Amity MBA Assignment Semester 2- 2021

Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA Semester 2

MODULE 1
Question 1. If the consent is obtained by mental pressure, it is known as:
Select one:
a. Mistake
b. Undue Influence
c. Coercion
d. Fraud
Clear my choice
Question 2. The Sale of Goods Act 1930, deals with the contract of:
Select one:
a. Mortgage
b. Sale
c. Pledge
d. Bailment
Clear my choice
Question 3. According to Section 2(h) of the Contract Act, a contract is:
Select one:
a. A promise enforceable by law
b. An acceptance enforceable by law
c. An agreement not enforceable by law
d. An agreement enforceable by law
Clear my choice
Question 4. In cases where presentment is compulsory and the holder fails to present the acceptance, is/are discharged from their liability to him: Select one: a. The drawer b. All the endorsers c. Both (a) and (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b) Clear my choice Question 5. An instrument stands discharged when: Select one: a. All the rights under it are extinguished b. Some of the rights under it are extinguished c. The drawer dies d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 6. In which Negotiable instrument there are three parties: Select one: a. Bill of Exchange b. Promissory Note c. Both d. None Clear my choice Question 7. When the Indian contract act introduced? Select one: a. 1872 b. 1772 c. 1871 d. 1873 Clear my choice Question 8. An agency agreement relationship can be established by: Select one: a. Express agreement b. Implied agreement c. By necessity and ratification d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 9. Goods owned or possessed by the seller are called: Select one: a. Specific goods b. Ascertained goods c. Existing goods d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 10. Future goods mean goods produce or manufactured or acquired by the seller: Select one: a. At the time of the contract of sale b. After making the contract of sale c. Before making the contract of sale d. Both (a) and (c) Clear my choice Question 11. Who among the following cannot cross a cheque: Select one: a. Drawer b. Holder c. Banker d. Foreigner Clear my choice Question 12. A contract in which the obligation of both the parties is outstanding and a contract in which the obligation is to be performed in the future are respectively called: Select one: a. Executory and Bilateral b. Executory and Unilateral c. Unilateral and Executory d. Bilateral and Executory Clear my choice Question 13. Where a stipulation in a contract is essential to the main purpose of the contract. It is called: Select one: a. A condition b. Warranty c. Guarantee d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 14. In a contract, the parties should have the intention to create: Select one: a. A moral obligation between them b. A legal obligation between them c. An ethical obligation between them d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 15. To whom of the following, payment of the amount due on a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque must be made in order to discharge the maker or acceptor Select one: a. Holder of the instrument b. Endorser of the instrument c. Endorsee of the instrument d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 16. Section 4(3) of the Act says that “where under a contract of sale the property in the goods is transferred from the seller to the buyer, then it is known as”
Select one:
a. Sale
b. Purchase
c. Pledge
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 17. If only a part of the amount of the instrument is endorsed, it is a case of an _ endorsement which purports to transfer to the endorsee only a part of the amount payable, or which purports to transfer the instrument to two or more endorsees severally, is not valid.
Select one:
a. Complete Endorsement
b. Partial Endorsement
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above

Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

MODULE 2:
A limited liability partnership (LLP) is a _ between at least two business partners.
Select one:
a. Formal partnership
b. Informal partnership
c. Partnership
d. Joint venture
Question 1. A partnership deed contains the details associated with
Select one:
a. Nature of business and duration of firm
b. Capital contribution, profit/loss sharing ration and other agreed terms
c. Name of firm and partners
d. All of above
Clear my choice
Question 2. What is an association of two or more persons to carry on, as co-owners, a business and to share its profits and losses?
Select one:
a. Partnership
b. Proprietorship
c. Dissolution of firm
d. Partnership deed
Clear my choice
Question 3. Two or more persons are required to file an incorporation / registration documents for incorporating an LLP with the in the State in which the registered office of he LLP is situated.
Select one:
a. Registrar of Companies
b. Legislative body
c. State government
d. Central government
Clear my choice
Question 4. A person who is entitled to a share of the profits from a partnership firm is known as:
Select one:
a. Partner
b. Creditor
c. Salaried employee
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. What is a document that outlines in details the terms, rights and responsibilities of all the partners in a partnership firm?
Select one:
a. Partnership
b. Proprietorship
c. Dissolution of firm
d. Partnership deed
Clear my choice
Question 6. The application for registration of a firm shall be accompanied by the prescribed fee, It shall state:
Select one:
a. the name of the firm
b. the place or principal place of business of the firm
c. the names in full and permanent addresses of the partners; the duration of the firm
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is the name of a very popular form of business in India?
Select one:
a. Partnership deed
b. Partnership firm
c. Dissolution of firm
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. Limited Liability Partnership Act, was established in year:
Select one:
a. 1930
b. 1872
c. 2008
d. 1881
Clear my choice
Question 9. Under the LLP Act, there should be a minimum of atleast partners in an LLP Select one: a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Clear my choice Question 10. Partnership Act 1932 came into force on: Select one: a. October, 1932 b. April, 1932 c. August,1932 d. November,1932 Clear my choice Every partner of an LLP for the purpose of its business is a/an of the LLP but is not an agent of other partners.
Select one:
a. Broker
b. Partner
c. Agent
d. Shareholder
Question 11. Who is a person who takes part in an undertaking with another or others, especially in a business with shared risks and profit?
Select one:
a. Partnership
b. Proprietorship
c. Creditor
d. Partner
Clear my choice
Question 12. When all the partners resolve to dissolve the partnership, the dissolution of firm occurs, i.e. the firm is ………….
Select one:
a. Formed
b. Partnership
c. Partner
d. Wound up
Clear my choice
Question 13. Persons, who subscribed to the________ at the time of incorporation of LLP, shall be partners of Limited Liability Partnership (LLP).
Select one:
a. Unregistered Document
b. Legal Document
c. Incorporation Document
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. In the case of a Limited Liability Partnership, the liablity of a partner is:
Select one:
a. Unlimited
b. Limited
c. No liability
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. Power of Partner includes
Select one:
a. Buying and Selling goods
b. Receiving payments on behalf of the firm
c. Both A and B are correct
d. Both A and B are Incorrect
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which one is not true test of Partnership Act -1932.
Select one:
a. Agreement
b. Business
c. Sharing of Profits
d. HUF Business
Clear my choice
Question 17. A limited liability partnership (LLP) contains the features of:
Select one:
a. Partneship firm
b. Company
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. Which section of Companies Act, 2013 states that SEBI has powers to regulate Issue and transfer of securities?
Select one:
a. Section 23
b. Section 24
c. Section 25
d. Section 26
Clear my choice
Question 2. A copy of the ____ must accompany each from of application for shares offered to the public
Select one:
a. Memorandum of association
b. Prospectus
c. Articles of association
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. The shares of a ___ company can be freely transferable
Select one:
a. Private ltd
b. Public ltd
c. Partnership
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is the Principle of Corporate Governance?
Select one:
a. Transparency
b. Accountability
c. Independence
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Section 233 prescribes simplified procedure for Merger or amalgamation of __
Select one:
a. two or more small companies or
b. between a holding company and its wholly-owned subsidiary company or
c. such other class or classes of companies as may be prescribed
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. As per Section 203 (1), every company belonging to such class or classes of companies as may be prescribed shall have the following whole-time key managerial personnel —
Select one:
a. Managing Director, or Chief Executive Officer or Manager and in their absence, a Whole-Time Director
b. Company Secretary
c. Chief Financial Officer
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. When did The Companies act 2013, come into force?
Select one:
a. 1-Apr-13
b. 1-Mar-14
c. 30-Aug-13
d. 1-May-13
Clear my choice
Question 8. The minimum number of members that required while you are registering a public company is___
Select one:
a. 2
b. 6
c. 7
d. 5
Clear my choice
Question 9. The company shall furnish to the Registrar verification of its registered office within a period of __ of its incorporation in such manner as may be prescribed
Select one:
a. 60 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 15 days
Clear my choice
Question 10. The memorandum of a company is dealt under ?
Select one:
a. section 12
b. section 15
c. section 6
d. section 4
Clear my choice
A company may adopt all or any of the regulations contained in the model articles applicable to such a company.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partly True
d. Partly False

Question 11. State whether true or false:

