Accounting for Managers (ACCT602)-Semester I

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Accounting for Managers (ACCT602)-Semester I

1st Module Assessment

Question 1. Which one of the following can the accounting equation can be rewritten as?

Select one:

a. Assets + profit – drawings – liabilities = closing capital

b. Assets – liabilities – opening capital + drawings = profit

c. Assets – liabilities – drawings = opening capital + profit

d. Assets – profit – drawings = closing capital – liabilities

Clear my choice

Question 2. Accounting is basically concerned with

Select one:

a. Forecasting

b. Measurement

c. Management

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 3. Which of the following is an example of Personal Account?

Select one:

a. Machinery

b. Cash

c. Creditor

d. Rent

Clear my choice

Question 4. Which of the following is not a financial statement?

Select one:

a. Balance sheet

b. Profit and loss account

c. Trial balance

d. Cash flow statement

Clear my choice

Question 5. Book keeping is a mechanical task which involves –

Select one:

a. Collecting of basic financial information.

b. Classifying effects of economic transactions

c. both (a) and (b)

d. None

Clear my choice

Question 6. Purchases book is used to record

Select one:

a. All purchases of goods

b. All credit purchases of assets other than goods

c. All credit purchase

d. All credit purchases of goods

Clear my choice

Question 7. Based on which of the following concepts, is share capital account shown on the liabilities side of a balance sheet?

Select one:

a. going concern concept

b. matching concept

c. business entity concept

d. money measurement concept

Clear my choice

Question 8. Accounting does not record non-financial transactions because of

Select one:

a. Cost Concept

b. Accrual Concept

c. Entity concept

d. Money Measurement Concept

Clear my choice

Question 9. The determination of expenses for an accounting period is based on the concept of

Select one:

a. Matching

b. Objectivity

c. Materiality

d. periodicity

Clear my choice

Question 10. Real a/c debit balance indicates –

Select one:

a. Asset

b. Loss

c. Income

d. Expenses

Clear my choice

Question 11. Income and Expenditure Account is a

Select one:

a. Personal Account

b. Nominal Account

c. Real Account

d. Artificial Personal Account

Clear my choice

Question 12. Purchase of a laptop for office use wrongly debited to Purchase Account. It is an error of

Select one:

a. Omission

b. Principle

c. Misposting

d. Commission

Clear my choice

Question 13. Debit balance as per bank pass book means –

Select one:

a. Surplus cash

b. Terms deposits with bank

c. Bank overdraft

d. None of these

Clear my choice

Question 14. Creditors ledger adjustment account is opened in

Select one:

a. General Ledger

b. Either (B) or (C)

c. Debtors Ledger

d. Creditors Ledger

Clear my choice

Question 15. Are the following statements about debit entries true or false? 1- A debit entry in the cash book will increase an overdraft in the accounts. 2- A debit entry in the cash book will increase a bank balance in the accounts.

Select one:

a. Both true

b. 1 false and 2 true

c. Both false

d. 1 true and 2 false

Clear my choice

Question 16. You are given the following information: Receivables at 1 January 20X3 $10,000, Receivables at 31 December 20X3 $9,000, Total receipts during 20X3 (including cash sales of $5,000) $85,000, What are sales on credit during 20X3?

Select one:

a. $79,000

b. $84,000

c. $86,000

d. $81,000

Clear my choice

Question 17. A business sells $100 worth of goods to a customer, the customer pays $50 in cash immediately and will pay the remaining $50 in 30 days’ time. What is the double entry to record the purchase in the customer’s accounting records?

Select one:

a. Debit cash $50, credit payables $50, credit purchases $50

b. Debit purchases $100, credit payables $50, credit cash $50

c. Debit purchases $100, credit cash $100

d. Debit payables $50, debit cash $50, credit purchases $100

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2nd Module Assessment

An increase in the provision for doubtful debt will

Select one:

a. Decrease in net profit

b. Increase in net profit

c. Increase in liability

d. Non of the above

Question 1. Inventory is

Select one:

a. Included in the category of fixed assets

b. An intangible fixed asset

c. A part of current assets

d. An investment

Clear my choice

Question 2. Change in the method of depreciation is change in _______.

