E – Business and Trade (CSIT723)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Which is not the application area of e-commerce?

a.

E-Learning

b.

E-Banking

c.

E-Auction

d.

None of the above

Question 2. The ability to change the product to better fit the needs of the customer is called ______________.

a.

customization

b.

privacy

c.

accessibility

d.

personalization

Question 3. Which of the following is a measure of the percentage of purchasers who return to a website within a year?

a.

loyalty

b.

reach

c.

recency

d.

unique visitors

Question 4. Which of the following describes E‐commerce?

a.

Doing business electronically

b.

Doing business

c.

Sale of goods

d.

All of the above

Question 5. The most widely used encryption standard is ______________.

a.

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

b.

Data Encryption Standard (DES)

c.

Universal Encryption Standard (UES)

d.

Optimal Encryption Standard (OES)

Question 6. The largest component of a website budget is ______________.

a.

system maintenance

b.

system development

c.

content design and development

d.

telecommunications

Question 7. The dimension of e-commerce that enables commerce across national boundaries is called ______________.

a.

interactivity

b.

richness

c.

ubiquity

d.

global reach

Question 8. E-commerce technologies have improved upon traditional commerce technologies in ______________.

a.

richness

b.

reach

c.

both richness and reach

d.

neither richness nor reach

Question 9. Promotion of products in e-commerce can be done by:

a.

Social media

b.

Online Ads

c.

Blog

d.

All of the above

Question 10. Which is a function of E‐commerce?

a.

marketing

b.

advertising

c.

warehousing

d.

All of the above

Which service encompasses all technologies used to transmit and process information on and across a network? Select one: 

a. Interoperability 

b. Scalability

 c. Benchmarking 

d. Web services

Question 11. E-business can be defined as:

a.

the uninhibited flow of information and goods on the Web

b.

the use of the Internet and the Web to transact business

c.

digitally enabled transactions and processes within an organization

d.

commercial transactions involving electronic goods

Question 12. Which of the following is the primary characteristic of an intranet?

a.

People outside the organization can access it

b.

People inside the organization can’t access it

c.

People outside the organization can’t access it

d.

None of the above

Question 13. Which of the following represents a limiting factor for the growth of e-commerce?

a.

Persistent cultural attraction of physical markets and traditional shopping experiences

b.

E-commerce lacks the convenience of other methods of transacting business

c.

The potential audience for e-commerce is too low to support it as a widespread method of commerce

d.

Inadequate selection of goods compared to physical marketplaces.

Question 14. Which of the following describes an ERP system?

a.

ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments

b.

ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate

c.

ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organisations to store critical knowledge used to make the decisions that drive the organisation’s performance

d.

All of the above

Identify the incorrect statement :

a. The internet has evolved into phenomenally successful e-commerce engine

b. e-business is synonymous with e-commerce 

c. The e-commerce model B2C did not begin with billboard ware 

d. The e-commerce model G2C began with billboard ware

Question 15. E-commerce is:

a.

an organization using electronic media to purchase from to its suppliers

b.

any electronically mediated communication between an organization and its stakeholders

c.

t he use of electronic communications for all business processes

d.

an organization using electronic media to sell direct to its customers

Question 16. Which of the following describes E-commerce?

a.

Buying products from each other

b.

Buying services from each other

c.

Selling services from each other

d.

All of the above

Question 17. _______________ is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platforms – intranets, extranets and the Internet – to conduct a company’s business.

a.

E-commerce

b.

E-marketing

c.

E-procurement

d.

E-business

29

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2nd Module Assessment

  Which type of add appears on a web page?

Select one:

a.

pop‐under ad

b.

Pop‐up ad

c.

Banner ad

d.

Discount ad

Question 2. What is the process in which a buyer posts its interest in buying a certain quantity of items, and sellers compete for the business by submitting successively lower bids until there is only one seller left?

a.

B2B marketplace

b.

Intranet

c.

Reverse auction

d.

Internet

Question 3. Which of the following is part of the four main types for e‐commerce?

a.

B2B

b.

B2C

c.

C2B

d.

All of the above

Question 4. All of the following are major B2C business models except ______________.

a.

content provider

b.

industry consortium

c.

transaction broker

d.

service provider

Question 5. What is the percentage of customers who visit a website and actually buy something called?

a.

Affiliate programs

b.

Click‐through

c.

Spam

d.

Conversion rate

Question 6. This E-Commerce business model mainly focuses on selling products or services online.

a.

Indirect Marketing

b.

Marketplace

c.

Online Direct Marketing

d.

Brick & Mortar

Question 7. All of the following are types of social marketing except ______________.

a.

affiliate marketing

b.

blog advertising

c.

social network advertising

d.

game advertising

Question 8. Which segment do eBay, Amazon.com belong to?

a.

B2Bs

b.

B2Cs

c.

C2Bs

d.

C2Cs

Question 9. Which portal business model best describes Yahoo?

a.

general purpose portal

b.

affinity group based vertical market

c.

focused content based vertical market

d.

none of the above

Question 10. The basic element(s) of website is/are:

a.

