Amity MBA Assignment Semester 3 Entrepreneurship 2019 – University Solved Assignments / Synopsis / Projects.(AMITY/SMU/Jaipur National.)

Enterprise Planning Appraisal and Financing (ENTR701)-Semester III

March 4, 2022March 4, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Enterprise Planning Appraisal and Financing (ENTR701)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Banks normally don’t charge any rent on locker facility.

TRUE

FALSE

Can’t Say

Sometimes

Question 2. WTO agreement generally focuses on …………………. Trade.

Global

European

Asian

Question 3. …………….. is a way to know bank customers.

LFT

KFT

KYC

Memo

Question 4. ATM stands for …………….. Teller Machine.

Auto

Automatic

Acquired

American

Question 5. ICICI, HDFC, and Yes Bank are form of ………………… banks

Private

Public

Scheduled

All

Question 6. Treasury bills are used for ……………….. term requirments.

Intemediate

Short

Long

All

Question 7. The headquarter of State Bank of India is in ………………… .

Delhi

Mumbai

Chennai

Kolkatta

Question 8. IPO belongs to which market?

Primary

Secondary

Money Market

All

Question 9. Which is not the principle of lending? 1. Diversity, 2. Liquidity and 3. Safety.

Diversity

Liquidity

Safety

All are acceptable

Question 10. NEFT stands for National Electronic ……………..Transfer.

Finance

Forex

Fundamentals

Fund

Question 11. KYC means Know your ……………

Character

Customer

Certificate

Condition

Question 12. Companies should keep their savings with banks because

a) It is safe

b) Earns interest

c) Can be withdrawn anytime

d) All of above

a and b

a and c

b and c

Question 13. Which type of deposits earns higher interest rate?

Current account

Savings Account

Fixed Deposits

All of the above

Question 14. What is the validity period of a cheque?

4 months from date of issue

3 months from date of issue

1 month from date of issue

Unlimited

Loans from money lenders implies:

a) High rate of interest

b) No proper accounting

c) No transparency

d) All of above

a and c

a and b

b and c

Question 15. …………………. is the regulator of Indian Banking Industry.

SBI

HDFC

ICICI

RBI

Question 16. Which of the following is not a project management goal?

Keeping overall costs within budget

Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

Avoiding customer complaints

Question 17. Nabard, Exim and SIDBI are known as …………………… Banks.

Commerical

Loan

Development

Private

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2nd Module Assessment

DPR stands for ……………….. Project report.

Derailed

Dictated

Detailed

Descriptive

Question 2. The elapsed time from project start date to project finish date.

Turnover time

Completition Time

Duration

Start Time

Question 3. PERT stands for Program Evaluation and ………… Technique.

Repeat

Review

Right

Reporting

Question 4. A task or activity that precedes or comes before another task or activity.

Pre-task

Predecessor

Successor

Denominator

Question 5. Blue Print of a project signifies …………………… .

Tasks to complete

Timings to complete

Resources to complete

All of the given

Question 6. The planned dates for performing activities and the planned dates for meeting milestones.

Schedule

Program

Policy

Procedure

Question 7. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project’s objectives.

Risk

Uncertainty

None

Both

Question 8. Individuals and organizations who are involved in or may be affected by project activities.

Stakeholder

Shareholders

Owners

Residents

Question 9. Something that lies ready for use or that can be drawn upon for aid or to take care of a need.

Reverse

Review

Resource

Liability

Question 10. The act of revising the project’s scope, budget, schedule, or quality in order to reduce uncertainty of the project.

Reversing

Failing

Mitigation

Catching

……………… is a significant event in the project, usually completion of a major deliverable.

a. Project

b. Product

c. Profile

d. Milestone

For small projects, which method is used for calculation of project time?

a. PERT

b. CPM

c. Miles Chart

d. Bar Chart

Question 11. Which of the following is prepared first during estimate?

Schedule of rates

Rate analysis

Detailed cost analysis

Detailed Project

Question 12. Feasibility report contains sufficient detailed information.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 13. Preparation of DPR is a costly and ………………. Job.

Wasteful

Time taking

Boring

FALSE

Question 14. Before going to overseas technical collaborator the repertoire of established technology available within the country should be explored. It would be both cheaper and nationalistic!

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 15. The strength of the materials can be checked by …………..

Visual Inspection

Quality Control

By asking the manufacturer

By refering to various codes

Question 16. The roadway feature include the study of ………………

Accidental Design

Geometric Design

Route Allignment

Safety

Question 17. The first step in the checklist of DPR is ………..

Executive Summary

Roadway Details

General Details

Background

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3rd Module Assessment

Quality, Cost, ………….. (QCD), as used in lean manufacturing, measures a businesses activity and develops Key performance indicators. Select one: a. Date b. Diary c. Determination d. Delivery

………..…….. engineering is an interdisciplinary field of engineering that focuses on how complex engineering projects should be designed and managed.

Policy

Project

Program

Structured

Question 2. MBO stands for …………… Buyout.

Management

Markeing

Margin

Molecule

Question 3. ……………. are what is required to carry out a project’s tasks.

Resources

Product

Profile

Programme

Question 4. A person who takes on personal responsibility for the successful completion of a “visionary project” is a …………….. .