1. Effect of floating charge is covered under section 332.
2. As per above section, when a company is being wound up, a floating charge on the undertaking or property of the company created within the twelve months immediately preceding the commencement of the winding up
   Select one:
   a. 1 – T, 2 – T
   b. 1 –F, 2 – F
   c. 1 – F, 2 – T
   d. 1 – T, 2 – F
   Clear my choice
   Section _ of the Companies Act, 2013 imposes a ______obligation on every company to cause minutes of all proceedings of general meetings, board meetings and other meeting and resolution passed by postal ballot
   Select one:
   a. 118; statutory
   b. 119; statutory
   c. 119; non-statutory
   d. 118; non-statutory

Question 12. All monies payable by any member to the company under the memorandum or articles shall be a debt due from him to_______
Select one:
a. Member
b. The company
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. At least one woman director is required for _
Select one:
a. every listed company
b. every other public company having paid–up share capital of one hundred crore rupees more
c. every other public company having turnover of three hundred crore rupees or more
d. all of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. As per Section 196(3), _____ the employment of any person as managing director, wholetime director or manager
Select one:
a. company shall appoint or continue
b. no company shall appoint or continue
c. depends on situation
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following is a not true statement about Director Identification Number?
Select one:
a. Every individual, intending to be appointed the Director of a company should make an application to the Government for an Identification Number
b. An individual can have up to five Director Identification Numbers at a time, not more
c. A Director should intimate his Director Identification Number to the concerned company/companies
d. The Director Identification Number should be intimated to the Registrar
Clear my choice
Question 16. Board of Directors of Centra Tech Limited desires to appoint Nipun, aged 22 years as the Managing Director of the company. Nipun is currently a director and the son of Ramesh, the immediate Managing Director who expired in a car accident. State whether Nipun can be appointed as Managing Director
Select one:
a. Yes; since he is above the age of 21 years
b. No; since he has not attained the age of 25 years
c. Since he has not attained the age of 25 years, permission of Registrar of Companies is to be obtained for his appointment as MD
d. Since he has not attained the age of 25 years, permission of Central Government is to be obtained for his appointment as MD
Clear my choice
Question 17. The duties of the liquidator include:

I. take possession of the company’s assets.
II. determine the creditors and order of payment.
III. distribution of funds to shareholders.
IV. report to the court on completion of the winding-up.
Select one:
a. I, and II only
b. I, II and III only
c. II, III and IV only
d. I, II, III and IV
Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 4
Question 1. In case of death of a consumer who can prefer compliant under Section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986
Select one:
a. his legal heir or representative
b. State Government
c. consumer association registered under the Companies Act, 1956
d. No one can prefer complaint
Clear my choice
Question 2. As per section 2(1)(b) of Consumer Protection Act 1986, “complainant” means
Select one:
a. a consumer
b. any consumer association registered under the Companies Act, 1956
c. the Central Government or any State Government
d. All the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. _ implies safeguard against anti-consumer trade practices of producers and traders Select one: a. Consumer Protection b. Redressal Forum c. National Commission d. None of these Clear my choice Question 4. What can be the maximum claim amount at the district level of the consumer court? Select one: a. Less than ₹1 lakh b. ₹1 crore c. Upto ₹20 lakhs d. Above ₹1 crore Clear my choice Question 5. The total number of rights given to consumers as per the consumer protection Act is Select one: a. 5 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Clear my choice Question 6. Consumer Protection Act is applicable to Select one: a. immovable goods b. movable goods c. specific goods and services d. all goods and services Clear my choice Question 7. _ is one of the redressal agencies for redressing consumer grievances
Select one:
a. COPRA
b. State Commission
c. Consumer Organisation
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 8. In case a consumer is not satisfied with the order passed in the State Commission, he can further make an appeal in the National Commission within a time period of
Select one:
a. 10 days
b. 20 days
c. 30 days
d. 45 days
Clear my choice
Question 9. Why do we need to have set rules and regulations for consumer rights?
Select one:
a. To protect and promote the interest of the consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices
b. To bring discipline in the country.
c. To provide police protection to consumers during a dispute with the sellers.
d. Its aim is to make all the sellers fair and honest.
Clear my choice
Question 10. When was the Consumer Protection Act passed in India?
Select one:
a. 1968
b. 1986
c. 1984
d. 1976
Clear my choice
The quasi-judicial machinery set up at the highest level for redressal of consumer disputes is:
Select one:
a. The District Forum
b. The State Consumer Commission
c. Consumers International
d. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

Question 11. Which of the following is not a function of Consumer Protection Councils?
Select one:
a. To create awareness of consumer rights among consumers
b. To guide consumers on how to file cases in consumer courts
c. To provide compensation to consumers when they are cheated by shopkeepers
d. To represent consumers in Consumer Courts at times
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following are the ways and means of consumer protection?
Select one:
a. Self-regulation by the business
b. Business associations
c. Government
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the National Commission?
Select one:
a. It consists of a President and at least five other members, one of whom should be a woman
b. The members are appointed by the Central Government
c. A complaint can be made to the National Commission when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹1 crore
d. Where the aggrieved party was not satisfied with the order of the National Commission, the case can be taken to the Supreme Court of India
Clear my choice
Question 14. On receiving the complaint the forum will direct the opposite party to answer on that within _ days and may extent the period for ________ more days
Select one:
a. 1 & 15
b. 15 & 1
c. 10 & 1
d. 0 & 1
Clear my choice
The consumer has a right to get relief in case of defective goods or deficient services as per the________________
Select one:
a. Right to be informed
b. Right to choose
c. Right to be heard
d. Right to seek redressal
Question 15. Yash had severe pain in his throat, so he called up the doctor and asked for a telephonic advice. The doctor prescribed him a sachet of Throat Reliever Hot Sip. He asked his servant to get a sachet from a local chemist with a cash memo. After consuming the sachet, he started feeling more ill, so he picked up the empty sachet and started reading the label. To his utter dismay, the sachet had already expired last month. Which of the following remedies is not available to him any longer as a consumer?
Select one:
a. To withdraw the hazardous goods from sale
b. To replace the defective product with a new one
c. To refund the price paid for the product
d. To pay a reasonable amount of compensation for any loss suffered by the consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party
Clear my choice
Question 16. Naina, her husband and her two minor daughters were travelling from Mumbai to Delhi, availing a company’s flight services in 2018. The airlines had issued boarding passes to all of them. Naina claimed in her plea that the airlines left all her family at the Mumbai Airport without informing them, despite their being in the airport premises. The family had to stay in a hotel and purchase new tickets the next day. The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC). on hearing the plea, asked an airline company to pay ₹50,000 to Naina and her family. Identify the right of consumers being exercised in the given case.
Select one:
a. Right to safety
b. Right to be heard
c. Right to seek redressal
d. Right to consumer education
Clear my choice
Question 17. Ranjan bought a bottle of soft drink of a famous beverage company and found a gutka pouch floating inside the bottle. He forwarded a legal notice to the company, accusing it of the deficiency in service that could cause health hazard to the consumer. Identify the right of consumer being violated in the given case.
Select one:
a. Right to safety
b. Right to be heard
c. Right to seek redressal
d. Right to consumer education
Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 5
Question 1. Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas that are of
Select one:
a. Ethical value
b. Moral value
c. Social value
d. Commercial value
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which Act in India focuses on data privacy and information technology?
Select one:
a. Banking Regulation Act 1949
b. IT Act 2000
c. Indian Penal Code
d. IT (amendment) Act 2008
Clear my choice
Question 3. The following can not be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights to others
Select one:
a. Patents
b. Designs
c. Trademark
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 4. Copyright is a ….
Select one:
a. creation by the mental status of a person
b. creation by person of efforts, intellectual and capital
c. creation by negligence of a person
d. creation by person of the efforts only
Clear my choice
Question 5. In India, the literary work is protected until
Select one:
a. Lifetime of author
b. 25 years after the death of author
c. 40 years after the death of author
d. 60 years after the death of author
Clear my choice
Question 6. Trade mark
Select one:
a. is represented graphically
b. is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one person from those of others
c. may includes shapes of goods or combination of colours
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which is the appeal court on the orders issued by Cyber appellate tribunal?
Select one:
a. Munsiff Court
b. District Court
c. High Court
d. Supreme Court
Clear my choice
Question 8. Digital signatures created and verified using_____________
Select one:
a. program
b. graphical coding
c. HTML
d. cryptography
Clear my choice
Question 9. What is the punishment for hacking of computers?
Select one:
a. Three year imprisonment or 10 lakh rupees penalty or both
b. Life Imprisonment
c. Three year imprisonment or 5 lakh rupees penalty or both
d. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh rupees penalty or both
Clear my choice
Question 10. The following can be patented
Select one:
a. Machine
b. Process
c. Composition of matter
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
The Section deals with legal recognition of electronic records is_______
Select one:
a. Section 3
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
d. Section 4
Question 11. Who is the true and first inventor ?
Select one:
a. Who communicates and ideas to registrar of the patent
b. Who communicates idea to other at first
c. Who convert the ideas in to working invention
d. Who publish their ideas first in the journals
Clear my choice
Question 12. Copyright registrar and copyright board are ……………….. Authority
Select one:
a. Administrative
b. Non Judicial
c. Judicial
d. Quasi Judicial
Clear my choice
Question 13. Symbol of Maharaja of Air India is
Select one:
a. Copyright
b. Patent
c. Trademark
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14.In the following case the Hon’ble Supreme Court struck down Section 66 A of the I.T. Act:
Select one:
a. Kartar Singh v/s State of Punjab
b. Maneka Gandhi v/s UOI
c. K. A. Abbas v/s UOI
d. Shreya Singhal v/s UOI
Clear my choice
Question 15. Hackers usually used the computer virus for __ purpose
Select one:
a. To log, monitor each and every user’s stroke
b. To gain access the sensitive information like user’s Id and Passwords
c. To corrupt the user’s data stored in the computer system
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which are the advantages of E-Governance from the following:

a. Increased corruption
b. High transparency
c. Increased convenience
d. Indirect participation of constituent’s
e. Reduction in overall cost
Select one:
a. a, b, c & d
b. a, b, c & e
c. b, c & e
d. a, b, c, d &e
Clear my choice
Question 17. Proprietor of which trademark shall not be entitled to institute any proceeding to prevent or to recover damages for the infringement ?
Select one:
a. Numerals
b. Unregistered Trademark
c. Symbols
d. Registered Trademark
Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

                                                                            CASE STUDY

Vicky and Mahi are two friends. They form a partnership to start a bussiness of flavoured Milk Shakes & few other Milk products. They hired a graphic designer & mutually finalised a logo for their brand & get it registered as well. Raj is an owner of a milk producing company. He counter offered Vicky via e-mail to use Milk from his company to prepare those milk products which was accepted by Vicky. While preparing the Milk products Vicky realised that the quality of Milk was not upto the mark & told the same to Mahi. Stating the facts Mahi wrote an email to Raj & requested to provide the compensation immediately for the same as they have suffered huge loss by wasting a lot of ingredients as well in the process of preparing the milk products which couldnot be made due to stale milk. They have wasted their time, energy & money. This incident has caused them mental agony as well. Raj replied to that e-mail that immediately he cannot provide for any compensation as his company is already in huge loss & his company has just recieved the order of winding up by the Tribunal

   Question 1. The correct sequence in the formation of a contract is

Select one:
a. Offer, acceptance, agreement, consideration.
b. Agreement, consideration, offer,acceptance.
c. Offer , Consideration, acceptance, agreement.
d. Offer,acceptance, consideration, agreement.
Clear my choice
Question 2. The partnership written agreement as made between Vicky & Mahi is known as?
Select one:
a. Partnership contract
b. Agreement
c. Partnership deed
d. Partnership Act
Clear my choice
Question 3. The object of winding up of a company by the Tribunal as that in case of Raj is
Select one:
a. To facilitate the protection of its assets
b. To convert the company into private company if it is a public company
c. To convert the company into public company if it is a private company.
d. To change the Memorandum and Articles
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is not true about Consumer Protection Act, 2019
Select one:
a. The consumer complain can be filed in the court where the consumer resides
b. The consumer court can refer the matter through mediation
c. All rules of direct selling are not extended to e-commerce
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Vicky & Mahi wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo so they have got it registered as:
Select one:
a. Copy rights
b. Trade mark
c. Patent
d. Industrial designs

Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)- Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Human Resource Management (HR612)-Semester II
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA Semester 2

1st Module Assessment

Question 1. ______is the art of procuring, developing and maintaining competent workforce to achieve the goals of an organization keeping in view employees’ interest in an effective and efficient manner.

Select one:
a. Human Resource Development
b. Human Resource Management
c. Human Resource Planning
d. Human Resource Outsourcing
Clear my choice
Question 2. _ is a plan of action. It is a formal statement of a principle or rule that members of an organ actinides to follow.

Select one:
a. A Rule
b. A policy
c. A Procedure
d. A Legislation
Clear my choice
Question 3. _ is related to analyze and measure the time taken for doing the various elements of a job and to standardize the operations of a job.

Select one:
a. Time study
b. Motion study
c. Fatigue Study
d. Indiscipline
Clear my choice
Question 4. _ are the tangible rewards in formation of pay and benefits

Select one:
a. Extrinsic rewards
b. Intrinsic rewards
c. Performance rewards
d. Appraising rewards
Clear my choice
Question 5. Human Resource technology is an umbrella term for software and associated platforms for automating ______in the organisations.

Select one:
a. all departments
b. HR Functions
c. Cloud computing
d. None of the options
Clear my choice
Question 6. which of the following should not be a quality of HR manager.

Select one:
a. Commitment
b. Flexibility
c. Knowledge
d. Indiscipline
Clear my choice
Question 7. _ is the process of cultivating and scaling work culture inside an organisation. It includes keeping a pulse on the performance of the organisation’s culture while measuring the collision of the culture on morale and productivity.

Select one:
a. Cultural Productivity
b. Organisation culture
c. Culture Management
d. None of the options
Clear my choice
Question 8. It stresses on development of human resources of the organisation. It helps the employees of the organisation to develop their general capabilities in relation to their present jobs and expected future role. It is known as___

Select one:
a. Human Resource Development
b. Human Resource Management
c. Human Resource Planning
d. Human Resource Outsourcing
Clear my choice
Question 9. People analytics, though comfortably used as a synonym for, ________is technically applicable to “people” in general.

Select one:
a. Capital analytics
b. HR analytics
c. Asset analytics
d. IT analytics
Clear my choice
Question 10. The firm’s corporate image or culture which attracts and retains the best employees is best known as __.

Select one:
a. Employer Branding
b. Corporate Restructuring
c. HR branding
d. brand culture
Clear my choice
Question 11. The delegation of authority in an organization follows a formal hierarchical structure with clear lines of __.

Select one:
a. positions
b. job profiles
c. accountability
d. management
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following is Not correct . An effective performance management system

Select one:
a. Requires a shared responsibility between supervisor and employee
b. Measures and documents performance
c. Doesn’t Include feedback and coaching concerning job performance
d. Identifies training and professional development needs
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following is true with respect to HRM in Industrial Relations.

A. The major aim of this is to maintain peace and harmony among the organisation.
B. It requires effective communication with the labor or employee unions which sensitively addresses their grievances and settles their disputes.

Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Neither A nor B
d. Both A & B
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following is not a main function of compensation management ?

Select one:
a. The Equity Function
b. Feedack function
c. The Retention Function
d. The Welfare Function
Clear my choice
Question 15. HR analytics is a methodology for creating insights on how investments in human capital assets contribute to the success of some principal outcomes. Identify from the following the correct principal outcomes.
A. generating revenue,
B. minimizing expenses,
C. mitigating risks,
D. executing strategic plans.

Select one:
a. only A& B
b. only B& C
c. only C& D
d. All A,B,C, D
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following statements is true with respect to SHRM ?
A. The emergence of SHRM is influenced by global competition and the corresponding search for sources of a sustainable competitive advantage.
B. SHRM has achieved its prominence because it has provided a means by which business firms can enhance the competitiveness and promote managerial efficiency.
C. SHRM doesnot facilitate the development of human capital that can meet the requirements of a competitive business strategy, so that organizational goals and the mission of the organization will be achieved.

Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A & C
c. All A ,B & C
d. Only B & C
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is a metrics that can be tracked by HR analytics:
A. Revenue per employee
B. Offer acceptance rate
C. Training expenses per employee
D. Training efficiency

Select one:
a. Only A & C
b. All A,B,C, D
c. Only A ,B & C
d. Only A & B
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA Semester 2

2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. Recruitment is widely viewed as a _ process.
Select one:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. mixed
d. progressive
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is the first step in the Selection Process.