Select one:

a. Measurement discipline

b. Accounting policy

c. None of the above

d. Accounting estimate

Clear my choice

Question 3. Among the financial statements, ___________ is/ are referred to as ‘period statement’.

Select one:

a. Trading Account

b. Both (a) and (b)

c. Balance Sheet

d. Profit & Loss Account

Clear my choice

Question 4. Gross profit is the difference between

Select one:

a. Sales and non-operating expenses

b. None of the above

c. Sales and cost of goods sold

d. Sales and operating expenses

Clear my choice

Question 5. Depreciation is a –

Select one:

a. Provision

b. Reserve

c. Liability

d. Loss

Clear my choice

Question 6. The financial statements of an organisation are drafted using the ___________.

Select one:

a. Ledger balances

b. Events

c. None of the above.

d. Transactions

Clear my choice

Question 7. The purpose of preparing final accounts is to ascertain ___________

Select one:

a. Capital

b. The value of assets

c. Profit or loss

d. Profit or loss and financial position

Clear my choice

Question 8. ________ Account charges the COGS and other direct expenses and losses against the sales revenue to determine the gross operating result of the concern during a particular accounting period.

Select one:

a. Receipts & Payments

b. Trading

c. Income & Expenditure

d. Profit & Loss

Clear my choice

Question 9. Balance sheet is prepared

Select one:

a. None of the above

b. At a particular date

c. At the close of a day

d. For the close of a period

Clear my choice

Question 10. Bank overdraft is a

Select one:

a. An asset

b. A liability

c. Revenue

d. Expenses

Clear my choice

If a company wants to earn a 25% profit on sales, what will be the profit mark up on the cost.

Select one:

a. 20%

b. 33.33%

c. 25%

d. 30%

Question 11. Obsolescence of a depreciable asset may be caused by: I. Technological changes II. Improvement in production method. III. Change in market demand for the product or service output. IV. Legal or other restrictions.

Select one:

a. All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above

b. None

c. Both (I) and (II) above

d. Only (I) above

Clear my choice

Question 12. All of the following support the objectives of financial reporting except providing information that

Select one:

a. helps management evaluate alternative projects

b. is useful for making investment and credit decisions

c. concerns enterprise resources and claims to those resources

d. helps investors and creditors predict future cash flows

Clear my choice

Question 13. If a concern proposes to discontinue its business from March 2015 and decides to dispose of all its plants within a period of 4 months, the Balance Sheet as on March 31, 2015 should indicate the plants at their

Select one:

a. Historical cost

b. All

c. Net realizable value

d. Cost less depreciation

Clear my choice

Question 14. Assets are listed on the balance sheet in the order of their

Select one:

a. liquidity

b. purchase date

c. balance

d. adjustments

Clear my choice

Question 15. Which of the following items may appear as current liabilities in a company’s statement of financial position? 1 Revaluation surplus, 2 Loan due for repayment within one year, 3 Taxation, 4 Preference dividend payable on redeemable preference shares

Select one:

a. 1, 2 and 4

b. 1, 3 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 1, 2 and 3

Clear my choice

Question 16. Original cost = INR. 12,60,000; Salvage value = Nil; Useful life = 6 years. Depreciation for the first year under sum of years digits method will be

Select one:

a. 1,55,000

b. 1,20,000

c. 1,80,000

d. 3,60,000

Clear my choice

Question 17. Which of the following might appear as an item in a company’s statement of changes in equity? 1 Profit on disposal of properties 2 Surplus on revaluation of properties 3 Equity dividends proposed after the reporting date 4 Issue of share capital

Select one:

a. 3 and 4 only

b. 2 and 4 only

c. 1 and 2 only

d. 1, 3 and 4 only

Clear my choice

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3rd Module Assessment

 

International accounting standards are currently developed by which entity?