Home page

b.

Web pages

c.

Links and banners

d.

All the above

Question 11. Which of the following describes paid content’s relation to free user-generated content?

a.

Free content jeopardizes paid content

b.

Paid content jeopardizes free content

c.

Free content and paid content can both work in tandem cooperatively

d.

Paid content is viable now but will not be in the future

Question 12. All of the following are challenges to online retail except ______________.

a.

Consumer concerns about the security of transactions

b.

Consumer concerns about the privacy of personal information given to Web sites

c.

Delays in delivery of goods when compared to store shopping

d.

Inability to change prices nearly instantly

Question 13. The two main types of Internet-based B2B commerce are:

a.

Net marketplaces and private industrial networks

b.

EDI and collaborative commerce

c.

Net marketplaces and collaborative commerce

d.

EDI and private industrial networks

Question 14. An example of a cost-saving benefit from creating an e-commerce web site is:

a.

the ability to reach overseas markets without a sales presence.

b.

more rapid response to customer enquiries.

c.

tracking of number of customers using different parts of site.

d.

all of the above

The online content revenue model in which free content drives offline revenues is called the ______________. Select one: 

a. marketing model

  b. advertising model 

c. pay-per-view model 

d. subscription model

Question 15. Which of the following portals are more specific, offering a great deal of information pertaining to a single area of interest?

a.

Horizontal

b.

Vertical

c.

(a) and (b) both

d.

None of above

Question 16. Click and mortar business are business that have:

a.

only physical presence

b.

both an online and an offline presence

c.

neither online nor offline presence

d.

None of above

Question 17. A buy-side supplier threat of e-commerce is:

a.

Drives down cost of commoditized products

b.

Reduction in customer loyalty

c.

Increase in cost of supplies

d.

None of above

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3rd Module Assessment

Which of the following can be used to help identify people in a crowd?

Select one:

a.

Biochip

b.

Implant chip

c.

Facial recognition software

d.

Vision chip

Question 2. Online journals where people post their reviews and thoughts on narrow topic are classified as ____________.

a.

Business domain website

b.

Corporate website

c.

Blogs

d.

Marketing website

Question 3. The use of smart card represents a form of:

a.

password encryption

b.

authorization

c.

authentication

d.

both b and c

Which of the following is the correct depiction of Digital Marketing?

Select one:

a.E-mail Marketing

b.Social Media Marketing

c.Web Marketing

d.all of the above

Question 4. ____________ is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platform-intranets, extranet and the internet to conduct a company’s business.

a.

e- procurement

b.

e-business

c.

e-commerce

d.

e-marketing

Question 5. EFT stands for ____________.

a.

Electronic fund transmission

b.

Electronic foreign transmission

c.

Electronic feature transfer

d.

Electronic feature transmit

Question 6. _____ is an approach to information management in which data are stored in a network of documents connected by links.

a.

Hypertext

b.

Linked text

c.

Hyperdata

d.

none

Question 7. Which of the following advantages is/are normally associated with B2B e‐commerce?

a.

Shorter cycle times

b.

Reduction in costs

c.

Reaches wider audiences

d.

All of the above

Question 8. The process of getting customers to pass along a company’s marketing message to friends, family, and colleagues is known as ______________.

a.

affiliate marketing

b.

permission marketing

c.

blog marketing

d.

viral marketing

Question 9. The limitations of e-marketing is ____________.

a.

the inability to touch and feel

b.

instant cash payment

c.

touch and feel

d.

immediate delivery

Question 10. Which of the following is the correct depiction of Digital Marketing?

a.

E-mail Marketing

b.

Social Media Marketing

c.

Web Marketing

d.

All of the above

_________is a unique address on the world wide web that provides the exact location of every data in the universal network.

Select one:

a.

URL

b.

http

c.

www

d.

none

Question 11. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the impact of technology?

a.

Technology has caused buyer power to increase

b.

Technology has lessened the entry barriers for many industries

c.

Technology has increased the threat of substitute products and services

d.

all of the above

Question 12. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of e-commerce to sellers?

a.

e-commerce can help to reduce coSts

b.

e-commerce is a powerful tool for customer relationship building

c.

e-commerce increases the net cost per contact

d.

e-commerce offers greater flexibility in meeting customer needs.

Question 13. Identify the incorrect statement:

a.

The overall strategy drives the e-commerce data warehousing strategy.

b.

Data warehousing in an e-commerce environment should be done in a classical manner.

c.

E-commerce opens up an entirely new world of web servers.

d.

E-commerce security threats can be grouped into three major categories.

Question 14. All of the following are potential benefits of B2B e-commerce except:

a.

reduced amount of ‘first-mover’ advantages

b.

decreased product cycle time

c.

increased opportunities for collaborating with suppliers and distributors

d.

increased production flexibility

Which of the following are the key characteristics of e-business?

I. Customer is king.

II. E-business leads to intermediation.

III. Entry barriers are low.

IV. Economies of scale.

Select one:

a. Both (I) and (II) above

b. Both (II) and (III) above

c. Both (III) and (IV) above

d. (I), (III) and (IV) above

Question 15. Which of the following is not a challenge of e-learning?

a.