Select one:
a. Screening Applications
b. Medical Examination
c. Preliminary Interview
d. Checking References
Clear my choice
Question 3. __ is the process of Work arrangement (or rearrangement) aimed at reducing or overcoming job dissatisfaction and employee alienation arising from repetitive and mechanistic tasks.

Select one:
a. Job design
b. Job Rotation
c. Job reengineering
d. Job Portfolio
Clear my choice
Question 4. _ is known as the Father of Scientific Management

Select one:
a. Henry Fayol
b. Frederick Taylor
c. Rothlisberger
d. Marry Parker Follet
Clear my choice
Question 5. _____is an alternative to traditional workplace models that dictate when and where workers perform their work. It permits employees to choose when, where and how they work.

Select one:
a. Job Shifting
b. Job Rotation
c. Job reengineering
d. Workplace flexibility
Clear my choice
Question 6. _____means to enhance a job by adding more meaningful tasks to make the employee’s work more rewarding.

Select one:
a. Job empowerment
b. organisation culture
c. Job resdesign
d. Job rotation
Clear my choice
Question 7. The process of Job Analysis is Not related to which of the following ?

Select one:
a. Job Tasks
b. Job Duties
c. Job Responsibilities
d. Job Portfolio
Clear my choice
Question 8. ______is a major component of human resource planning which includes analyzing of its current workforce and comparing it to the future requirements to discover what gaps and surpluses exist.

Select one:
a. Supply Forecast
b. Demand Forecast
c. Workforce forecasting
d. Workforce Supply
Clear my choice
Question 9. __ is not an External Source of Recruitment

Select one:
a. Campus Selection
b. Internal Advertisement
c. Consultancy
d. Walk-in
Clear my choice
Question 10. __ is the application form to be filled by the candidate when he goes for recruitment process in the organisation.

Select one:
a. Job application
b. Formal application
c. Application blank
d. None of the options
Clear my choice

Which of the following comes after the step interview in the Selection Process ?
Select one:
a. Medical Examination
b. Reference Checking
c. Employment test
d. Final Selection

A job design is referred to as Select one:
a. The division of total task to be performed into manageable and efficient units
b. A systematic way of designing and determination of the worth of a job
c. The design involving maximum acceptable job design qualities to perform a job
d. None of the options
Question 11. In STAR method of answering , “S” stands for ?
Select one:
a. Seperate
b. Simultaneous
c. Similar
d. Situation
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following is Not a common Interviewing mistake?
Select one:
a. Dressing Inappropriately
b. Reching before time for interview
c. Using your Phone during the Interview
d. Fuzzy Resume Facts
Clear my choice
Question 13. ______refers to the practice of working a second job outside normal business hours.
Select one:
a. Job rotation
b. Job Rengineering
c. Moonlighting
d. Job Design
Clear my choice
Question 14. which of the following is a factor that influence Recruitment?
Select one:
a. Size of the organization
b. Working conditions within the organization
c. Salary structure of the organization
d. All of above
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following is/are the immediate product/s of Job analysis ?
A. Job Descriptions
B. Job Restructuring
C. Job Specifications
D. Job Design
Select one:
a. Only A& B
b. Only B& C
c. Only A& C
d. All A,B,C, D
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following options is a “psychological state for working” under Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics theory .
A. Meaningfulness of work
B. Responsibility
C. Accountability
D. Knowledge of outcomes

Select one:
a. Only A & C
b. Only A, B & D
c. Only A,B,C
d. All A,B,C, D
Clear my choice
Question 17. Job Design Theory addresses which of the following basic question/s.
A. What spurs individuals to work?
B. What job attributes are critical?
C. How are job design alternatives to be recognized?
D. What job design changes are to be executed?
Select one:
a. only A& B
b. only B& C
c. only C& D
d. All A,B,C, D
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA Semester 2

3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. A _ is a career development plan that allows upward mobility for employees without requiring that they be placed into supervisory or managerial positions. Select one: a. dual career ladder b. Career Anchor c. Career development d. Career growth Clear my choice Question 2. which of the following is the first step under process of training? Select one: a. Implement Programs b. Evaluate Program c. Identifying Training Needs d. Feedback Clear my choice Question 3. _ method creates a situation that is as far as possible a replica of the real situation for imparting training.
Select one:
a. The programmed learning
b. the simulation
c. the Case study
d. the Lecture
Clear my choice
Question 4. A type of employee training system where a senior person or an experienced person acts to advice, guide and counsel a junior or trainee. He provides the desired support to the trainee and gives necessary feedback. .
Select one:
a. Coaching
b. Mentoring
c. Training
d. Career development
Clear my choice
Question 5. _is a process of identifying new leaders who can take place of the old leaders when they retire or leave the company due to any reasons. Select one: a. Career development b. Succession Planning c. Career path d. Career growth Clear my choice Question 6. Anderson’s model is a three-stage cycle that helps an organisation determine_
Select one:
a. the path for training Evaluation
b. the best training strategy for the needs.
c. Training sessions for Job design
d. human Resource Development
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is not among the 4 levels of the Kirkpatrick model
Select one:
a. Rechability
b. Learning
c. Behaviour
d. Results
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which of the following is not true about training?
Select one:
a. It is a short-duration exercise
b. It is technical in nature.
c. It is primarily for managers and executives
d. It is concerned with specific job skills.
Clear my choice
Question 9. Bandura’s Social Cognitive Theory was developed by
Select one:
a. Donald Super
b. John L. Holland
c. Albert Bandura
d. None of the options
Clear my choice
Question 10. The Kirkpatrick Model was developed by ?
Select one:
a. Abraham Maslow
b. Don Kirkpatrick
c. Marry Parker Follet
d. Rothlisberger
Clear my choice
The__ is a methodology that helps an organisation understand how a training or coaching program works well, or why it is not working.
Select one:
a. Development analysis
b. training analysis
c. Perormance Analysis
d. Success Case Method
Question 11. _ is observing and analyzing the actual performance in comparison to the desired performance. Select one: a. Task analysis b. Performance analysis c. Job analysis d. Job Evaluation Clear my choice Question 12. The term “an experienced and trusted advisor” is referring to which of the following options? Select one: a. Training b. Development c. Mentoring d. Performance management Clear my choice Question 13. Laboratory training is also known by the name_
Select one:
a. sensitivity training
b. job instruction training
c. apprenticeship training
d. None of above
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of these is an off – the – job training method?
Select one:
a. Job rotation
b. Orientation training
c. Coaching
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. Peter Warr, Michael Bird, and Neil Rackham and published their book, Evaluation of management training. Their framework for evaluating training became known as the
Select one:
a. Kirkpatrick model
b. SMART model
c. CIRO model
d. MEGA Model
Clear my choice
Question 16. This type of promotion is least preferred by the employees of a company. In this type of promotion, there is an increase in responsibilities and status, but no corresponding increase in salary and remuneration structure. This is known as _
Select one:
a. Dry Promotion
b. Vertical Promotion
c. Horizontal Promotion
d. Demotion
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following goals is NOT correct for the acronym SMART framework:
S – Specific
M – Moderate
A – Achievable/Attainable
R – Results-Oriented/Realistic/Relevant
T – Time-Bound
Select one:
a. S – Specific
b. M – Moderate
c. R – Results-Oriented/Realistic/Relevant
d. T – Time-Bound
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA Semester 2

