Amity MBA Assignment Semester 1-2019 – University Solved Assignments / Synopsis / Projects.(AMITY/SMU/Jaipur National.)

Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II

November 14, 2021November 14, 2021 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

MODULE 1
An agency agreement relationship can be established by: Select one: a. Express agreement b. Implied agreement c. By necessity and d. All of the above Question 1 In cases where presentment is compulsory and the holder fails to present the acceptance, is/are discharged from their liability to him: Select one: a. The drawer b. All the endorsers c. Both (a) and (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b) Question 2 Future goods mean goods produce or manufactured or acquired by the seller: Select one: a. At the time of the contract of sale b. After making the contract of sale c. Before making the contract of sale d. Both (a) and (c) Question 3 An instrument stands discharged when: Select one: a. All the rights under it are extinguished b. Some of the rights under it are extinguished c. The drawer dies d. None of the above Question 4 When the Indian contract act introduced? Select one: a. 1872 b. 1772 c. 1871 d. 1873 Question 5 According to Section 2(h) of the Contract Act, a contract is: Select one: a. A promise enforceable by law b. An acceptance enforceable by law c. An agreement not enforceable by law d. An agreement enforceable by law Question 6 Goods owned or possessed by the seller are called: Select one: a. Specific goods b. Ascertained goods c. Existing goods d. All of the above Question 7 In which Negotiable instrument there are three parties: Select one: a. Bill of Exchange b. Promissory Note c. Both d. None Question 8 The Sale of Goods Act 1930, deals with the contract of: Select one: a. Mortgage b. Sale c. Pledge d. Bailment Question 9 Promissory Note is: Select one: a. Is a conditional Promise b. Is an unconditional order c. Is an unconditional request d. Is an unconditional Promise Question 10 If the consent is obtained by mental pressure, it is known as: Select one: a. Mistake b. Undue Influence c. Coercion d. Fraud In a contract, the parties should have the intention to create: Select one: a. A moral obligation between them b. A legal obligation between them c. An ethical obligation between them d. All of the above Question 11 Which one of the following is correct? Select one: a. Past consideration is no consideration b. Consideration can be past, present or future c. Consideration can only be present d. Consideration can only be present and future Question 12 Who among the following cannot cross a cheque: Select one: a. Drawer b. Holder c. Banker d. Foreigner Question 13 A contract in which the obligation of both the parties is outstanding and a contract in which the obligation is to be performed in the future are respectively called: Select one: a. Executory and Bilateral b. Executory and Unilateral c. Unilateral and Executory d. Bilateral and Executory Question 14 Where a stipulation in a contract is essential to the main purpose of the contract. It is called: Select one: a. A condition b. Warranty c. Guarantee d. None of the above Question 15 To whom of the following, payment of the amount due on a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque must be made in order to discharge the maker or acceptor Select one: a. Holder of the instrument b. Endorser of the instrument c. Endorsee of the instrument d. None of the above Question 16 Section 4(3) of the Act says that “where under a contract of sale the property in the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer, then it is known as” Select one: a. Sale b. Purchase c. Pledge d. None of the above Question 17 If only a part of the amount of the instrument is endorsed, it is a case of an _ endorsement which purports to transfer to the endorsee only a part of the amount payable, or which purports to transfer the instrument to two or more endorsees severally, is not valid. Select one: a. Complete Endorsement b. Partial Endorsement c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above
Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

MODULE 2:
Question 1. A partnership deed contains the details associated with
Select one:
a. Nature of business and duration of firm
b. Capital contribution, profit/loss sharing ration and other agreed terms
c. Name of firm and partners
d. All of above
Clear my choice
Question 2. What is an association of two or more persons to carry on, as co-owners, a business and to share its profits and losses?
Select one:
a. Partnership
b. Proprietorship
c. Dissolution of firm
d. Partnership deed
Clear my choice
Question 3. Two or more persons are required to file an incorporation / registration documents for incorporating an LLP with the in the State in which the registered office of he LLP is situated.
Select one:
a. Registrar of Companies
b. Legislative body
c. State government
d. Central government
Clear my choice
Question 4. A person who is entitled to a share of the profits from a partnership firm is known as:
Select one:
a. Partner
b. Creditor
c. Salaried employee
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. What is a document that outlines in details the terms, rights and responsibilities of all the partners in a partnership firm?
Select one:
a. Partnership
b. Proprietorship
c. Dissolution of firm
d. Partnership deed
Clear my choice
Question 6. The application for registration of a firm shall be accompanied by the prescribed fee, It shall state:
Select one:
a. the name of the firm
b. the place or principal place of business of the firm
c. the names in full and permanent addresses of the partners; the duration of the firm
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is the name of a very popular form of business in India?
Select one:
a. Partnership deed
b. Partnership firm
c. Dissolution of firm
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. Limited Liability Partnership Act, was established in year:
Select one:
a. 1930
b. 1872
c. 2008
d. 1881
Clear my choice
Question 9. Under the LLP Act, there should be a minimum of atleast partners in an LLP
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Clear my choice
Question 10. Partnership Act 1932 came into force on:
Select one:
a. October, 1932
b. April, 1932
c. August,1932
d. November,1932
Clear my choice
Question 11. Who is a person who takes part in an undertaking with another or others, especially in a business with shared risks and profit?
Select one:
a. Partnership
b. Proprietorship
c. Creditor
d. Partner
Clear my choice
Question 12. When all the partners resolve to dissolve the partnership, the dissolution of firm occurs, i.e. the firm is ………….
Select one:
a. Formed
b. Partnership
c. Partner
d. Wound up
Clear my choice
Question 13. Persons, who subscribed to the___________ at the time of incorporation of LLP, shall be partners of Limited Liability Partnership (LLP).
Select one:
a. Unregistered Document
b. Legal Document
c. Incorporation Document
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. In the case of a Limited Liability Partnership, the liablity of a partner is:
Select one:
a. Unlimited
b. Limited
c. No liability
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. Power of Partner includes
Select one:
a. Buying and Selling goods
b. Receiving payments on behalf of the firm
c. Both A and B are correct
d. Both A and B are Incorrect
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which one is not true test of Partnership Act -1932.
Select one:
a. Agreement
b. Business
c. Sharing of Profits
d. HUF Business
Clear my choice
Question 17. A limited liability partnership (LLP) contains the features of:
Select one:
a. Partneship firm
b. Company
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. Which section of Companies Act, 2013 states that SEBI has powers to regulate Issue and transfer of securities?
Select one:
a. Section 23
b. Section 24
c. Section 25
d. Section 26
Clear my choice
Question 2. A copy of the ____ must accompany each from of application for shares offered to the public
Select one:
a. Memorandum of association
b. Prospectus
c. Articles of association
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. The shares of a ___ company can be freely transferable
Select one:
a. Private ltd
b. Public ltd
c. Partnership
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is the Principle of Corporate Governance?
Select one:
a. Transparency
b. Accountability
c. Independence
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Section 233 prescribes simplified procedure for Merger or amalgamation of __
Select one:
a. two or more small companies or
b. between a holding company and its wholly-owned subsidiary company or
c. such other class or classes of companies as may be prescribed
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. As per Section 203 (1), every company belonging to such class or classes of companies as may be prescribed shall have the following whole-time key managerial personnel —
Select one:
a. Managing Director, or Chief Executive Officer or Manager and in their absence, a Whole-Time Director
b. Company Secretary
c. Chief Financial Officer
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. When did The Companies act 2013, come into force?
Select one:
a. 1-Apr-13
b. 1-Mar-14
c. 30-Aug-13
d. 1-May-13
Clear my choice
Question 8. The minimum number of members that required while you are registering a public company is___
Select one:
a. 2
b. 6
c. 7
d. 5
Clear my choice
Question 9. The company shall furnish to the Registrar verification of its registered office within a period of __ of its incorporation in such manner as may be prescribed
Select one:
a. 60 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 15 days
Clear my choice
Question 10. The memorandum of a company is dealt under ?
Select one:
a. section 12
b. section 15
c. section 6
d. section 4
Clear my choice
A company may adopt all or any of the regulations contained in the model articles applicable to such a company.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partly True
d. Partly False

Question 11. State whether true or false:

Effect of floating charge is covered under section 332.
As per above section, when a company is being wound up, a floating charge on the undertaking or property of the company created within the twelve months immediately preceding the commencement of the winding up
Select one:
a. 1 – T, 2 – T
b. 1 –F, 2 – F
c. 1 – F, 2 – T
d. 1 – T, 2 – F
Clear my choice
Section _ of the Companies Act, 2013 imposes a ______obligation on every company to cause minutes of all proceedings of general meetings, board meetings and other meeting and resolution passed by postal ballot
Select one:
a. 118; statutory
b. 119; statutory
c. 119; non-statutory
d. 118; non-statutory

Question 12. All monies payable by any member to the company under the memorandum or articles shall be a debt due from him to_______
Select one:
a. Member
b. The company
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. At least one woman director is required for _
Select one:
a. every listed company
b. every other public company having paid–up share capital of one hundred crore rupees more
c. every other public company having turnover of three hundred crore rupees or more
d. all of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. As per Section 196(3), _____ the employment of any person as managing director, wholetime director or manager
Select one:
a. company shall appoint or continue
b. no company shall appoint or continue
c. depends on situation
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following is a not true statement about Director Identification Number?
Select one:
a. Every individual, intending to be appointed the Director of a company should make an application to the Government for an Identification Number
b. An individual can have up to five Director Identification Numbers at a time, not more
c. A Director should intimate his Director Identification Number to the concerned company/companies
d. The Director Identification Number should be intimated to the Registrar
Clear my choice
Question 16. Board of Directors of Centra Tech Limited desires to appoint Nipun, aged 22 years as the Managing Director of the company. Nipun is currently a director and the son of Ramesh, the immediate Managing Director who expired in a car accident. State whether Nipun can be appointed as Managing Director
Select one:
a. Yes; since he is above the age of 21 years
b. No; since he has not attained the age of 25 years
c. Since he has not attained the age of 25 years, permission of Registrar of Companies is to be obtained for his appointment as MD
d. Since he has not attained the age of 25 years, permission of Central Government is to be obtained for his appointment as MD
Clear my choice
Question 17. The duties of the liquidator include:

I. take possession of the company’s assets.
II. determine the creditors and order of payment.
III. distribution of funds to shareholders.
IV. report to the court on completion of the winding-up.
Select one:
a. I, and II only
b. I, II and III only
c. II, III and IV only
d. I, II, III and IV
Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
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Email: amitymbaassignment@gmail.com
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 4
Question 1. In case of death of a consumer who can prefer compliant under Section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986
Select one:
a. his legal heir or representative
b. State Government
c. consumer association registered under the Companies Act, 1956
d. No one can prefer complaint
Clear my choice
Question 2. As per section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, “complainant” means
Select one:
a. a consumer
b. any consumer association registered under the Companies Act, 1956
c. the Central Government or any State Government
d. All the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. _ implies safeguard against anti-consumer trade practices of producers and traders Select one: a. Consumer Protection b. Redressal Forum c. National Commission d. None of these Clear my choice Question 4. What can be the maximum claim amount at the district level of the consumer court? Select one: a. Less than ₹1 lakh b. ₹1 crore c. Upto ₹20 lakhs d. Above ₹1 crore Clear my choice Question 5. The total number of rights given to consumers as per the consumer protection Act is Select one: a. 5 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Clear my choice Question 6. Consumer Protection Act is applicable to Select one: a. immovable goods b. movable goods c. specific goods and services d. all goods and services Clear my choice Question 7. _ is one of the redressal agencies for redressing consumer grievances
Select one:
a. COPRA
b. State Commission
c. Consumer Organisation
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 8. In case a consumer is not satisfied with the order passed in the State Commission, he can further make an appeal in the National Commission within a time period of
Select one:
a. 10 days
b. 20 days
c. 30 days
d. 45 days
Clear my choice
Question 9. Why do we need to have set rules and regulations for consumer rights?
Select one:
a. To protect and promote the interest of the consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices
b. To bring discipline in the country.
c. To provide police protection to consumers during a dispute with the sellers.
d. Its aim is to make all the sellers fair and honest.
Clear my choice
Question 10. When was the Consumer Protection Act passed in India?
Select one:
a. 1968
b. 1986
c. 1984
d. 1976
Clear my choice
The quasi-judicial machinery set up at the highest level for redressal of consumer disputes is:
Select one:
a. The District Forum
b. The State Consumer Commission
c. Consumers International
d. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

Question 11. Which of the following is not a function of Consumer Protection Councils?
Select one:
a. To create awareness of consumer rights among consumers
b. To guide consumers on how to file cases in consumer courts
c. To provide compensation to consumers when they are cheated by shopkeepers
d. To represent consumers in Consumer Courts at times
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following are the ways and means of consumer protection?
Select one:
a. Self-regulation by the business
b. Business associations
c. Government
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the National Commission?
Select one:
a. It consists of a President and at least five other members, one of whom should be a woman
b. The members are appointed by the Central Government
c. A complaint can be made to the National Commission when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹1 crore
d. Where the aggrieved party was not satisfied with the order of the National Commission, the case can be taken to the Supreme Court of India
Clear my choice
Question 14. On receiving the complaint the forum will direct the opposite party to answer on that within _ days and may extent the period for ________ more days
Select one:
a. 1 & 15
b. 15 & 1
c. 10 & 1
d. 0 & 1
Clear my choice
The consumer has a right to get relief in case of defective goods or deficient services as per the________________
Select one:
a. Right to be informed
b. Right to choose
c. Right to be heard
d. Right to seek redressal
Question 15. Yash had severe pain in his throat, so he called up the doctor and asked for a telephonic advice. The doctor prescribed him a sachet of Throat Reliever Hot Sip. He asked his servant to get a sachet from a local chemist with a cash memo. After consuming the sachet, he started feeling more ill, so he picked up the empty sachet and started reading the label. To his utter dismay, the sachet had already expired last month. Which of the following remedies is not available to him any longer as a consumer?
Select one:
a. To withdraw the hazardous goods from sale
b. To replace the defective product with a new one
c. To refund the price paid for the product
d. To pay a reasonable amount of compensation for any loss suffered by the consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party
Clear my choice
Question 16. Naina, her husband and her two minor daughters were travelling from Mumbai to Delhi, availing a company’s flight services in 2018. The airlines had issued boarding passes to all of them. Naina claimed in her plea that the airlines left all her family at the Mumbai Airport without informing them, despite their being in the airport premises. The family had to stay in a hotel and purchase new tickets the next day. The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC). on hearing the plea, asked an airline company to pay ₹50,000 to Naina and her family. Identify the right of consumers being exercised in the given case.
Select one:
a. Right to safety
b. Right to be heard
c. Right to seek redressal
d. Right to consumer education
Clear my choice
Question 17. Ranjan bought a bottle of soft drink of a famous beverage company and found a gutka pouch floating inside the bottle. He forwarded a legal notice to the company, accusing it of the deficiency in service that could cause health hazard to the consumer. Identify the right of consumer being violated in the given case.
Select one:
a. Right to safety
b. Right to be heard
c. Right to seek redressal
d. Right to consumer education
Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
Contact www.kimsharma.co.in for best and lowest cost solution or
Email: amitymbaassignment@gmail.com
Call/what’s app: +91 8290772200
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 5
Question 1. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are of
Select one:
a. Ethical value
b. Moral value
c. Social value
d. Commercial value
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which Act in India focuses on data privacy and information technology?
Select one:
a. Banking Regulation Act 1949
b. IT Act 2000
c. Indian Penal Code
d. IT (amendment) Act 2008
Clear my choice
Question 3. The following can not be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights to others
Select one:
a. Patents
b. Designs
c. Trademark
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 4. Copyright is a ….
Select one:
a. creation by the mental status of a person
b. creation by person of efforts, intellectual and capital
c. creation by negligence of a person
d. creation by person of the efforts only
Clear my choice
Question 5. In India, the literary work is protected until
Select one:
a. Lifetime of author
b. 25 years after the death of author
c. 40 years after the death of author
d. 60 years after the death of author
Clear my choice
Question 6. Trade mark
Select one:
a. is represented graphically
b. is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others
c. may includes shapes of goods or combination of colours
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which is the appeal court on the orders issued by Cyber appellate tribunal?
Select one:
a. Munsiff Court
b. District Court
c. High Court
d. Supreme Court
Clear my choice
Question 8. Digital signatures created and verified using_____________
Select one:
a. program
b. graphical coding
c. HTML
d. cryptography
Clear my choice
Question 9. What is the punishment for hacking of computers?
Select one:
a. Three year imprisonment or 10 lakh rupees penalty or both
b. Life Imprisonment
c. Three year imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or both
d. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both
Clear my choice
Question 10. The following can be patented
Select one:
a. Machine
b. Process
c. Composition of matter
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 11. Who is the true and first inventor ?
Select one:
a. Who communicates and ideas to registrar of the patent
b. Who communicates idea to other at first
c. Who convert the ideas in to working invention
d. Who publish their ideas first in the journals
Clear my choice
Question 12. Copyright registrar and copyright board are ……………….. Authority
Select one:
a. Administrative
b. Non Judicial
c. Judicial
d. Quasi Judicial
Clear my choice
Question 13. Symbol of Maharaja of Air India is
Select one:
a. Copyright
b. Patent
c. Trademark
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14.In the following case the Hon’ble Supreme Court struck down Section 66 A of the I.T. Act:
Select one:
a. Kartar Singh v/s State of Punjab
b. Maneka Gandhi v/s UOI
c. K. A. Abbas v/s UOI
d. Shreya Singhal v/s UOI
Clear my choice
Question 15. Hackers usually used the computer virus for __ purpose
Select one:
a. To log, monitor each and every user’s stroke
b. To gain access the sensitive information like user’s Id and Passwords
c. To corrupt the user’s data stored in the computer system
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which are the advantages of E-Governance from the following:

a. Increased corruption
b. High transparency
c. Increased convenience
d. Indirect participation of constituent’s
e. Reduction in overall cost
Select one:
a. a, b, c & d
b. a, b, c & e
c. b, c & e
d. a, b, c, d &e
Clear my choice
Question 17. Proprietor of which trademark shall not be entitled to institute any proceeding to prevent or to recover damages for the infringement ?
Select one:
a. Numerals
b. Unregistered Trademark
c. Symbols
d. Registered Trademark
Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT.
Contact www.kimsharma.co.in for best and lowest cost solution or
Email: amitymbaassignment@gmail.com
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

                                                                            CASE STUDY

Vicky and Mahi are two friends. They form a partnership to start a bussiness of flavoured Milk Shakes & few other Milk products. They hired a graphic designer & mutually finalised a logo for their brand & get it registered as well. Raj is an owner of a milk producing company. He counter offered Vicky via e-mail to use Milk from his company to prepare those milk products which was accepted by Vicky. While preparing the Milk products Vicky realised that the quality of Milk was not upto the mark & told the same to Mahi. Stating the facts Mahi wrote an email to Raj & requested to provide the compensation immediately for the same as they have suffered huge loss by wasting a lot of ingredients as well in the process of preparing the milk products which couldnot be made due to stale milk. They have wasted their time, energy & money. This incident has caused them mental agony as well. Raj replied to that e-mail that immediately he cannot provide for any compensation as his company is already in huge loss & his company has just recieved the order of winding up by the Tribunal

   Question 1. The correct sequence in the formation of a contract is

Select one:
a. Offer, acceptance, agreement, consideration.
b. Agreement, consideration, offer,acceptance.
c. Offer , Consideration, acceptance, agreement.
d. Offer,acceptance, consideration, agreement.
Clear my choice
Question 2. The partnership written agreement as made between Vicky & Mahi is known as?
Select one:
a. Partnership contract
b. Agreement
c. Partnership deed
d. Partnership Act
Clear my choice
Question 3. The object of winding up of a company by the Tribunal as that in case of Raj is
Select one:
a. To facilitate the protection of its assets
b. To convert the company into private company if it is a public company
c. To convert the company into public company if it is a private company.
d. To change the Memorandum and Articles
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is not true about Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Select one:
a. The consumer complain can be filed in the court where the consumer resides
b. The consumer court can refer the matter through mediation
c. All rules of direct selling are not extended to e-commerce
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Vicky & Mahi wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo so they have got it registered as:
Select one:
a. Copy rights
b. Trade mark
c. Patent
d. Industrial designs