E-learning is not always designed by skilled educators.

b.

Online learning increases social interaction among children.

c.

Copyright breach.

d.

All of above.

Question 16. Many e-tailers often offer lower prices to:

a.

Generate brand awareness

b.

Increase site traffic

c.

Increase customer loyalty

d.

All of above

Question 17. Which of the following is not true for online travel?

a.

People can save time and money by booking their travel arrangements on the Web

b.

There is a great deal of competition among travel Web sites; each offers better service, low fares and more features.

c.

Customers now have the power to bypass a travel agent

d.

None of above

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4th Module Assessment

The redirection of traffic from a legitimate site to an infringing site is called ______________.

a.

cybersquatting

b.

cyberpiracy

c.

metatagging

d.

keywording

Question 2. When hackers flood a website with useless traffic to overwhelm the network, it is called ______________.

a.

phishing

b.

pharming

c.

a Denial of Service (DoS) attack

d.

spoofing

Question 3. If you need to transfer money to another person via the internet, which of the following methods can you use?

a.

financial cybermediary

b.

electronic check

c.

electronic bill presentment and payment

d.

All of the above

Question 4. Which of the following is an Internet‐based company that makes it easy for one person to pay another over the Internet?

a.

electronic check

b.

electronic bill presentment and payment

c.

conversion rates

d.

financial cybermediary

Question 5. Which of the following is not related to security mechanism?

a.

encryption

b.

decryption

c.

e‐cash

d.

All of the above

Question 6. What is the name given to an interactive business providing a centralized market where many buyers and suppliers can come together for E‐commerce or commerce‐related activities?

a.

Direct marketplace

b.

B2B

c.

B2C

d.

Electronic marketplace

Question 7. Secure Sockets Layers does which of the following?

a.

creates a secure, private connection to a web server

b.

encrypts information

c.

sends information over the internet

d.

All of the above

Question 8. Which web server functionality allows it to verify usernames and passwords and process certificates and encryption information?

a.

Processing of HTTP requests File Transfer Protocol

b.

Data capture

c.

Security services

Question 9. Which of the following is a useful security mechanism when considering business strategy and IT?

a.

encryption

b.

decryption

c.

firewall

d.

All of the above

Question 10. A security plan begins with a ______________.

a.

security policy

b.

implementation plan

c.

security organization

d.

risk assessment

The practice of forging a return address on an e‐mail so that the recipient is fooled into revealing private information is termed as ____________.

a. hacking  b. cracking  c. dumpster diving  d. spoofing

Question 11. Which of the following statements about privacy is true?

a.

It is a moral right to be left alone

b.

Only corporations and government need to be concerned about it

c.

It has only just recently become a concern

d.

It is most easily obtained on the Internet

Question 12. Digital signature is a:

a.

Digital id,send as an attachment to a web page/e‐mail/message

b.

Is used for verifying the attachments send using web

c.

Both a and b

d.

None of these

Question 13. Public key encryption uses multiple keys. One key is used to encrypt data, while another is used to decrypt data. The key used to encrypt data is called the _____ key, while the key used to decrypt data is called the _____ key.

a.

encryption, decryption

b.

private, public

c.

encryption, public

d.

public, private

Question 14. Secure communication means:

a.

Protect transmission of credit card number

b.

Guarantee privacy of customer

c.

Unauthorized access of payment details

d.

All the above

A digital signature is required:  i) to tie an electronic message to the sender’s identity  ii) for non repudiation of communication by a sender  iii) to prove that a message was sent by the sender in a Court of law.  Iv) in all e-mail transactions  Select one:  a. i and ii  b. i, ii and iii  c. I, ii, iii and iv  d. ii, iii and iv

Question 15. What is considered while creating a front page of the website or homepage?

a.

References of other websites

b.

Logos portraying the number of awards won by the web designer

c.

A brief elaboration about the company

d.

None of the above

Question 16. Micro-blogging can be defined as __________.

a.

Mobile related blogs

b.

Blogs posted by companies instead of an individual

c.

Blogs encompassing limited individual posts, which are typically limited by character count.

d.

None of the above

Question 17. Which of the following factors are responsible for leaving an impact on the Google PageRank?

a.

The text depicting inbound links to a page of a website.

b.

The subject matter of the site providing the inbound link to a page of a website.

c.

The number of outbound links on the page that contains the inbound link to a page of a website.

d.

A total number of inbound links to a website’s page.

30

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5th Module Assessment

Which concept suggests that different applications and computer systems should be able to communicate with one another?

a.

Integration

b.

Web services

c.

Scalability

d.

Interoperability

Question 2. What is a detailed process for recovering information or an IT system in the event of a catastrophic disaster such as fire or flood?

a.

Disaster recovery plan

b.

Hot site

c.

Cold site

d.

Disaster recovery cost curve

Question 3. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chip on which digital information can be stored?

a.

Customer relationship management systems cards

b.

E‐government identity cards

c.

FEDI cards

d.