4th Module Assessment
Question 1
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Question text
A_______ is a process of evaluating an employees performance of a job in terms of its requirements
Select one:
a. Performance Management
b. Performance analysis
c. Performance Appraisal
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is Not a characteristic of Industrial Relations ?
Select one:
a. Are outcome of employment relationship in an industrial enterprise.
b. Promote the skills and methods of adjustment and co-operation with each other.
c. Create complex rules and regulations to maintain cordial relations.
d. Creates an environment of distrust and conflict.
Clear my choice
Question 3. When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients then it is called _ Select one: a. 360 degree feedback b. 180 degree feedback c. Self – appraisal d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 4. It is defined as the area in the field of analytics that deals with people analysis and applying analytical process to the human capital within the organization to improve employee performance and improving employee retention.It is Known as
Select one:
a. Performance Management
b. Management Information System
c. Competency mapping
d. HR Analytics
Clear my choice
Question 5. Employees join unions to fulfil their needs.
Select one:
a. social
b. esteem
c. economic
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. Human Resource Information system is a
Select one:
a. System Hardware
b. system software
c. Operating system
d. Database System
Clear my choice
Question 7. ______is a way of assessing the strengths and weaknesses of a worker or organization. It is about identifying a person’s job skills and strengths in areas like teamwork, leadership and decision making. Select one: a. Self – appraisal b. 180 degree feedback c. Competency mapping d. Human Resource Development Clear my choice Question 8. A personnel manager acts as a connecting link between management and .
Select one:
a. People
b. staff
c. Executives and workers
d. Operational staff
Clear my choice
Question 9. A system which is designed to provide useful information while making decisions related to human resources of an Organisation is known as______
Select one:
a. Human Resource Information System
b. Decisional Information System
c. Benefit analysis System
d. Technological System
Clear my choice
Question 10. Communicating the __to the employees is necessary so that they can perform accordingly. Select one: a. Rewards b. Standards c. Awards d. Objective Clear my choice Question 11. Which of the following is a benefit of Benchmarking ? A. Competitive Analysis B. Monitor Performancen C. Continuous Improvement D. Planning and Goal Setting Select one: a. Only A & B b. Only A, B & D c. Only A,B,C d. All A,B,C, D Clear my choice Question 12. This method is an effort to enhance upon the straightforward ranking method. Under this method employees of a bunch are compared with each other at only once. Select one: a. Unstructured Method of Appraisal b. Paired Comparison Method c. Graphic Rating Scale d. None of the Options Clear my choice Question 13. Labour should be given proper pay out for the work. This builds up the industrial peace.This Principle is known as .
Select one:
a. The principle of Fair Reward
b. The Principle of Effective Communication
c. The Principle of High Morale
d. The Principle of Scientific Selection
Clear my choice
Question 14. _ is not focused on organizations at large, HR department or statistics about attracting or keeping talents but includes data management processes that apply to worker-related data such as internal mobility, part-time employees, gender ratio, etc.
Select one:
a. HR analytics
b. Workforce analytics
c. Business analytics
d. Data analytics
Clear my choice
Which of the following is a benefit of Benchmarking ?
A. Competitive Analysis
B. Monitor Performancen
C. Continuous Improvement
D. Planning and Goal Setting
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A, B & D
c. Only A,B,C
d. All A,B,C, D
Question 15. Trade union means any combination formed primarily for the purpose of regulating the relations between
Select one:
a. Workmen and employers permanently
b. Workmen and workmen permanently
c. Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers and employers temporary or permanent
d. Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers and employers permanently
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following options is true with respect to Human Potential Management?
A. An integrative and continuous cycle of upgrading human abilities and limits
B. Leads to the association’s advantage
C. Enhances employees’ sense of responsibility towards organisations
D. Focuses more on turning employees’ potential to their own benefits
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A, B & D
c. Only A,B,C
d. All A,B,C, D
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is a Principle of Personnel Management ?:
A. The Principle of Scientific Selection
B. The Principle of High Morale
C. The Principle of Dignity of Labour
D. The Principle of Team Spirit
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A, B & D
c. Only A,B,C
d. All A,B,C, D
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA Semester 2

Case Study:
For right or wrong reasons, Bata India Limited (Bata) always made the headlines in the financial dailies and business magazines during the late 1990s. The company was headed by the 60 year old managing director William Keith Weston (Weston). He was popularly known as a “turnaround specialist” and had successfully turned around many sick companies within the Bata Shoe Organization (BSO) group.

By the end of financial year 1999, Bata managed to report rising profits for four consecutive years after incurring its first ever loss of Rs. 420 mn in 1995. However, by the third quarter ended September 30, 2000, Weston was a worried man. Bata was once again on the downward path. The company’s nine months net profits of Rs 105.5 mn in 2000 was substantially lower than the Rs. 209.8 mn recorded in 1999. Its staff costs of Rs. 1.29 bn (23% of net sales) was also higher as compared to Rs. 1.18 bn incurred in the previous year. In September 2000, Bata was heading towards a major labour dispute as Bata Mazdoor Union (BMU) had requested West Bengal government to intervene in what it considered to be a major downsizing exercise.
With net revenues of Rs. 7.26 bn and net profit of Rs. 300.46 mn for the financial year ending December 31, 1999, Bata was India’s largest manufacturer and marketer of footwear products. As on February 08, 2001, the company had a market valuation of Rs. 3.69 bn. For years, Bata’s reasonably priced, sturdy footwear had made it one of India’s best known brands. Bata sold over 60 million pairs per annum in India and also exported its products in overseas markets including the US, the UK, Europe and Middle East countries. The company was an important operation for its Toronto, Canada based parent, the BSO group run by Thomas Bata, which owned 51% equity stake.

The company provided employment to over 15,000 people in its manufacturing and sales operations throughout India. Headquartered in Calcutta, the company manufactured over 33 million pairs per year in its five plants located in Batanagar (West Bengal), Faridabad (Haryana), Bangalore (Karnataka), Patna (Bihar) and Hosur (Tamil Nadu). The company had a distribution network of over 1,500 retail stores and 27 wholesale depots. It outsourced over 23 million pairs of footwear per year from various small-scale manufacturers.

Throughout its history, Bata was plagued by labor problems with frequent strikes and lockouts at its manufacturing facilities. The company incurred huge employee expenses (22% of net sales in 1999). Competitors like Liberty Shoes were far more cost-effective with salaries of its 5,000 strong workforce comprising just 5% of its turnover.
When the company was in the red in 1995 for the first time, BSO restructured the entire board and sent in a team headed by Weston. Soon after he stepped in several changes were made in the management. Indians, who held key positions in top management, were replaced with expatriate Weston taking over as managing director. Mike Middleton was appointed as deputy managing director and R. Senonner headed the marketing division. They made several key changes, including a complete overhaul of the company’s operations and key departments. Within two months of Weston taking over, Bata decided to sell its headquarter building in Calcutta for Rs. 19.5 crores, in a bid to stem losses. The company shifted wholesale, planning & distribution, and the commercial department to Batanagar, despite opposition from the trade unions. Robin Majumdar, president, co-ordination committee, Bata Trade Union, criticised the move, saying: “Profits may return, but honor is difficult to regain.” The management team implemented a massive revamping exercise in which more than 250 managers and their juniors were asked to quit. Bata decided to stop further recruitment.
The management team implemented a massive revamping exercise in which more than 250 managers and their juniors were asked to quit. Bata decided to stop further recruitment. The management offered its staff performance based salary. In 1996, for the first time in Bata’s 62-year-old history, the company signed a long-term bipartite agreement. This agreement was signed without any disruption of work. Recalls Majumdar: “We showed the management that we could be as productive as any other union in the country.” In the six-year period 1993-99, Bata had considerably brought down the staff strength of its Batanagar factory and Calcutta offices to 6,700.

In fiscal 1996, Bata was back in the black with the company reporting net profits of Rs. 41.5 mn on revenues of Rs. 5.90 bn (Rs. 5.32 bn in 1995). In fiscal 1997, Bata further consolidated the gains with the company reporting net profits of Rs 166.9 mn on revenues of Rs. 6.70 bn. A senior HR manager at the company admitted that with an upswing in Bata’s fortunes, even its traditionally intransigent workers were motivated to do better. In 1997, Bata workers achieved 93% of their production targets. The management rewarded the workers with a 17% bonus, up from the 15% given in 1996.

By the end of 1997, Bata still faced problems of a high-cost structure and surplus labour. Infact, the turnaround had made the unions more aggressive and demanding. Weston had failed to strike a deal with the All India Bata Shop Managers Union (AIBSMU) since the third quarter of 1997. The shop managers were insisting that Bata honor the 1990 agreement, which stipulated that the management would fill up 248 vacancies in its retail outlets. It also opposed the move to sack all the cashiers in outlets with annual sales of less than Rs 5 mn, which meant elimination of 690 jobs.