Insurer

Banker

Champion

Charger

Question 5. ………….. referes generally to a list of all planned expenses and revenues.

Budget

Budgetory Control

Budgeting

All

Question 6. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result is called a ……………… .

Program

Project

Product

Profile

Question 7. Wideband ………….. is a consensus-based estimation technique for estimating effort.

Deliphie

Delphi

Delhip

Dellpphi

Question 8. For “relevance,” such information as development plans of a partner country, background of project, needs of the beneficiary, project strategies, and the formulation of plans is needed.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes true

In Infra Projects only

Question 9. An imaginative arrangement of a set of ideas is called a …………….. .

Principle

Concept

Policy

Procedure

Question 10. ……………….. breakdown structure (PBS) in project management is an exhaustive, hierarchical tree structure of components that make up an item, arranged in whole-part relationship.

Project

Product

Profile

Programme

Question 11. A general list of planned expenses is called …………………. .

Auditing

Budget

Budgetory Control

Budgeting

NPV stands for …………… present value. Select one: a. National b. Net c. Nominal d. Null

Question 12. Good evaluation questions will make it ………….. to identify the necessary data and indicators in an evaluation study.

Costly

Difficult

Linger on

Easy

Question 13. Qualitative analysis of causal relationships tries to explain the relationship between the project implementation and the changes in its beneficiaries.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 14. An evaluation study is usually limited in its budget and time, and therefore it is an effective and efficient way to conduct the study.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 15. The basic methodology of quantitative methods to examine causal relationships is “comparison.”

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 16. The assessment of a project’s performance in and after mid-term evaluation needs achievement criteria (or target values) in order to judge whether the objectives are ……………… or not.

Planned

Sacrificed

Achieved

All

Question 17. There are two steps in conducting the survey: 1) to choose people as the target group and another people as the non-target (control group) at random before implementing a project; and 2) compare their changes before and after the project.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

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4th Module Assessment

Which one is not the financial institute in India?

IDBI

IFCI

ICICI

AICTE

Which is not the feature of Venture Capital: Long term horizon 1. Lack of liquidity 2. High risk 3. High tech

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 3

All are the components.

Question 2. GDR stands for …………… Depository Receipts.

Green

Global

Gross

Grand

Question 3. A ………………. is a term used in the venture capital industry to describe a privately held startup company with a value of over $1 billion.

Millionaire

Billionaire

Unicorn

None

Question 4. A …………….. finances new companies.

Venture Capitalist

Businessman

Lender

Bank

Question 5. ADR belongs to which country?

USA

India

Australia

Question 6. Private equity is composed of funds and investors that directly invest in private companies, or that engage in buyouts of public companies, resulting in the delisting of public equity.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes Correct

Sometimes Incorrect

Question 7. Which one is not the mean of raising fund from market?

OFS

Equity Shares

Preference Shares

Insurance Policies

Question 8. He is a person who makes such investments, these include wealthy investors, investment banks, other financial institutions, other partnerships.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes Correct

Sometimes Incorrect

Question 9. Cost ……………. is defined as excess of actual cost over the budget.

Overrun

Over Charge

Over Priced

Over Budget

Question 10. Normally companies raise funds from ……………. market through equity shares route.

primary

secondary

tertiary

foreign

Question 11. Which American mechanical engineer and management consultant, developed the Gantt chart in the 1910s?

Henry Gantt

Henry Feyol

Henry Ford

Michael Henry

…………. is a condition where a task or milestone relies on other tasks to be completed (or started) before it can be performed. Select one: a. Performance b. Allotment c. Dependancy d. Allocation

Question 12. Due dilegence means to know the …………………. condition of the business firm.

Financial

Non-financial

Neither A nor B

Both A and B

Question 13. …………………. is the act of managing all aspects of a project, from team to tasks to tools.

Project Control

Project Management

Project Appraisal

None of the above

Question 14. In project management, an objective or milestone set by an individual or organization is called a …………. .

Goal

Performance

Milestone

Target

Question 15. ……………… market is the market in which a security is sold for the first time.

Primary

Seconday

Tettiary

Money

Question 16. Which is not a fund raising option?

IPO

Venture Capital

Private Equiry

Reverse Mortage

Question 17. Which is not a Exit route in funding options?

IPO

Trade Sale

Promoter Buyback

Bonus Issue

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5th Module Assessment

A graphical representation of a sequence of events.

Timeline

Time Clash

Time Boundry

Time Tag

Question 2. …………….. is the professional in charge of planning and executing a project and leading a project team.

Project Surveyor

Project Evaluator

Project Controller

Project Manager

Question 3. Six Sigma is a business management strategy, originally developed by …………

Panasonic

Samsung

Sony

Motorola

Question 4. …………….. is a method used to model projects that includes all tasks, time estimates, task dependencies, and final deliverables.

HIFO

LIFO

CPM

CAPM

Question 5. ……………. is part of a set of actions which accomplish a job, problem or assignment.

Task

project

Program

Policy

Question 6. …………….. is a statistics-based methodology that seeks to improve the quality of a process by measuring the defects or bugs present and getting it down as close to zero as possible.

Six Sigma

Three Sigma

Seven Sigma

Four Sigma

Question 7. A statistical tool used to visualize a project’s schedule, sequence of tasks, and even the critical path of tasks that must be completed on time in order for the project to meet its deadline.