Select one:

a. Financial Services Authority

b. International Accounting Standards Board

c. International Accounting Standards Committee

d. None of the above

Question 1. Equity equals

Select one:

a. Assets – Liabilities.

b. Assets + Liabilities.

c. None of the above

d. Liabilities – Assets.

Clear my choice

Question 2. Which of the following elements represents an economic resource ?

Select one:

a. None of the above

b. Owners ’ equity

c. Asset

d. Liability

Clear my choice

Question 3Which of the following items would most likely be classifi ed as a fi nancing activity?

Select one:

a. Investments in the stock of a supplier

b. Payment of income taxes

c. Issuance of debt

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 4

Which of the following items would most likely be classifi ed as an operating activity?

Select one:

a. Acquisition of a competitor

b. Issuance of debt

c. None of the above

d. Sale of automobiles by an automobile dealer

Clear my choice

Question 5. Retained earnings are a component of

Select one:

a. liabilities.

b. owners ’ equity.

c. minority interest.

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 6. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a coherent fi nancial reporting framework?

Select one:

a. Consistency

b. Transparency

c. None of the above

d. Timeliness

Clear my choice

Question 7. Which of the following elements represents a residual claim?

Select one:

a. None of the above

b. Asset

c. Owners ’ equity

d. Liability

Clear my choice

Question 8. The statement of cash fl ows presents the fl ows into which three groups of business activities?

Select one:

a. None of the above

b. Operating, nonoperating, and investing

c. Operating, investing, and fi nancing

d. Operating, nonoperating, and fi nancing

Clear my choice

Question 9. Which of the following is not an objective of fi nancial statements as expressed by the International Accounting Standards Board?

Select one:

a. To provide information about the performance of an entity

b. To provide information about the fi nancial position of an entity

c. To provide information about the users of an entity ’ s fi nancial statements

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 10. Debt due within one year is considered

Select one:

a. preferred.

b. None of the above

c. long term.

d. current.

Clear my choice

Which of the following ratios would be most useful in determining a company ’ s ability to cover its debt payments?

Select one:

a. None of the above

b. ROA

c. Total asset turnover

d. Fixed charge coverage

Question 11. Comparison of a company ’ s financial results to other peer companies for the same time period is called

Select one:

a. None of the above

b. time – series analysis.

c. cross – sectional analysis.

d. horizontal analysis.

Clear my choice

Question 12. Which ratio would a company most likely use to measure its ability to meet short – term obligations?

Select one:

a. Payables turnover

b. None of the above

c. Gross profi t margin

d. Current ratio

Clear my choice

Question 13. What does the P/E ratio measure?

Select one:

a. The earnings for one common share of stock.

b. None of the above

c. The relationship between dividends and market prices.

d. The “ multiple ” that the stock market places on a company ’ s EPS.

Clear my choice

Question 14. In order to assess a company ’ s ability to fulfill its long – term obligations, an analyst would most likely examine

Select one:

a. activity ratios.

b. None of the above

c. liquidity ratios.

d. solvency ratios.

Clear my choice

Question 15. An analyst has projected that a company will have assets of € 2,000 at year – end and liabilities of € 1,200. The analyst ’ s projection of total owners ’ equity should be closest to

Select one:

a. € 3,200.00

b. € 4,000.00

c. € 2,000.00

d. € 800.00

Clear my choice

Question 16. For fi nancial assets classifi ed as available for sale, how are unrealized gains and losses reflected in shareholders ’ equity?