In 1999, the Bata management in a bid to further cut costs announced the phasing out of several welfare measures at its Batanagar Unit. Among the proposals were near total withdrawal of management subsidies, canteen facilities, township maintenance, electricity and health care schemes for the employees’ families. Other measures were aimed at increasing productivity, reorganizing some departments and extending working days for some essential services. On January 14, 1999, the BMU submitted their charter of demands to the management. The demands mainly revolved around economic issues. In the list of non-economic issues was the demand for reinstatement of the four dismissed employees.1 The Union had also demanded the introduction of a scheme for workers participation in management. On the economic front, the Union had demanded a wage hike of around Rs. 90 per week, additional allowances as provident fund over the statutory limit by the management, increase in ‘plan bonus’ and introduction of attendance bonus for migrant workers.

In July 1999, BMU was finally able to strike a deal. It signed a three-year wage agreement that included a lumpsum payment of arrears of Rs. 4,000 per employee. The management agreed to include 10% of the 400 contract laborers at Batanagar in its staff.
Other gains included an average increase of Rs. 45.50 in the weekly pay of the 5,600 employees in Batanagar, an improved rate of DA and increase in tiffin allowance. However, canteen rates had been doubled from Rs. 0.75 for a meal to Rs. 1.50. For the 500 families staying at Batanagar, the electricity rates had been doubled to Rs. 0.48 per unit. BMU was successful in preventing the management from dismantling the public health unit in which 80 people were employed. In September 1999, the West Bengal State labour tribunal in an order justified and upheld Bata’s action of suspending and subsequent dismissing of three executive members of the BMU. The tribunal had provided no relief to the dismissed members who had been found guilty of assaulting the chief welfare officer at the Batanagar unit on November 26, 1996.
More than half of Bata’s production came from the Batanagar factory in West Bengal, a state notorious for its militant trade unions, who derived their strength from the dominant political parties, especially the left parties.
Notwithstanding the company’s grip on the shoe market in India, Bata’s equally large reputation for corruption within, created the perception that Weston would have a difficult time. When the new management team weeded out irregularities and turned the company around within a couple of years, tackling the politicized trade unions proved to be the hardest of all tasks
On July 21, 1998, Weston was severely assaulted by four workers at the company’s factory at Batanagar, while he was attending a business meeting. The incident occurred after a member of BMU, Arup Dutta, met Weston to discuss the issue of the suspended employees. Dutta reportedly got into a verbal duel with Weston, upon which the other workers began to shout slogans. When Weston tried to leave the room the workers turned violent and assaulted him. This was the second attack on an officer after Weston took charge of the company, the first one being the assault on the chief welfare officer in 1996. Soon after the incident, the management dismissed the three employees who were involved in the violence. The employees involved accepted their dismissal letters but subsequently provoked other workers to go in for a strike to protest the management’s move. Workers at Batanagar went on a strike for two days following the incident. Commenting on the strike, Majumdar said: “The issue at Bata was much wider than that of the dismissal of three employees on grounds of indiscipline. Stoppage of recruitment and continuous farming out of jobs had been causing widespread resentment among employees for a long time.”

Following the incident, BSO decided to reconsider its investment plans at Batanagar. Senior vice-president and member of the executive committee, MJZ Mowla, said2: “We had chalked out a significant investment programme at Batanagar this year which was more than what was invested last year. However, that will all be postponed.”

The incident had opened a can of worms, said the company insiders. The three men who were charge-sheeted, were members of the 41-member committee of BMU, which had strong political connections with the ruling Communist Party of India (Marxist). The trio it was alleged, had in the past a good rapport with the senior managers, who were no longer with the organization. These managers had reportedly farmed out a large chunk of the contract operations to this trio.

Company insiders said the recent violence was more a political issue rather than an industrial relations problem, since the workers had very little to do with it. Seeing the seriousness of the issue and the party’s involvement, the state government tried to solve the problem by setting up a tripartite meeting among company officials, the labor directorate and the union representatives. The workers feared a closedown as the inquiry proceeded.

For Bata, labor had always posed major problems. Strikes seemed to be a perennial problem. Much before the assault case, Bata’s chronically restive factory at Batanagar had always been plagued by labor strife. In 1992, the factory was closed for four and a half months. In 1995, Bata entered into a 3-year bipartite agreement with the workers, represented by the then 10,000 strong BMU, which also had the West Bengal government as a signatory. It was in 1998, that the company for the first time signed another long-term bipartite agreement with the unions without any disruption of work. Apprehensive about labor problems spilling over to other units, the company entered into similar long-term agreements with the unions at its manufacturing units at Bangalore and Faridabad.
In February 1999, a lockout was declared in Bata’s Faridabad Unit. Middleton commented that the closure of the unit would not have much impact on the company’s revenues as it was catering to lower-end products such as canvas and Hawaii chappals. The lock out lasted for eight months. In October 1999, the unit resumed production when Bata signed a three-year wage agreement
On March 8, 2000, a lockout was declared at Bata’s Peenya factory in Bangalore, following a strike by its employee union. The new leadership of the union had refused to abide by the wage agreement, which was to expire in August 2001. Following the failure of its negotiations with the union, the management decided to go for a lock out. Bata management was of the view that though it would have to bear the cost of maintaining an idle plant (Rs. 3 million), the effect of the closures on sales and production would be minimal as the footwear manufactured in the factory could be shifted to the company’s other factories and associate manufacturers. The factory had 300 workers on its rolls and manufactured canvas and PVC footwear.

In July 2000, Bata lifted the lockout at the Peenya factory. However, some of the workers opposed the company’s move to get an undertaking from the factory employees to resume work. The employees demanded revocation of suspension against 20 of their fellow employees. They also demanded that conditions such as maintaining normal production schedule, conforming to standing orders and the settlement in force should not be insisted upon.

In September 2000, Bata was again headed for a labour dispute when the BMU asked the West Bengal government to intervene in what it perceived to be a downsizing exercise being undertaken by the management. BMU justified this move by alleging that the management has increased outsourcing of products and also due to perceived declining importance of the Batanagar unit. The union said that Bata has started outsourcing the Power range of fully manufactured shoes from China, compared to the earlier outsourcing of only assembly and sewing line job. The company’s production of Hawai chappals at the Batanagar unit too had come down by 58% from the weekly capacity of 0.144 million pairs. These steps had resulted in lower income for the workers forcing them to approach the government for saving their interests.
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA Semester 2

Conflict Resolution and Management (BS602)-Semester II
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1st Module Assessment

Question 1. Identify which of the following is a way to resolve conflict ?
Select one:
a. Taking out your anger on someone else
b. Yell at each other
c. Uncertainity
d. inputs
Clear my choice
Question 2. _________involves the steps undertaken to prevent the conflict at the right time and also helps to resolve it in an effective and smooth manner.

Select one:
a. Goal conflict
b. Affective Conflict
c. Conflict Management
d. Cognitive Conflict
Clear my choice
Question 3. Most conflicts have their roots in uncertainity , and negotiation is the way of managing the

Select one:
a. resultant risk
b. failure
c. Uncertainity
d. inputs
Clear my choice
Question 4. __ is defined as a clash between individuals arising out of a difference in thought process, attitudes, understanding, interests, requirements and even sometimes perceptions

Select one:
a. Conflict
b. Friendship
c. Differences
d. Relationships
Clear my choice
Question 5. _________is situation in which desired end states or preferred outcomes appear to be incompatible.

Select one:
a. Cognitive Conflict
b. Goal conflict
c. Common Conflict
d. Affective Conflict
Clear my choice
Question 6. Conflict is________

Select one:
a. an unavoidable fact of life
b. sometimes constructive
c. a destructive force in relationships if continually avoided
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 7. The process which begins when one party percieves that the other party is frustrated or is about to frustrate , with some concern of his , is known as _

Select one:
a. Conflict
b. Risk
c. Uncertainity
d. Poor management
Clear my choice
Question 8. This Type of conflict occurs between different groups within a larger organization or those who do not have the same overarching goals.

Select one:
a. Intergroup Conflict
b. Intra group Conflict
c. Intrapersonal Conflict
d. Interpersonal Conflict
Clear my choice
Question 9. ______is conflicts between two or more people in any setting; it may be at work or among friends.

Select one:
a. Interpersonal Conflict
b. Intergroup conflict
c. Intragroup conflict
d. Intrapersonal Conflict
Clear my choice
Question 10. Due to the _, a pervasive human tendency, when things go wrong in our lives, we often blame factors outside of our control.

Select one:
a. personal intervention
b. Cognitive Conflict
c. fundamental attribution error
d. BATNA
Clear my choice
Question 11. Which of the following can be adopted to control the conflict ?
A. Good Listening Skills
B. Never Criticize
C. Effective communication Skills
D. Having Patience
Select one:
a. All A, B C, D
b. Only A , B & C
c. Only A & B
d. Only B & D
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following Options is a tactic of avoiding conflict?