Smart cards

Question 4. What floods a website with so many requests for service that it slows down or crashes?

a.

Computer virus

b.

Worm

c.

Denial‐of‐service attack

d.

None of the above

Question 5. A technique used to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, often by e‐mail, is called ____________.

a.

Phishing

b.

Carding

c.

Brand spoofing

d.

All of the above

Question 6. What is an internal organizational Internet that is guarded against outside access by a special security feature called a firewall (which can be software, hardware, or a combination of the two)?

a.

Client/server network

b.

Intranet

c.

Extranet

d.

Thin client

Question 7. What looks for people on the network who shouldn’t be there or who are acting suspiciously?

a.

Encryption

b.

Public key encryption

c.

Intrusion‐detection software

d.

Security‐auditing software

Question 8. What is the name for direct computer‐to‐computer transfer of transaction information contained in standard business documents?

a.

internet commerce

b.

e‐commerce

c.

transaction information transfer

d.

electronic data interchange

Question 9. Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click on an ad, and are taken to the site of the advertiser?

a.

Affiliate programs

b.

Click‐through

c.

Spam

d.

All of the above

Which of the following refers to creating products tailored to individual customers?

a. customization 

b. aggregation  c. Direct materials  d. Reverse auction

Question 10. Cyber slacking consists of what activities?

a.

Visiting “inappropriate” web sites

b.

Visiting news sites

c.

Chatting online with others about non‐work topics

d.

All of the above

Question 11. Which of the following is/are not basic e-business model(s)?

I. B2B.

II. B2C.

III. C2C.

IV. C2B.

a.

Only (II) above()

b.

Only (IV) above()

c.

(I) (II) and (III) above

d.

Both (I) and (IV) above()

Question 12. Disadvantages of E-commerce in India are:

 (i) internet access is not universally available

(ii) credit card payment security is not yet guaranteed

(iii) transactions are de-personalized and human contact is missing

(iv) cyber laws are not in place

a.

i and ii

b.

ii and iii

c.

i, ii, iii

d.

i, ii, iii, iv

E-business is:

Select one:

a.the use of electronic communications for all business processes

b.an organization using electronic media to purchase from to its suppliers

c.any electronically mediated communication between an organization and its stakeholders

d.all of the above

Question 13. Which is the most realistic relationship between these two concepts?

a.

E-business is a subset of E-commerce

b.

E-commerce is broadly equivalent to E-business

c.

E-commerce is a subset of E-business

d.

E-commerce has some overlap with E-business

Question 14. An example of benefits from creating an E-commerce website is:

a.

more rapid response to customer enquiries

b.

tracking of number of customers using different parts of site

c.

lower paper costs needed for marketing and fewer staff needed in contact centre

d.

All the above

Question 15. Which of the following statements accurately reflect the impact of technology?

a.

technology has caused buyer power to increase

b.

technology has lessened the entry barriers for many industries

c.

technology has increased the threat of substitute products and services

d.

all of the above

Question 16. Which of the following is true for Insurance Online?

a.

Insurance is complicated; the Web offers instruction and helpful documentation.

b.

Free quotes and calculators help consumers make informed decisions.

c.

Lower rates are often found on the Web for insurance.

d.

all of the above

Question 17. In what ways can site traffic help in assessing the market value?

a.

Overall site traffic can be followed, and a general idea of marketing’s impact can be determined.

b.

There is no association between the site traffic and marketing

c.

Ads can send receivers to a specific landing page, which can be tracked

d.

Product sales from the company website can be attributed directly to the marketing campaign

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Assignment 2

Case Study: 

While ecommerce has been growing rapidly, it still only comprised a small percentage of overall retail sales. For example, in the U.S., on an adjusted basis, ecommerce accounted for 11.8% of all retail sales in the first quarter of 2020, according to the U.S. Census Bureau.

That was for Q1. Then in Q2, the number jumped to 16.1% – a 44.5% change from the same quarter a year ago. To put that number in perspective, Q2 2019 grew “only” 13.8% over Q2 2018.

What changed? The COVID-19 pandemic, of course. Even with ecommerce’s double-digit growth over the years, brick-and-mortar retail still had many advantages over ecommerce. Some products (like groceries) are hard to ship and easier and less expensive to buy in person. Brick-and-mortar retail has an experiential draw that ecommerce can’t match – from trying on a shirt to being wowed by an in-store (and Instagram-worthy) display. The ability to make a human connection and learn about a product or service.

Suddenly everything changed. That human connection became a detriment. And a no-touch version of goods and even services was preferable if not essential.

What of these softwares comes hidden in free downloadable software and tracks your online movements, mines the information stored on your computer, or uses your computer’s CPU and storage for some task you know nothing about?

a.

Web log

b.

Clickstream

c.

Anonymous Web browsing service

d.

None of the above

Question 2. What type of virus spreads itself, not just from file to file, but from computer to computer via e‐mail and other Internet traffic?

a.

Computer virus

b.

Worm

c.

Denial‐of‐service attack

d.

None of the above

Question 3. What is an electronic representation of cash?

a.

Digital cash

b.

Electronic cash

c.