Professional communication (BC108)-Semester I MBA

November 9, 2021November 9, 2021 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Professional communication (BC108)-Semester I

1st Module Assessment
Question 1
Verbal mode of communication may have barrier in delivering the proper message such as
Select one:
a. Thoughts
b. Perceptions
c. Emotions
d. All of them

Question 2

Which of these is a type of business conversation?
Select one:
a. Office meetings
b. Interviews
c. Seminars
d. All of them

Question 3

Which of these is a type of communication?
Select one:
a. Internal communication
b. Organization communication
c. Agreement communication
d. Sales communication

Question 4

Which of the following should one do for breaking the barrier?
Select one:
a. Be a fixer
b. Be a daydreamer
c. Get proper feedaback
d. Use too many technical jargons

Question 5

Which of these are basic principles for effective communication?
Select one:
a. Know your audience
b. Know your purpose
c. Know your topic
d. All of them

Question 6

Who defines non-verbal communication as “the transmission of messages through means other than words”?
Select one:
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Andrew Dubrin
c. Carl Jung
d. Jacques Lacan

Question 7

Which are the main barriers for communication?
Select one:
a. Language barrier
b. Cultural barrier
c. Individual barrier
d. All of them

Question 8
Communication is an exchange of______
Select one:
a. Ideas
b. Information
c. Opinion
d. All of them

Question 9

Which of these is not the 7c’s of effective communication?
Select one:
a. Correctness
b. Clarity
c. Courtesy
d. Complicity

Question 10

What is the correct terminology for the collective understanding of upward and downward communications?
Select one:
a. External communication
b. Internal communication
c. Vertical Communication
d. Horizontal communication
Other Question
Which of these are the principles for clarity of communication?
Select one:
a. Correct language
b. Proper punctuation
c. Check accuracy of fact and figures
d. All of them

Question 11

Grooming is a form of non-verbal communication that is:
Select one:
a. Hierarchial
b. Conscious
c. Arbitary
d. Subconscous

Question 12

Positive gestures are body signals that make you look:
Select one:
a. Arrogant
b. Hurtful
c. Nervous
d. Rexlaxed

Question 13

By choosing to speak from the floor instead of the dais, a speaker can show the audience a sense of:
Select one:
a. Respect
b. Equality
c. Informality
d. Closeness
Question 14

Between a speaker and a listener, the closest zone of personal space possible is:
Select one:
a. Public
b. Friendly
c. Intimate
d. Social

Paralanguage is a kind of action language that refers to:
Select one:
a. actual words
b. personal space
c. the tone of voice, speed of speech, and hesitation
d. body language

Question 15
The final line of a business letter says:
Select one:
a. how many people are corresponding
b. how many attaches are with the letter
c. how many enclosures are with the letter
d. goodbye, formally or informally but businesslike

Question 16

Rooms with comfortable chairs invite relaxation while stiff chairs prompt formality. This refers to __.
Select one:
a. Chronemics
b. Environmental factors
c. Artifacts
d. Kinesics

Question 17

Which of these statement is true:
Select one:
a. Oculesics is object based phenomenon
b. Kinesics differ from country to country and culture to culture.
c. Paralanguage does not hold context out of professional sphere
d. Chronemics is detrimental to understand space issue in public
30/30
2nd Module Assessment

Question 1
When attempting to talk to a stranger, which of the following strategies should you try to include?
Select one:
a. paying attention to nonverbal cues
b. asking a question that requires a lot of self-disclosure 0000
c. making a comment
d. A & C only

Question 2

Which of the following is not part of a sociological definition of a ‘minority group’?
Select one:
a. the minority group is disadvantaged compared to the more powerful and dominant group
b. minority groups are always non-white
c. the minority group has a strong sense of group solidarity
d. the minority group often experiences prejudice and discrimination 000

Question 3

What term describes the fixed and inflexible characterizations of social groups?
Select one:
a. Stereotypes
b. Prejudice
c. Scapgoating
d. Discrimination

Question 4

When attempting to sustain a conversation, which of the following strategies should you try to include?
Select one:
a. Using free information
b. Asking questions, particularly closed-ended one
c. Seeking out topics of interest to the other person
d. All of the above

Question 5

You want to close a conversation. You’ve made the appropriate verbal statements. What can you do nonverbally to indicate that you are ready to walk away?
Select one:
a. Scan the scene around you with your eyes
b. Lean in closer to your conversation partner
c. Remain seated
d. Continue to keep your paralanguage upbeat

Question 6

Engaging in ethical dialog includes:
Select one:
a. authenticity, empathy, confirmation, presentness
b. authenticity, presentness, equality, disclosure
c. authenticity, empathy, confirmation, presentness, formality
d. None of the above

Question 7

Your significant other finishes your sentences because she knows you so well. This is called __.
Select one:
a. deliberation
b. co-narration
c. small talk
d. partnership

Question 8

What was the system of forced racial segregation in South Africa known as?
Select one:
a. apartheid
b. ethnic cleansing
c. multiculturalism
d. assimilation

Question 9

When engaging in appropriate turn-taking, the following guidelines should be followed:
Select one:
a. Balance each participant’s talk time
b. Allocate more floor time to higher-status people
c. Accommodate those who are more outgoing
d. All of them

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a conversation characteristic?
Select one:
a. Conversations are extemporaneous.
b. Conversations are locally managed.
c. Conversations are sequentially organized.
d. Conversations are linear.

What is the meaning of bona fide?
Select one:
a. Genuine
b. Very annoying
c. Feeling of belonging
d. Complete authority

Other Questions
What is multiculturalism?
Select one:
a. the existence of cultural diversity within a society
b. policies encouraging ethnic groups to live together in harmony
c. new immigrants adopting the values and norms of the host culture
d. ethnic group cultures exist separately within a society

Question 11

According to Communication Research Reports, which method of communication rated the highest in satisfaction for communicating easily?
Select one:
a. Face-to-face
b. Instant Message
c. E-mail
d. Cellphone

Question 12

For our purposes, a clear and comprehensive definition of culture is
Select one:
a. an academic term describing members of your parents’ homeland.
b. the music, location and architecture of a specific group of people.
c. the language, values, beliefs, traditions, and customs people share and learn.
d. demographic shifts based on communication.

Question 13

Permanence in communication is best achieved via
Select one:
a. Face-to-face conversation
b. Hard Copy
c. E-mail
d. Cellphone

Question 14

Noticing what behaviors members of a different culture use and applying these insights to communicate in effective ways is
Select one:
a. commonplace in ethnocentrism.
b. referred to as passive observation.
c. an example of stereotyping.
d. is communication competence.
Other Question
The tendency to transmit messages without considering their consequences is called
Select one:
a. Uncertainity
b. Disinhibition
c. Flaming
d. Spam
How to accept other candidate’s idea?
Select one:
a. I have no objection to that
b. One possibility is..
c. What is your opinion?
d. We must…

Question 15

What tense do you use in writing the Key Features paragraph?
Select one:
a. Present perfect tense
b. Present Continuous tense
c. Past Tense
d. Future tense

Question 16

What phrase is used in the Introduction?
Select one:
a. This report aims to identify….
b. The results show that..
c. In order to find this out, we…
d. None of the above

Question 17

Basic difference between formal and informal report is
Select one:
a. Formal report is complete while informal is incomplete
b. Formal report is precise while informal report is lengthy
c. Formal report has predefined purpose while informal report has not
d. Formal report follows a specific format while informal does not
30/30
Professional communication (BC108)-Semester I

3rd Module Assessment

Question 1
The content of the communication is called:
Select one:
a. Message
b. Noise
c. Media richness
d. Jargon

Question 2
What function does an effective meeting agenda serve?
Select one:
a. provides a blueprint
b. Reminds people of their achievment
c. Helps the leader to evade questions
d. Creates confusion

Question 3

The handshake that conveys confidence is
Select one:
a. Limp
b. Firm
c. Loose
d. Double

Question 4

Manuals and policy statements are referred to as:
Select one:
a. Upward communication
b. Horizontal communication
c. Downward communication
d. None of the above

Question 5

Which of the following is not a medium of transmission?
Select one:
a. Memos
b. Policy statement
c. Discussions
d. None of the above

Question 6

How to create an effective agenda?
Select one:
a. Send an email regarding meeting
b. Give out little information
c. Forego agenda item request
d. Wait for participants to contact you

Question 7

The notice of a meeting must specify:
Select one:
a. Type of meeting
b. Name of company
c. date of issue of notice
d. All of the above

Question 8

Basic form of agenda:
Select one:
a. Welcome/open meeting
b. Support for absence
c. Refreshments
d. All of the above

Question 9

To convert a message into groups of words, symbols, gestures, or sounds that present ideas or concepts is called:
Select one:
a. Feedback
b. Encoding
c. Noise
d. Symbolism

Question 10

The Agenda communicates important information such as:
Select one:
a. topics for discussion
b. presenter
c. time allotment
d. All of the above
Other Question
Which of these should one follow to compose meeting minutes?
Select one:
a. List of expected attendees
b. Use to device to record
c. Be prepared
d. All of the above

Question 11

What is the Adjournment?
Select one:
a. Time the meeting finished
b. Notation of who adjourned the meeting
c. Statement that the meeting is over
d. The conclusion

Question 12

What would you use to inform staff about an upcoming meeting?
Select one:
a. Email
b. Minutes
c. Letter
d. Research report

Question 13

Document that has a list of items to be discussed or acted upon at a meeting?
Select one:
a. Minutes
b. Business Letter
c. Spreadsheet
d. Agenda

Question 14

What goes in a heading?
Select one:
a. Organization name
b. Date and time
c. Location
d. All of the above
Extra Question
Topics and speakers that will present at the next Board meeting is an example of an?
Select one:
a. Agenda
b. Minutes
c. Memo
d. Letter

Question 15

The Keynote Speech is the
Select one:
a. A talk someone gives as at a political convention, that presents important issues, principles, policies
b. An oral translation between speakers
c. The person who speaks to inspire the people at a meeting
d. Both B & C

Question 16

Select the correct definition for “Debrief”
Select one:
a. a case taken to work to hold your personal items
b. to question formally and systematically in order to obtain useful
c. a person who provides an oral translation between speakers
d. None of the above

Question 17

Based on the types of decision-making meetings, which of the statement is correct?
Select one:
a. Persuasion means being attentive to your own opinion to reach goal.
b. Problem solving meetings is focused on interest.
c. In problem solving meetings, the necessary background information is provided.
d. Analysis can be based on weaknesses analysis ONLY.
30/30
Professional communication (BC108)-Semester I

4th Module Assessment
Question 1

Which of these is not a parameter in a report?
Select one:
a. Extent of information
b. Quality of information
c. Age of writer
d. Ability to acquire information

Question 2

In a technical report which of these must be avoided?
Select one:
a. Facts
b. Logical Conclusion
c. Objective Evaluation
d. Subjective Evaluation

Question 3

Which of these is not a formal report?
Select one:
a. Informational
b. Informal
c. Interpretative
d. Routine

Question 4

When you’re writing a report, be sure to adapt to your audience by
Select one:
a. being sensitive to their needs.
b. controlling your style and tone.
c. both a and b.
d. None of the above.

Question 5

Which of these reports provide information without any evaluation?
Select one:
a. Informational
b. Interpretative
c. Routine
d. Progress

Question 6

Which of the following statements about reports is accurate?
Select one:
a. Informal reports of eight or fewer pages are the most common report in the workplace.
b. Writers develop reports for internal audiences only.
c. Business professionals rarely write reports.
d. Both b and c

Question 7

Which is not basis for a technical report?
Select one:
a. Facts
b. Tests
c. Personal prejudices
d. Experiments

Question 8

A list of illustrations, included; figures and tables, placed on;
Select one:
a. Abstract vision
b. Title page
c. Table of contents
d. Bottom Line

Question 9

Largest section of report writing in technical writing, is termed as:
Select one:
a. Conclusion/Recommendation
b. Discussion
c. Heading
d. Footing

Question 10
Into which of these types are formal reports not classified?
Select one:
a. Informational
b. Interpretative
c. Oral
d. Routine
Extra Question
Reports that provide data or findings, analyses, and conclusions are
Select one:
a. Informational reports.
b. progress reports.
c. summaries.
d. analytical reports.
Question 11
It is written within an organisation to __ and examining actual event.
Select one:
a. Prepare
b. Find
c. Identify
d. Write

Question 12

What is the part on writing a research to show the benefits of doing the study?
Select one:
a. Problem Statement
b. Research Objective
c. Definition of terms
d. Siginifcance of research

Question 13

Two (2) examples of analytical report are
Select one:
a. Feasibility Report
b. Laboratory Report
c. Only B
d. Both A&B

Question 14
Field trip report is prepared based on _ in the actual situation.
Select one:
a. Assumption
b. Research
c. Observation
d. Report
Extra Question
Which section the researcher need to do a literature search and write a literature to support their research
Select one:
a. Introduction
b. Methodology
c. Literature Review
d. Reference

Which of these reports provide information without any evaluation?

Select one:
a. Informational
b. Interpretative
c. Routine
d. Progress
Question 15

What tense do you use in writing the Key Features paragraph?
Select one:
a. Past Tense
b. Present Continuous tense
c. Present perfect tense
d. Future tense

Question 16

What phrase is used in the Introduction?
Select one:
a. The results show that..
b. This report aims to identify….
c. In order to find this out, we…
d. None of the above

Question 17

Basic difference between formal and informal report is
Select one:
a. Formal report is complete while informal is incomplete
b. Formal report is precise while informal report is lengthy
c. Formal report follows a specific format while informal does not
d. Formal report has predefined purpose while informal report has not
30/30

Professional communication (BC108)-Semester I

5th Module Assessment

Question 1
What should one avoid during the interview?
Select one:
a. Race
b. Marital status
c. Political affiliation
d. All of them

Question 2

How should one handle questions?
Select one:
a. By confusing audience
b. Anticipate and keep answers ready
c. Know everything
d. Speak fast

Question 3

What is the meaning of ad nauseam?
Select one:
a. Nauseous
b. Reptition to the point of boring
c. Endlessly long
d. Unplanned

Question 4

Which of these are the five elements of inteview process?
Select one:
a. Getting attention
b. Esyablishing a theme
c. Presenting a structure
d. All of them

Question 5

Which of these is not mentioned in a resume?
Select one:
a. Address
b. Age
c. Nationality
d. Experience

Question 6

Which of these are common verbal communication barriers?
Select one:
a. Clarity
b. Lot of questions
c. Speaking in a steady pace
d. Using jargon

Question 7

What is the meaning of bona fide?
Select one:
a. Genuine
b. Very annoying
c. Feeling of belonging
d. Complete authority

Question 8

How can one receive information during the interview process?
Select one:
a. Ask any kind of questions
b. Keep talking at every opportunity
c. Ask only questions that are directly related to the job/position
d. Conceal your experience

Question 9

Which of these is a type of interview?
Select one:
a. One to one interview
b. Phone interview
c. Group interview
d. All of them

Question 10

Which of these is true about stage fright?
Select one:
a. It leads to insomnia
b. key issue is elimation of fear
c. Normal people do not have it
d. Can be used constructively
Other Question
What kind of jokes should be avoided during the interview process?
Select one:
a. Racist
b. Sexist
c. Adult jokes
d. All of them

Question 11

How to accept other candidate’s idea?
Select one:
a. I have no objection to that
b. One possibility is..
c. What is your opinion?
d. We must…

Question 12

Which of these are extremely important during a job interview?
Select one:
a. Eye contact
b. First Impression
c. Your dress
d. All of the above

Question 13

Which is something you should do at the beginning of an interview?
Select one:
a. Shake the person’s hand
b. Introduce yourself
c. Smile
d. All of the above

Question 14

The difference within a group
Select one:
a. Variety
b. Structured
c. Qualitative
d. Infiite
Extra Question
During a job interview, who should be the one to begin talking?
Select one:
a. Employer
b. You
c. Both
d. Wait for the HR to introduce each other

Question 15

Why should you write a resignation letter?
Select one:
a. To maintain goodwill with your employer
b. So that you can use your employer as a reference in the future
c. Both A &B
d. Only A

Question 16

What is one thing that you should NOT do during the first interview?
Select one:
a. Ask about salary
b. Communicate why you are a good fit
c. Close by arranging next interview
d. Connect with interviewer

Question 17

What should you NOT do to prepare for an interview?
Select one:
a. Research the company
b. Memorize common answers to top interview questions
c. Learn the company’s concerns and problems
d. Practice top interview questions and answers
30/30

Professional communication (BC108)-Semester I

Assignment 2

Question 1
The interviewer says, “Tell me about yourself.” Which of these is the best answer?
Select one:
a. “I enjoy helping people and this drives my desire to master the art of fundraising. I have been volunteering with Red Cross for the past two years and have learned many useful skills about organizing fundraisers. I think my experiences have prepared me to be a great Fundraising Coordinator.”
b. ” I was born in Delhi and moved to Bangalore with my family when I was twelve. After graduating from high school, I attended college and worked a couple of part-time jobs.”
c. “I’m a pretty outgoing person with an open personality. I love meeting other people and visiting new places. One of my favorite things to do is spend time with friends. i also like to travel. last summer, i took a trip to Europe with a couple of buddies. We had a great time,”
d. “Hi, my name is ___and I am looking forward to a job”

Question 2

‘Othering’….
Select one:
a. Encompasses the choices people make by defining their identity as a similar culture, heritage, ethnicity and political or economic experience
b. Encompasses the choices people make by defining their identity in opposition to groups of people who do not share (or are perceived as not sharing) a similar culture, heritage, ethnicity and political or economic experience
c. Encompasses the choices people make by defining their identity in the same way as groups of people who do not share (or are perceived as not sharing) a similar culture, heritage, ethnicity and political or economic experience
d. Encompasses the choices people make by defining their identity as people who do not share (or are perceived as not sharing) a similar culture, heritage, ethnicity and political or economic experience

Question 3

Cultural Relativism…
Select one:
a. involves attempting to understand a culture by looking at it according to your own standards. It means analysing a culture from the point of view of your own culture.
b. involves attempting to understand a culture by looking at it according to a different set of standards. It means analysing a culture from the point of view of other people in society.
c. involves attempting to understand a culture by looking at it according to its own standards. It means analysing a culture from the point of view of its members
d. involves not attempting to understand a culture by not looking at it according to its own standards. It means not analysing a culture from the point of view of its members

Question 4

__ is the study about the broadest sense can refer to visual signals or physical movements/positions.
Select one:
a. Social interaction
b. Body language
c. Study of linguistic
d. Personal Space

Question 5

It is easy to misunderstanding the cues from facial expressions made by other because…
Select one:
a. there is no way to understand someone else’s facial expression
b. it can be manipulated of people showing their facial expression that untruth
c. it is too difficult to pay attention to someone else’s facial expression while communicating
d. facial expressions do not add anything to the communication process
15/15

Professional communication (BC108)-Semester I

Managerial Economics- MBA Semester I

November 9, 2021November 9, 2021 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Managerial Economics- MBA Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Managerial Economics- MBA Semester I
1
Law of demand shows relation between:
Select one:
a. Quantity demanded and quantity supplied
b. Price and quantity of a commodity
c. Income and price of commodity
d. Income and quantity demand
Question 1. Supply surve
Select one:
a. Is same in long and short run
b. Is vertical in long run
c. Is flatter in long run
d. Is horizontal in both short and long run()
Clear my choice
Question 2. When cross elasticity of demand is a large positive number, one can conclude that:
Select one:
a. The good is normal
b. The good is inferior
c. The good is a substitute
d. The good is a complement
Clear my choice
Question 3. Other things equal, if a good has more substitutes, its price elasticity of demand is:
Select one:
a. Larger
b. Smaller
c. Zero
d. Unity
Clear my choice
Question 4. If quantity demanded is completely unresponsive to changes in price, demand is:
Select one:
a. Unit elastic
b. Perfectly inelastic
c. Elastic
d. Inelastic
Clear my choice
Question 5. Normally a demand curve will have the shape:
Select one:
a. Downward sloping
b. Horizontal
c. Upward sloping
d. Vertical
Clear my choice
Question 6. If elasticity of supply is greater than one. Supply curve will be:
Select one:
a. Touching y-axis
b. Vertical
c. Passing through origin()
d. Horizontal
Clear my choice
Question 7. The following are causes of shift in demand EXCEPT the one:
Select one:
a. Change in price
b. Change in fashion
c. Change in prices of substitutes
d. Change in income
Clear my choice
Question 8. When supply of a commodity increases without change in price it is called:
Select one:
a. Expansion in supply
b. Contraction in supply
c. Fall in supply
d. Rise in supply
Clear my choice
Question 9. Supply curve will shift when:
Select one:
a. Price falls
b. Demand shifts
c. Price rises
d. Technology change
Clear my choice
Question 10. This is an assumption of law of demand:
Select one:
a. Supply should not change
b. Price of the commodity should not change
c. Quantity should not change
d. Income of consumer should not change
Clear my choice