Select one:
a. compromising
b. competing
c. stonewalling
d. autonomy
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following is related to interpersonal conflict ? A. Personality Clashes B. Ineffective Communication C. Lack Of Trust
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A & C
c. All A,B,C
d. Only A
Clear my choice
Question 14. This conflict occurs between two or more people in a larger organization. It can result from different personalities or differing perspectives on how to accomplish goals. Interpersonal conflict may even occur without one party realizing there was ever conflict.

Select one:
a. Individual Conflict
b. Interpersonal Conflict
c. Intrapersonal Conflict
d. Friendship conflict
Clear my choice
Question 15. This refers to an internal dispute and involves only one individual. This conflict arises out of your own thoughts, emotions, ideas, values and predispositions. It can occur when you are struggling between what you “want to do” and what you “should do.”

Select one:
a. Individual Conflict
b. Interpersonal Conflict
c. Intrapersonal Conflict
d. Friendship conflict
Clear my choice
Question 16. You and your partner have had a heated disagreement. Emotions are raw, and feelings have been hurt. You approach your partner after a brief silence: “I’m sorry I attacked you like that. I got angry and said things I didn’t mean.” This is an example of the collaborating tactic called

Select one:
a. integration
b. smoothing
c. expanding the pie
d. confrontation
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following options is a feature of conflict ?
A. One person betrays the trust of another.
B. Two or more parties have differing or opposing agendas, goals, or desires.
C. One person creates conflict by saying or doing something thoughtless or irresponsible.
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A & C
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
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2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. Who were the co-creators of the concept of NLP?

Select one:
a. Richard Bandler
b. John Binder
c. Frank Pucelik
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which other term does NOT describe the effect of rapport?

Select one:
a. Being in sync
b. Biology
c. Clicking
d. Chemistry
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which among the following is/ are techniques of NLP?

Select one:
a. Time Travel
b. Macro Strategies
c. Milton Model
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which among the following is NOT a way to improve communication discussed in this session?

Select one:
a. Study and understand non-verbal cues
b. Emotions management
c. Building rapport and NLP
d. Identifying problems with communication
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of these is NOT an example of Interpersonal communication?

Select one:
a. Expressing emotions through facial expressions
b. News reading through sign language
c. Sending a party invite
d. Airport announcements
Clear my choice
Question 6. Which theory suggests that we gain information to interact effectively?

Select one:
a. Social Interaction
b. Social Penetration
c. Social Inclusion
d. Social Function
Clear my choice
Question 7. Conflict Management is an important interpersonal skill. This statement is:

Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. DON’T KNOW
d. CANT SAY
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which element/ stage enables the sender to understand whether the message has been interpreted correctly or not?

Select one:
a. Noise
b. Feedback
c. Channel
d. Message
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which actions help in mirroring technique?

Select one:
a. Matching breath rhythm
b. Matching voice tone
c. Matching energy levels
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 10. What are some examples of attitudinal barriers?

Select one:
a. Differences in perception
b. Lack of interest/ motivation
c. Prejudices
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 11. Most recommended style of communication is assertive. This statement is:

Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. DON’T KNOW
d. CANT SAY
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which among the following is NOT a part of the Behavioral Communication Continuum?
Select one:
a. Communications often involve distorted messages
b. Communicates non-verbally
c. Communicates via clear messages
d. Communicates indirectly
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of these is/ are aspects of the amiable behavioral style?

Select one:
a. Dislikes details
b. Values time
c. Maybe impatient
d. ALL of the options
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of these is/ are aspects of the amiable behavioral style?

Select one:
a. Define goals
b. Exhibit empathy
c. Involve everyone
d. ALL of the options
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following is a feature of Interpersonal Communication?
A. It Is a Dynamic Process
B. It Is Irreversible
C. It Is Learned

Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following can be a technique for establishing rapport ?
A. Actively listen
B. Find common ground
C. Remember people’s names
D. Reserve judgment

Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A , B & C
c. Only B & D
d. All A, B C, D
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Interpersonal Communication.?

Select one:
a. Showing Empathy and Understanding
b. Not Being Respectful of Others
c. Being a Clear Communicator
d. Being Receptive to Feedback
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3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. Every individual’s perception of relationships is affected by their view of inter-relationship between self and others. Is this statement?
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partially True
d. CANT SAY
Clear my choice
Question 2. The need for relationships are influenced by personal eneds of human beings as explored in psychology by William Schultz. This statement is ?
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. DON’T KNOW
d. CANT SAY
Clear my choice
Question 3. Sustaining healthy relationships entails which of the following behaviors?:
Select one:
a. Pretending not to judge
b. Fearing rejection constantly
c. Sharing experiences/ activities
d. Agreeing just for appearances
Clear my choice
Question 4. Positive social interactions have been referred to as appetizers by Reis & Gable (2003). this statement is ?
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partially True
d. CANT SAY
Clear my choice
Question 5. Healthy relationships entail which of the following behaviour?:
Select one:
a. Being open to admitting mistakes and correcting them
b. Fulfilling the law of reciprocity
c. Acting in line with what one thinks and says
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 6. The factors leading to healthy relationships are also signs of healthy relationships. this statement IS ?
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partially True
d. CANT SAY
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following are important components of MCM
Select one:
a. Vocal
b. Verbal
c. Visual
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which of the following is NOT one of the types of work relationships?
Select one:
a. Tentative
b. Trusted
c. Targeted
d. Tactful
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which of the following is NOT a way to build good/ healthy workplace relationships?:
Select one:
a. Sacrificing personal beliefs/ principles
b. Identifying relationship needs
c. Focusing on positivity
d. Maintaining boundaries
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which of the following is NOT a way to manage difficult workplace relationships?:
Select one:
a. Be upfront
b. Be aggressive
c. Be mindful of mental health issues
d. Be tolerant
Clear my choice
Question 11. Nonverbal communication is the use of , tone of voice, body language, and facial expressions to communicate your thoughts and feelings without using words.
Select one:
a. Electronic devices
b. social media
c. gestures
d. anger
Clear my choice
Question 12. _ is thought to be the most effective and healthy style of communication.
Select one:
a. Assertive Communication
b. Verbal Communication
c. Written Communication
d. Gestures
Clear my choice
Question 13. Making a presentation requires which of the following forms of communication.
A. Verbal communication
B. Nonverbal communication
C. Written communication
D. Visual communication
Select one:
a. All A, B C, D
b. Only A , B & C
c. Only B & D
d. Only A & B
Clear my choice
Question 14. ___________is characterized by actions and behaviors that benefit the other person.
Select one:
a. Intentionality Levels
b. Assistive Attitude
c. Resistive Attitude
d. Hypo telic Level of Intention (I have a doubt on this)
Clear my choice
Question 15. As per Mehrabian’s Communication Model findings , which of the following is not correct ?