E‐cash

d.

All of the above

Question 4. During E‐commerce transaction, we should ensure ____________.

a.

Integrity

b.

Security

c.

Confidentiality

d.

All the above

Question 5. Encryption prevents ____________ from viewing data that is transmitted over telecommunications channels.

a.

snoopers

b.

other prying seyes

c.

hackers

d.

All the above

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IT Project Management (CSIT705)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

The person who ensures that systems are developed on time, within budget, and with acceptable quality is a __________.

a.

project manager

b.

systems designer

c.

systems owner

d.

systems builder

Question 2. A task of developing a technical blueprint and specifications for a solution that fulfills the business requirements is undertaken in the following phase of the system development process:

a.

system design

b.

system initiation

c.

system implementation

d.

feasibility analysis

Question 3. Which of the following is a feasibility analysis criterion?

a.

technical feasibility

b.

schedule feasibility

c.

operational feasibility

d.

All of the above

Question 4. Which of the following is a deliverable of the system implementation phase in a formal system development process?

a.

technical hardware and software solution for the business problem

b.

none of the above

c.

business problem statement

d.

statement of the system users’ business requirements

Question 5. Which of the following is the last phase of the Systems Construction phase?

Select one:

a.

write and test new programs

b.

prepare conversion plan

c.

build and test networks

d.

none of the above

Question 6. Which of the tests is a final system test performed by end users using real data over an extended period of time?

a.

systems acceptance test

b.

complete test

c.

parallel test

d.

none of the above

Question 7. Project Management ensures that:

a.

system is developed at minimum cost

b.

project’s risk is assessed

c.

project’s feasibility is assessed

d.

none of the above

Question 8. The scope statement should address all of the following issues EXCEPT:

a.

project constraints

b.

project assumptions

c.

project exclusions

d.

code of conduct for the team members working on the project

Question 9. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is defined as “the application of knowledge, __________, __________, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements”.

Select one:

a.

skills, analysis

b.

tools, analysis

c.

analysis, theories

d.

skills, tools

Question 10. DFD stands for:

a.

Data Flow Diagram

b.

Data File Diagram

c.

Data Flow Document

d.

None of the above

Question 11. Which of the following statements about achieving a common understanding of the project purpose is true?

a.

A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement regarding a project’s purpose is often fatal to project execution.

b.

Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.

c.

The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding depend on the duration of the project.

d.

Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common understanding usually involves informal discussions that last a few hours.

Question 12. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project deliverable have been accomplished by his project team. What is the next step for his project to proceed in order to verify the project scope by his project client?

a.

Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.

b.

Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.

c.

Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the project.

d.

Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables.

Question 13. After Ling finished drafting a new project charter, she sent a copy of the charter to all key project parties including the project sponsor, senior management and key stakeholders, and scheduled a kick-off meeting with them. What will be the most important goal for Ling to complete the project charter?

Select one:

a.

Make a professional looking project charter to impress the key project parties.

b.

Get confirmation from the key parties that they have read the charter.

c.

Invite the key parties for a nice lunch to establish a friendly relationship.

d.

Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.

Question 14. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited that he is assigned to be in charge of the most important project this year. After being chartered for the project, he analyzes the information in the project charter and the stakeholder register to:

a.

decide how to draft a scope statement.

b.

start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.

c.

prepare for the template to monitor project progress.

d.

estimate the entire project budget.

Question 15.Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle.

Arrange them in correct order:

 1. Design,

2. Marketing,

3. Analysis and evaluation,

4. Inspection, testing and delivery

a.

3-2-1-4

b.

1-2-3-4

c.

2-3-1-4

d.

4-3-2-1

Question 16.Five dimensions that must be managed on a project are:

a.

Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

b.

Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

c.

Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff

d.

Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer

Question 17. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project evaluation process?

a.

It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.

b.

It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the project manager who is involved in the evaluation.

c.

It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity profile of the project.

d.

It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the chosen project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.

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2nd Module Assessment

Which of the following may generate a milestone list?

a.

Define Activities

b.

Sequence Activities

c.

Estimate Activity Resources

d.

Estimate Activity Durations

Question 2. Work breakdown structure (WBS) is a ______________ of the work with increasing detail in each layer.

a.

layered description

b.

step change

c.

ballpark estimate

d.

project execution plan

Question 3. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents?

a.

Define Activities

b.

Sequence Activities

c.

Estimate Activity Resources

d.

Estimate Activity Durations

Question 4. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of:

a.

Finish-to-Start

b.

Start-to-Finish

c.

Start-to-Start

d.

Finish-to-Finish

Question 5. Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following:

a.

Project Manager who created the WBS

b.

Project Team Members responsible for the work package

c.

Project Officer

d.

Project Stakeholder

Question 6. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?

a.

The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.

b.

Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase

c.

The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.

d.

All the above statements are correct.

Question 7. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project charter and scope , Select one:

a.

completion

b.

start-up

c.

execution

d.

evaluation

Question 8. Which of the following is typically a written document that defines what work will be accomplished by the end of the project?

a.

Scope of work (SOW)

b.