PERT

CPM

Neither a nor b

Both a and b

Question 8. A ……………… is someone who consults another or gives professional services to another.

Consultant

Advisor

None

Both

Question 9. BCWS is short form of Budgeted Cost of Work ……………….

Surfed

Scattered

Sacrificed

Scheduled

ESP stands for Employee Stock …………… Select one: a. Profit b. Purchase c. Put option d. Perseverance

Question 10. An X-Y axis graph that shows the number of tasks that need to be completed (on the vertical axis) versus the time remaining (on the horizontal axis) is Burn …………… Chart.

Gnatt

Down

Cluster

Question 11. Advisers serve……………….. term positions that help businesses accomplish their overarching objectives so they can reach their strategic goals.

Short

Long

Intermediate

Question 12. Significant organizational change can be challenging. It often requires many levels of cooperation and may involve different independent entities within an organization.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes

Not applicable in India

Question 13. For growing businesses with specific and particularly complex challenges, procuring consulting services may be a ………… investment.

Dicy

Incorrect

Wise

Can’t Say

Question 14. Advisers typically work with clients on a long-term basis and assume leadership roles within a company, whereas consultants usually work on a short-term basis and address a very specific problem or an underlying constraint that’s affecting a company.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Not applicable in India

Is it right to say that changes usually fail for human reasons?

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

c. Sometimes

d. Not applicable in India

Question 15. ……………..insurance is defined as an insurance policy where the proposer as well as the premium payer is the employer.

Select one:

LIC

General Insurance

Keyman

Comprehensive Motor

Question 16. Change management is defined as the methods and manners in which a company describes and implements change within both its internal and external processes.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Never

Question 17. Anybody with specialized skills, whose loss can cause a financial strain to the company, is eligible for……………….. Insurance.

Life

General Insurance

Auto

Keyman

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Strengthning Infrastructure

In a move to consult for development of various infrastructure projects in the state, the Manipur government has signed aMemorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited Projects Ltd. (IPL), a subsidiary of Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL) on Wednesday.

Additional Chief Secretary (Planning) Mr. P Vaiphei represented the state while Deputy Chief Executive Officer Mr. Palash Shrivastava represented the IPL during the signing and exchanging of the MoU at the Cabinet Hall of Chief Minister’s Secretariat in Imphal. The state Chief Minister Mr. N Biren Singh along with Chief Secretary Dr, Rajesh Kumar, Additional Chief Secretaries Mr. MH Khan andMr. Letkhogin Haokip, Commissioner (Works) Mr. T Ranjit, Commissioner (Agriculture/IPR) Mr. M Joy, Managing Director IIFCL, Mr. PR Jaishankar and other high ranking officials of the State Government and IIFCL were also present in the day’s event. The ad also read – Mizoram Assembly speaker Lalrinliana Sailo tests positive for COVID-19.

IPL is a wholly owned subsidiary of Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL), a Government of India Enterprise. IIFCL, a premier infrastructure financing institution in India, promoted IPL in February 2012 as a dedicated project advisory company involved in the areas of project appraisal, syndication, transaction advisory, and infrastructure consultancy services.

The company caters to the demand for advisory services to projects across the spectrum of infrastructure sector including roads, highways, ports, airports, power including renewable, tourism, urban infrastructure like water supply and sewerage projects, solid waste management, etc. It will provide project advisory and institutional support to assist in development of various infrastructure projects in Manipur by undertaking project preparatory studies and advisory services related to infrastructure project development and resource mobilisation.

IIFCL is an enterprise of …………. .

Nepal

State Government

Government of India

Both state and Centre

Question 2. Which is not a part of Infrastructure development?

Road

Bridges

Airports

Flats

Question 3. IIFCL promoted IPL in which year?

2000

2019

2012

2021

Question 4. AS per the case, IIFCL The company caters to the demand for advisory services to projects across the spectrum of infrastructure sector including roads, highways, ports, airports, power including renewable.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Not Clear

Question 5. Who is PR Jaishankar ?

Commissioner

Project Manager

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Building Entrepreneurial Culture and Team (ENTR712)-Semester III