Select one:

a. They fl ow through retained earnings

b. As a separate line item (other comprehensive income).

c. They are not recognized

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 17. Defining total asset turnover as revenue divided by average total assets, all else equal, impairment write – downs of long – lived assets owned by a company will most likely result in an increase for that company in

Select one:

a. both the debt – to – equity ratio and the total asset turnover.

b. the debt – to – equity ratio but not the total asset turnover.

c. None of the above

d. the total asset turnover but not the debt – to – equity ratio

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4th Module Assessment

One of the following is NOT an objective of cost accounting

Select one:

a. To provide information to aid control

b. To provide information for decision making

c. To ascertain cost and facilitate pricing

d. To investigate fraud

Question 1. Under marginal costing the cost of product includes

Select one:

a. Prime costs only

b. Price costs and variable overheads

c. Prime costs and factory overheads

d. Prime costs and fixed overheads

Clear my choice

Question 2. Cost accounting is an integral part of

Select one:                                                          

a. Management accounting

b. Treasury accounting

c. Forensic accounting

d. Financial accounting

Clear my choice

Question 3. Cost which is related to specific cost object and economically traceable is classified as

Select one:

a. direct cost

b. staff cost

c. line cost

d. indirect cost

Clear my choice

Question 4. Costs are classified as fixed or variable on basis of

Select one:

a. given time period

b. both a and b

c. common activity

d. specific activity

Clear my choice

Question 5. The standard which is attainable under favourable conditions is

Select one:

a. Basic standard

b. Expected standard

c. Normal standard

d. Theoretical standard

Clear my choice

Question 6. Materials cost do NOT include cost of

Select one:

a. Raw materials

b. Fixed assets

c. Packing materials

d. Work in progress

Clear my choice

Question 7. Process of tracing direct costs and allocation of indirect costs is classified as

Select one:

a. economic assignment

b. indirect assignment

c. cost assignment

d. direct assignment

Clear my choice

Question 8. In accounting, cost which is predicted to be incurred or future cost is classified as

Select one:

a. actual cost

b. budgeted cost

c. past cost

d. incurred cost

Clear my choice

Question 9. Under standard cost system the cost of the product determined at the beginning of production is its:

Select one:

a. Actual cost

b. Pre-determined cost

c. Direct cost

d. Historical cost

Clear my choice

Question 10. The deviations between actual and standard cost is known as

Select one:

a. Variance analysis

b. Multiple analysis

c. Variable cost analysis

d. Linear trend analysis

Clear my choice

When sales exceed production (in units) then profit under

Select one:

a. None of above

b. Marginal costing is higher than that of absorption costing

c. Marginal costing is equal than that of absorption costing

d. Marginal costing is lower than that of absorption costing

Question 11. When sales and production (in units) are same then profit under

Select one:

a. Marginal costing is lower than that of absorption costing

b. Marginal costing is equal to that of absorption costing

c. Marginal costing is higher than that of absorption costing

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 12. Period costs are

Select one:

a. Prime costs

b. Variable costs

c. Fixed costs

d. Overheads costs

Clear my choice

Question 13. Which of the following variance arises when more than one material is used in the manufacture of a product

Select one:

a. Material yield variance

b. Material mix variance

c. Material usage variance

d. Material price variance

Clear my choice

Question 14. The main difference between marginal costing and absorption costing is regarding the treatment of

Select one:

a. Direct materials

b. Variable overheads

c. Prime cost

d. Fixed overheads

Clear my choice

Question 15. If P/V ratio is 40% of sales then what about the remaining 60% of sales

Select one:

a. Margin of safety

b. Fixed cost

c. Profit

d. Variable cost

Clear my choice

Question 16. The P/V ratio of a product is 0.6 and profit is INR. 9,000. The margin of safety is

Select one:

a. INR. 3,600

b. INR. 5,400

c. INR. 22,500

d. INR. 15,000

Clear my choice

Question 17. The classification of fixed and variable cost is useful for the preparation of

Select one:

a. Master budget

b. Cash budget

c. Flexible budget

d. Capital budget

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5th Module Assessment

Income from investments is a cash flow from –

Select one:

a. None of the above

b. Investing activities

c. Operating activities

d. Financing activities

Question 1          expenses related to business are charged:

Select one:

a. Profit and loss account

b. Trading account

c. Directly to Balance sheet

d. Trading account Profit and Loss account

Clear my choice

Question 2. Accounting for price level changes may also be sometimes called as —————