Project logic diagram

c.

Milestone schedule

d.

Ballpark estimate

Question 9. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in the project is included?

a.

Create a contingency plan.

b.

Create a risk management plan.

c.

Create a WBS.

d.

Create a statement of work.

Question 10. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?

a.

Scope

b.

Resources

c.

Team

d.

Budget

Question 11. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential risks for her new construction project M based on levels of probability and impact on the project, she identified a potential risk, regarding a schedule conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a short time period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M, Kathy wants to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she should document this type of risk. where should Kathy document this risk?

a.

Watch list

b.

Risk management plan

c.

Project management plan

d.

WBS

Question 12. The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks and resources, identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets for a specific project is known as …

a.

project management.

b.

Process Management

c.

Process

d.

Activities

Question 13. Roberto is in charge of a new project to help Company A upgrade its old HR system to a cutting-edge, cross-platform system with the most recent mobile technologies. After his project team assessed the available system documentations, the team found the existing documentations too large and complicated to implement the system updates. Roberto advised his team to decompose the major project deliverables into more executable components. In this project process, Robert advised his team to do which of the following?

a.

Document requirements

b.

Create WBS

c.

Define project scope

d.

Verify project scope

Question 14. As a new project manager, Karen was worried about a statement from her client: “your project deliverable is in low quality with low grade”. how can you help Karen distinguish the differences between “quality” and “grade”?

a.

Quality and grade represent the same thing.

b.

Low quality can never be a problem, but low grade is.

c.

Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case.

d.

Low quality with high grade is always desirable to your client. e. High quality always represents high grade.

Question 15. Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be different for the same application development, because:

a.

Different organisations consider complexity factors differently

b.

Different organisations may use different programming languages

c.

Developers’ skills may vary

d.

All of the above may be true

Question 16. Which of these are the characteristics of Project Mindset?

a.

Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning

b.

Time, Project management, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning

c.

Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, capability, structured planning

d.

Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, project planning

Question 17. The longer a fault exists in:

a.

the more tedious its removal becomes

b.

the more costly it is to detect and correct

c.

the less likely it is to be properly corrected

d.

All of the mentioned

26

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3rd Module Assessment

The PERT in project management means program evaluation and _____ technique.

a.

resource

b.

reconciliation

c.

reconsideration

d.

review

Question 2. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more information is known, the project team can develop a: Select one:

a.

work breakdown structure

b.

critical estimate

c.

rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

d.

scope of work

Question 3. Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of a project management?

a.

Initiation

b.

Planning

c.

Execution

d.

Closure

Question 4. What is the first step in project planning? Select one:

a.

Establish the objectives and scope.

b.

Determine the budget.

c.

Select the team organizational model.

d.

Determine project constraints.

Question 5. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project Management is in progress.

a.

Conduct Procurements

b.

Plan Procurements

c.

Control Procurements

d.

Close Procurements

Question 6. During a new project planning process to sequence activities, the project manager, Nate, decides to use the precedence diagraming method to show the identified activity dependencies. Which of the following logical relationships is Nate’s least favorite choice? Select one:

a.

Finish-to-start

b.

Start-to-finish

c.

Finish-to-finish

d.

Start-to-start

Question 7. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met for the project to finish on time?

a.

Critical path

b.

Ballpark estimate

c.

Pert diagram

d.

Milestone schedule

Question 8. The process of Control Procurements falls under which process group

a.

Planning

b.

Closing

c.

Monitoring and Control

d.

Executing

Question 9. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made regarding whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________must be considered and weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success. Select one:

Select one:

a.

completion, cost

b.

closeout, resources

c.

execution, performance

d.

initiation, risk

Question 10. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?

a.

Purchase Order

b.

Cost plus Fee

c.

Fixed cost

d.

Time and Material

Question 11. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant internal and external stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all of them are covered in the stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to look at?

a.

Project team activities

b.

Scope statement

c.

Project charter

d.

Work packages

Question 12. Complete the following statement. In a weak matrix environment, the project manager, Eric, has to constantly make an effort to influence his project team and stakeholders to ensure project success. This is because:

a.

Eric has a lot of authority.

b.

Eric has no or little authority.

c.

Eric is controlled by his functional managers.

d.

there are no functional managers.

Question 13. As a project manager, Neel has a team member, Kate, who has not been performing well. Due to many repeated mistakes, she has significantly delayed the whole project progress. Neel tried to offer relevant trainings for Kate to improve her performance, and he was not able to see any progress in two months. However, Kate is a single mom with three kids, and she needs this job to support her family. Based on what you know about conflict management, in this situation, how should Neel proceed? Select one:

a.

Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member.

b.

Neel should help Kate find another job in the firm.

c.

Neel should assign Kate more challenging tasks.

d.

Neel should let Kate stay on the job and pick up her slack.

Question 14. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some uncontrolled process variations. Which of the following would be the appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?

a.

Pareto diagram

b.

PERT chart

c.

Control chart

d.

HR personnel chart

Question 15. Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?