Law of demand shows relation between:
Select one:
a. Quantity demanded and quantity supplied
b. Income and price of commodity
c. Income and quantity demand
d. Price and quantity of a commodity
Question 11. Which of the following is a demand function?
Select one:
a. Q = 35 + 3P
b. Q + 4P = 20
c. Q – 2P – 15 = 0
d. 5P – Q = 4
Clear my choice
Question 12. Irrespective of price, Sofia always spends Rs. 100 a week on ice cream, we conclude that:
Select one:
a. Elasticity of demand is 1
b. The law of demand has been violated
c. Elasticity of demand is infinite
d. Elasticity of demand is 0
Clear my choice
Question 13. What best explains a shift in market supply curve to the right?
Select one:
a. An advertising campaign is successful in promoting the good
b. The price of raw materials increases
c. A new technique makes it cheaper to produce the good
d. The government introduces a tax on the good
Clear my choice
Question 14. If price changes by 1% and supply changes by 2% then supply is:
Select one:
a. Static
b. Inelastic
c. Indeterminate
d. Elastic
Clear my choice
In May 2013, firm was supplying 500kg of sugar of market price of Rs. 30/- per kg. During June 2013, firm’s supply of sugar had decreased to 450kg at price Rs. 20/- per kg. These changes show that supply of sugar is:
Select one:
a. Perfectly inelastic
b. Perfectly elastic
c. More elastic
d. Less elastic
Question 15. In November of 2010 the US Central Bank, the Federal Reserve, embarked on a policy of quantitative easing. Since this policy essentially represents an increase in the supply of money, it may create inflationary expectations. Let’s assume (and this is a strong assumption), that as a result of this policy, US households start to expect inflation (price increases) in the housing market. The effect on the housing market will be:
Select one:
a. None of the above
b. A rise in the supply, causing prices to decrease
c. A rise in the demand, causing prices to increase
d. A decline in the demand, causing prices to decrease
Clear my choice
Question 16. What best explains a shift in market supply curve to the right?
Select one:
a. The price of raw materials increases
b. The government introduces a tax on the good
c. An advertising campaign is successful in promoting the good
d. A new technique makes it cheaper to produce the good
Clear my choice
Question 17. During a particular year farmers experienced a dry weather, if all other factors remain constant, farmers supply curve for wheat will shift to:
Select one:
a. Rise in supply
b. Leftward
c. Downward
d. Rightward
Managerial Economics- MBA Semester I

2nd Module Assessment

If a firm’s revenues just cover all its opportunity costs, then:
Select one:
a. economic profit is zero
b. normal profit is zero.
c. total revenues equal its implicit costs
d. total revenues equal its explicit costs

Question 1. The marginal product curve is above the average product curve when the average product is:
Select one:
a. Decreasing
b. Constant
c. None
d. Increasing
Clear my choice
Question 2. An isoquant is _ to an iso cost line at equilibrium point: Select one: a. Perpendicular b. Concave c. Convex d. Tangent Clear my choice Question 3. Increasing returns to scale can be explained in terms of: Select one: a. All of these b. External and internal diseconomies c. External economics and internal diseconomies d. External and internal economies Clear my choice Question 4. Isoquants are equal to: Select one: a. Revenue lines b. Total utility lines c. Product Lines d. Cost lines Clear my choice Question 5. MRP stands for Select one: a. Marginal Revenue process b. Both (a) and (b) c. Marginal Revenue Product d. None of these Clear my choice Question 6. _ shows the overall output generated at a given level of input:
Select one:
a. Marginal rate of technical substitution
b. Production function
c. Iso cost
d. Cost function
Clear my choice
Question 7. The production function incorporates the technically efficient method of ………….
Select one:
a. production
b. All of these
c. process
d. function
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which of the following is not a feature of land?
Select one:
a. Mobile factor
b. Limited in quantity
c. Free gift
d. Indestructible
Clear my choice
Question 9. Law of variable proportion is valid when:
Select one:
a. Only one input is fixed and all other inputs are kept variable
b. None of these
c. All inputs are varied in the same proportion
d. All factors are kept constant
Clear my choice
Question 10. When a firm doubles its inputs and finds that its output has more than doubled, this is known as:
Select one:
a. a violation of the law of diminishing returns
b. economies of scale
c. diseconomies of scale
d. constant returns to scale
Clear my choice
Suppose that a firm produces 200,000 units a year and sells them all for $10 each. The explicit costs of production are $1,500,000 and the implicit costs of production are $300,000. The firm has an accounting profit of:
Select one:
a. $300,000 and an economic profit of $400,000.
b. $500,000 and an economic profit of $200,000
c. $400,000 and an economic profit of $200,000.
d. $200,000 and an economic profit of $500,000.
Question 11. If all resources used in the production of a product are increased by 20 percent and output increases by 20 percent, then there must be:
Select one:
a. constant returns to scale.
b. increasing average total costs
c. diseconomies of scale.
d. economies of scale.
Clear my choice
Question 12. With fixed costs of $400, a firm has average total costs of $3 and average variable costs of $2.50. Its output is:
Select one:
a. 400 units
b. 1,600 units
c. 800 units
d. 200 units
Clear my choice
Question 13. If you know that with 8 units of output, average fixed cost is $12.50 and average variable cost is $81.25, then total cost at this output level is:
Select one:
a. $880
b. $97.78
c. $750
d. $93.75
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which is not a fixed cost?
Select one:
a. a worker’s wage of $15 per hour
b. an insurance premium of $50 per year, paid last month
c. monthly rent of $1,000 contractually specified in a one-year lease
d. an attorney’s retainer of $50,000 per year
Clear my choice
Question 15. Electricity charges are increased for the commercial use from Rs. 3 per unit to Rs. 5 per unit. This woulf affect –
Select one:
a. Both Fixed and Variable Cost
b. Neither Fixed Cost no Variable Cost
c. Variable Cost
d. Fixed Cost
Clear my choice
Question 16. When a bus with a seating capacity of 50 passengers is carrying on 40 passengers. The cost of passenger ticket is Rs. 100. What would be the Marginal Cost of carrying one additional passenger?
Select one:
a. Rs. 4,000
b. Zero
c. Rs. 100
d. Rs. 4,100
Clear my choice
Question 17. A farm must decide whether or not to purchase a new tractor. The tractor will reduce costs by $2,000 in the first year, $2,500 in the second and $3,000 in the third and final year of usefulness. The tractor costs $9,000 today, while the above cost savings will be realized at the end of each year. If the interest rate is seven percent, what is the net present value of purchasing the tractor?
Select one:
a. $9,362
b. None of the statements associated with this question are correct
c. $18,362
d. $6,764
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3rd Module Assessment
Which of the following is the best example of a perfectly competitive market?
Select one:
a. athletic shoes
b. farming
c. soft drinks
d. diamonds
Question 1. Which of the following would create a natural monopoly?
Select one:
a. requirement of a government license before the firm can sell the good or service
b. technology enabling a single firm to produce at a lower average cost than two or more firms
c. ownership of all the available units of a necessary input
d. an exclusive right granted to supply a good or service
Clear my choice
Question 2. What is the difference between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?
Select one:
a. Perfect competition has a large number of small firms while monopolistic competition does not.
b. Perfect competition has barriers to entry while monopolistic competition does not.
c. Perfect competition has no barriers to entry, while monopolistic competition does.
d. In perfect competition, firms produce identical goods, while in monopolistic competition, firms produce slightly different goods.
Clear my choice
Question 3. The market type known as perfect competition is
Select one:
a. dominated by fierce advertising campaigns
b. marked by firms continuously trying to change their products so that consumers prefer their product to their competitors’ products
c. highly competitive and firms find it impossible to earn an economic profit in the long run.
d. almost free from competition and firms earn large profits.
Clear my choice
Question 4. Ownership of a necessary input creates what type of barrier to entry?
Select one:
a. a government license
b. natural barrier to entry
c. a public franchise
d. legal barrier to entry
Clear my choice
Question 5. As the degree of product differentiation increases among the products sold in a monopolistically competitive industry, which of the following occurs?
Select one:
a. The cost of production falls.
b. The demand curve for each seller’s product becomes more horizontal
c. The amount of marketing expenditures decreases for each firm
d. Each seller’s demand becomes more inelastic
Clear my choice
Question 6. Which of the following market types has the fewest number of firms?
Select one:
a. monopoly
b. perfect competition
c. monopolistic competition
d. oligopoly
Clear my choice
Question 7. Perfectly competitive firms are price takers because
Select one:
a. many other firms produce identical products
b. each firm is very large
c. their demand curves are downward sloping
d. there are no good substitutes for their goods
Clear my choice
Question 8. Perfect competition is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
Select one:
a. considerable advertising by individual firms
b. no restrictions on entry into or exit from the industry
c. well-informed buyers and sellers with respect to prices.
d. a large number of buyers and sellers.
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which of the following market types has all firms selling products so identical that buyers do not care from which firm they buy?
Select one:
a. oligopoly
b. monopoly
c. monopolistic competition
d. perfect competition
Clear my choice
Question 10. A monopoly is a market with
Select one:
a. one supplier
b. many suppliers
c. no barriers to entry
d. many substitutes
Clear my choice

Monopolistically competitive firms most frequently do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Enjoy monopoly pricing power
b. Merge and consolidate into oligopolistic groupings
c. Compete in pricing wars with other firms in the industry
d. Advertise the traits that make their product identifiable
Question 11. Profits of the firm will be more at:
Select one:
a. Both of above
b. Additional revenue from extra unit equals its additional cost
c. None
d. MR = MC
Clear my choice
Question 12. When the government grants an exclusive patent to one firm, that firm enjoys
Select one:
a. monopoly powers
b. productive efficiency
c. collusive prices
d. antitrust regulation
Clear my choice
Question 13. If a monopolistically competitive seller can convince buyers that its product is of better quality and value than products sold by rival firms,
Select one:
a. demand becomes more inelastic.
b. all of the above occur
c. demand increases.
d. the firm gains more control over its price
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following would most likely be a monopoly?
Select one:
a. An electricity provider
b. A supermarket
c. An appliance store
d. A dentist’s office
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following statements is true for both monopolistically competitive and oligopolistic industries?
Select one:
a. It is impossible for new firms to enter the industries
b. Firms have some degree of control over prices
c. Producers cannot benefit from knowing other firms’ plans.
d. Collusion and the creation of cartels is common.
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following is most likely to be observed in a monopolistically competitive market?
Select one:
a. Standardized, homogenous products
b. Non-price competition, such as advertising
c. Collusion and price-fixing between firms
d. Government antitrust oversight
Clear my choice
Question 17. Recently in a small city, building contractors lobbied the city council to pass a law requiring all people working on residential dwellings be licensed by the city. Why would the contractors lobby for this requirement?
Select one:
a. to reduce the cost of building dwellings
b. There is no good explanation for this type of lobbying.
c. to guarantee that work on dwellings is of high quality
d. to create a legal barrier to entry

4th Module Assessment

4th Module Assessment
In a closed economy, aggregate demand is the sum of
Select one:
a. consumer expenditure, planned investment spending, government spending, and net exports.
b. consumer expenditure, actual investment spending, government spending, and net exports.
c. consumer expenditure, actual investment spending, and government spending.
d. consumer expenditure, planned investment spending, and government spending.

Question 2
If aggregate demand falls short of current output,
Select one:
a. business firms will cut production to build up inventories.
b. business firms will expand production to keep from accumulating inventories.
c. business firms will expand production to build up inventories.
d. business firms will cut production to keep from accumulating inventories.

Question 3
Investment Multiplier is a
Select one:
a. ratio between consumption and investment
b. ratio between income and investment.
c. None of the above
d. ratio between investment and savings

Question 4
If the demand for money is interest-elastic, an increase in interest rates:
Select one:
a. Would have no impact on the rest of the economy
b. Would have a powerful impact on the rest of the economy
c. Would have little impact on the rest of the economy
d. Would increase the liquidity of financial assets other than money

Question 5
In the Keynesian model of income determination, consumer expenditure includes spending by
Select one:
a. consumers on personal computers.
b. businesses on personal computers.
c. all of the above since computers are consumer durables
d. governments on personal computers.

Question 6
If aggregate expenditure exceeds aggregate output, there will be unplanned inventory _ causing output to _
Select one:
a. depletion; increase
b. accumulation; increase
c. depletion; decrease
d. accumulation; decrease

Question 7
Keynes’s motivation in developing the aggregate output determination model stemmed from his concern with explaining
Select one:
a. why the Great Depression occurred.
b. the high unemployment in Great Britain after World War II.
c. the high unemployment in Great Britain before World War I.
d. the hyperinflations of the 1920s.

Question 8
Actual investment spending is comprised of two components:
Select one:
a. planned investment and fixed investment.
b. fixed investment and actual inventory investment.
c. fixed business investment and fixed housing investment.
d. unplanned investment and inventory investment.

Question 9
An increase in (i) the price level and (ii) the rate of inflation:
Select one:
a. Cause the demand for money (i) to rise; (ii) to fall
b. Cause the demand for money (i) to fall; (ii) to rise
c. Both cause the demand for money to rise
d. Both cause the demand for money to fall

Question 10
All demand for money functions that are tested are macroeconomic relationships between the aggregate demand for money and other economic variables because:
Select one:
a. Microeconomic relationships are unpredictable
b. Macroeconomic relationships are always more stable than microeconomic relationships
c. The purpose of studying the demand for money is to help in understanding the effect of monetary policy
d. Microeconomic relationships are less interesting
Extra Question

As the level of interest rates in the economy falls, the demand for money, ceteris paribus:
Select one:
a. Increase
b. Could move in either direction depending on other factors
c. Will fall more or less in line with the change in interest rates
d. Will remain unchanged

Question 11
The multiplier concept is important in the Keynesian model because
Select one:
a. it explains why a large change in autonomous spending has such a small impact on equilibrium output.
b. it explains why a small change in autonomous spending can have a large impact on equilibrium output.
c. it is crucial to understanding why changes in investment spending are viewed as the root cause of business cycles fluctuations.
d. of both (b) and (c) of the above.

Question 12
In the Keynesian two sector economy, ADI
d. S<I

Question 13
There are two types of investment: _ investment–the spending by business firms on equipment and structures, and planned spending on residential houses–and _ investment–spending by business firms on additional holdings of raw materials, parts, and finished goods.
Select one:
a. fixed; inventory
b. fixed; gross
c. planned; inventory
d. planned; gross

Question 14
Which of the following statements concerning Keynesian analysis are true?
Select one:
a. Keynes’s analysis started with the recognition that the total quantity demanded of an economy’s output was the sum of four types of spending: consumer expenditure, planned investment spending, government spending, and net exports.
b. All of the above are true.
c. Keynes recognized that equilibrium would occur in the economy when total quantity of output supplied (aggregate output produced, Y) equals quantity of output demanded (Yad), that is, when Y = Yad.
d. Keynes’s analysis involves explaining why aggregate output is at a certain level by understanding what factors affect each component of aggregate demand and how the sum of these components could add up to an output smaller than the economy is capable of producing, resulting in less than full employment.
Extra Question
An increase in planned investment spending causes aggregate output to
Select one:
a. increase by an amount less than the change in investment spending.
b. increase by an amount greater than the change in investment spending
c. increase by an amount equal to the change in investment spending.
d. decrease by an amount less than the change in investment spending

Question 15
Which of the following is NOT a leakage from the circular flow of income and expenditure?
Select one:
a. Taxes net of government transfers
b. Saving
c. Government purchases
d. Imports

Question 16
The difference between real and nominal GDP is
Select one:
a. nominal GDP only accounts for citizens.
b. nominal GDP uses actual price-levels
c. nominal GDP uses price-levels of some base year
d. real GDP also includes services, whereas nominal GDP only takes goods into account

Question 17
What of the following does NOT enter GDP?
Select one:
a. public education
b. public service
c. national defense
d. life expectancy
29/30*
5th Module Assessment
Question 1
The variable that connect the market of money and the market of goods via investment spending is:
Select one:
a. The MPS
b. The interest rate
c. The MPC
d. The CPI

Question 2
As higher is the MPS
Select one:
a. All the answers are right
b. Lower is the multiplier.
c. Higher is the equilibrium income.
d. Higher is the investment spending

Question 3
To increase the money supply, the bank central could:
Select one:
a. Purchase bonds in the open-market
b. Encourage people to held more cash (currency in circulation)
c. Increase the government spending
d. Cut taxes

Question 4
An increase in the interest rate….
Select one:
a. Shifts the aggregate demand curve to the right
b. Shifts the aggregate demand curve to the left
c. Moves the economy along the aggregate demand curve
d. Has no effect

Question 5
Point out which of the following is not an instrument of fiscal policy:
Select one:
a. A cut in the marginal rates of IRPF
b. An increase in the interest rate
c. A cut in unemployment compensation
d. An increase in tobacco taxes

Question 6
The government spending multiplier is as higher as:
Select one:
a. Higher is the MPC
b. Lower is the MPC
c. Lower is the tax revenue
d. Higher is the government spending

Question 7
If you are a classical economist, which statement would you support?
Select one:
a. The government is the key to economic success
b. Let the economy work out its own problems
c. The more the government spends to improve the economy, the better
d. The government should be involved to help during recessions

Question 8
Point out the monetary policy instrument:
Select one:
a. A cut in government purchase of goods and services
b. Freezing pensions
c. An increase in direct taxes
d. Open-market operations

Question 9
A decrease in the MPC may cause:
Select one:
a. A fall in the equilibrium income
b. An increase in the equilibrium income.
c. It does not affect the equilibrium income
d. The government spending multiplier rise

Question 10
The function of investment spending shifts to the left if:
Select one:
a. Business expectations get worse
b. The interest rate rises
c. The interest rate falls
d. Business expectations improve
Extra Question
A cut in direct taxes on households’ income
Select one:
a. Shifts the aggregate demand curve to the left
b. Shifts the aggregate demand curve to the right
c. Moves the economy along the aggregate demand curve
d. Has no effect

Question 11
If the economy is in a recession, the Fed could do all of the following EXCEPT
Select one:
a. Buy securities
b. Lower the Discount rate
c. Lower the Federal Funds rate
d. Lower taxes

Question 12
If Fiscal Policy is trying to promote stability and economic growth through tax cuts, what type of policy is Fiscal policy using?
Select one:
a. Easy Money Policy
b. Restrictive Fiscal Policy
c. Tight Money Policy
d. Expansionary Fiscal Policy

Question 13
How are Fiscal Policy and the Federal Reserve similar?
Select one:
a. They always must have Congressional approval before passing
b. They both use the same tools to fix economic problems
c. They both try to promote economic stability
d. They both have a Board of Governors

Question 14
If a nation currently has a budget deficit, their income is not covering the cost of running their country. If this budget is not revised, what could be a possible result of this situation?
Select one:
a. A mounting debt
b. Discretionary fiscal policy
c. A balanced budget
d. A budget surplus
Other Question
Which of the following best describes the goal of Monetary Policy?
Select one:
a. Controlling the national debt
b. Stopping inflation
c. Controlling the money supply
d. Controlling taxes
Question 15
Which of the following policies would not be used by a government which wished to increase the output per labour hour?
Select one:
a. Make government departments more efficient.
b. Promoting competition.
c. Discouraging firms from investing in new capital.
d. Increase the school leaving age

Question 16
Suppose the government of a country has a high level of debt. Which of the following statements about this debt is false?
Select one:
a. A high debt would make it difficult for the government to respond to any future downturns in its economy with expansionary fiscal policy.
b. If all the debt was in the form of bonds owned by the country’s own citizens, then the debt would not be a burden to the country’s citizens.
c. A high debt might make lenders worry if the government could repay its loans and so raise the interest rate people wanted when they lent to it
d. If all the debt was in the form of bonds owned by the country’s own citizens, then the debt would not be a burden to the country’s taxpayers.

