercussion of conflicts of interest in the workplace to the organization itself?
I. Lost revenue
II. Stolen trade secrets
III. Higher sales
Select one:
a. I, II, and III
b. I and II only
c. III only
d. II only
Clear my choice
Question 17. Whistle-blowing is seen by superiors as a violation of loyalty and as a _
.
Select one:
a. acquittal
b. commendation
c. exoneration
d. accusation

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3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. Trade mark:
Select one:
a. is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others
b. is represented graphically
c. All of these
d. may includes shapes of goods or combination of colours
Clear my choice
Question 2. In India, the literary work is protected until:
Select one:
a. 60 years after the death of author
b. 40 years after the death of author
c. 20 years after the death of author
d. lifetime of author
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following is correct definition of ‘Audi alteram partem’?
Select one:
a. Right of fair hearing
b. Listening to the appeal
c. All of these
d. Right to know reasons of decision
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is not the objective of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Bill proposed by the second National Commission on Labour?
Select one:
a. To ensure that no child would be deprived of a future being deprived of education
b. to prohibit child labour in all employments irrespective of their coverage under the existing Act
c. to ensure children not to work in situations where they are exploited
d. To tackle the problem of child labour by ensuring universal education
Clear my choice
Question 5. Under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, a child is one who has not completed his
Select one:
a. 16 years
b. 14 years
c. 15 years
d. 18 years
Clear my choice
Question 6. Ethics & Law overlap. This is called
Select one:
a. Yellow area
b. Grey area
c. White area
d. Black area
Clear my choice
Question 7. When workers are encouraged to meet the relevant manager in his office and to share their opinions, it is called
Select one:
a. the gripe-box system
b. the open-door policy
c. an opinion survey
d. the exit interview method
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which of the following techniques permits the grievant (complainant) to remain anonymous?
Select one:
a. None of these
b. The gripe-box system
c. The exit interview
d. The opinion survey
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which one of the following statements is false?
Select one:
a. Applicants for licences are automatically entitled to hearing if their application is refused.
b. There are degrees of judicial hearing ranging from the borders of pure administration to the borders of a full hearing in a criminal case in the Crown Court.
c. The requirements of natural justice depend, among other things, on the circumstances of the case, the nature of the inquiry, the rules under which the tribunal is acting and the subject matter.
d. There are three recognized categories of licensing case, namely application cases, expectation cases and revocation cases.
Clear my choice
Question 10. Principles of natural justice are NOT applicable against which of the following actions?
Select one:
a. Quasi judicial actions
b. Administrative actions
c. Rulemaking action
d. Judicial process
Clear my choice
The following can not be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights to others.
Select one:
a. Patents
b. Designs
c. Trademark
d. All of the above
Anybody who contravenes the provisions of Section 3 (Prohibition of employment of children in certain occupations and processes) shall be punished with minimum _ which may extend up to __ of imprisonment
Select one:
a. 1 month; 1 year
b. 6 months; 3 years
c. 3 months; 1 year
d. 6 months; 5 years