I. Projects have defined objectives

II. Programs have a larger scope than projects

III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related

a.I only

b.II only

c.III only

d.II and III only

Question 16. Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?

Select one:

a.

Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing

b.

Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing

c.

Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing

d.

Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing

Question 17. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?

a.

Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis represents the frequency of occurrence.

b.

If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to it by flowcharting.

c.

A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.

d.

Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

28

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4th Module Assessment

Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track project costs?

Select one:

a.

Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart

b.

Organizational Breakdown Structure

c.

Resource Breakdown Structure

d.

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

Question 2. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation?

a.

Poor change management

b.

Poor requirements management

c.

Poor quality control

d.

All of the above

Question 3. A project has never happened before, and it will never happen again under the …………… conditions.

a.

Same condition

b.

Different condition

c.

Various condition

d.

None of the above

Question 4. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?

Select one:

a.

Cost Variance

b.

Management Overhead

c.

Management Contingency Reserve

d.

Schedule Variance

Question 5. In resource allocation, the resources are allocated to a project in orderthat the ………………. are attained.

a.

Goals

b.

Objectives

c.

Both a, b

d.

None of the above

Question 6. In project planning, it explains ____________ that are needed to for the growth of product.

a.

a series of actions

b.

steps

c.

both a, b

d.

none of the above

Question 7. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.

a.

cost-benefit analysis

b.

implicit cost

c.

cost of quality

d.

variable cost

Question 8. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?

a.

Schedule baseline

b.

Cost performance baseline

c.

Scope baseline

d.

Plan baseline

Question 9. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

a.

Project is on budget and on schedule

b.

Schedule Variance Index is 1

c.

There is no schedule variance

d.

There is no cost variance

Question 10. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of knowledge is known:

a.

Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

b.

Scope of work estimate

c.

Conceptual estimate

d.

Line estimate

Question 11. As a project manager, John was finally relieved because a major project led by him was just announced a success. which of the following has likely happened in order to consider John’s project a success?

a.

John’s project has met all of the stakeholders’ expectations.

b.

The phase completion of John’s project has been approved.

c.

John’s client has paid off the project.

d.

John’s boss is happy.

Question 12. Which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget?

a.

Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.

b.

Reserves should not be included in the project budget.

c.

Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.

d.

Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Question 13. Effective project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four P’s?

a.

People, performance, payment, product

b.

People, product, process, project

c.

People, product, performance, project

d.

All of the above

Question 14. As a project manager of Project Cool at the company, Samira is responsible for monitoring and controlling two project management processes: process A and process B. She recently noticed a high priority risk X has been imposed on her project process A in Project Cool. While she tried to control the risk X, she also noticed that a new potential risk Y will be added to process B. Which of the following best explains this situation?Select one:

a.

If risk Y happens, then it is all Samira’s fault, because she did not do a good job of carefully monitoring the risks for Project Cool.

b.

This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.

c.

The potential risk might happen, but Samira can ignore risk Y, as risk X takes higher priority.

d.

Samira is not experienced enough for handling risk management, so her boss will probably fire her.

Question 15. Choose the correct option according to given below statement.

Statement 1: Umbrella activities are independent of any one framework activity and occur throughout the process.

Statement 2: quality assurance, configuration management are umbrella activity.

Statement 3: quality assurance, configuration management are not umbrella activity.

a.

Only statement 1 is correct.

b.

Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

c.

Only statement 3 is correct.

d.

Statement 1 and statement 3 are correct

Question 16. Which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget ?

a.

Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.

b.

Reserves should not be included in the project budget.

c.

If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to determine your project budget.

d.

Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.

Question 17. What is the most critical aspect in developing a project plan that meets project specifications within the timeframe and at the lowest costs?

a.

Assessing risk management

b.

Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use

c.

Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction

d.

Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project        

30

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5th Module Assessment

What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who works in a matrix environment in order to achieve project goals?

a.

Leadership skill

b.

Influencing

c.

Conflict management skill

d.

Time management

Question 2. Root Cause Analysis relates to:

a.

Process Analysis

b.

Quality Audits

c.

Quality Control Measurements

d.

Performance Measurements

Question 3. What is the first step in developing a risk management plan?

a.

Analyze the risks.

b.

Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.

c.

Identify potential project risks.

d.

Develop a risk mitigation plan.

Question 4. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings. The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example of:

a.

Inspection

b.

Statistical Sampling

c.

Flowcharting

d.

Control Charting

Question 5. Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management Plan that is useful in HR Planning process?

a.

Risk Management activities

b.

Quality Assurance activities

c.

Activity Resource requirements

d.

Budget Control activities

Question 6. Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?

Select one:

a.

Defines what project team is responsible for each WBS component

b.

Defines what project member is responsible for each activity

c.

Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities

d.

Defines all people associated with each activity

Question 7. As the project progresses into the execution phase:

a.

risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.

b.

the total risk on the project typically increases.

c.

risks are identified with each major group of activities.

d.

a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis.

Question 8. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to specialists and requires a cost-benefit analysis?

a.

Lean accounting

b.

Business process re-engineering

c.

Kaizen

d.

Six Sigma

Question 9. Process Analysis is a function of:

a.