Select one:

a. Environmental Accounting

b. None of the above

c. Inflation Accounting

d. Deflation Accounting

Clear my choice

Question 3. The global key professional accounting body is —

Select one:

a. The Financial Accounting Standards Board

b. The International Accounting Standards Committee

c. The International Accounting Standards Committee

d. The International Accounting Standards Board

Clear my choice

Question 4. Accounting in India is governed by the —

Select one:

a. Income Tax Department

b. Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

c. Reserve Bank of India

d. Company Law Board

Clear my choice

Question 5. The main objective of preparing price level changes accounting is to————-

Select one:

a. Both A & B ()

b. Inflate the values based on a predetermined factor price()

c. None of the above

d. Match the financial report to the current price levels

Clear my choice

Question 6. The accounting process in which the financial statements of a parent company and its subsidiaries are added together to yield a unified set of financial statements is called —

Select one:

a. translation

b. amortization

c. consolidation

d. amalgamation

Clear my choice

Question 7. Based on the following type of accounting—————— an appropriate choice whether to make investment in manpower or other resources is made

Select one:

a. Inflation Accounting

b. Human Resource Accounting

c. Creative Accounting

d. Financial Accounting

Clear my choice

Question 8. …………………Accounting deals with employees and management in an organization

Select one:

a. Environment

b. None of the above

c. Inflation

d. Human Resource

Clear my choice

Question 9. The art of valuing, recording and presenting the value of human capital of an organization in an systematic manner is known as ——————

Select one:

a. Human Resource

b. Human Resource Accounting

c. Human Resource Management

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 10. The increase of decrease in the prices of various goods and services over a period of time is known as———————-

Select one:

a. Price Level Changes

b. Inflation

c. None of the above

d. Deflation

Clear my choice

One of the objectives of ——————- accounting is to provide sound and effective basis for quality control.

Select one:

a. IPR Accounting

b. Creative Accounting

c. Human Resource Accounting

d. None of the above

Question 11. The basic premises of Human Resource Accounting ———————-

Select one:

a. Both A & B

b. None of the above

c. Human is a valuable resource, and its development expenditure is a valuable Investment

d. Human beings are skillful and their development is an additional expenditure

Clear my choice

Question 12. …………………………Approach suggests that the expenditure on Human Resource needs to be capitalized and not transfer it to profit and loss account.

Select one:

a. Historical Cost Approach

b. None of the above

c. Both A & B

d. Net Present Value of future earnings approach

Clear my choice

Question 13. Price for changes accounting can be done by the following method————–

Select one:

a. None of the above

b. Current purchasing power, Current Value Accounting

c. Both a and b

d. Replacement Cost Accounting, Current Cost Accounting

Clear my choice

Question 14. Following are the drawbacks and objections raised against ——————— Accounting. It cannot be valued and measured, There are many methods and none are recognized by any law, It calls for extensive research.

Select one:

a. Creative Accounting

b. Human Resource Accounting

c. Inflation

d. Forensic Accounting

Clear my choice

Question 15. Working capital ratio is also known as –

Select one:

a. Current ratio

b. Debt-equity ratio

c. Quick ratio

d. Liquid ratio.

Clear my choice

Question 16. Which of the following is a method used in analysing financial statements –

Select one:

a. Budget analysis

b. Break-even analysis

c. Variance analysis

d. Trend analysis

Question17. As per Accounting Standard – 3, cash equivalents include –

Select one:

a. Treasury bills

b. All of the above

c. Money market funds

d. Commercial papers

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Statistics for Management (QAM601)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment)  MBA  Semester 1

Statistics for Management (QAM601)-Semester I

Question 1

Inferential statistics can be defined as a part of statistics related to _______.

Select one:

a. summarising data

b. organising data

c. research on data

d. sorting data

Question 2

________ is facilitated by Statistics.

Select one:

a. data representation

b. comparison

c. easy interpretation

d. all of these

Question 3

Measures of central tendency are part of which type of statistics?