Question 17
Which of the following policies would not be used by a government which wished to increase the quantity of labour that will be hired?
Select one:
a. A reduction in the benefits paid to unemployed people.
b. An increase in help for unemployed people to retrain.
c. An increase in firms’ non-labour costs.
d. A reduction in income tax rates.
29/30
Assignment 2
Case Study
Business Management and Managerial Economics have always been closely related; in fact, most schools of business have their origins in departments of economics. Yet, the viewpoints of the economist and the manager have, until recently, been different. The economist has been concerned chiefly with the functioning of the economy as a whole and social issues such as monopoly and competition, tax policy, the pricing system, and the distribution of income. The manager has been concerned primarily with maximization of profits, from the viewpoint of the individual firm, and with such company policies as pricing, wage payments, market share and employment of resources. Both the economist and manager, nevertheless, face similar problems of using scarce resources in the satisfaction of human wants. Both concentrate on the analysis of demand characteristics and supply factors, but the manager must orient his thoughts to making decisions in business operations. Managerial Economics, therefore, may be defined as the management’s application of economic principles in the decision-making process.

Question 1 : Demand is determined by
Select one:
a. All of the above
b. Price of the product
c. Relative prices of other goods
d. Tastes and habits

Question 2
When a firm’s average revenue is equal to its average cost, it gets __.
Select one:
a. Super profit
b. Sub normal profit
c. Normal profit
d. None of the above

Question 3
Managerial economics generally refers to the integration of economic theory with business
Select one:
a. Ethics
b. Practice
c. Management
d. All of the above

Question 4
The cost recorded in the books of accounts are considered as
Select one:
a. Total cost
b. Average cost
c. Explicit cost
d. Marginal cost

Question 5
Given the price, if the cost of production increases because of higher price of raw materials, the supply
Select one:
a. Any of the above
b. Decreases
c. Increases
d. Remains same
15/15
Managerial Economics- MBA Semester I

ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (EDL 102) – SEMESTER I

April 26, 2020April 26, 2020 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

ECONOMICS FOR MANAGERS (EDL 102) – SEMESTER I

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Block I

Introduction to Economic Analysis

1. What is Economics

2. What is the scope of managerial economics?

Scarcity and Efficiency

1. What is Scarcity?

Ans:

2. What is Efficiency?

Ans:

Basic Concept of Micro-economic analysis

1. What is the opportunity cost?

Ans:

2. What is the Production possibility cu

Ans:

Nature of Managerial Economics

1. What is the difference b/w managerial economics and economics

Ans:

2. What is the nature of managerial economics?

Ans:

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BLOCK-II

Market Structure Analysis ? Introduction

1. Which one of the following industries comes closest to perfect competition?

Ans:

2. Economic profits are generally.

Ans:

Market Structure Analysis ? Monopolistic Competition

1. Consider a monopolistically competitive firm. From the point of view of remaining firms, as firm leave the industry we can think of this as a:

Ans:

2. In monopolistically competitive industry

Ans:

Market Structure Analysis ? Monopoly

1. A defining characteristics of a natural monopoly is that

Ans:

2. An Unregulated monopoly will:

Ans:

Market Structure Analysis – Oligopoly

1. Which of the following is not a characteristics of an oligopoly market?

Ans:

2. Where the industry strategy is set by small firm recognized as having good market intelligence?

Ans:

Cournot’s Duopoly Model

1. Two firm compete in a stackelberg fashion and firm two is the leader, then

Ans:

2. When firm one act as a Stackelberg leader

Ans:

Dead Weight Loss

1. Student railcards are an example of:

Ans:

2. __________________is the best strategy to extract consumer surplus:

Ans:

Monopoly Equilibrium – 1

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?

Ans:

2. It is perfectly competitive firm currently produces where price is greater than marginal cost it?

Ans:

Monopoly Equilibrium – 2

1. When a perfectly competitive firm makes a decision to shut down, it is most likely that

Ans:

2. In the long run, a profit-maximizing firm will choose to exit a market when

Ans:

Monopoly Equilibrium – 3

1. When firms have an incentive to exit a competitive market, their exit wil

Ans:

2. In a perfectly competitive market, the process of entry or exit ends when

Ans:

Monopoly Equilibrium – 4

1. When a markets are imperfect and exhibit externalities:

Ans:

2. The social cost of monopoly is:

Ans:

Monopsony – 1

1. In A competitive labour market, the demand curve for labour is given by which one of the following?

Ans:

2. A monopsony type of market failure is said to be occur for which one of the following?

Ans:

Monopsony – 2

1. Which two condition are most likely to read to a rise in union bargaining power?

Ans:

2. A European directive which helps establish employer consultation procedures for multinational companies in the EU is which one of the following?

Ans

Monopsony – 3

1. Which one of the following describe a state of the labour market which is often linked to a lower wage for those employed?

Ans:

2. Where the return to the factor is greater than is needed for it to supply itself?

Ans:

Perfect Competition -1

1. Firms in perfect competition faces a:

Ans:

2. In perfect competition:

Ans:

Perfect Competition -2

1. A profit maximizing firm in perfect competition produces where?

Ans:

2. In perfect competition?

Ans:

Perfect Competition -3

In the long run in perfect competition:

Ans:

In perfect competition?

Ans:

Perfect Competition -4

1. In perfect competition?

Ans:

2. In the short run firms in perfect competition will still produce provided:

Ans:

Perfect Competition -5

1. In the long run equilibrium in perfect competition:

Ans:

2. For a perfectly competitive firm:

Ans:

Perfect Competition -6

1. Over the last 15 or 20 years widespread computerization has generally led to

Ans:

2. The perfect competitor’s demand curve is _____a horizontal line.

Ans.

Perfect Competition -7

1. The perfect competitor’s price is set by

Ans:

2. In the short run the perfect competitor/

Ans:

Perfect Competition -8

1. When the perfect competitor is taking a loss, over the long run some firms will

Ans: leave the industry and equilibrium price will rise

2. The perfect competitor always attains peak efficiency in the

Ans: long run

Price Discrimination

1. Advertising can represent a _______cost.

Ans: Sunk

2. Strategic interaction only occurs in __________.

Ans: oligopoly

Prisoners Dilemma

1. In a prisoner’s dilemma with prisoners A and B, if they both confess, A gets 5 years and B gets 8 years. If both remain silent, A gets 2 years and B goes free. If one confesses and the other does not, the one who confesses gets 1 year and the other get 15 years. Which statement is true of this case?

Ans:

2. In baseball game if a pitcher appears to have thrown at an opposing batter it is generally understood that someone one that pitcher’s team will be thrown at happen relatively infrequently over a season. Once each team has made its point the incident is usually forgetting.

Ans:

Profit Maximization

1. Profit is maximum when:

Ans:

2. Profit is maximum when:

Ans:

STACKELBERG MODEL – 1

1. The profits of the leader in a stackelberg duopoly?

Ans:

2. Economist use game theory to predict the behaviour of oligopolists. Which of the following is crucial for the success of the analysis?

Ans:

Stackelberg Model – 2

1. Suppose two type of consumers buy suits. Consumers of type A will pay $100 for a coat, and $50 for pants. Consumers of type B will pay $75 for a coat, and $75 for pants. The firm Selling suits faces no competition and has a marginal cost of zero. If the firm sells coats and pants for $25 each, but offers a bundle containing both a coat and paints for $1.50, how many bundles will the firm sell?

Ans:

2. Suppose two type of consumers buy suits. Consumers of type A will pay $100 for a coat, and $50 for pants. Consumers of type B will pay $75 for a coat, and $75 for pants. The firm Selling suits faces no competition and has a marginal cost of zero. Strategy is?

Ans:

Stackelberg Model – 3

1. A broadway theater sells weekday shows tickets at a lower price than for a weekend show.

This is an example of?

Ans:

2. Which of the following statements about a price matching strategy is incorrect?

Ans:

Stackelberg Model – 4

1. A stable equilibrium in the prisoner’s Dilemma is known as:

Ans:

2. An example of a two person, noncooperative, zero sum game is:

Ans:

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BLOCK-III

MC: marginal cost

Consumer Behavior: Demand Function

1. What is law of Demand?

Ans:

2. Why demand curve Slopes downwards?

Ans:

Budget Constraint

1. A typical indifference curve:

Ans:

2. A utility function shows the relation b/w

Ans:

APPLICATIONS OF INTRODUCTION TO ECONOMIC ANALYSIS

1. The opportunity cost of machine which can produce only one product is:

Ans:

2. The PPF shows:

Ans:

Consumer Equilibrium

1. Consumer is an equilibrium when marginal utilities are the consumption of coke increase, its marginal utility to the drinker will:

Ans:

2. In economics, one or more persons sharing common consumers budget is called?

Ans:

Case Study of Demand Elasticity

1. Consider two goods X and Y. There was no change in price of X, but its demand was seen to fall from 6000 units to 5500 units.

Ans:

2. Consider two goods X and Y. There was no change in price of X, but its demand was seen to fall from 6000 units to 5500 units.

Ans:

Effects on Consumer Behavior

1. Ordinal utilities Analysis was developed by

Ans:

2. “Utility or satisfaction is a subjective concept; therefore it could only be ranked”. The Statement support?

Ans:

Supply Function

1. What is elasticity of supply?

Ans:

2. A Virtual Supply curve means that elasticity of supply?

Ans:

Indifference Curve

1. As the consumption of coke increase, its marginal utility to the drinker will:

Ans:

2. In the world of just two goods, where all income is spent on the two goods, both of them cannot be inferior?

Ans:

Application of consumer equilibrium – 1

1. Substitutions effects takes place when price of the commodity becomes;

Ans:

2. Different quantity purchased at different possible prices of a commodity is called:

Ans:

Application of consumer equilibrium – 2

1. Diagrammatic presentation of demand schedule of an individual buyer of a commodity in the market yield?

Ans:

2. Goods are undemanded because these possess:

Ans:

Case Study – Equilibrium Price and quantity

1. When price is below equilibrium level there will be:

Ans:

2. Price of product is determined in a free market;

Ans:

Cross Elasticity of demand – 1

1. If the cross elasticity of demand is -2:

Ans:

2. The cross price elasticity b/w two products is found to be -1/2. From this you know that the two products are:

Ans:

Consumer Surplus – 1

1. Which best describes consumer surplus?

Ans:

2. Which of the following Statement is NOT true? In the free market change in the price of a product?

Ans:

Consumer Surplus – 2

1. Community Surplus equals:

Ans:

2. Monopoly power in a market is likely to?

Ans:

Conditions for Consumers Equilibrium_1

1. Diagrammatic presentation of demand schedule of an individual buyer of a commodity in the market yields

Ans:

2. Goods are undemand because these possess

Ans:

Cross Elasticity of demand – 2

1. If the cross price elasticity between goods B and A is -2 and the price of good B increase by 5%, the quantity demanded of good A will:

Ans:

2. If a coffee and tea are substitutes, what do we know for certain about the cross elasticity of demand for coffee with respect to the price of tea?

Ans:

Demand Elasticity_part 1

1. Elasticity of demand is determined by all the following factor except:

Ans:

2. Income Elasticity of demand for diamond would be?

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Demand Elasticity_part 2

1. What is cross Elasticity of Demand?

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2. Demand of electricity in elastic because

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Demand Elasticity_part 3

1. What is Econometric method?

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2. What is Barometric method of forecasting?

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Cross Elasticity of demand – 1

1. If the cross elasticity of demand is -2:

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2. The cross price elasticity b/w two products is found to be -1/2. From this you know that the two products are:

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Demand Elasticity – 1

1. Which of the following is likely to have the smallest price elasticity of demand?

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2. A 10 % decrease in the price of a Pepsi decreases the demand for a Coca-Cola by 50 %. The cross elasticity of demand b/w a Pepsi and Coca-Cola is?

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Demand Elasticity – 2

1. A rise in the price of a product lowers the total revenue from the product if the

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2. If a 4% rise in the price of peanut butter lowers the total revenue received by the producers of peanut butter by 4% , the demand for peanut butter?

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Elasticity of Demand – 1

1. If the demand for a good is inelastic, an increase in its price will cause the total expenditure of the consumers of the good to:

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2. The horizontal demand curve parallel to x-axis implies that the elasticity of demand is:

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Elasticity of Demand – 2

1. When the unit price of product X decrease from $6 to $5, its price elasticity of supply is:

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2. The feedback of ‘Anti-Smoking campaign for the youth’ is very successful under huge promotions

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Elasticity of Demand – 3

1. The price elasticity of demand is:

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2. If demand is price elastic, then.

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Income Elasticity – 1

1. The demand for movies is unit elastic if

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2. Unit elastic demand

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Income Elasticity – 2

1. Moving up along a linear demand curve, the price elasticity of demand

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2. If the price elasticity of demand for a product equals 1, as its price rises the

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Income Elasticity – 3

1. Suppose that the quantity of root beer demanded declines from 103,000 gallons per week to 97,000 gallons per week as a consequence of a 10 percent increase in the price of root beer. The price elasticity of demand is

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2. The price elasticity of demand is 5.0 if a 10 % increase in the price results in a _______decrease in the quantity demanded.

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Income Elasticity and Proportion of income spent -1

1. Income elasticity of demand is defined as the responsiveness of:

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2. If the income elasticity of a demand for a good is negative , then the good is:

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Income Elasticity and Proportion of income spent – 2

1. The income elasticity of demand is high

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2. A Product is likely to have a price elasticity of demand that exceeds 1 when

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Income Elasticity and Proportion of income spent -3

1. The income elasticity of demand is the percentage change in

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2. Demand is income elastic if

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Price Elasticity of demand – 1

1. If the price elasticity of demand for some good is estimated to be 4. Then a 1% increase in price will lead to a:

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2. If the price elasticity of demand is unit then a fall in price:

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Price Elasticity of demand – 2

1. The price elasticity of demand is a negative number this means:

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2. Price increase from 10 to 12 pence and the price elasticity demanded was 500 units. What will it be now?

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Price Elasticity of demand – 3

1. If demand is price inelastic?

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2. For an inferior good with a downward sloping demand curve:

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Relationship between MR, AR and Price Elasticity of Demand

1. If an average curve has a negative slope, then the corresponding

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2. If a firm total cost curve is defined by a straight line that has a positive intercept that is equal to fixed cost, then

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Theory of unconstrained maximization

1. Equilibrium:

Ans:

2. A rise in supply and demand in equal proportion will result in:

Ans:

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BLOCK-IV

Introduction to Production Function

1. Which of the following is considered production in economics?

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2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of land?

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Cost and Production Analysis

1. A production function measures the relationship b/w

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2. Is the marginal product is decreasing ,then marginal product.

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Isoquant Cost and Prod Analysis

1. L-shaped isoquants imply that production requires that the inputs are perfect substitutes.

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2. Isoquants that are downward sloping straight line exhibit?

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Economics and Diseconomies of scale

1. Internal economies of scale occur when?

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2. Diseconomies of scale are a sign that

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Laws of Returns to scale through production function

1. Economies of scale exist when

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2. Economies of scope exist when

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Cost Combinations of Inputs

1. Which of the following statement is true regarding the difference between economic and accounting cost?

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2. Which of the following costs always decline as output increases?

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Alternative Theories

1. In Maris’s model the goals of managers and shareholders are seen to be more compatible than in other managerial theories because?

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2. What is the difference b/w Debt ratio and Liquidity Ratio(LR)?

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Behavioral Model of Cryert and March

1. What is Behavioural Model of Cryert and March?

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2. Is the marginal Product is decreasing, then marginal product:

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Theory of Cost.

1. Which of the following is a positive statement?

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2. The opportunity cost of a particular activity e. measure the direct benefits of that activity

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Cost Output Relations

1. When the marginal product of labour is greater than the average product of labour?

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2. The Marginal cost curve intersect the:

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Long run cost output relations

1. A firm encountering economies of scale over some range of output will have

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2. The long run is a period of time in which

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Theory of Firm ? Profit Maximization Model

1. When marginal revenue is equal to 0:

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2. If the marginal revenue is $8, the firm should _______.

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Average Revenue Product and the decision to employ a factor

1. The costs that depend on output in the short run are:

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2. Which of the following is NOT a reason for increasing prices?

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Cobb – Douglas Production Function and Product Exhausion

1. If we have a Cobb-Dougal’s aggregate production function, the term of “constant returns to scale” refers to the fact that?

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2. If we assume a cobb-Douglas production function where the share of labor is ¾ and the share of capital is ¼,then the marginal product of capital can be calculated as:

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Cost Functions_1

1. The marginal product of labor curve shows the change in total product resulting from a:

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2. When the total product curve is falling, the:

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Cost Functions_2

1. When marginal product reaches its maximum, what can be said of total product?

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2. Variable costs are:

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Cost Functions_3

1. Which is not a fixed cost?

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2. If you know that with 8 units of output, average fixed cost is $12.50 and average variable cost is $81.25, then total cost at this output level is:

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Cost Functions_4

1. With fixed costs of $400, a firm has average total costs of $3 and average variable costs of $2.50. its output is:

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2. The reason the marginal cost curve eventually increases as output increases for the typically firm is because?

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Cost minimization for a given output

1. Suppose that a firm produces 200,000 units a year and sells them all for $10 each. The explicit costs of production are $1,500,000 and the implicit costs of production are $300,000.

The firm has an accounting profit of?

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2. The short run is a time period in which:

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Cost of production_1

1. Implicit costs are:

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2. Which would be an implicit cost of firm? The cost:

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Cost of production_2.

1. If a firm’s revenue just cover all its opportunity costs, then:

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2. Suppose a firm sells its product at a price lower than the opportunity cost of the inputs used to produce it. Which is true?

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Demand function of a factor-1

1. For a rational consumer who has to choose between two goods in the context of budget constraints, the price change of one of the goods, caeteries, paribus, will determine:

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2. The price of the product A was reduced from 100 to 90 lei and, as a result, the quantity demanded has increased from 70 to 75 units. The demand is:

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Demand function of a factor-2

1. Which one of the following is a factor of production?

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2. Opportunity cost is:

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Demand function of a factor-3

1. If the demand curve for product A moves to the right , and the price of product B decrease, it can be concluded that:

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2. Suppose the price of a good decreases by 10% and the quantity demanded for a certain period of time increase by 15%. In these conditions?

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Derivation of a demand function for a factor

1. The indifference curve means:

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2. The point located at the intersection of the budget line with the coordinate axes means?

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Economic Efficiency-1

1. Economic growth can be measured by:

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2. In a boom:

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Economic Efficiency-2

1. In a recession, GDP:

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2. To boost growth the government is most likely to?

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` Economic Efficiency-3

1. A Govt. is most likely to use a reflationary policy:

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2. Potential growth measures:

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Equilibrium wage and employment – 1

1. An increase in the wage rate:

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2. A decrease in the supply of labor is likely to lead to:

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Linear Programming

1. Which of the following is a property of all linear programming problems?

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2. A point that satisfies all of a problem’s constraints simultaneously is a(n)?

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Long Run Cost Function – Derivation

1. If the short-run average variable costs of production for a firm are rising, then this indicates that:

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2. If a more efficient technology was discovered by a firm, there would be:

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Output maximization with a given cost

1. The law of diminishing returns states that:

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2. The law of diminishing returns only applies in cases where?

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PRICE OUTPUT DETERMINATION_1

1. Suppose the supply for product A is perfectly elastic. If the demand for this product increase?

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2. If the coefficient of income elasticity of demand is higher than 1 and the revenue increases, the share of expenditure for commodity X in total expenditure:

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Price Output Determination_2

1. If the demand for agricultural products in inelastic:

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2. For a rational consumers who has to choose between two goods in the context of budget constraints, the price change of one of the goods, caeteris paribus, will determine?

Ans:

Production Function-1

1. A production function measures the relation b/w

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2. A short—run production function assumes that……

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Production Function-2

1. If average product is decreasing, then marginal product..

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2. Which of the following statement is true?