Performance Analysis

b.

Quality Metrics

c.

Process Improvement Plan

d.

Quality Improvement Plan

Question 10. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact?

a.

Identify Risks

b.

Plan Risk responses

c.

Perform Qualitative risk analysis

d.

Perform Quantitative risk analysis

Question 11. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?

a.

Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.

b.

The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.

c.

Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

d.

Risks are identified with each major group of activities.

Question 12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to manage a task and then matching the team members with the right skills to do that work?

a.

Benchmarking

b.

Expediting

c.

Procurement

d.

Delegation

Question 13. Due to the rapid expansion of your company, your boss decides to establish a project management office (PMO) within the company and asks you to take the lead. As an the ideal PMO you can do which of the following?

a.

Speed up a specific ongoing project.

b.

Find opportunities for collaborative project management.

c.

Reassign the resources that have been assigned to ongoing projects.

d.

Reduce the assigned resources to existing projects.

Question 14. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following functions EXCEPT:

a.

maintaining the organization’s project management policies and procedures.

b.

supervising the project managers.

c.

assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project managers.

d.

monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like project scheduling and project cost analysis

Question 15. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?

a.

Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.

b.

The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.

c.

Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

d.

Risks are identified with each major group of activities.

Question 16. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global virtual teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by a local team member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of the culture of his home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How would you respond to this situation as a PMP?

a.

Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global project.

b.

Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.

c.

Do nothing.

d.

Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members for this global project equally.

Question 17. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency. Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in this scenario?

a.

No project team ground rules were set up.

b.

The current communications plan was very poorly designed.

c.

The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.

d.

There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more responsibilities.

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Global Green Books Publishing was started two years ago by two friends, Jim King and Brad

Mount, who met in college while studying in Philadelphia, USA. In the new business Jim

focused on editing, sales and marketing while Brad Mount did the electronic assembly and

publishing of books for Global Green Books. Their business was successful and profitable in the

first two years, largely due to contracts from two big businesses.

In their third year they got very busy thanks to their third major customer, a local college that

needed customized eBooks. They hired several part time employees to help them with their

publishing business.

But by the end of third year of operation, Global Green Books started experiencing critical

problems. They were:

 unable to leverage all the new employees effectively

 unable to deliver eBooks to their customers on schedule

 unable to provide quality texts—time and money was being spent fixing defects in their

products

 unable to control costs—their business was not profitable in the third year.

Global Green Books saw a significant rise in issues, a lot of unpleasant “surprises” were

cropping up; business was down as new resources were hired, also some of the projects were

poorly estimated. The local university was unhappy as their eBook products reached campus

late for use by professors and student. In some cases, the books were a week or two late. Since

the courses must start on schedule and students need their books at the beginning of their

courses, the new lucrative college customer was unhappy.

One of the new part-time employees hired by Jim and Brad, Samantha, had taken a project

management course at college. Samantha was excited about the discipline of project

management and had intentionally selected a job with Global Green Books Publishing as she

saw an opportunity to polish her project management skills.

One fine day, Jim invited Samantha, for a lunch meeting. He was aware that Samantha was

familiar with project management, and wanted to hear what she had to say about the problems

he and Brad were facing. Over lunch he questioned why their small business which had

operated and implemented projects so successfully over the first two years was being

challenged significantly now. He specifically listed the problems they were facing and asked for

input to solve them.

Samantha asked for more time to research all the issues but noted that Global Green Books,

while being innovative, completed projects without a roadmap or a project plan and lacked a

disciplined approach to project management. She noted that Jim and Brad did not use any

project software for scheduling and they did not use tools or techniques to estimate, budget or

to communicate with stakeholders. Finally, they had no processes in place to manage project

risks and quality.

Impressed with this and other conversations, Jim King asked Samantha if she would consider

joining them as a project associate or project manager on a full-time basis to help them

introduce project management practices and help them tide over their current crisis.

Samantha accepted the offer! She has several key skills—she is an excellent communicator

with very good interpersonal skills and detail-oriented. Within the first three months in her new

role as PM, she introduced formal project management processes, created a PM manual and

trained the employees to get the work done well.

Within nine months Samantha had fully turned things around. Due to proactive risk analysis and

risk response planning, surprises and issues reduced. Communication with stakeholders was

enhanced.

Brad and Jim noted that the company was delivering projects on schedule, the quality

processes worked—and customers were happy with the products!

What are the signs that a project is in trouble?

Select one:

a.

The product scope is poorly defined.

b.

Deadlines are unrealistic.

c.

Changes are managed poorly.

d.

All of the above.

Question 2. Resources refer to:

a.

Manpower

b.

Machinery

c.

Materials

d.

All of the above

Question 3. The project life cycle consists of:

a.

Understanding the scope of the project

b.

Objectives of the project

c.

Formulation and planning various activities

d.

All of the above

Question 4. Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager:

a.

Budgeting and cost control

b.

Allocating resources

c.

Tracking project expenditure

d.

All of the above

Question 5. Project performance consists of:

a.

Time

b.

Cost

c.

Quality

d.

All of the above

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