December 14, 2021December 14, 2021 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Building Entrepreneurial Culture and Team (ENTR712)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment
Question 1. is the best quality that help team members to share their information.
Select one:
a. Accuracy
b. Rigidity
c. Unfaithfulness
d. Trust
Clear my choice
Question 2. Harris and Moran have identified various cultural variables except .
Select one:
a. Hiring
b. Association
c. Kinship
d. Education
Clear my choice
Question 3. Corporate culture is deeply rooted in every aspect of its business and functions.
Select one:
a. FALSE
b. TRUE
c. Maybe true
d. Not at All
Clear my choice
Question 4. In which culture are norms and procedures of organization pre-defined?
Select one:
a. Task
b. Pragmatic
c. Normative
d. Descended
Clear my choice
Question 5. When the managers engage their employees to develop the organization culture, they follow SMART goals, wherein T stands for .
Select one:
a. Tight
b. Tough
c. Trial
d. Timely
Clear my choice
Question 6. culture develops when team in organization is assigned any specific projects or work.
Select one:
a. Person
b. Power
c. Task
d. Process
Clear my choice
Question 7. is the collection of values, expectations and practices that guides the behaviour of people in team.
Select one:
a. Learning
b. Motivation
c. Organization culture
d. Leadership
Clear my choice
Question 8. Culture employees by providing sense of identity.
Select one:
a. Unite
b. Depart
c. Divide
d. Compete
Clear my choice
Question 9. Company’s are the foundation of its culture.
Select one:
a. Infrastructure
b. Policies
c. Functions
d. Values
Clear my choice
Question 10. is the key quality in dynamic environment that help the employees of the organization to adopt changes.
Select one:
a. Productivity
b. Learning
c. Adventure
d. Resilience
Clear my choice
In order to keep the organizational culture alive, they should the candidates as per the requirement of organization.
Select one:
a. Empower
b. Manage
c. Select
d. Ignore
system is the system adopted by society to guide family relationships.
Select one:
a. Pragmatic
b. Organizational
c. Kinship
d. Task
Question 11. In order to help the employees adopt new culture, organization should perform .
Select one:
a. Prayers
b. Culture
c. Rituals
d. Socialization
Clear my choice
Question 12. When a company has culture, they allow their employees to take risk and creativity.
Select one:
a. Innovative
b. Restricted
c. Subtle
d. Vertical
Clear my choice
Question 13. is the dominant culture of any particular society.
Select one:
a. Micro
b. Macro
c. Vertical
d. Horizontal
Clear my choice
Question 14. This type of culture has clear stated leaders at top and defined chain of command.
Select one:
a. Clan
b. Hierarchy
c. Adhocracy
d. Horizontal
Clear my choice
Question 15. This type of culture is rooted in commonality and members see themselves as a part of big family.
Select one:
a. Adhocracy
b. Bureaucratic
c. Clan
d. Hierarchy
Clear my choice
Question 16. It refrers to the specialized sub-groups, that have their own language, ethos and rules.
Select one:
a. Legal Culture
b. Macro Culture
c. Assisted Culture
d. Micro Culture
Clear my choice
Question 17. In order to have cultural transformation, there should be defined .
Select one:
a. Core Values
b. Employees
c. Progress
d. Culture
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2nd Module Assessment
Attitudes are behaviours.
Select one:
a. Systematic
b. Detached
c. Learned
d. Frequent
Question 1. The of an entrepreneur is the essence of his success.
Select one:
a. Rigidity
b. Determinants
c. Personality
d. Self-confidence
Clear my choice
Question 2. Entrepreneurial mindset enables the empoyess to take healhy breaks to assess uncertainities.
Select one:
a. Not at All
b. Maybe
c. TRUE
d. FALSE
Clear my choice
Question 3. is the key to develop open communication culture in organization.
Select one:
a. Criticism
b. Creativity
c. Transparencey
d. Development
Clear my choice
Question 4. This function of attitude helps people to express their values:
Select one:
a. Value Expressive
b. Ego Defensive
c. Adaptive
d. Resilience
Clear my choice
Question 5. _ refers to the extent to which an individual identifies with his job.
Select one:
a. Job Enrichment
b. Job Involvement
c. Job Analysis
d. Job Evaluation
Clear my choice
Question 6. To inculcate the creativity and innovation in organization, one should ____.
Select one:
a. Encourage Ideas
b. Criticise Members
c. Develop Strictness
d. Maintain Discipline
Clear my choice
Question 7. is the way people respond towards people, objects or events.
Select one:
a. Culture
b. Attitude
c. Learning
d. Motivation
Clear my choice
Question 8. The three levels of entrepreneurial culture are Visible, Semi-visible and .
Select one:
a. Integrity
b. Invisible
c. Creative
d. Communication
Clear my choice
Question 9. Factors affecting attitude formation are family, reference group, social factor and _____.
Select one:
a. Rigidity
b. Culture
c. Communication
d. Personality Factor
Clear my choice
Question 10. is one of the prominent feature of entreprenurial mindset.
Select one:
a. High Productivity
b. Over achieving
c. Being Stangnant
d. Dealing with Uncertainities
Clear my choice
3 structural components of attitude are cognitive, affective and .
Select one:
a. Protective
b. Defensive
c. Cultural
d. Behavioural
Question 11. Four elements of organizational culture are openness, result and reward, learning organization and .
Select one:
a. Adversity
b. Communication
c. Adaptability
d. Resilence
Clear my choice
Question 12. Three job related attitude are- Job satisfaction, Job involvement and ___.
Select one:
a. Learning
b. Organization Behaviour
c. Motivation
d. Organizational Commitment
Clear my choice
Question 13. Attitude function that helps people protect their self-image is called .
Select one:
a. Ego- Defensive
b. Adaptive
c. Cultural
d. Team Building
Clear my choice
Question 14. To inculcate entrepreneurial attitude, one should work on all except .
Select one:
a. Demotivation
b. Positive Attitude
c. Creative Mindset
d. Persuasive Communication
Clear my choice
Question 15. In this level, the entrepreneurial mindset can be highlighted through attitude toward certain object or situation.
Select one:
a. Negligent
b. Visible
c. Semi-visible
d. Invisible
Clear my choice
Question 16. To develop the culture of open communication, one should lead __.
Select one:
a. With restrictions
b. By example
c. Being rigid
d. Through dictating
Clear my choice
Question 17. Following are the four functions of attitude except .
Select one:
a. Contradictory
b. Adaptive
c. Ego-Defensive
d. Knowledge
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Entrepreneurial Marketing (ENTR703)-Semester III

December 9, 2021March 3, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Entrepreneurial Marketing (ENTR703)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Question 1. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?