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Production Function-3

1. Suppose you operate a sandwich shop and currently have two employees. If you hire a third employees, your output of sandwiches per day rises from 75 to 90. If you hire a fourth employees would causes output to rises to 120 and 125 per day, respectively.

Choose the correct statement:

Ans:

2. The marginal product of labour?

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Production Function-4

1. Diminishing marginal productivity:

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2. Diminishing returns refers to the decrease in:

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Production Function-5

1. If a firm is producing a given level of output in a technically-efficient manner, then it must be the case that:

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2. If a firm is producing a given level of output in an economically-efficient manner, then it must be the case that..

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Production Function-6

1. A short-run cost function assumes that..

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2. Average total cost:

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Returns to scale-1

1. Which of the following is a variable cost?

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2. Which of the following is implicit cost?

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Returns to scale-2

1. If the output levels at which short-run marginal and average cost curves reach a minimum are listed in order from smallest to greatest, then the order would be?

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2. Learning curves represent the relation between

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Returns to scale-3

1. If an input is owned and used by a firm, then it’s?

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2. Short-run marginal cost is equal to?

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Returns to scale-4

1. Short-run average variable cost is equal to:

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2. Which of the following short-run cost curves declines continuously?

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Returns to scale-5

1. The law of diminishing returns begins at the level of output where?

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2. The long-run average cost curve is at a minimum at a level of output where?

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Returns to scale-6

1. If a firm has a downward slopping long-run average cost curve, then

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2. One reason that a firm may experience increasing returns to scale is that greater levels of output make it possible for the firm to?

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Returns to scale-7

1. One reason that a firm may experience decreasing returns to scale is that greater levels of output can result in

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2. Economies of scope refers to the decrease in average total cost that can occur when a firm

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Returns to scale-8

1. Breakeven analysis identifies the

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2. Which of the following is an assumption of linear breakeven analysis?

Ans:

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BLOCK-V

Introduction and Investment Analysis

1. In the context of decision making, which of the following best describe a heuristics?

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2. In our model of decision making under different conditions, what is the difference between risk and uncertainty?

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Investment Analysis

1. The material wealth of a society is equal to the sum of___

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2. Financial intermediaries exists because small investors can’t efficiently ___.

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Investment Decisions under Uncertainty

1. Cost of product that can be added to other large purchase of product is classified as:

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2. When customers evaluate more than one positive dimensions separately is classified.

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Inflation

1. When the general level of prices is rising, we call that

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2. When prices rise slowly and predictably, we call that:

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Concept of Behavioral Economics

1. Way in which choices are seen and presented by a decision maker is classified as:

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2. Customers who loss averse and tend to underweight the

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Macroeconomic Analysis Basic terminologies

1. Which of the following is GDP at current prices?

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2. Which of the following is the term used to describe an addition to a nation’s capital stock?

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Macro-economic Analysis Circular flow of income

1. On the circular flow diagram of the economy, the arrow from the producer sector to the overseas sector usually representation?

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2. The circular flow diagram is a model showing

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Macro-Economic Analysis National Income and Keynesian Model

1. NDPMP will be equal to:

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2. Which of the following is not the form of Tax Revenue?

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Calculating National Product’s

1. The net value of GDP after deducting depreciation from GDP is

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2. When depreciation is deducted from GNP, the net value is:

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Different methods of calculating national income

1. In the value of NNP at consumer point as:

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2. The value of NNP at production point is called:

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Monetary and Fiscal Policy

1. Fiscal policy refers to:

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2. To help fight a recession, the govt. could

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Saving in Consumption Function

1. An increase in the marginal propensity to consume will:

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2. As national income increase:

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Spot and forward Exchange Rate

1. The ____refers to the orderly relationship between spot and forwarded currency exchange rates and the rates of interest between countries?

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2. The ___ is especially well suited to offer hedging protection against transactions risk exposure

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Capital Account Convertibility

1. For regulation of insurance trade in the country has formed:

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2. In the context of an ’Indian-Economy’, open market operation refer to?

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Business Cycles

1. The key issues of macroeconomics are:

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2. In the economy when a steel producers sells steel to car producers, it is regarded as__

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Decision making under risk – 1

1. In our model of decision making under different conditions, what is the difference between risk and uncertainty?

Ans:

2. In the context of decision making, which of the following best describes a heuristic?

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Decision making under risk – 2

1. A Situation in which a decision maker knows all of the possible outcomes of a decision and also known the probability associated with each outcome is referred to as

Ans:

2. Which of the following methods of selecting a strategy is consistent with risk averting behaviour?

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Present value of a single payment

1. To increase a given future value, the discount rate should be adjusted__.

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2. Interest paid on only the original principal borrowed is often referred as___.

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Present Value of a stream of payment

1. Time value of money indicates that?

Ans:

2. Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by?

Ans:

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Quantitative Techniques in Management (EDL 104) – Semester I

April 26, 2020April 26, 2020 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Quantitative Techniques in Management (EDL 104) – Semester I

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BLOCK-I

Basic Concepts of Statistical Studies

1. Statistical tools facilitates__________

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2. Which amongst the following can be considered as the disadvantages of statistics?

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Diagrammatic & Graphical Presentation of Data

1. Data including the ages of students in a particular class can be considered as___

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2. How many types of Tabular methods has been discussed here under the category?

Ans:

Qualitative Data : tabular and graphical methods_part

1. The sum of relative frequency is always equal to 1.

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2. Percentage frequency can be found as_____100

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Qualitative Data : tabular and graphical methods Part 2

1. Relative frequency represent__________________.

Ans:

2. Which amongst the following is true about the Histogram?

Ans:

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BLOCK-II

MEASURES OF LOCATION

1. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency

Ans:

2. Calculate the mean of the following five simple measurements: 5,3,8,5,6:

Ans:

3. Which of the following is an advantage of arithmetic mean?

Ans:

4. Median of odd number term of a series is:

Ans

5. Which of the following is used for computing arithmetic mean in a discreate frequency?

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Measures of Dispersion

1. Which of the following is not a good characteristics of dispersion?

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2. Find the value of range and its coefficient for the data 7,9,6,8,11,10,4

Ans:

3. Which of the following is not a merit of range?

Ans:

4. Dispersion means:

Ans:

5. Weighted means:

Ans:

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BLOCK-III

Forecast seasonal Trend

1. Sessional Trend are caused due to:

Ans:

2. “Traditional habits” influence seasonal trends.

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3. Seasonal variation is measured using:

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4. Seasonal variation is measured using:

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5. Forecasting of seasonal trends includes:

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Measurement of Trend

1. Which of the following is a method of measuring trend?

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2. Which of the following is a method of measuring trends?

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3. For Graphical Method, Time is taken on:

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4. For Graphical Method, values are taken on:

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5. The “Line of Best Fit” is obtained in:

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Qualitative Approach of forecasting

1. _____approach is often used by committees or panels seeking to develop new ideas or solve complex problems.

Ans:

2. Scenario writing consists of developing a conceptual scenario of the future, based on the well-defined set of assumptions

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Sample Correlation & Regression Analysis_Part_1

1. Independent variable is

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2. Regression analysis related:

Ans

3. Dependent variable is:

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4. Scatter Diagram is:

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5. Method of least square is used in:

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Sample Correlation & Regression Analysis_Part_2

1. The correlation coefficient is used to determine?

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2. If there is a very strong correlation between two variables then the correlation coefficient?

Ans:

3. The regression equation that enables us to find out the amount of change in X corresponding to a change in Y is called the____

Ans:

4. SSE can never be:

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5. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the?

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Time Series and components in time series

1. An orderly set of data arranged in accordance with their time of occurrence is called?

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2. A time series consists of:

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3. Secular trend can be measured by:

Ans:

4. Increase in the number of patients in the hospital due to heat stock is:

Ans:

5. The Systematic components of time series which follow regular pattern of variation are called:

Ans:

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BLOCK-IV

Introduction of Probability Theories

1. In probability theories, events which can never occur together are classified as:

Ans:

2. Event such as equal chance of heads or tails while tossing coin is an example of:

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Sampling

1. The difference b/w a statistic and the parameter is called:

Ans:

2. The sum of the frequencies of the frequency distribution of a statistic is equal to:

Ans:

Probability Distributions

1. In random experiment, observation of random variable are classified as:

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2. In binomial distribution, formula of calculating standard deviation is:

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Binomial Distribution

1. In binomial probability distribution, dependents of standard deviation must include:

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2. In binomial probability distribution, success and failure generated by trial is respectively denoted by:

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Poisson Distribution

1. In passion probability distribution, if value of /I is integer then distribution will be:

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2. If numbers of trials are 8 and probability of success is 0.65 then mean of negative probability distribution is:

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Normal Probability Distribution

1. If value of x for normal distribution is 35, mean of normal distribution is 65 and standard deviation is 25 then standardized random variable is:

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2. Normal distribution is also classified as:

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Null hypothesis

1. Any hypothesis which is tested for the purpose of rejection under the assumption that it is true called:

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2. Alpha/2 is called:

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T-Test

1. An independent t-test can be used to assess which of the following?

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2. Conducting multiple t-test increases the likelihood of which of the following:

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ANOVA

1. What do ANOVA calculate?

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2. How many levels must there be in one independent variable for an ANOVA to be used?

Ans:

Non-Parametric Tests

1. What statistics is used to check the significance of the Kruskal-Wallis test?

Ans:

2. If you have nominal data which nonparametric statistics should you use?

Ans:

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Block V

Introduction of Linear Programming

1. Linear programming model which involves funds allocation of limited investment is classified as:

Ans:

2. In transportation models designed in the linear programming , points of demand is classified as:

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Solution of LPP

1. Infeasibility means that the number of solutions to the linear programming models that satisfies all constraints is:

Ans:

2. A constraint that does not affect the feasible region is a:

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Graphical Method _Part_1

1. Whenever all the constraints in a linear programming are expressed as equalities, the linear program is said to be written in

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2. A constraint in an LP model becomes redundant because

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Graphical Method _Part_2

1. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

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2. While solving a LP problem, infeasibility may be removed by

Ans:

Simplex Method_Part_1

1. In simplex method, slack, surplus, and artificial variables are restricted to be:

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2. In simplex method basic solution set as(n-m), all variables other than basic are classified as:

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Simplex Method_Part_2

1. In simplex method, feasible basic solution must satisfy the?

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2. Third requirement of simplex method is that all variables are restricted to include:

Ans:

Simplex Method_Part_3

1. According to algebra of simplex method , slack variables are assigned zero coefficient because

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2. The purpose of the tableau from is to provide:

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Duality

1. In the linear programming, most popular non-graphical procedure is classified as:

Ans

2. In linear programming, term which states values of objectives functions improvement?

Ans:

Assignment Problem & it’s solution_1

1. The optimal solution is found in an assignment matrix when the minimum number of straight lines needed to cover all the zeros equals?

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2. Every basic feasible solution of a general assignment problem, having a square pay-off matrix of order, n should have assignments equal to?

Ans:

Assignment Problem & it’s solution_2

1. The assignments problem?

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2. An assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem, where?

Ans:

Assignment Problem & it’s solution_3

1. The Hungarian Method for solving an assignment problem can also used to solve?

Ans:

2. An optimal solution of an assignment problem can be obtained only if?

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Assignment Problem & it’s solution_4

1. An assignment problem can be solved by:

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2. For a salesman who has to visit n cities which of the following are the way of his tour plan?

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Least Cost Method

1. The distinguishing feature of an LP model is?

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2. One advantage of using North west corner rule to find initial solution to the transportation problem is that?

Ans:

Vogel’s Approximation Method

1. In applying Vogel’s approximation method to a profit maximization problem, row and column penalties are determined by:

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2. The northwest corner rule requires that we start allocating units to shipping routes in the:

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Modi Method

1. The stepping-stone method requires that one or more artificially occupied cells with a flow of zero be created in the transportation tableau when the number of occupied cells is fewer than?

Ans:

2. Which method usually gives a very good solution to the assignment problem?

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Introduction of Operations Research

1. The maximization or minimization of a quantity is the?

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2. The improvement in the value of the objective function per unit increase in a right-hand side is there?

Ans

Introduction of Decision Theory

A graphical method of representing events and courses of action may be referred to as a?

Ans:

2. Which of the following is not a part of decision tree problem specification?

Ans:

Decision Making Environments

1. When customers evaluate more than one positive dimension separately is classified?

Ans:

2. Theory in which consumers make their own alternatives on basis of benefits and failure is classified as:

Ans:

Decision Making under Risk

In our model of decision making under different condition, what is the difference b/w risk and uncertainty?

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2. For a maximization problem, the conservation approach is often referred to as the?

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Decision Making Under Uncertainty

1. A situation in which a decision maker knows all of the possible outcomes of a decision and also knows the probability associated with each outcome is referred to as:

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2. Which one of the following does measure risk?

Ans:

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Management Functions & Behaviour (EDL 101) – Semester I

April 26, 2020April 26, 2020 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Management Functions & Behaviour (EDL 101) – Semester I

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Block I

Concept of Management

1. Modern managers are:

Ans:

2. Coordinating people and human resources to accomplish organizational goals is the process of?

Ans:

3. _______ is the process of getting completed efficiently and effectively with and through other people?

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4. Effectiveness is Synonymous With_____

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5. Efficiency refers to___

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Nature of Management

1. Nature of management can be described as:

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2. Management is Science is characterized by:

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3. Management as Art has these characteristics:

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4. Which one is not the characteristics of Management as Profession:

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5. A manager is responsible not only to its ______ but also to the society.

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Scope of Management

1. Management has scope in ___ the department of an business unit.

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2. In production department scope of management is in:

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3. ___________________ can be regarded as a process of identifying and assessing the consumer needs?

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4. ________________ is concerned with managerial and operative functions:

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5. The main functions of financial management includes:

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Functions of management Planning

1. Planning, Organizing, directing and controlling are there?

Ans:

2. Planning involves defining the organization’s goals, establishing an overall strategy for achieving those goals, and developing a comprehensive set of plans_____

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3. Planning can’t eliminate change. Managers plan in order to____.

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4. _____ facilitates optimum utilization of resources which brings economy in operations?

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5. ______________ requires peeping in future, analyzing it and predicting it.

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Functions of Management_3_Organizing

1. Organizing is the function of management which follows:

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2. Importance of Organizing Functions Include:

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3. Organizational ______helps in clarifying the role positions to every manager.

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4. How many Principles are there in Organizing?

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5. According to the principle, the whole work of concern should be divided amongst the subordinates on the basis of qualification, abilities and skills?

Ans:

Functions of Management_4_Staffing

1. Staffing is the process of choosing _____ people for organization?

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2. Staffing includes:

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3. In the natural of staffing, it includes:

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4. Staffing Keeps lot of importance in an Organization, because:

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5. Which factors considered as internal factor, which affects staffing process in an organization?

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Functions of management Directing

1. Directing is a continues process initiated at____.

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2. ___________ communication helps a manager to understand the subordinates to express their feelings?

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3. Unity of command means getting orders/command from only_ _______supervisor.

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4. There are ____ principles of Directing?

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5. Nature of directing include:

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Functions of Management 5 Controlling

1. Measurement of accomplishment against the standards and correction of deviation?

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2. Controlling is the _____ function of the management process.

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3. Controlling is a ______ process in every organization?

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4. Planning and controlling are _____ functions of a business enterprise?

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5. What is M.B.O?

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Levels of Management

1. All levels of management between the supervisory level and the top level of the organization are termed___________________.

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2. Executive vice president, president, managing director, chief operating officer, chief executive officer, or chairman of the board are position associated with which of the following levels of managements?

Ans

3. The lowest level of management is ________.

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4. Supervisor is another name for whom?

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5. Functions of lower management include:

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Evolution and Foundations

1. _____ is a set of autonomous unit, each typically machine bureaucracies in itself, coordinated by a central headquarter?

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2. Which theory was proposed by Douglas Mc Gregor?

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3. Who proposed the four principles of scientific management?

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4. Evolution of modern management began in the late ______, after the industrial revolution?

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5. Companies started emphasizing individual workers in __________.

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Classical Theories -1

1. Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne experiments?

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2. The schools of management thoughts developed _______ during the period are known as ‘Neo-classical school of thought’,’

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3. Human relation’s School approaches’ Prominent was _____

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4. Contributions of human relation is

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5. Which of the following thinkers believed that leaders are not born but also developed through proper training in human behavior?

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Classical Theories -2

1. According to Max Weber, one of the principle of bureaucracy is:

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2. Which of the following option was created to hire highly trained specialist for the operating core?

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3. Which of these is a characteristics of bureaucracy?

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4. Fayol’s has given _____ Elements of Management?

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5. Functional Foremanship is the concept related to___________

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Neo-Classical Theories -1

1. Which of the following is an example of the Hawthrone experiments?

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2. The school of management thoughts developed________ during the period are known as ‘Neo-classics Schools of Thought’,

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3. Human Relation’s School Approaches’ Prominent advocate was______

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4. Contributions of Human relation is/are

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5. Which of the following thinkers believed that leaders are not born but also developed through proper training in human behaviour?

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NEO-CLASSICAL THEORIES -2

1. Who propounded the Need’s theory?

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2. Which of the following is a need that motivates human behaviour as per the achievement motivation theory?

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3. Which of the Maslow’s needs reflects individuals desires for status, superiority, self-respect, and prestige?

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4. Who has proposed X-Y theory?

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5. Chester Bernard was the _________ of new Jerray Bell Telephone Company?

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Systems Approach to organization

1. According to which approach, management is a logical process and it can be expressed in terms of mathematical symbols and relationship?

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2. System theory treats an organization as a____

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3. __________ was the first person to utilize the systems approach in the fields of management?

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4. An organization is a dynamic system as it is responsive to its environment.

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5. System approach is based on the generalization that everything is_______.

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Modern Organization Theory 1

1. How many factors influence organization in contingency approach?

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2. Modern organization theory is of recent origin, having developed in early _____.

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3. Who said, “The distinctive qualities of modern organization theory are its conceptual analytical base, its reliance on empirical researches data and , above all, its integrating natures”.

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4. Which approach accepts-the dynamics and complexities of the organization structure?

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5. Out of these, which one is not the limitation of the contingency approach?

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Modern Organization Theory 2

1. _________________school is also sometimes called, ‘Operation Research ”or “ Management Science School’.

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2. It uses scientific techniques for providing base for managerial decision?

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3. _________ are used to solve management problems whereas mathematical models were previously used for the purpose.

Ans:

4. Mathematics _____________ provide tools for analysis but they cannot be treated an independent system of management thought.

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5. This approaches does not give any weight age to _______ which plays a dominant role in all organizations?

Ans:

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BLOCK-II

Planning Concepts

1. Planning is the ___ step which is basically a logical think process?

Ans:

2. Planning is deciding best _____ among others to perform different managerial functions:

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3. Planning also involves Knowledge of the company’s resources and the future_____ of the business?

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4. Planning leads to _______of methods and operations for growth and prosperity of the enterprise?

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5. Effective planning can creates an atmosphere ____________ in organization?

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Planning objectives

1. The personal goal aligns with the _________ of completing the subdivision

Ans.

2. In planning , desired results translate into objectives at the various _levels

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3. Planning specifies ______ objectives and assumed the company will meet them as it has in the past.

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4. The technique championed by management expert Peter Drucker and became commonly used in the 1960’s is known as:

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5. MBO is a supervised and _________ activity.

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Planning technique

1. Learning useful planning methods and factors eliminates _____ gap;

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2. There are ____ basic plans that apply to all businesses, large or small.

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3. Strategic plans should be created by _____ only.

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4. A solid marketing plan will help you achieves gross income and_____.

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5. To make business planning come alive and succeed there are ______ simple practices that must be always be employed?

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Organizing – Concepts

1. Which is not among Barnard’s features of organisational authority?

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2. Organizing is the function of management which follows?

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3. What is the duty to act according to the authority that has been given?

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4. Importance of Organizing Function includes?

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5. Organizing aims to serve?

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Organizing Delegation

1. An organizational practice according to which decision making freedom is available to lower level managers is classified as:

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2. Maximum freedom for managers and minimum constraints are main features of:

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3. Which organisational structure is decentralized?

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4. The degree of decentralization is determined by:

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5. Quick Decision-Making includes:

Ans:

Organizing Centralization

1. A process of retaining authority in the hands of a few high level managers is called:

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2. Minimum freedom for managers and maximum constraints are main features are:

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3. Which of the following structure(s) centralized?