Question 11. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 is an example of
Select one:
a. Protective Labour Legislation
b. Social Security Legislation
c. Regulative Labour Legislation
d. Welfare Legislation
Clear my choice
Question 12. The Privacy Act of 1974 was established to
Select one:
a. Share certain information publicly
b. Protect an individual’s data from being shared publicly without his or her written consent
c. Protect the data confidentiality of those individuals who work in the medical field
d. Ensure the government was enforcing laws around data confidentiality
Clear my choice
Question 13. “audi alteram partem”includes:
Select one:
a. All of these
b. Notice and Hearing
c. Right to legal representation and right to cross-examination
d. Disclosure of materials and reasoned decision
Clear my choice
Question 14. The agreement that is enforceable by law is known as
Select one:
a. Unenforceable agreement
b. Void agreement
c. Valid agreement
d. Illegal agreement
Clear my choice
Question 15. What values do a ‘code of ethics’ command in a court of law?
1)Code of ethics do not by themselves have the force of law
2) court of laws are bound by code of ethics
3) the code of ethics can provide upon its own power and legality
4) court of law can use the code of ethics in a non-authoritative manner to reason a judgment, by the aid of its principles
Select one:
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following legislations apply to unorganized sector workers in India?
Select one:
a. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970
b. Minimum Wages Act
c. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 17. “NEMO JUDEX IN CAUSA SUA” means:
Select one:
a. Every one should be heard before being condemned
b. No person should be judge of his own cause
c. Every one should not be heard before being condemned
d. A person should be judge of his own cause
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4th Module Assessment
Question 1. Which of the following does the term Corporate Social Responsibility relate to?
Select one:
a. All of these
b. Community engagement
c. Ethical conduct
d. Environmental practice
Clear my choice
Question 2. Sarah is applying for a job as a tour guide. Since there is a lot of competition, she has decided to add French and German to the language skills section of her resume. However, she can barely speak either of those languages. This action could be considered . Select one: a. Legal but unethical b. Legal and ethical c. Ethical but illegal d. Illegal and unethical Clear my choice Question 3. Corporate governance in large organizations is typically administered through committees reflecting the key aspects of governance. Which of the following is not one of the committees used at? Select one: a. Audit committee b. Shareholders’ Grievance committee c. Remuneration committee d. Redundancy and severance committee Clear my choice Question 4. Roles and responsibilities of an ethical hacker include: Select one: a. Publicizing about the discovered vulnerabilities b. Seeking authorization from the organization c. Only A d. Both a and B Clear my choice Question 5. Which of the following practices is accepted according to ethical standard of the legal profession: Select one: a. Representing the client without discrimination b. Solicitation of clients c. Disclosing details about client’s details among personal groups d. Fighting a case which might involve a conflict of interest Clear my choice Question 6. Which of the following is covered by the term ‘Intellectual Property Rights’? Select one: a. Copyrights b. Technical Know-how c. Trademarks d. All of these Clear my choice Question 7. What is greenwashing? Select one: a. Converting the company to green production methods b. Transforming products to be more ethical c. Convincing customers to buy ethically d. Making a product appear more ecofriendly than it really is Clear my choice Question 8. Which of the following best describes a diverse workforce? Select one: a. A business hires men, women and people of different races, religions, and backgrounds b. A company hires only women because they are part of a protected workforce c. A company hires white men and women to work for their company. d. A company hires only African Americans because they are part of a protected workforce. Clear my choice Question 9. Unethical behavior in a media house can be reduced if management does all of the following except Select one: a. limits opportunities for unethical behavior. b. establishes clear policies on unethical behavior. c. establishes formal rules and procedures. d. lets illegal conduct go unpunished. Clear my choice Question 10. Which of the following is an example of stereotyping and prejudice? Select one: a. A male hiring supervisor interviews three female candidates. He hires only two of the women because one of the candidates does not have the job experience for the position.() ()b. A male hiring supervisor hires two male candidates instead of two female candidates because the female candidates did not have experience in the field. c. A male hiring supervisor interviews three female candidates. He hires all three because they all have the requirements needed to fill the positions, they applied for. d. A male hiring supervisor interviews three female candidates. He hires all three because they all have the requirements needed to fill the positions, they applied for. Clear my choice Which managerial function involves an organization taking in account the effect its strategic decisions have on society known as Select one: a. Corporate Social Responsibility b. None of these c. Organizational culture d. Corporate Governance A _________ must possess independent voice regarding political, social and corporate situations and incidents in a country.
Select one:
a. doctor
b. farmer
c. journalist
d. businessman
Question 11. _ includes rules of conduct that may be used to regulate our activities concerning the biological world. Select one: a. Bioethics b. Bio-piracy c. Bio-patents d. Biosafety Clear my choice Question 12. Taking someone else’s sensitive and private information and selling it for financial gain is an ethical issue called: Select one: a. Privacy Infringement b. Money Embezzlement c. Money laundering d. Copyright Infringement Clear my choice Question 13. There are several practical steps that teachers can take to improve the level of ethical and responsible behaviour in their class. Which of the following is least likely to work? Select one: a. Publishing a statement of ethical policy in a booklet for students b. Creating ethical structures related to grievance redressal for students c. Leading by example and actions d. Creating a system of ethical reporting which is widely accessible on their website Clear my choice Question 14. A ______ is a formal statement of an organization primary values and the ethical rules it expects its employees to follow.
Select one:
a. Vision statement
b. Statement of purpose
c. Mission statement
d. Code of ethics
Clear my choice
Question 15. A cook at J’s Sandwich Shop informed his manager that the bread they had available was stale. The sandwiches were their best-selling product and therefore, the Manager decided to serve customers the stale bread. What type of decision did the manager of J’s Sandwich Shop make?
Select one:
a. Unethical
b. Rational
c. None of these
d. Ethical
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following is true about the use of ambiguity in advertising?
Select one:
a. It is the use of different deceptive advertising techniques.
b. It is a responsible way to doing advertising for the product.
c. It is an ethical and legal way to sell products to the public.
d. It uses clear wording to try and convince consumers to purchase a product.
Clear my choice
Question 17. A firm’s ethical reputation can provide a competitive advantage in the marketplace with customers, suppliers, and employees. Suppose that a manager allows his team to sell to their customer sub-standard products, the manager may be caught in an ethical issue involving __.
Select one:
a. Conflicts of interest
b. Sexual harassment
c. Customer confidence
d. Discrimination