A. 7% of message pertaining to feelings and attitudes is in the words that are spoken
B. 38% of message pertaining to feelings and attitudes is paralinguistic (the way that the words are said).
C. 55% of message pertaining to feelings and attitudes is in facial expression.
D. 15 % Pertaining to the Gestures
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only D
c. Only A & B
d. Only C
Clear my choice
Question 16. Healthy relationships are important in the workplace in order to :
A. Build Trust
B. Increase Work Efficiency
C. Reduce Stress
D. To Boost an Employee’s Morale
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A , B & C
c. Only B & D
d. All A, B C, D
Clear my choice
Question 17. __ refers to an individual’s acts and behavior that are directed towards the recipient and appear to weaken the other person.
Select one:
a. Resistive attitude
b. Intentionality Levels
c. Assistive Attitude
d. Hypo telic Level of Intention
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4th Module Assessment
Question 1. Which of the following are signs of Behavioral stress?
A. Chewing of nails
B. Sleeplessness
C. Drug abuse
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A & C
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
Clear my choice
Question 2. Coping with stress is a function of?
A. Our DNA
B. Our mental make up
C. Our internal resilience
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A & C
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
Clear my choice
Question 3. Demonstrating resilience in coping with stress means
A. Ability to fight stress
B. Bounce back quickly
C. Look for potential solutions to deal with stress
Select one:
a. All A,B,C
b. Only A & C
c. Only B & C
d. Only A & B
Clear my choice
Question 4. Giving an employee an order to leave the organization is an example of what kind of stress?
Select one:
a. Physical
b. Psychological
c. Encounter
d. Emotional
Clear my choice
Question 5. When you are resilient, you tend to
Select one:
a. Focus on the problem
b. Focus on the solution
c. Worry all the time
d. Be Paranoid
Clear my choice
Question 6. Chronic Stress on account of emotions is usually related to?
Select one:
a. Anger
b. Frustration
c. Depression
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is not a cognitive ability?
Select one:
a. Data analysis
b. Singing
c. Comprehension
d. Problem solving
Clear my choice
Question 8. Behavioral warning sign of stress is?
A. Appetite change
B. Indulging in vices
C. Procrastination
Select one:
a. All A,B,C
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & C
d. Only A
Clear my choice
Question 9. Stress impacts?
Select one:
a. Physical condition
b. Mental condition
c. Psychological well being
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which of the following is not an emotional ability?
Select one:
a. Connecting with people
b. Deep relationships
c. Data Interpretation
d. Reaching out to help
Clear my choice
Question 11. The ability to laugh over worrying situation is an example of
Select one:
a. Stressors
b. Being aware of situations
c. Being Resilient
d. Raising self awareness
Clear my choice
Question 12. Emotional warning sign of stress is?
A. Agitation
B. Mood swings
C. Hypertension
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. All A,B,C
c. Only B & C
d. Only A
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following can be a Stress trigger
A. Job loss
B. Family issues
C. Financial pressures
Select one:
a. All A,B,C
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & C
d. Only A
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following is an example of Good stress?
A. A Promotion speech
B. Going on a vacation
C. Buying a house
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A & C
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following is an example of stress on account of internal factors?
A. Low self esteem
B. Pessimism
C. Repeated failures
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of this is not a Stress Management techniques
Select one:
a. Developing a hobby
b. Networking with like minded people
c. Focusing on the problem & not the solution
d. Seeking a Therapist
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is not true for managing GAS
Select one:
a. Yoga
b. Paranoia
c. Relaxation
d. Meditation
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5th Module Assessment

Question 1. Allowing emotions to take over can result in?
Select one:
a. Breakdown in communication
b. Parties moving away from the discussion table
c. Being seen an unprofessional
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 2. Addressing matters in private is a powerful resolution tool since?
A. It provides dignity & respect
B. Helps the other person open up
C. Eliminates the involvement of bystanders
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A & C
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
Clear my choice
Question 3. A Conflict is ?
A. Disagreement
B. Having different views
C. Value systems not aligned
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. Only A & C
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
Clear my choice
Question 4. Organization stresses can be both internal & external. This Statement is ?
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partially True
d. CANT SAY
Clear my choice
Question 5. BATNA kicks when?
A. There is a buyer
B. There is a seller
C. There is an intent to negotiate
Select one:
a. All A,B,C
b. Only A & C
c. Only B & C
d. Only A & B
Clear my choice
Question 6. When someone uses authority to push a decision, it is?
Select one:
a. Reconciliation
b. Withdrawal
c. Forcing
d. Accommodating
Clear my choice
Question 7. The negatives of Conflict are?
Select one:
a. Animosity
b. Bitterness
c. Loss of productivity
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 8. In Kenneth Thomas and Ralph Kilmann Strategy Model model, accommodating means ?
Select one:
a. Problem Solving
b. Trying to include others
c. Withdrawal
d. Side stepping a conflict
Clear my choice
Question 9. A positive conflict between Sales & Marketing Teams can result in?
Select one:
a. Better consumer communication
b. Market share gains
c. Enhancement of creativity
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 10. Positive conflict results in ?
A. Better outcomes
B. Different points of views
C. Better creativity
Select one:
a. All A,B,C
b. Only A & C
c. Only B & C
d. Only A & B
Clear my choice
Question 11. When there is lack of trust, what technique is used?
Select one:
a. Reconciliation
b. Withdrawal
c. Compromise
d. Accommodating
Clear my choice
Question 12. Addressing matters in private is a powerful resolution tool since?
A. It provides dignity & respect
B. Helps the other person open up
C. Eliminates the involvement of bystanders
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only A & B
c. All A,B,C
d. Only B & C
Clear my choice
Question 13. resolution tool since?
A. It calms the other person
B. Helps one get away from stress & anxiety
C. Reduces the possibility of other person becoming aggressive
Select one:
a. All A,B,C
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & C
d. Only A
Clear my choice
Question 14. A sellers WATNA is?
A. How much low can he go on transaction
B. How much high can he go on transaction
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Both A & B
d. None of the options
Clear my choice
Question 15. Online Conflict Resolution is important in modern day context because?
A. Disputing parties could be remotely located
B. People cant travel all the time
C. The mediator / arbitrator may not be in the same location as the disputing parties
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
Clear my choice
Question 16. WATNA is a ?
A. Conflict management tool
B. A negotiation tool
C. A business transaction tool
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
Clear my choice
Question 17. BATNA is a ?
A. Conflict management tool
B. A negotiation tool
C. A business transaction tool
Select one:
a. Only A & B
b. All A , B & C
c. Only B & C
d. Only A & C
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Assignment 2
Case Study:

Tension in the workplace can be a result of multiple factors. Such as job dissatisfaction, cultural differences, personal aspirations, and many more. If left undealt with, these issues can wreak havoc on your employees’ productivity. They can cause even deeper problems like absenteeism and high employee turnover.
Although conflicts have a negative connotation, you can turn them around and make them work to your advantage!
Conflict management is the sum of techniques and practices a good team leader follows to handle conflicts among staff members or between employees and the higher management.
Employee dispute resolution in the workplace is not an easy task. It takes a lot of sensible thinking and a sense of fairness to bring the two opposite sides to compromise and work out their differences in a civilized manner.
There are several approaches to conflict management. Depending on the type of conflict, you can choose a different course of action. Unfortunately, there are many types of conflict in the workplace, and it would be wise to be aware of most of them.
Workplace conflict is inevitable when employees of various backgrounds and different work styles are brought together for a shared business purpose. Conflict can—and should—be managed and resolved. With tensions and anxieties at an all-time high due to the current political divide and racial inequity discussions at work, the chances for workplace conflict have increased. This toolkit examines the causes and effects of workplace conflict and the reasons why employers should act to address conflict.
The first steps in handling workplace conflict belong, in most cases, to the employees who are at odds with one another. The employer’s role—exercised by managers and HR professionals—is significant, however, and is grounded in the development of a workplace culture designed to prevent conflict among employees to the extent possible. The basis for such a culture is strong employee relations, namely, fairness, trust and mutual respect at all levels.
Employers can manage workplace conflict by creating an organizational culture designed to preclude conflict as much as possible and by dealing promptly and equitably with conflict that employees cannot resolve among themselves. To manage conflict, employers should consider the following:
 Make certain that policies and communication are clear and consistent, and make the rationale for decisions transparent.
 Ensure that all employees—not just managers—are accountable for resolving conflict.
 Do not ignore conflict, and do not avoid taking steps to prevent it.
 Seek to understand the underlying emotions of the employees in conflict.
 Keep in mind that approaches to resolving conflict may depend on the circumstances of the conflict.
Most often Conflict at workplace can occour because
Select one:
a. Coworkers steal each other’s ideas
b. Competition between coworkers is brutal
c. Two sets of demands, goals, or motives are incompatible.
d. Management is too demanding of workers.
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is NOTa typical behavior of workplace bullies ?
Select one:
a. Giving compliments.
b. Making threats.
c. Interrupting others.
d. Creating physical and mental stress for others.
Clear my choice
Question 3. Both positive and negative consequences of conflict can occour in workplace. A positive consequence is ___, while a negative consequence is _.
Select one:
a. Becoming more creative, wasting time and energy
b. Receiving attention from management, giving money to charity
c. Finding better employment elsewhere, receiving attention from management
d. Financial and emotional costs, becoming united after the conflict
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is not an effective technique for resolving conflict with angry people ?
Select one:
a. Confront.
b. Contain.
c. Connect.
d. Compassion
Clear my choice
Question 5. Tension in the workplace can be a result of which of the following factors ?
A. job dissatisfaction
B. cultural differences
C. personal aspirations
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & C
d. All A,B,C
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