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4. Centralized organizations can suffer from the negative effects of several layers of___________.

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5. Centralization hampers the growth and development of___.

Ans:

Organizing decentralization

1. An organization practice according to which decision making freedom is available to lower level managers is classified as:

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2. Maximum freedom for managers and minimum constraints are main features:

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3. Which organisational structure are decentralized?

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4. The degree of decentralization is determine by:

Ans:

5. Quick Decision-making includes:

Ans:

DIRECTING CONCEPT & CHARECTERISTICS

1. Directing is a continuous process initiated at____?

Ans:

2. _______ communication helps a manager to understand the subordinates to express their feeling?

Ans:

3. Unity of command means getting orders from only ____ supervisor.

Ans:

4. There are ____ principles of Directing?

Ans:

5. Nature of Directing includes:

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Control & Coordination

1. Controlling can be defined as __ performance to achieve organizational goals?

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2. Controlling is important & guiding to keep ___ on track?

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3. Control is exercised at ____ level of management?

Ans:

4. Co-ordination is an effort to _____ effectively energies of different groups?

Ans:

5. ______ facilities co-ordinations by integrating the various plans through mutual decision?

Ans:

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BLOCK-III

Learning

1. Human behaviour Usually Learned by observation, shapes their behaviour. This comes under___________?

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2. Learning does not happen all at once, but it builds upon and is shaped by knowledge

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3. The social Learning theory of learning is given by:

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4. The reinforcement theory of learning is given by:

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5. The Classical conditioning theory of learning is given by:

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Perception

1. Perception is the process by human organize their ______ to give meaning to their own environment.

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2. People’s attitude, motives, interest, experiences and expectation affect.

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3. __________________ starts with the initial contact between a mother and her new infant.

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4. Perception is influenced by _____ factors?

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5. Can be defined as changes in the environment; these changes can be detected by us through external or internal manner.

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Personality

1. Genetic or hereditary factors may be more critical for some_______ characteristics

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2. Man comes to form ideas and attitudes according to the environment he lives in.

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3. Every culture exerts a series of general influences upon the who grow up under it.

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4. Which Factors determine the personality of a person:

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5. The ______________ also mould the personality to greater extent, through which an in individual learn various new things?

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Conflict Management

1. Prelude to conflict involves all the factors which possibly arise a _____ among individuals..

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2. Competing is the approach.

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3. Unmanaged or poorly managed conflicts generate a breakdown in trust and lost..

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4. Transactional Analysis is developed by:

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5. The grapevine communication means:

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Motivation and Job performance

1. Motivation is the process of simulating people to actions to accomplish the ______.

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2. Hygiene factors are those job factors which are essential for existence _____ of at workplace.

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3. These needs emerge from society. Man is social animal.

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4. Motivational factors include:

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5. Fredrick Herzberg, a behavioural scientist proposed a two factor theory or the motivator-hygiene theory.

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Co-ordination & Communication1

1. Which of the following options is an important issue in the definition of communication?

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2. Effective communication helps the managers in carrying out which of the basic function?

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3. Which of these is an electronic mode of communication?

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4. Effective communication plays a very important role in achieving ___.

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5. Effective communication also reduce the____.

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Decision Making

1. An individual while making any _____ uses his own intuition and views?

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2. ________ play important roles as they determine both organizational and managerial activities:

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3. Individuals have a tendency to think and question before______.

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4. Tactical decision is a decision:

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5. Individuals decision making saves ______ and energy.

Ans:

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BLOCK-IV

Group Processes & Introduction to team1

1. Group are almost always a _____ of a larger organization .

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2. A group is a based on the concept of a synergy to attain the____________.

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3. The buy in of the _____ is far better in a group process.

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4. Individuals who are not _____ with each other can never form a team.

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5. How many stages are there in team development?

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Leadership

1. Because leading is one of the four basic managerial functions, _______ leaders?

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2. Leaders are______.

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3. Behavioural theories of leadership focused on________.

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4. Which leadership style tends to centralize authority and make unilateral decision?

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5. A democratic consultative leader

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Power and Politics

1. Power is:

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2. Which of the following is not implied in the definition of power?

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3. Which of the following is true concerning power?

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4. Formal power can come from:

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5. The most important aspect of power is that it?

Ans:

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BLOCK-V

Organizational Structure

ORG. _______ can also be considered as the viewing glass or perspective.

Ans:

2. It frees the manager and the individual workers to concentrate on their respective roles and responsibility.

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3. _______ point’s are their in importance of organizational Structure.

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4. Purpose of Organizational structure includes:

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5. Proper Balancing include:

Ans:

Organizational Design & Organizational Culture

1. An organisational practice according to which decision making freedom is available to lower level managers is classified as:

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2. The process of dividing the work and then grouping them into units and subunits for the purpose of administration is known as:

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3. Organisational design is based on decision about______.

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4. Every organization has its unique style of working which often contributes to its ______.

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5. There are _____ objectives of organizational design.

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Delegation of Authority

1. Decentralized is not the same as______.

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2. Implication of centralized includes:

Ans:

3. Creating Responsibility and accountability include:

Ans:

4. Granting of authority includes:

Ans:

5. How many steps are there in delegation?

Ans:

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INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY OF MANAGERS

April 26, 2020April 26, 2020 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY OF MANAGERS

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BLOCK-I

Introduction to Computer

1. What does the Computer Process?

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2. Which function make computer high?

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Architecture of Computer

1. Which of the following is not a part of basic computer architecture?

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2. Which features of computer is basics of robots?

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Central Processing Unit (CPU)

1. Which term gives “Number of instruction processed in a given second”?

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2. What do control unit do?

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Memory

1. Which is the main memory of the computer?

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2. Cache memory act as:

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Primary Memory- RAM

1. Which memory needs to be refreshed to retain the data?

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2. Which memory is used as cache

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Primary Memory-ROM

1. Which Rom is erasable

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2. Which memory execute only read function?

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Input Devices

1. Which are the input devices?

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2. What is the full form of OCR.

Ans:

Output Devices

1. Which among is the following output devices?

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2. Which is correct type of output.

Ans:

Logic gates part 1

1. Which statement is true for logic gates?

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2. What does the truth table represents?

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Logic gates part 2

1. Which gate will have output Y=A.B

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2. Which gate is used in full adder and subtractor?

Ans:

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BLOCK-II

COMPUTER SOFTWARES:

1. Which of the following is an example of System Software?

Ans:

2. What are program?

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Programming Language

1. Which of the following is not a Low level language?

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2. Which generation uses visual tools to generate program?

Ans:

Operating Systems

1. Operating System coordinates data to and from RAM. What role is it playing?

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2. Which is not task of operating system?

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Types of Operating System

1. WWE is an example of which type of operating system?

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2. Which operating system will be well defined with fixed time constraints?

Ans:

Database management system

1. Which is not a task of DBMS?

Ans:

2. What is not an ACID properties?

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COMPONENT OF DBMS:

1. Which of the following is not a database application?

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2. How does database manage the resource?

Ans:

DBMS : Schema

1. Which abstraction level describe the users perspective?

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2. Programmers work at which schema?

Ans

Data Models

1. Which is extension of hierarchal model?

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2. Which statement is TRUE for network model?

Ans:

DBMS: Relational Model

1. What is the basics structure of relational database model?

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2. What are row in relation model.

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DBMS:ER Model

1. What does the notation signify.

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2. What is minimal super Key?

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DBMS:ER Model- Cardinality

1. What is represented by double line?

Ans:

2. What is cardinality?

Ans :

SQL queries

1. Which is required to filter the records in database?

Ans:

2. What does grant command do?

Ans:

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BLOCK –III

Computer Network

1. What is the agreement b/w sender and receiver?

Ans:

2. Which of the following task is not carried by protocols?

Ans:

NETWORK TOPOLOGIES:

1. Guess the topology, ”Devices are connected to a single hub through a cable”?

Ans:

2. Which statement is true for tree topologies?

Ans:

OSI model

Which layer is responsible for syntax and semantic

Ans:

2. What is present at data link layer?

Ans:

Layers of OSI model

Which layer is responsible for syntax and semantic?

Ans:

2. What is present at data link layer?

Ans:

Internet, Intranet and Extranet

1. Virtual private network connected to internet is an example of which net?

Ans:

2. Which network have minimum connected devices

Ans:

World Wide Web

1. Which of the following is an optional field in URL?

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2. Collection of linked web pages are known as?

Ans:

HTML

1. Which tag represents heading in HTML?

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2. Which statement is true for END TAG?

Ans:

WIRELESS COMMUNICATION – WAP PROTOCOL

1. WAP is optimized for device with?

Ans:

2. What are WML?

Ans:

WAP Model

1. What are the WAP Gateway?

Ans:

2. Which protocol are used on the Internet standard communication

Ans:

WAP_Architecture

1. Which layer is useful content Developers?

Ans:

2. What is the role of Security layers?

Ans:

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BLOCK- IV

Management Information System

1. Long term perspective of the organization is which kind of information?

Ans:

2. Which is not a characteristics of MIS?

Ans:

Levels of MIS

1. Middle level managements includes?

Ans:

2. Who are considered as brain of the Organization

Ans:

Information System

1. Which is the charactestices of information system.

Ans:

2. What do you mean by “series of steps undertaken to achieve goal”?

Ans:

Types of Information system

1. Which of the following is a specialized decision support system?

Ans:

2. Which transaction processing system keeps track of inventory level?

Ans:

Types of Information System part2

1. MIS is used for?

Ans:

2. Which are the activities carried by executive in office automation?

Ans:

Decision Support System (DSS)

1. What are the programmed decision?

Ans:

2. What does DSS do?

Ans:

ERP

1. Which ERP goals targets at acquiring of customers?

Ans:

2. ERP is planning and Execution of?

Ans:

Business value of ERP:

1. Which of the following statement is true of ERP?

Ans:

2. Which is not correct value provided by ERP to business.?

Ans:

Supply Chain Management (SCM)_Introduction

1. Which of the following is not part of SCM?

Ans:

2. Which is a component of SCM?

Ans:

Supply Chain Management (SCM)_Features and Product Flow

1. Which flow is “credit terms”?

Ans:

2. Which is not a feature of SCM?

Ans:

Electronic Supply Chain Management (e-SCM)

1. A company can advertise about the product in e-SCM by which mean?

Ans:

2. Which factor was responsible for emergency of electronic SCM?

Ans:

Activities and Tools of E-SCM

1. Which tool are responsible to manage the flow of information in an organization?

Ans:

2. Which Activity is not a part of e-procurement?

Ans:

Customer relationship management (CRM)

1. Which of the following is not goal of CRM?

Ans:

2. Which of the following given set are ”Front office operations ”?

Ans:

Types of CRM

1. Data marts are which type of CRM?

Ans:

2. Operational CRM includes?

Ans:

Approaches of CRM

1. What all approaches of CRM are there?

Ans:

2. The process driven approach of CRM is based on which factors?

Ans:

Electronic Customer relationship management (e-CRM)

1. Which statement justify the E-CRM?

Ans:

2. Which statement is true?

Ans:

e-CRM_benefits and implementation

1. Which of the following is to be considered while implementing E-CRM?

Ans:

2. Which is a benefit provided by E_CRM?

Ans:

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BLOCK-V

E commerce

1. Which what is not a features of E-commerce?

Ans:

2. What E-commerce is known as?

Ans:

Business Model of E commerce

1. Which is an example of B2B model?

Ans:

2. In which model business fulfill the requirement of the customers?

Ans:

Benefits of e commerce

1. How e-commerce directly beneficial to organization?

Ans:

2. How E-commerce is contributing in environment saving?

Ans:

Limitations of Electronic Commerce

1. Which is technical limitation of using E-commerce?

Ans:

2. What do you mean by user resistance?

Ans:

Processes in e commerce

1. What do you mean by E-publishing?

Ans:

2. Storing of digital content to be shared later is known as?

Ans:

Electronic Data Interchange

1. Which statement directly clarify that EDI is responsible for lowering the cost of business processes?

Ans:

2. What is data element?

Ans:

M Commerce

1. Which word defines M-commerce?

Ans:

2. Which is important point to be considered in M-commerce?

Ans:

factors, benefits and limitations

1. Which factor is not responsible for Emergence of M-commerce?

Ans:

2. Which statement is true for M-commerce?

Ans

E-Governance

1. What does E-governance promise to citizen?

Ans:

2. How do govt. deliver information in e-governance?

Ans:

Types of e-governance

1. Which G2E expansion ensures tax details of an employee?

Ans:

2. Which of the following is a variant of B2B model?

Ans:

Objective and benefits of E governance

1. What do you mean by “M” in SMARRT?

Ans:

2. is answerable to people and people have right to know what govt. does. Which term explains the above line?

Ans:

challenges of E governance

1. Lack of communication is a challenge in E-governance. Which statement justify it?

Ans:

2. Why is it difficult to create citizen’s database?

Ans:

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ACCOUNTING FOR MANAGERS

April 26, 2020April 26, 2020 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

ACCOUNTING FOR MANAGERS

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BLOCK-I

Financial Accounting Introduction

1. Balance Sheet is a Statement of

Ans:

2. Balance Sheet are prepared

Ans:

3. The Trading and profit and loss account is also called?

Ans:

4. One of the detailed rules used to record business transaction is.

Ans:

5. Which of the following companies has to pay corporation tax?

Ans:

Basic Accounting Terms

1. Which of the following jobs check accounting in ledgers and financial statement?

Ans

2. The process of account is needed to

Ans:

3. Which of the following principle assumes that a business will continue for a long time?

Ans:

4. Which of the following user assesses the attractiveness of investing in a business?

Ans:

5. Accountant uses Generally Accepted Accounting Principles(GAAP) to make the financial information communicated

Ans:

Accounting Process

1. Three key activity of the accountant function are identifying transactions, recording transactions, and communicating transactions, the proper order for these activities is considered to be which of the following?

Ans:

2. Which one of the following users of accounting information is considered to be an external user of accounting information rather than an internal user of accounting information?

Ans:

3. All of the following people can properly be called managers. Which one of the following individuals is not considered an internal user of accounting information?

Ans:

4. If during the current accounting period the company’s assets increased by 24,000, and equity increase by 5,000,then how did liabilities change?

Ans:

5. If at the end of the accounting period the company’s liabilities total 19,000 and its equity totals 40,000,then what must be the total of assets?

Ans:

Journal Entries Numerical

1. The following is the type of journal

Ans:

2. The process of entering all transactions from the journal to ledger is called

Ans:

3. Which of the following items are used to prepare a balance sheet?

Ans:

4. Which of the following concepts uses the rules ‘every transactions affects two or more ledger accounts’ ?

Ans:

5. A debit note is a document made out when goods are

Ans:

Subsidiary Books of Accounts

1. The sales income of a business during a given period is called

Ans:

2. Any Written evidence in support of a business transaction is called

Ans:

3. The accounting that record expenses, gain and loss are

Ans:

Real account reads?

Ans:

4. In journal, the business transaction is recorded

Ans:

Trial Balance

1. After the preparation of ledgers, the next step is the preparation of ______________

Ans:

2. After preparing the trial balance the accountant finds that’s the total of debit side is short by INR. 1,500. The difference will be_____________

Ans:

Trial Balance – Illustration

1. Trial balance is prepared to check accuracy of

Ans:

2. ________ is the common base for preparing a trial balance.

Ans:

Bank Reconciliation Statement

1. A cash deposits made by business appears on the bank statement as____ balance.

Ans:

2. Bank reconciliation statement is the comparison of a bank statement with the________

Ans:

3. A check returned by bank marked “NSF” means

Ans:

4. Bank reconciliation statement is prepared by

Ans:

5. Bank charges amounting to $5000 was not entered in the cash book.

Ans:

Depreciation

1. The main object of providing depreciation is :

Ans:

2. Depreciation arises because of:

Ans:

3. Under the straight line method of providing depreciation it

Ans:

4. The amount of depreciation charged on a machinery will be debited to:

Ans:

5. Which of the following assets does not depreciate?

Ans:

Financial Statements and their Nature

1. The long term assets that have no physical existence but are right that have value is known as

Ans:

2. Patents, Copyright and trademark are?

Ans:

3. The debts, which are to be repaid within a short period are known as

Ans:

4. The following is a statement showing the financial status of the company at any given time?

Ans:

5. The following statement of revenues and expenses for a specific period of time.

Ans:

Fixed Assets

1. Loss on sale of machinery will be?

Ans:

2. All personal, real and nominal account are opened in

Ans:

3. Stock on the date of a valuation is Rs 2,70,000.it had been undervalued by 10%. Actual value is_________

Ans:

4. An example of fixed assets is

Ans:

5. Liquid or Quick assets=

Ans:

Revenue & expenses (AS 9 )& Expenses

1. Sales expenditure budget is prepared by estimating the expense(s) of

Ans:

2. A machinery is purchased for Rs 3,00,000 and Rs 50,000 is spent on its installation. Rs 5,000 is spent on fuel . What will be the amount of capital expenditure?

Ans:

3. A credit sale of goods to Mahindra should be debited to..

Ans:

4. Profit can be fraudulently inflated by

Ans:

5. A withdraw of cash from business by the proprietor of the firm should be credited to

Ans:

Manufacturing part 1

1. Which of the following shows summary of a company’s financial position at a specific data?

Ans:

2. Which of the following financial statement summarizes the profitability of an organization for a particular period?

Ans:

3. When a Liability is reduced or decreased, it is recorded on the :

Ans:

4. Which of the following books of original entry should be used to record credit sales?

Ans:

5. Credit notes issued for goods returned to a supplier will be entered firstly in the

Ans:

Manufacturing part 2

1. Outstanding rent A/c is an example for:

Ans:

2. The giving aspect in a transaction is called as:

Ans:

3. Cash Book is to record the:

Ans:

4. Sales book is to record the:

Ans:

5. When equity is subtracted from total assets the amount remaining is known as which of the following?

Ans:

Illustration 2 Trading, P&L and balance sheet Numerical

1. Petty Cash may be used to pay

Ans:

2. Immediately after purchasing a new truck 20,000 is paid to have the name of the company and other advertising material painted on the truck this Rs.20,000 is a

Ans:

3. Bill receivable Book is a part of the

Ans:

4. Goodwill account is a

Ans:

5. Bank overdraft account is a

Ans:

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BLOCK-II

Financial Ratio Analysis

1. In last year the current ratio was 3:1 and quick ratio was 2:1. Presently current ratio is 3:1 and quick ratio is 1:1. This indicates comparably

Ans:

2. The degree of solvency of two firms can be compared by measuring

Ans:

3. Proprietary ratio is calculated by

Ans:

4. Current ratio of a concern is 1, its net working capital will be

Ans:

5. Current ratio is 4:1. Net Working Capital is Rs 30,000. Find the amount of current Assets.

Ans:

Profitability Ratios_part_1

1. Quick ratio is 18:1, current ratio is 2.7:1 and current liabilities are Rs 60,,000.Determine value of stock

Ans:

2. Collection of debtors

Ans:

3. Overall Profitability ratio are based on

Ans:

4. Return on Proprietor’s funds is also known as:

Ans:

5. While calculating Earnings per share, if both equity and preference share capitals are there, then

Ans:

Profitability Ratios_part_2

1. Net profit ratio is calculated by

Ans:

2. If sales is Rs 5,00,000 and net profit is Rs 1,20,000 Net Profit ratio is

Ans:

3. If sales is Rs 10,00,000,sales return is Rs 50,000,Profit Before Tax is Rs 2,00,000.

Income tax is 40%,Net profit ratio is

Ans:

4. Operating ratio is calculated by=

Ans:

5. Determine Operating Ratio, if operating expenses is Rs 60,000, sales is Rs 94,000, Sales Return is Rs 40,000 and cost of net goods sold is Rs 6,60,000.

Ans:

Activity Or turnover ratio

1. Debt Equity Ratio is 3:1, the amount of total assets Rs 20 lacs, current ratio is 1.5:1 and owned funds Rs 3 lac. What is the amount of current assets?

Ans:

2. In the Balance sheet of a firm, the debt equity ratio is 2:1. The amount of long term sources is Rs 12 lac. What is the amount of tangible net worth of the firm?