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5th Module Assessment

Question 1. What do you think anti Plagiarism detection software are useable for
Select one:
a. Added Features like instant feedback to help improve writing
b. Do not find useful for any of these
c. Avoiding plagiarism
d. Getting comparison or similarity index to check originality of assignment
Clear my choice
Question 2. There are several circumstances under which self-plagiarism can occur. Which of the following is not a common cause for self-plagiarism?
Select one:
a. The quantity of published works is insufficient for the assessment of academic promotion
b. Concern about being accused of plagiarizing others’ research content
c. Not having adequate time to write the paper
d. Hoping to strengthen the contribution of the research result
Clear my choice
Question 3. A set of principles to guide and assist researchers in deciding which goals are most important and in reconciling conflicting values when conducting research is called
Select one:
a. Deontological approach
b. Research ethics
c. None of these
d. Utilitarianism
Clear my choice
Question 4. You are guilty of plagiarism if you:
Select one:
a. Use the work of another and misrepresent it as your own.
b. Make use of the works of others to support your own arguments.
c. Make use of the works of others to gather information.
d. Examine the ideas and arguments of others to help you shape your own thoughts or views on a particular issue.
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following plagiarism software is available under open access?
Select one:
a. Viber
b. Turnitin
c. None of the above
d. Urkund
Clear my choice
Question 6. Which of the following definitions does not entail falsification?
Select one:
a. The researcher deliberately conceals research results that do not fit the research hypothesis
b. The researcher fabricates data that does not exist.
c. The researcher unreasonably manipulates the research data.
d. The researcher over-beautifies existing pictures in the research
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is susceptible to the issue of research ethics?
Select one:
a. Inaccurate application of statistical techniques
b. Faulty research design
c. Reporting of research findings
d. Choice of sampling techniques
Clear my choice
Question 8. Research ethics do not include:
Select one:
a. Honesty
b. Objectivity
c. Integrity
d. Subjectivity
Clear my choice
Question 9. Concerning “authorship” in educational research, intellectual ownership is predominantly function of:
Select one:
a. Creative contribution
b. Effort expended
c. Level of higher education
d. Professional position
Clear my choice
Question 10. Drawing information or content from the work of another without acknowledging the source by citing a reference is considered to be plagiarism in all of the following cases except:
Select one:
a. Using information from the author’s work that is regarded as common knowledge in the disciplines
b. Using the exact words of the author
c. Reproducing in your paper a chart contained in the author’s work.
d. Using data that the author has compiled through his/her independent investigation
Clear my choice
Question 11. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:
Select one:
a. Copyright
b. Patenting polity
c. Thesis format
d. Data sharing policies
Clear my choice
Question 12. ___ has identified principles of authorship on which there is general consensus across disciplines.
Select one:
a. Board for Duty of Care
b. Authors and Contributor Consortium
c. Committee for Legal and Professional Obligations
d. Council of Science Editors
Clear my choice
Question 13. Those who are named as authors merely because they hold senior positions within the service or facility where the research occurred, and may have helped secure funding, are called:
Select one:
a. Honorary Authors
b. Ghost Authors
c. Guest Authors
d. Gift Authors
Clear my choice
Question 14. The non-profit trade association that was established in order to represent the interests of Open Access publishers
Select one:
a. Open Access Scholarly Publishers Association
b. Open Access Scholastic Publishers Association
c. Directory of Open Access Journals
d. Committee for Open Publication Ethics
Clear my choice
Question 15. Someone who is named as an author, but who did not contribute in a meaningful way to the design, research, analysis, or writing of a paper, is called:
Select one:
a. Gift Authors
b. Coercive Authors
c. Ghost Authors
d. Guest Authors
Clear my choice
Question 16. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implication for research ethics:
I. A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.
II. Related studies are cited without proper references
III. Research findings are made the basis for policy making.
IV. Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.
V. A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.
VI. Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.
Select one:
a. i, ii and iii
b. ii, iv and vi
c. ii, iii and iv
d. i, iii and v
Clear my choice
Question 17. The use of a false name for the purposes of concealment of one’s identity is called:
Select one:
a. Pseudonyms
b. Censorship
c. Falsification
d. Misrepresentation of Authorship

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