Select one:

a. Straight rebuy purchase

b. Selayed purchase

c. New-task purchase

d. Modified rebuy purchase

Clear my choice

Question 2. Entrepreneurship is useful to the organization because of:

Select one:

a. Development of managerial capabilities

b. Creation of organization

c. Improving standard of living & economic development

d. All of these

Clear my choice

Question 3. The definition of entrepreneurship holds the promise of __________.

Select one:

a. Financial difficulties and hardship

b. Limited expansion

c. Growth, unlimited expansion and long-term financial gain

d. Growth, expansion and long term financial gain

Clear my choice

Question 4. SBA stands for:

Select one:

a. Small business accountants

b. Small business administration

c. Small business adequacy

d. Small business advisors

Clear my choice

Question 5. Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?

Select one:

a. Idea Stage

b. Product Planning Stage

c. Product Development Stage

d. Test Marketing Stage

Clear my choice

Question 6. Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?

Select one:

a. Business model

b. Modeling

c. Creative flexibility

d. Innovation

Clear my choice

Question 7. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase a good product will sell itself is characteristic of the _______ period.

Select one:

a. Prodcution

b. Sales

c. Marketing

d. Relationship

Clear my choice

Question 8. Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to their familiarity with the needs of market?

Select one:

a. Existing products and services

b. Distribution channels

c. Federal government

d. Consumers

Clear my choice

Question 9. What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities without regard to resources they currently control?

Select one:

a. Startup management

b. Entrepreneurship

c. Financial analysis

d. Feasibility Planning

Clear my choice

Question 10. A market with which of the following characteristics would generally be less competitive?

Select one:

a. High barrier to entry

b. Lots of potential substitutes exist

c. Strong bargaining power among buyers

d. Strong bargaining power among suppliers

Clear my choice

Entrepreneurial companies are different from small business companies in that they __________.

Select one:

a. Are innovative and growth driven

b. Are not creating jobs for themselves but are wealth driven

c. Create wealth that is sustainable for future generation to come

d. All of the above

Importance of Entrepreneurship includes:

Select one:

a. Economic & dynamic activity

b. Innovation & Profit potential

c. Risk bearing

d. All of these

Question 11. A basic survivalist is __________.

Select one:

a. This person operates as an entrepreneur to survive for the first three months after setting up a business.

b. This person operates as an entrepreneur to survive until he or she obtains an entrepreneurial opportunity

c. This person operates as an entrepreneur to survive until he or she obtains a formal-sector job or entrepreneurial opportunity

d. This person operates as a small business manager until he or she obtains a formal-sector job or entrepreneurial opportunity.

Clear my choice

Question 12. The process of Entrepreneurship is divided into two parts and they are:

Select one:

a. Idea Generation and Feasibility study

b. Innovation generation and Distribution Channel

c. Creativity and Development

d. Profit and Economic Development

Clear my choice

Question 13. Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur with managerial control is called:

Select one:

a. Joint venture

b. Majority interest

c. Horizontal merger

d. Diversified activity merger

Clear my choice

Question 14. Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product and also help to market new products?

Select one:

a. Existing products and services

b. Federal government

c. Distribution Channels

d. Consumers

Clear my choice

Question 15. Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new products that over time make current products obsolete?

Select one:

a. New business model

b. Anatomization

c. Creative destruction

d. None of the given options

Clear my choice

Question 16. What is the profit plan of the organization?

Select one:

a. Finnacial Budget

b. Marketing Budget

c. Operating Budget

d. Production Budget

Clear my choice

Question 17. Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an international market before making a major commitment?

Select one:

a. Merger

b. Minority Interest

c. Joint venture

d. Majority interest

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2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. In terms of goods and services, the function of marketing is to _________ demand.

Select one:

a. Plan

b. create

c. price

d. promote

Clear my choice

Question 2. The buying process starts when the buyer recognizes a _________.

Select one:

a. Product

b. An advertiement for the product

c. A Salesperson form the previous visit

d. Problem or need

Clear my choice

Question 3. Causal research is used to ________

Select one:

a. Describe marketing problems or situations

b. Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms of research

c. Find information at the outset in an unstructured way

d. Test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships

Clear my choice

Question 4. Branding is concerned with ____________ component of four P‘s.

Select one:

a. Promotion

b. Place

c. Product

d. Price

Clear my choice

Question 5. During which step of the marketing segmentation, targeting, and positioning process does the firm develop a marketing mix for each segment?

Select one:

a. market segmentation

b. market targeting

c. market positioning

d. The firm does not go through the “development” during any of the above steps.

Clear my choice

Question 6. The ________ concept holds that consumers and businesses, if left alone, will ordinarily not buy enough of the organization’s products.

Select one:

a. Production

b. Selling

c. Marketing

d. Holistic marketing

Clear my choice

Question 7. Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost than the others?

Select one:

a. Primary

b. Survey research

c. Experimental research

d. Secondary

Clear my choice

Question 8. The real value of a company’s marketing research and information system lies in the _____.