Ans:

3. Banks generally prefer Debt Equity Ratio at:

Ans:

4. If a compony issues bonus shares the debt equity ratio will

Ans:

5. An assets is?

Ans:

Liquidity, Activity, Capital Structure

1. A very High current ratio indicates

Ans:

2. Quick Assets do not include

Ans:

3. Financial leverage means

Ans:

4. In the balance sheet of amount of total assets is Rs 10 lac, current liabilities Rs 5 Lac & capital & Reserves are 2 lac. What is the debt equity ratio?

Ans:

5. Which ratio is considered as safe margin of solvency?

Ans:

Ratio Analysis( Practical Illustrations)

1. Current ratio is 2.5. Current liabilities is Rs.30000. The net working capital is

Ans:

2. The ideal quick ratio is

Ans:

3. The ideal level of current ratio is

Ans:

4. Liquid ratio is also known as

Ans:

5. The ideal level of liquid ratio is

Ans:

Cash Flow Statement (AS 3)

1. As per Accounting Standard-3, cash Flow is classified into

Ans:

2. Cash Flow Statement is also known as

Ans:

3. Cash Flow Statement is based upon

Ans:

4. Statement of changes in working capital is prepared separately in

Ans:

5. The Objectives of cash Flow Statements are

Ans:

Cash Flow Statement Illustration-1

1. Cash flow statement is based upon ________while Funds Flow Statement recognise_____.

Ans:

2. Statement of changes in working capital is prepared by

Ans:

3. ___reconciles the opening cash balance with the closing cash balance of a given period on the basis of net decrease or increase in cash during that period?

Ans:

4. Cash outflow on purchases is calculated by

Ans:

5. The amount of operating expenses which are actually been paid in case are shown under:

Ans:

Cash Flow Statement Illustration-2

1. Cash Flow Statement is prepared from

Ans:

2. Matches the column

Taxes paid ________i) Cash flow investing activities

Repayment of loans _________ii) Cash flow from operating activities

Sale of fixed assets__________ iii) Cash Flow from financing activities

Ans:

3. For the calculation of cash flow from operating activities, payment and receipt shown in Profit & Loss account are converted into payments and receipts actually in cash by eliminating

Ans:

4. While preparing Cash Flow Statement, non-Cash items and non-operating items are not required to be adjusted under ___________________

Ans:

5. Cash Flow from sales is calculated by

Ans:

Comparative income & balance sheet Statement

1. The analysis and interpretations of the financial statement will reveal

Ans:

2. Which of the following is the main objectives of a financial statement

Ans:

Common Size Statement- Illustration (case)

1. The process of explaining the meaning, significance and relationship between two financial factors is called_________

Ans:

2. Which technique used for figure of Two or more periods are placed side by side to facilitate easy and meaningful comparison?

Ans:

Trend Ratio Analysis

1. Comparision of financial statement highlight the trend of the __________ of the business.

Ans:

2. Trend percentages and trend ratio are used in

Ans:

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BLOCK-III

Cost accounting

1. Cost Accounting is an integral part of

Ans:

2. Cost accounting involves_

Ans:

3. One of the following is NOT an objective of cost accounting

Ans:

4. Material cost do Not includes cost of

Ans:

5. Which one of the following is a direct expense?

Ans:

Classification of cost

1. Cost which is related to specific cost object and economically traceable is classified as:

Ans:

2. Costs are classified as fixed or variable on basis of

Ans:

3. Process of tracing direct costs and allocation of indirect cost is classified as

Ans:

4. In accounting, cost which is predicted to be incurred or future cost is classified as:

Ans:

5. Cost which is related to specific cost object and cannot be economically traceable is classified as

Ans:

Elements of Cost

1. Cost accounting provides all of the information except

Ans:

2. Which of the following is cost behaviour oriented approach to product costing

Ans:

3. The total of all direct expense is known as ________cost

Ans:

4. ____________________costs are partly fixed and partly variable In relation to Output

Ans:

5. Depreciation is ______ Expenditure

Ans:

cost sheet

1. Process of assigning indirect costs to any specific cost object is classified as

Ans:

2. Direct cost assignment for specific cost object is classified as

Ans:

3. In accounting, cost incurred in past or in historical financial statement is classified as:

Ans:

4. Collection of cost data according system in an organized way is classified as

Ans:

5. Cost accounting mainly helps the management in

Ans:

Inventory

1. Which type of inventory system is updated inventory System?

Ans:

2. Which type of inventory system requires updating the inventory balance at the end of the accounting period?

Ans:

Methods of Inventory Valuation (AS 2)

1. What does FIFO mean?

Ans:

2. Which one of the following methods for inventory valuation may be misleading when the units are identical?

Ans:

ABC Analysis

1. ABC analysis is used in______

Ans:

2. ABC analysis is used in

Ans:

Maximum and Minimum Level

1. Activities related to coordinating, controlling and planning flow of inventory are classified as:

Ans:

2. ‘Buffer-Stock’ is the level of stock

Ans:

Job and Contract Costing

1. In case product produced or jobs undertaken are of diverse nature, the system of costing to be used should be

Ans:

2. Job costing is similar to that under batch costing except with the difference that a

Ans:

Process Costing-II

1. Spoilage that occurs under inefficient operating condition and is ordinarily controllable is called

Ans:

2. An abnormal gain in a process occurs in which of the following situation

Ans:

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BLOCK -IV

Budgeting

1. Difference b/w budgeted amount and actual results are classified as:

Ans:

2. Flexible budgeted variance for revenue of company is classified as

Ans:

3. A manager who is responsible for only cost of company is classified as:

Ans:

4. In budgeted fixed overhead rate, number of machine hours is considered as

Ans:

5. An actual quantity of cost allocation base in INR 56000 and budgeted quantity of cost allocation base in inr 17000 then variable overhead

Ans:

Classification of Budget

1. The classification of fixed and variable cost is useful for the preparation of

Ans:

2. Budget manual is a document

Ans:

BUDGET RATIO

1. Efficiency Ratio is

Ans:

2. Activity ratio depicts

Ans:

STANDARD COST

1. Standard costing committee is responsible for

Ans:

2. The units standard costs?

Ans:

3. In setting price standards, the purchasing manager must consider

Ans:

4. When standard costs are used, the amount of detailed record keeping will normally?

Ans:

5. Which of the following statements are true about standard labour time?

Ans:

Standard Costing

1. Under standard cost system the cost of the product determined at the beginning of production is its?

Ans:

2. The deviation between actual and standard cost is known as:

Ans:

Variance Analysis

1. Variances indicates

Ans:

2. When actual price is higher or lower than the standard price, then it is

Ans:

3. Volume variance arises when

Ans:

4. The corrective actions after the analysis of variances has to be taken by

Ans:

5. When actual price is higher or lower than the standard price, then it is

Ans:

Variance Analysis-Material

1. Which of the following variance arises when more than one material is used in the manufacture of a product

Ans:

2. Basic Stand are

Ans:

Labour Cost Variance

1. If standard hours for 100 units of output are 400@ Rs. 2 per hour and actual hours take are 380 @ Rs.2.25 per, then the labour rate variance is

Ans:

2. Idle time variance is obtain by multiplying

Ans:

Material and labour cost Variance- illustration

1. If standard hours for 100 units of output are 400@ Rs. 2 per hour and actual hours take are 380 @ Rs.2.25 per, then the labour rate variance is

Ans:

2. Which of the following variance arises when more than one material is used in the manufacture of a product

Ans:

Sales Variance and overhead variances- illustration

1. Standard quantity of material for one unit of output is 10 kgs. @INR 8 per kg. Actual output during a given period is 800 units . The standards quantity of raw material

Ans:

2. Cost variance is difference b/w

Ans:

Marginal Costing

1. Marginal cots is taken as equal to

Ans:

2. If the cost of 100 units is Rs 5000 and those of 101 units is Rs 5030 then increase of Rs 30 in total cost is

Ans:

3. Marginal cost is computed as

Ans:

4. Marginal costing is also known as

Ans:

5. Which of the following statements are true?

Ans:

Application of Marginal Costing in Decision Making ?1

1. Under marginal costing the cost of product includes

Ans:

2. The main difference b/w marginal costing and absorption costing is regarding the treatment of

Ans:

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BLOCK-V

Cost Volume Profit Analysis

1. Under profit volume ratio, the term profit

Ans:

2. Factor Which can change the break-even point

Ans:

Emergence of Management Accounting

1. Planning and control are done by

Ans:

2. Describe making concern the

Ans:

3. Decision making is involved in the following function/s of management

Ans:

4. This function works like a policeman to ensure the performance of the employees.

Ans:

5. Purpose of management accounting is to

Ans:

Activity Base Costing

1. A cost driver is:

Ans:

2. In activity based costing, costs are accumulated by activity using:

Ans:

Stages in Activity Base Costing

1. Steps in ABC includes:

Ans:

2. Which of the following is not a benefit of ABC?

Ans:

Practical Problem-1 PV ratio, BEP and Margin of safety

1. The term gross margin refers to…

Ans:

2. Sales of Rs. 100000, variable cost Rs. 50000 and net profit ratio is 10% on sales, find out fixed cost.

Ans:

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Business Communication (OEDL 106)- Semester I

April 9, 2020April 11, 2020 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Business Communication (OEDL 106)- Semester I

Case Study

All of us do some kind of work to ward off starvation or to gain sufficient material wealth with a view to
maintaining that standard of living which our physical and intellectual powers have helped us to reach.
But there is another kind of work which is completely divorced from the burdensome process of our
livelihood and which is undertaken for the sake of amusement or interest or the direction of our surplus
stores of energy in some new and useful channels of refined tastes. This delightful occupation, ie
combining work with pleasure or hobby, as it is properly termed, calls for the application of our highest
faculties, and gives proper form to our healthy instincts, purposeful habits and disciplined behaviour. In
our carefree and vacant hours it allows these faculties to perform their natural functions and to display
their instinctive greatness. We devote our leisure to the pursuit of this pleasant task and derive
advantages which compare favourably with those we obtain from the bread-earning routine of our daily
life. Hobbies widen the sphere of our cultural activities, give refinement to our tastes and show us the
path that leads to our systematic mental and moral development. Our tendencies and inclinations also
find in them an outlet for a healthy and progressive expression.

“A hobby is a favourite or occupation that is not one’s main business.” In this age of machinery which
has taken upon itself most of the laborious duties of physical exertion formally performed by man, then
creating for him pleasant intervals of rest and leisure, it should not be difficult for him to devote some
time to the pursuit of a new interest that can add some charm, colour or zest to is life. The spare time
must not be frittered away in idleness or spent on such work as overtaxes his mind and body after they
have performed their normal functions for the day. The new interest will be worthwhile only if it
provides relaxation and change from ordinary occupation, banishes the drabness of routine work and
produces a feeling that life is both charming and meaningful.

means of ordinary people who can ill afford to spend large sums of money on them. Not a few are
incompatible with our temperament and taste. We must not, therefore, allow the glamour of certain
hobbies to blind us to their reality, howsoever tempting they may appear to us, not should we begin to
cherish them thoughtlessly because we find other people so devotedly attached to them. In the first
flush of enthusiasm may have rushed into unsuitable hobbies only to find themselves turning away from
them in a state of great disillusionment. In a few rare and exceptional cases a sudden and instinctive
choice of some hobby sometimes proves to be the right one. We must not however, forget that
tinkering with the hobby is joyless and wasteful process, unattended by any appreciable gains. Scattered
interests in half a dozen or more odd hobbies is also not a desirable end.

Question 1: Communication is an exchange of______

a. Ideas
b. Information
c. Opinion
d. All of them

Question 2:What is the correct terminology for the collective understanding of upward and downward
communications?

a. External communication
b. Internal communication
c. Vertical Communication
d. Horizonatal communication

Question 3:Which are the main barriers for communication?

a. Language barrier
b. Cultural barrier
c. Individual barrier
d. All of them

Question 4:Which of the following should one do for breaking the barrier?

a. Be a fixer
b. Be a daydreamer
c. Get proper feedaback
d. Use too many technical jargons

Question 5:Which of these are basic principles for effective communication?

a. Know your audience
b. Know your purpose
c. Know your topic
d. All of them

Question 6:Which of these are the principles for clarity of communication?

a. Correct language
b. Proper punctuation
c. Check accuracy of fact and figures
d. All of them

Question 7:Which of these is a type of business conversation?

a. Office meetings
b. Interviews
c. Seminars
d. All of them

Question 8:Which of these is a type of communication?

a. Internal communication
b. Organization communication
c. Agreement communication
d. Sales communication

Question 9:Which of these is not the 7c's of effective communication?

a. Correctness
b. Clarity
c. Courtesy
d. Complicity CORRECT
Question 10:Who defines non-verbal communication as "the transmission of messages through means
other than words"?

a. Sigmund Freud
b. Andrew Dubrin
c. Carl Jung
d. Jacques Lacan

Case Study
All of us do some kind of work to ward off starvation or to gain sufficient material wealth with a view to
maintaining that standard of living which our physical and intellectual powers have helped us to reach.
But there is another kind of work which is completely divorced from the burdensome process of our
livelihood and which is undertaken for the sake of amusement or interest or the direction of our surplus
stores of energy in some new and useful channels of refined tastes. This delightful occupation, ie
combining work with pleasure or hobby, as it is properly termed, calls for the application of our highest
faculties, and gives proper form to our healthy instincts, purposeful habits and disciplined behaviour. In
our carefree and vacant hours it allows these faculties to perform their natural functions and to display
their instinctive greatness. We devote our leisure to the pursuit of this pleasant task and derive
advantages which compare favourably with those we obtain from the bread-earning routine of our daily
life. Hobbies widen the sphere of our cultural activities, give refinement to our tastes and show us the
path that leads to our systematic mental and moral development. Our tendencies and inclinations also
find in them an outlet for a healthy and progressive expression.

tinkering with the hobby is joyless and wasteful process, unattended by any appreciable gains. Scattered
interests in half a dozen or more odd hobbies is also not a desirable end.

Question 1: Auditory communication is dependent on
a. Gestures
b. Hearing
c. Ideas
d. Pitch

Question 2: In oral communication speaker must be confident enough for the
a. Content
b. attitudes
c. Feelings of audience
d. The place

Question 3:Oral communication allows instantaneous exchange of
a. Opinions
b. attitudes
c. Feelings
d. All of the above

Question 4: The feedback provided by the receiver will reassure the sender that the message has been:
a. Received
b. Comprehended
c. Correctly interpreted
d. All of the above

Question 5:Verbal mode of communication may have barrier in delivering the proper message such as
a. Thoughts
b. Perceptions
c. Emotions
d. All of the above

Question 6: Vocabulary, grammar, style and format are the major elements of
a. Oral
b. Written Communication
c. verbal
d. All of the above

Question 7: What can be the format for internal communication in the organization?
a. Memo writing
b. Report writing
c. Bulletins
d. All of the above

Question 8: What is/are the major elements of oral communication?
a. Pitch
b. Volume
c. Clarity
d. All of the above

Question 9: Written communication include
a. signs and symbols
b. Monologue
c. Printed and hand written matter
d. Speech

Question 10 :____________ is a type of verbal communication
a. Oral communication
b. Written Communication
c. Body language
d. Both a and b (oral communication and body language)
100 out of 100
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MODULE III: ENGLISH FOR EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION
Case Study
All of us do some kind of work to ward off starvation or to gain sufficient material wealth with a view to maintaining that standard of living which our physical and intellectual powers have helped us to reach. But there is another kind of work which is completely divorced from the burdensome process of our livelihood and which is undertaken for the sake of amusement or interest or the direction of our surplus stores of energy in some new and useful channels of refined tastes. This delightful occupation, ie combining work with pleasure or hobby, as it is properly termed, calls for the application of our highest faculties, and gives proper form to our healthy instincts, purposeful habits and disciplined behaviour. In our carefree and vacant hours it allows these faculties to perform their natural functions and to display their instinctive greatness. We devote our leisure to the pursuit of this pleasant task and derive advantages which compare favourably with those we obtain from the bread-earning routine of our daily life. Hobbies widen the sphere of our cultural activities, give refinement to our tastes and show us the path that leads to our systematic mental and moral development. Our tendencies and inclinations also find in them an outlet for a healthy and progressive expression.

“A hobby is a favourite or occupation that is not one’s main business.” In this age of machinery which has taken upon itself most of the laborious duties of physical exertion formally performed by man, then creating for him pleasant intervals of rest and leisure, it should not be difficult for him to devote some time to the pursuit of a new interest that can add some charm, colour or zest to is life. The spare time must not be frittered away in idleness or spent on such work as overtaxes his mind and body after they have performed their normal functions for the day. The new interest will be worthwhile only if it provides relaxation and change from ordinary occupation, banishes the drabness of routine work and produces a feeling that life is both charming and meaningful.

The choice of hobbies, like the choice of books, purposes of reading is not an easy task. Some hobbies demand a little guidance from experienced persons. Our sudden attachment to them without the backing of this preliminary knowledge may result in wasting of our resources of time and money, and in the end compel us to abandon them. Some hobbies are rather expensive and therefore, beyond the means of ordinary people who can ill afford to spend large sums of money on them. Not a few are incompatible with our temperament and taste. We must not, therefore, allow the glamour of certain hobbies to blind us to their reality, howsoever tempting they may appear to us, not should we begin to cherish them thoughtlessly because we find other people so devotedly attached to them. In the first flush of enthusiasm may have rushed into unsuitable hobbies only to find themselves turning away from them in a state of great disillusionment. In a few rare and exceptional cases a sudden and instinctive choice of some hobby sometimes proves to be the right one. We must not however, forget that tinkering with the hobby is joyless and wasteful process, unattended by any appreciable gains. Scattered interests in half a dozen or more odd hobbies is also not a desirable end.
Question 1: How can one receive information during the interview process?
a. Ask any kind of questions
b. Keep talking at every opportunity
c. Ask only questions that are directly related to the job/position
d. Conceal your experience
Question 2: How should one handle questions?
a. By confusing audience
b. Anticipate and keep answers ready
c. Know everything
d. Speak fast
Question 3: What is the meaning of ad nauseam?
a. Nauseous
b. Reptition to the point of boring
c. Endlessly long
d. Unplanned

Question 4: What is the meaning of bona fide?
a. Genuine
b. Very annoying
c. Feeling of belonging
d. Complete authority

Question 5. What kind of jokes should be avoided during the interview process?
a. Racist
b. Sexist
c. Adult jokes
d. All of them
Question 6. What should one avoid during the interview?
a. Race
b. Marital status
c. Political affiliation
d. All of them
Question 7. Which of these are common verbal communication barriers?
a. Clarity
b. Lot of questions
c. Speaking in a steady pace
d. Using jargon

Question 8. Which of these are the five elements of inteview process?
a. Getting attention
b. Esyablishing a theme
c. Presenting a structure
d. All of them

Question 9. Which of these is a type of interview?
a. One to one interview
b. Phone interview
c. Group interview
d. All of them

Question 10. Which of these is true about stage fright?
a. It leads to insomnia (wrong answer)
b. key issue is elimation of fear
c. Normal people do not have it
d. Can be used constructively
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MODULE IV : BUSINESS CORRESPONDANCE
Case Study
All of us do some kind of work to ward off starvation or to gain sufficient material wealth with a view to maintaining that standard of living which our physical and intellectual powers have helped us to reach. But there is another kind of work which is completely divorced from the burdensome process of our livelihood and which is undertaken for the sake of amusement or interest or the direction of our surplus stores of energy in some new and useful channels of refined tastes. This delightful occupation, ie combining work with pleasure or hobby, as it is properly termed, calls for the application of our highest faculties, and gives proper form to our healthy instincts, purposeful habits and disciplined behaviour. In our carefree and vacant hours it allows these faculties to perform their natural functions and to display their instinctive greatness. We devote our leisure to the pursuit of this pleasant task and derive advantages which compare favourably with those we obtain from the bread-earning routine of our daily life. Hobbies widen the sphere of our cultural activities, give refinement to our tastes and show us the path that leads to our systematic mental and moral development. Our tendencies and inclinations also find in them an outlet for a healthy and progressive expression.

“A hobby is a favourite or occupation that is not one’s main business.” In this age of machinery which has taken upon itself most of the laborious duties of physical exertion formally performed by man, then creating for him pleasant intervals of rest and leisure, it should not be difficult for him to devote some time to the pursuit of a new interest that can add some charm, colour or zest to is life. The spare time must not be frittered away in idleness or spent on such work as overtaxes his mind and body after they have performed their normal functions for the day. The new interest will be worthwhile only if it provides relaxation and change from ordinary occupation, banishes the drabness of routine work and produces a feeling that life is both charming and meaningful.

The choice of hobbies, like the choice of books, purposes of reading is not an easy task. Some hobbies demand a little guidance from experienced persons. Our sudden attachment to them without the backing of this preliminary knowledge may result in wasting of our resources of time and money, and in the end compel us to abandon them. Some hobbies are rather expensive and therefore, beyond the means of ordinary people who can ill afford to spend large sums of money on them. Not a few are incompatible with our temperament and taste. We must not, therefore, allow the glamour of certain hobbies to blind us to their reality, howsoever tempting they may appear to us, not should we begin to cherish them thoughtlessly because we find other people so devotedly attached to them. In the first flush of enthusiasm may have rushed into unsuitable hobbies only to find themselves turning away from them in a state of great disillusionment. In a few rare and exceptional cases a sudden and instinctive choice of some hobby sometimes proves to be the right one. We must not however, forget that tinkering with the hobby is joyless and wasteful process, unattended by any appreciable gains. Scattered interests in half a dozen or more odd hobbies is also not a desirable end.
Question 1: According to Gartside what are the main reasons for writing business letters?
a. Seek or give information
b. To hide evidence
c. To distract attention from future records
d. Provide an expensive means of communication

Question 2. Body of a letter is divided into
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Question 3. Parts of Business letter___
a. Return address
b. date
c. salutation
d. All of them

Question 4. What are the basic characteristics of a business letter?
a. Elaborate
b. Well structured
c. Follows format
d. All of them

Question 5. Which are the essentials of effective business letters?
a. Clarity
b. Simplicity
c. Courtesy
d. All of them

Question 6. Which fo these are the C’s of business letters?
a. Crafty
b. Capricious
c. Clarity
d. Casual

Question 7. Which of these are business letter types?
a. Notes of invitation
b. Letters to newspapers
c. Letter to a friend
d. Memos

Question 8. Which of these are formats of business letters?
a. Block
b. Modified
c. Semiblock
d. All of them

Question 9. Which of these are pre stages of writing a business letter?
a. Brain storming
b. Mind mapping
c. Purpose identification
d. Editing

Question 10. Which of these are types of Letters?
a. Persuasive
b. Complaint
c. Application
d. All of them

100 on 100
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MODULE V : INTRA ORGANIZATION COMMUNICATION
Case Study
All of us do some kind of work to ward off starvation or to gain sufficient material wealth with a view to maintaining that standard of living which our physical and intellectual powers have helped us to reach. But there is another kind of work which is completely divorced from the burdensome process of our livelihood and which is undertaken for the sake of amusement or interest or the direction of our surplus stores of energy in some new and useful channels of refined tastes. This delightful occupation, ie combining work with pleasure or hobby, as it is properly termed, calls for the application of our highest faculties, and gives proper form to our healthy instincts, purposeful habits and disciplined behaviour. In our carefree and vacant hours it allows these faculties to perform their natural functions and to display their instinctive greatness. We devote our leisure to the pursuit of this pleasant task and derive advantages which compare favourably with those we obtain from the bread-earning routine of our daily life. Hobbies widen the sphere of our cultural activities, give refinement to our tastes and show us the path that leads to our systematic mental and moral development. Our tendencies and inclinations also find in them an outlet for a healthy and progressive expression.

“A hobby is a favourite or occupation that is not one’s main business.” In this age of machinery which has taken upon itself most of the laborious duties of physical exertion formally performed by man, then creating for him pleasant intervals of rest and leisure, it should not be difficult for him to devote some time to the pursuit of a new interest that can add some charm, colour or zest to is life. The spare time must not be frittered away in idleness or spent on such work as overtaxes his mind and body after they have performed their normal functions for the day. The new interest will be worthwhile only if it provides relaxation and change from ordinary occupation, banishes the drabness of routine work and produces a feeling that life is both charming and meaningful.

The choice of hobbies, like the choice of books, purposes of reading is not an easy task. Some hobbies demand a little guidance from experienced persons. Our sudden attachment to them without the backing of this preliminary knowledge may result in wasting of our resources of time and money, and in the end compel us to abandon them. Some hobbies are rather expensive and therefore, beyond the means of ordinary people who can ill afford to spend large sums of money on them. Not a few are incompatible with our temperament and taste. We must not, therefore, allow the glamour of certain hobbies to blind us to their reality, howsoever tempting they may appear to us, not should we begin to cherish them thoughtlessly because we find other people so devotedly attached to them. In the first flush of enthusiasm may have rushed into unsuitable hobbies only to find themselves turning away from them in a state of great disillusionment. In a few rare and exceptional cases a sudden and instinctive choice of some hobby sometimes proves to be the right one. We must not however, forget that tinkering with the hobby is joyless and wasteful process, unattended by any appreciable gains. Scattered interests in half a dozen or more odd hobbies is also not a desirable end.
Question 1: Basic form of agenda
a. Welcome/open meeting
b. Support for absence
c. Refreshments
d. All of the above

Question 2. How to create an effective agenda?
a. Send an email regarding meeting
b. Give out little information
c. Forego agenda item request
d. Wait for participants to contact you

Question 3. Manuals and policy statements are referred to as:
a. Upward communication
b. Horizontal communication
c. Downward communication
d. None of the above

Question 4. The Agenda communicates important information such as:

a. topics for discussion
b. presenter
c. time allotment
d. All of the above

Question 5. The content of the communication is called:
a. Message
b. Noise
c. Media richness
d. Jargon

Question 6. The notice of a meeting must specify:
a. Type of meeting
b. Name of company
c. date of issue of notice
d. All of the above

Question 7. To convert a message into groups of words, symbols, gestures, or sounds that present ideas or concepts is called:
a. Feedback
b. Encoding
c. Noise
d. Symbolism

Question 8. What function does an effective meeting agenda serve?
a. provides a blueprint
b. Reminds people of their achievment
c. Helps the leader to evade questions
d. Creates confusion

Question 9. Which of the following is not a medium of transmission?
a. Memos
b. Policy statement
c. Discussions
d. None of the above

Question 10. Which of these should one follow to compose meeting minutes?
a. List of expected attendees
b. Use to device to record
c. Be prepared
d. All of the above

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ASSIGNMENT 2
Case Study
All of us do some kind of work to ward off starvation or to gain sufficient material wealth with a view to maintaining that standard of living which our physical and intellectual powers have helped us to reach. But there is another kind of work which is completely divorced from the burdensome process of our livelihood and which is undertaken for the sake of amusement or interest or the direction of our surplus stores of energy in some new and useful channels of refined tastes. This delightful occupation, ie combining work with pleasure or hobby, as it is properly termed, calls for the application of our highest faculties, and gives proper form to our healthy instincts, purposeful habits and disciplined behaviour. In our carefree and vacant hours it allows these faculties to perform their natural functions and to display their instinctive greatness. We devote our leisure to the pursuit of this pleasant task and derive advantages which compare favourably with those we obtain from the bread-earning routine of our daily life. Hobbies widen the sphere of our cultural activities, give refinement to our tastes and show us the path that leads to our systematic mental and moral development. Our tendencies and inclinations also find in them an outlet for a healthy and progressive expression.

“A hobby is a favourite or occupation that is not one’s main business.” In this age of machinery which has taken upon itself most of the laborious duties of physical exertion formally performed by man, then creating for him pleasant intervals of rest and leisure, it should not be difficult for him to devote some time to the pursuit of a new interest that can add some charm, colour or zest to is life. The spare time must not be frittered away in idleness or spent on such work as overtaxes his mind and body after they have performed their normal functions for the day. The new interest will be worthwhile only if it provides relaxation and change from ordinary occupation, banishes the drabness of routine work and produces a feeling that life is both charming and meaningful.

Question 4: What is the meaning of bona fide?
a. Genuine
b. Very annoying
c. Feeling of belonging
d. Complete authority

Question 8. Which of these are the five elements of inteview process?
a. Getting attention
b. Esyablishing a theme
c. Presenting a structure
d. All of them

Question 9. Which of these is a type of interview?
a. One to one interview
b. Phone interview
c. Group interview
d. All of them

Question 10. Which of these is true about stage fright?
a. It leads to insomnia (wrong answer)
b. key issue is elimation of fear
c. Normal people do not have it
d. Can be used constructively

Quantitative Techniques in Management

October 10, 2019 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

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Quantitative Techniques in Management all blocks MBA SEM 1

1st Block Assessment
Case Study
Below is the percentage bar diagram according to percentage expenditure of two families. Family A and Family B on several items. Read the bar graph and answer the following questions asssuming the total expenditure value for Family A as 1000 and for family B as 500. Item names
Family A ( %
expenditure)
Family B ( %
expenditure)
Food 50 60
Electricity Bill 20 12
Rent 15 16
Water Bill 5 4
Miscellaneous 10 8

Question 1
The breadth of the bars representing the percentage expenditure denotes ________
Ratio of total expenditure of the families
Ratio of percenatge expenditure of the families
the ratio of number of members in the family
None of these

Question 2
In this percentage bar diagram the length of the bars _______
depends on the number of members of family
always remains same
depends upon the number of items spent on
none of these

Question 3
Percentage expenditure of Family A on Food is _______
65%
52%
55%
50%

Question 4
The value of expenditure of Family B on Miscellaneous is ________
50
40
55
30

Question 5
The value of expenditure of Family A on Electricity Bill is ________
450
120
100
200

Question 6
Difference between the percentage expenditure of Family A on Water Bill and
Miscellaneous is ________
5%
10%
2%
12%

Question 7
“The Cumulative percentage of expenditure for Family A on Food , Electricity
Bill and Rent is _______ ”
88%
75%
85%
70%

Question 8
Sum of the expenditure value of Family A and Family B on Food is_________
800
260
250
900

Question 9
Difference between the percentage expenditure of Family A and Family B on
Water Bill is________
20%
2%
1%
10%

Question 10
Difference between the expenditure value of Family A and Family B on Rent
is ______
100
75
200
70

Quiz Score: 100 out of 100
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2nd Block Assessment
Case Study
Below is a table given for a continuous frequency distribution. Study the table and answer the questions.
Class
Interval
Frequency
30-40 2
40-50 10
50-60 7
60-70 8
70-80 12
80-90 6
90-100 9

Question 1
The Arithmetic Mean of the given distribution is ___________
55.54
62.5
68.3
65

Question 2
The mode of the given distribution is ____________
70
74
12
70.5

Question 3
The median of the given distribution is ______________
65
72
70
70.5

Question 4
“In the short cut method of finding Arithmetic mean ” f ” stands for _______”
function
frequency
sum of frequency
none of these

Question 5
Assumed mean of a given data is the _________ of data
first value
last value
middle value
all of the above

Question 6
The Coefficient of Range for the given distribution is _________
0.54
0.35
0.7
0.4

Question 7
The Variance for the given distribution is _________
440
470.78
456.26
None of these

Question 8
The Standard Deviation of the given distribution is __________
20.97
21.69
32.3
None of these

Question 9
The ________ of Standard deviation is known as Variance
Square root
Integral
Derivative
Square

Question 10
“To find the mean deviation from mean, what amongst the following must be found?”
deviation of class intervals from mean
deviation of mean from mid point
deviaion of median from mid point
deviation of frequency from mean

3rd Block Assessment

Case Study
Consider the table below showing the cost of a fast – food hamburger meal and the cost of two movie tickets in 10 cities around the world (extracted from K. Spors, “Keeping Up with … Yourself,” The Wall Street
Journal, April 11, 2005, p.R4). Answer the following questions based on the following data.
City Hamburger Movie Tickets
Tokyo 5.99 32.66
London 7.62 28.41
New York 5.75 20
Sydney 4.45 20.71
Chicago 4.99 18
San
Francisco
5.29 19.5
Boston 4.39 18
Atlanta 3.7 16
Toronto 4.62 18.05
Rio de
Janeiro
2.99 9.9

Question 1
The Range of regression coefficient is __________
-∞ to +∞
0 to 1
-∞ to 0
-1 to +1

Question 2
Taking Hamburger and Movie tickets as X & Y variables respectively, the
value of Sum of X errors when squared is ________
11.21
23.42
10.02
15.04

Question 3
Taking Hamburger and Movie tickets as X & Y variables respectively, the value of Sum of Y errors when squared is ________
294.23
361.41
320.34
190.41

Question 4
Taking Hamburger and Movie tickets as X & Y variables respectively, the value of product of X and Y errors is ________
61.54
34.29
37.21
54.92

Question 5
Taking Hamburger and Movie tickets as X & Y variables respectively, the value of Standard Deviation of X is ______
0.21
4.29
1.29
3.21

Question 6
Taking Hamburger and Movie tickets as X & Y variables respectively, the value of Standard Deviation of Y is ______
3.09
4.29
6.33
8.21

Question 7
Co – variance value between X & Y variables is _____________
3.98
5.32
6.11
6.83

Question 8
Taking Hamburger and Movie tickets as X & Y variables respectively, the
value of coefficient of correlation “r” is _________
0
0.13
0.83
-0.67

Question 9
The estimated value of correlation coefficient for the given variables shows
that there is _______
strong positive correlation
strong negative correlation
no correlation
perfect correlation

Question 10
Taking Hamburger and Movie tickets as X & Y variables respectively, the
value of Mean of X is approximately equal to ______
5
6
7
8

4th Block Assessment

Case Study
Two random samples drawn from two normal populations are given as below:
Sample 1 20 16 26 27 23 22 18 24 25 19
Sample 2 27 33 42 35 32 34 38 28 41 43 30 37
Taking the hypothesis that two samples are drawn from the same normal population of equal variance,
answer the following questions.

Question 1
If X denotes the sample 1 values , the sum of all X values is _____
245
268
186
220

Question 2
If Y denotes the sample 2 values , the sum of all Y values is _____
432
420
397
230

Question 3
Mean of X is _____
19
22
25
17
Question 4
Mean of Y is ______
31
32
35
33
Question 5
Variance of X is ________
13.33
11.43
18.23
10.43

Question 6
Variance of Y is ________
30
25.43
28.55
29.42

Question 7
Degrees of freedom in sample 1 is _____
6
7
8
9

Question 8
Degrees of freedom in sample 2 is ____
8
9
10
11

Question 9
The value of F at 5 % level of significance for degrees of freedom of sample 1 and 2 is _____
3.279
3.11
3.386
3.529

Question 10
The value of F at 1 % level of significance for degrees of freedom of sample 1 and 2 is _____
5.92
3.53
5.2
None of these

5th Block Assessment

Case Study
A manufacturer produces two types of products P_1 and P_2. Each P_1 model requires 4 hours of carving and 2 hours of polishing where as each P_2 model requires 2 hours of carving and 5 hours of polishing. The manufacturer has 2 sculptor and 3 polishers. Each sculptor works for 40 hours a week and each polisher works for 60 hours a week. Profit on P_1 and P_2 model is Rs. 3 and Rs. 4 respectively. Whatever is produced in a week is sold in the market. Study the problem and answer the following question in order to
formulate a LPP.

Question 1
Which among the following can be a constraint for the given problem?
working hours of sculptor and polishers
hours required for carving and polishing for each product
Both (a) & (b)
None of the above

Question 2
Linear programming problem can be formulated for the given information, in
order to ______
minimize working hours of labour
maximize profit
maximizing working hours for labour
minimising profit

Question 3
x_1 and x_2 being the number of units produced for P_1 and P_2 respectively in a week’s time, objective function can be ______
3x_1 + 4x_2
4x_1 + 3x_2
3x_1 – 4 x_2
4x_1 – 3 x_2

Question 4
Total availability of hours for sculptor’s in a week is ______ hours
30
50
80
40

Question 5
Total availability of hours for polisher’s in a week is ______ hours
120
60
160
None of the above

Question 6
Constraint subject to carving can be expressed as ______
4x_1 + 2x_2 less than or equal to 40
4x_1 + 2x_2 less than or equal to 80
2x_1 + 4x_2 less than or equal to 80
None of the above

Question 7
Constraint subject to polishing can be expressed as ______
2x_1 + 5x_2 less than or equal to 60
5x_1 + 2x_2 less than or equal to 60
2x_1 + 5x_2 less than or equal to 180
None of the above

Question 8
Condition for decision variables can be expressed as _____
x_1 and x_2 are greater than or equal to Zero
x_1 and x_2 are less than or equal to Zero
x_1 and x_2 are greater than or equal to one
x_1 and x_2 are less than or equal to one

Question 9
Total processing time for P_1 for producing each unit is _____
3
4
5
6

Question 10
Total processing time for P_2 for producing each unit is _____
5
6
7
8

Full Syllabus Assessment

Case Study
1. Given the following data:
Variance of X=9
Regression equations:
4X-5Y+33=0 and 20X-9Y-107=0
2. Study the normal distribution graph given, in which 31% (items marked in red) are below 45 and 8% items
.

Question 1
Based on case study 1 – Mean Value of X is ____
13
14
15
16

Question 2
Based on case study 1 – Mean Value of Y is ____
16
17
18
19

Question 3
Based on case study 1 – Standard deviation of X is ____
4
5
6
None of the above

Question 4
Based on case study 1 – Standard deviation of Y is ____
2
3
4
5

Question 5
Based on case study 1 – Coefficient of correlation between X and Y is ______
0.4
0.5
0.6
0.7

Question 6
Based on case study 2 – Z value for x = 64 is _____
2.4
1.4
0.43
None of the above

Question 7
Based on case study 2 -Probability of the area marked as red is _______
0.34
0.31
0.38
0.17

Question 8
Based on case study 2 -Probability of the area marked as green is _______
0.8
0.5
0
1

Question 9
Based on case study 2 -Population standard deviation for the given normal distribution curve is ______
5
10
20
25

Question 10
Based on case study 2 -Z value for x = 45 is _____
5
-0.05
-0.5
0.5

Live Interactive session Test

Question 1
Which one of the following research methods is most likely to be quantitative in nature?
Surveys
Projective techniques
In-depth interview
Participant observation

Question 2
Number of observations are 30 and value of arithmetic mean is 15 then sum of all values is
150
450
200
45

Question 3
Binomial Distribution is considered appropriate in a Bernoulli Process which has the property ____
Dichotomy
Stability
Independence
All of these

Question 4
All data points falling along a straight line is called:
Linear relationship
Non linear relationship
Residual
Scatter diagram

Question 5
A process by which we estimate the value of dependent variable on the basis of one or more independent variables is called:
Correlation
Regression
Residual
Slope

Question 6
The value of coefficient correlation lies between
0 to 1
minus one to plus one
zero to minus one
one to ten

Question 7
According to Simplex Method to solve a LPP, the intersection of Key Row and Ket Column is called ______ element.
Key
Main
Pivot
All of these

Question 8
When mean remains constant and there is a large number of trials but a small probability of success, then _____
Poisson Distribution tends to Binomial Distribution
Binomial Distribution tends to Poisson Distribution
Binomial Distribution tends to Normal Distribution
Normal Distribution tends to Binomial Distribution

Question 9
In case of _________ events, the multiplication rule of probability is P(A.B) =
P(A) . P(B).
Dependent
Independent
Both of these
None of these

Question 10
Sum of the product of the different values of the random variable and their respective probabilities generates ________
Expected Vaue
Mean
both of these
none of these

Question 11
If t- value fall out of the range of the critical values, then ______
Alternate Hypothesis is rejected
Alternate Hypothesis is accepted
Null Hypothesis is accepted
no conclusion can be drawn

Question 12
t – distribution is used instead of the normal distribution when we have ______samples in picture
small
large
very large
none of these

Question 13
Random variables can be considered as function with domain elements as ______
sample space
natural numbers
real numbers
none of these

Question 14
According to the Empirical Rule of Normal Distribution, ______ percent of the data falls within 2 standard deviations.
95
68
92
99.7

Question 15
Which amongst the following can be called as component of a LPP.
A set of constraints
An objective funtion
A set of decision variables
All of these

Quiz Score: 150 out of 150
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