Select one:

a. Amount of data it generates

b. Quality of customer insights it provides

c. Marketing information system it follows

d. Efficiency with which it completes studies

Clear my choice

Question 9. Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information that people are unwilling or unable to provide?

Select one:

a. Focus groups

b. Personal interviews

c. Observational research

d. Questionnaires

Clear my choice

Question 10. Secondary data are ________.

Select one:

a. Collected mostly via surveys

b. Expensive to obtain

c. Never purchased from outside suppliers

d. Not always very usable

Clear my choice

Narrowly focused markets that are defined by some special interest are termed as _______________.

Select one:

a. Target Markets

b. Mass Markets

c. Niche Markets

d. Undifferentiated Markets

Question 11. Which form of marketing research is flexible, allows for explanation of difficult questions, and lends itself to showing products and advertisements?

Select one:

a. Personal interviewing

b. Ethnographic research

c. Observational research

d. Online interviewing

Clear my choice

Question 12. The product that exceeds customers‘ expectations due to value addition is _____________.

Select one:

a. Basic Product

b. Expected Product

c. Augmented product

d. Core product

Clear my choice

Question 13. Survey research, though used to obtain many kinds of information in a variety of situations, is best suited for gathering ________ information.

Select one:

a. Attitudinal

b. Personal

c. Descriptive

d. Exploratory

Clear my choice

Question 14. Which of the following is not a criterion for successful market segmentation?

Select one:

a. there must be difference among consumers

b. Each segment must be located within a geographical area

c. There must be consumer similarities within each segment identified

d. a segment must be large enough to cover costs

Clear my choice

A consumer goods marketer produces multiple brands of shampoo that are positioned for consumers with dyed hair, dandruff, oily hair or dry hair. This strategy illustrates:

Select one:

a. Undifferentiated marketing

b. Differentiated marketing

c. Concentrated marketing

d. Mass marketing

Question 15. A firm is abusing segmentation when it:

Select one:

a. becomes too efficient

b. Becomes short run oriented rather than long run oriented

c. Is consumer oriented

d. Is generating too much profit

Clear my choice

Question 16. When a company strives to appeal to multiple well defined market segments with a strategy tailored to each segment, it is applying:

Select one:

a. Undifferentiated marketing

b. Differentiated marketing

c. Concentrated Marketing

d. The majority fallacy

Clear my choice

Question 17. What is the first step in the marketing research process?

Select one:

a. Developing a marketing information system

b. Developing the research plan for collecting information

c. Defining the problem and research objectives

d. Implementing the research plan

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3rd Module Assessment

Makers of televisions, cameras, tires, furniture, and major appliances normally use which of the following distribution channel forms?

a. direct marketing channel

b. indirect marketing channel

c. horizontal channel

d. synthetic channel

Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:

They earn a handsome profit from new business

hey are familiar with the needs of the market

They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss

They have well-developed sales force

Question 2. From the economic system’s point of view, the role of marketing intermediaries is to transform:

raw products into finished products.

consumer needs into producer needs.

consumer needs and wants into product desires

Assortments of products made by producers into the assortments wanted by consumers

Question 3. What is the full form of CIS?

Channel information source

Channel induced system

Channel information system

Channel incorporated system

Question 4. Who sells to the customers?

Semi wholesalers

Wholesalers

Retailer

Distributor

Question 5. ________ markets include a wide variety of profit and nonprofit organizations, such as hospitals, government agencies, and schools, which provide goods and services for the benefit of society.

Consumer

Business-to-Business

Reseller

Institutional

Question 6. Which of the following is NOT considered a type of reseller?

Wholesaler

Retailer

Manufacturer

Distributor

Question 7. When a company distributes its products through a channel structure that includes one or more resellers, this is known as ________.

Indirect marketing

Direct marketing

multi-level marketing

integrated marketing

Question 8. The benefits of marketing channels are __________.

Time saving

Cost saving

All the given options

Financial support given

Question 9. When the manufacturer establishes two or more channels catering to the same market, then …………… occurs.

Horizontal channel conflict

Multi channel conflict

Vertical channel conflict

None of the above

Question 10. Avon, Amway, and Tupperware use which of the following forms of channel distribution?

direct marketing channel

Indirect marketing channel

Fashion channel

Forward channel

Question 11. A cluster of complementary goods and services across diverse set of industries is called as _____________

Select one:

Market Place

Meta Market

Market Space

Resource Market

Question 12. What is the full form of VMS?

Velocity moving system

Vertical marketing system

Vertical moving system

None of the options

Question 13. ________ markets are made up of members of the distribution chain.

Consumer

Business-Business(industrial)

Channel

Institutional

Which of the following is an example of the external natural environment for a manufacturer of metal lawn furniture?

longer than usual distribution channel due to a rail strike

Consumer trend toward treating gardens like another room

Flood at the manufacturer’s main warehouse

Inflationary pricing by competitors

Question 14. Which of the following is considered a “key player” in the marketing industry?

Marketer

Supplier or vendors

Distributors or retailers

All the given options

Question 15. A distribution channel moves goods and services from producers to consumers. It overcomes the major time, place, and ______________ gaps that separate goods and services from those who would use them.

Possession

Profit

Image

Psychological

Question 16. Which of the following factors is the most important in forcing U.S companies to focus on new product development and increased productivity?

Entrepreneurship

Hyper competition

Governmental laws

Organisational Culture

Question 17. Through their contacts, experience, specialization, and scale of operation, ______________ usually offer the firm more than it can achieve on its own.

Manufacturers

Producers

Direct Marketers

intermediaries

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4th Module Assessment

It is popularly known as free form of promotion. Select one:

a. Advertisement

b. Publicity

c. Marketing

d. Personal Selling

Direct mail advertising sends messages through_______

Mail

Audio

Video

None of these

Question 2. The plan that show time, date and frequency of an advertisement is __________.

Media Plan

Media Time

Main Schedule

Media Space

Question 3. Promotion mix includes Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Advertising and _________________ .

Marketing

Sales

Publicity

None of the these

Question 4. The process of purchasing space in a media is__________ .

Media Scheduling

Media Buying

Media Purchasing

Media Spacing

Question 5. The specific carrier within a medium is called __________.

Media Bus

Media Van

Public Transport

Media Vehicle

Question 6. Which among the following is an example of Trade promotion?

Samples

Coupons

Push Money

None of these

Question 7. Copy testng is also known as __________.

Copy writing

Pre Testing

Concurrent Testing

Preveiw

Question 8. Which among the following is not a mechanical test?

Consumer dairy test

Psychogalvanometer

Camera test

Techistoscope

Question 9. A brand is a _______.

Term

Name

Sign

Combination of all the given options

Question 10. It is popularly known as free form of promotion.

Publicity

Marketing

Personal Selling

Point of Purchase Ads are also known as____________

a. Built-in Advertising

b. In-Store Advertising

c. Green Advertising

d. Stock Advertising

Question 11. Which of the following is more of personal medium of advertisement?

Broadcast Media

Internet Advertisement

Direct Mail Advertising

Print Media

Question 12. A series of actions that media planners take to attain the media objectives:

Media Strategy

Media Policy

Media Option

Media Function

Question 13. Creating image of product in the minds of target group is called____________

Select one:

Marketing

Positioning

Branding

Popularising

Question 14. Adding new features to a product is advocated by which of the approaches?

Product Approach

Production Approach

Marketing Approach

Selling Approach

Question 15. If a company gives false message to the customers, it is known as_________

Subliminal ads

Obscene ads

Deception

None of the given options

Question 16. Series of advertisement messages that share a single idea or theme is________________ .

Advertisement Campaign

Advertisement Group

Advertisement Cluster

Advertisement Series

Question 17. An organization with a______ orientation assumes that customers will resist purchasing Products not deemed essential. The job of marketers is to overcome this resistance through personal selling and advertising

Select one:

Production

Marketing

Relationship

Sales

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5th Module Assessment

Cannibalism is related with ___________.

Product development

Promotional activities

Product life cycle

Product extension

Question 2.Product-marketing strategies involves _______.

Product mix

Maketing Mix

Promition Mix

Promotion mix and Marketing mix

Question 3. The first step in process of developing new-product must be:

Idea Generation

Idea Screening

Concept Development and testing

Business Analysis

Question 4. The new-product development process consists of detailed steps and number of steps are :

Five Steps

Six Steps

Seven Steps

Eight Steps

Question 5. _____ is the systematic search for new-product ideas.

Idea screening

Concept development and testing

Idea generation

Marketing strategy development

Question 6. Which skill of CMO provides extensive market operation and information?

Creativity

Popularity

Analytical ability

Intuitive sense

Question 7. Major sources of new product ideas include _____.

internal sources, using company R&D

creative approaches, using both “method and madness” approaches

watching and listening to customers

all of the above are sources of new product ideas

Question 8. Goals or objectives convert the organization____________ into tangible action.

Vision

Aim

Commitment

Mission

Question 9. Which factor should not consider for adopting market penetration?

Market growth

Increase market share

competitive reaction

Promotional activities

Question 10. Business does not include:

Particular needs of customers to be served

Group of customers wishing to be served

Selling products and services only

Ways of satisfying customer needs

The usual source for new products is_____. Select one:

a. Marketing Research

b. R&D

c. Accidental Discoveries

d. A variety of source including customers, competitors, serendipity and formal processes

Question 11. The following are all major stages of a product life cycle except_____.

Sales decline

Market Introduction

Market Maturity

Market Growth

Question 12. Distinctive competency describes an organization’s __________.

Strengths

Weakness

Opportunities

Threats

Question 13. Which one is not part of strategic marketing perspective?

The types of customer it wishes to serve

Product producing or service delivery enterprise.

The particular needs that it wishes to satisfy

Technology by which organization will satisfy customer needs

Question 14. All of the following are accurate descriptions of ways companies are anxious to learn how to improve the odds of new-product success, except which one?

Find out what successful new products have in common.

Companies have to learn to understand their own consumers.

To learn lessons from new product failures.

Do not overly rely on product innovation when you can succeed by copying others.

All of the following are accurate descriptions of reasons why new products fail, except which one?

a. The actual product was not designed as well as it should have been.

b. The new product was priced too high.

c. The new product was advertised poorly.

d. Although the market size was correctly estimated, the product idea itself was not good.

Question 15. All of the following are different ways a firm can obtain new products, except which one?

Select one:

By acquiring a whole new company

A firm can obtain a new product through patents

A firm can obtain a new product by licensing someone else’s new product

A firm can obtain a new product by using the R&D department of other firms in the same industry.

Question 16. _____ is the development of original products, product improvements, product modifications, and new brands through the firm’s own R&D efforts.

Idea generation

Concept testing

Test marketing

New product development

Question 17. Which stage of the product lifecycle is marked by falling costs and rising revenues?

Select one:

Introduction Stage

Growth Stage

c002E

Maturity Stage

Saturation Stage

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

N.R.NARAYANA MURTHY: AN EXEMPLARY RISK-TAKER Nagavara Ramarao Narayana Murthy, popularly known as N.R.Narayana Murthy Chairman of Infosys Technologies Ltd. Comes from middle class background. He is son of a teacher, a member of a large family of eight children (Three brothers and five sisters). Like an ordinary middle –class boy ,he studied well and qualified for the prestigious IIY. He could not afford it and therefore, went to NIE, Mysore- a local college for a degree in electrical engineering. Murthy completed his post graduation in electrical engineering at IIT Kanpur in 1969 and took up a job. The only thing is, he did seemingly the very same things, but obviously differently. He always took risks. Following are the exemplary instances of his risk- taking decisions. First, Murthy pursued a career in computer science when there were not too many jobs in this field. The Indian industry / business were very much into mortar – bricks business and had just about started appreciating the role of computers. Second, next risk he undertook was to turn down attractive offers from large companies such as Telco, HMT, ECIL, and Air India; instead, he joined as a system programmer at IIM Ahmedabad. IIMA was at that time in the process of installing a Hawlett –Packard minicomputer and was foregoing ahead to become the second business school after Stanford to have a time sharing operating system. The thrill of such a pioneering job, thus, gave him a great lea/rning opportunity and was the main reason that Murthy joined the team at IIAM under J.G.Krishnaya, Professor of information systems. Murthy received a salary of Rs.800/- a month .he says,”It was the best decision of my life. There were many 20-hour work days but I loved being a pioneer of working at the cutting edge of computer technology those days.”

Third , a chance came from Sesa, a french software company, to build an operating system to handle air cargo at the Charless de Gaulle airport in Paris. What is worth nothing here is that at around the same time, murthy also had received Scholarships to purse a Ph.D. In the USA and Israel. But, Murthy did not take these soft options. He instead, went to Paries, Which also meant mastering another language French. After the successful execution of this project, murthy came back to Pune in 1974 to join his mentor professor J.G krishnanyya who was setting up the systems research institute (SRI, a non-profit organization). Having worked for some time

in SRI, Murthy became somewhat frustrated with the work at SRI (getting the usual bureaucratic treatment of seldom implementing the sincere suggestions).

Then, he took up a job in Patni Computer Systems (PCS), a Mumbai-based Company.

At PCS, he was head of the software group and it was here that he met some of the would-be founder –parents of Infosys. He did his usual, unusual, quit the job and started his Software service firm along with his partners. This was the firm which was to become the giant that Infosys today. Out of his six founderspartners, there were rookies-PCS was the first job of Nandan Nilekani,S.Gopi Krishnan and Ashok Arora.Only k.Dinesh (NGEF,Bangalore),N.S.Ragavan (union Carbide),and S.D shibhulal (BEST,Mumbai) had some prior experience elsewhere. Not that these Murthy + sis had any money. They all were middle class back grounds and pooled in Rs. 10,000 capital borrowed from their betterhalfs.In. In this way, Infosys Consultants was born in July 1981 in one bedroom of two-bedroom apartment in Pune. Fourth, the risk-full incidents surrounding the life of this unusual ‘middle class’ businessman do not end here. The first ten years after 1981 were quite tough for Murthy and His team. Murthy recounts,” It took us one year to get a telephone; it took two years to get a licence to import a computer;……. Stupidity was the order of the day then.” His wife Sudha had to go and live with her parents for a year. Murthy stuck it out through thick and thin. In 1990, his parents thought of selling the company. But murthy differed and even offered to buy his parents

out. Murthy always took risks and it always seems to have paid off.

After reading the case, select the entrepreneurial competency highlighted in the case.

Innovative

Risk-bearing

Philanthrophist

All the given options

Question 2. N R Narayan Murthy completed his higher studies from which institute?

IIT Kanpur

IIT Delhi

NIT Kanpur

None of the given options

Question 3. What is the meaning of brick and mortor business?

Web based businesses which are run on e-portals

Taditional street-side business that offers products and services to its customers face-to-face in an office or store that the business owns or rents

Business organization conducts busienss over a computer-mediated network

None of the given options

Question 4. N R Narayan Murthy took up the opportunity that came from French software firm Sesa, and turned down th eoffer to pursue PhD from ISA and Israel because :

He did not want to take up the soft option of pursuing PhD on scholarship from USA and Israel.

He wanted to utilise the opportunity of visiting France and also master another language, i.e. French.

He was a risk bearing persobality who always wanted to go the hard way.

All the given options

Question 5. Which one/all are the job options availed by N R Narayan Murthy?

Worked at SRI, a non-profit organization, at Pune in 1974

He took up a job at Autodesk India in the year 1975.

Worked at Birlasoft as a software engineer after completing his electrical engineering

All the given options

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