Select one:

a. descriptive

b. inferential

c. both of these

d. none of these

Question 4

The data set 32,41,52,11,53,74,21,44,26,75, has _______ number of modes.

Select one:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. none of these

Question 5

According to the idea of interquartile range, the whole data set is divided into ____ number of parts.

Select one:

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

Question 6

________ can be considered as balancing point of the data.

Select one:

a. mean

b. mode

c. skewness

d. all of these

Question 7

________ data requires no order or sequence while collection.

Select one:

a. nominal

b. ordinal

c. both of these

d. none of these

Question 8

The most frequent data value is called ______

Select one:

a. mean

b. median

c. mode

d. variance

Question 9

Dispersion can also be defined as degree of _____

Select one:

a. spread

b. diversity

c. scatterness

d. all of these

Question 10

Data collected on weight of students in a class of 50 students is a _________ type of data.

Select one:

a. nominal

b. ordinal

c. discrete

d. continuous

Question 11

For finding median in continuous series, which amongst the following are of importance?

Select one:

a. Lower limit of the median class

b. Particular frequency of the median class

c. cumulative frequency preceeding the median class

d. all of these

Question 12

In continuous type of series, for finding mean, which amongst the following is considered as X variable value?

Select one:

a. lower limit of the interval

b. upper limit of the interval

c. mid point of the interval

d. none of these

Question 13

Temperature of 100 patients visited to a doctor’s clinic on Sunday can be an example of ________ type of data.

Select one:

a. grouped

b. ungrouped

c. nominal

d. ordinal

Question 14

Median as quartiles can be termed as _____

Select one:

a. Q1

b. Q2

c. Q3

d. Q4

Children – ungrouped

Question 15

For a continuous data distribution, 10-20 with frequency 3, 20-30 with frequency 5, 30-40 with frequency 7and 40-50 with frequency 1, the value of Q_3 is ________.

Select one:

a. 34

b. 30

c. 35.7

d. 32.6

Question 16

For a continuous data distribution, 10-20 with frequency 3, 20-30 with frequency 5, 30-40 with frequency 7and 40-50 with frequency 1, the value of quartile deviation is ________.

Select one:

a. 2

b. 6.85

c. 6.32

d. 10

Question 17

For a continuous data distribution, 10-20 with frequency 3, 20-30 with frequency 5, 30-40 with frequency 7and 40-50 with frequency 1, the value of Q_1 is ________.

Select one:

a. 10.5

b. 22

c. 26

d. 24

30/30

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Statistics for Management

Module 2

Binomial distribution is symmetrical when ____ .

Select one:

a. p>q

b. p<q

c. p=q

d. p≠q

Question 2

Range or scale of probability is ____.

Select one:

a. minus one to plus one

b. zero to one

c. minus one to zero

d. none of these

Question 3

As per the “Multiplication Rule of Probability”, in case of Dependent events P(AB) = P(A) . P(B/A), where P(AB) is called ____________ probability.

Select one:

a. Joint

b. Marginal

c. Conditional

d. none of these

Question 4

Normal Distribution is a continuous frequency distribution of _______ range.

Select one:

a. finite

b. infinite

c. both of these

d. none of these

Question 5

As per the “Multiplication Rule of Probability”, in case of Dependent events P(AB) = P(A) . P(B/A), where P(A) is called ____________ probability.

Select one:

a. Joint

b. Marginal

c. Conditional

d. none of these

Question 6

According to empirical rule _____ percentage of data lies between one standard deviation of data.

Select one:

a. 99.7

b. 13.5

c. 68

d. none of these

Question 7

If p represents the probability of success of a player in any game and M represents the sum of money he will receive in case of success

Then his expectation = ______.

Select one:

a. p/M

b. p*M

c. p+M

d. p-M

Question 8

Addition rule of probability is P(A union B)= P(A)+P(B) for ______ events.

Select one:

a. mutually exclusive

b. equally likely

c. non exhaustive

d. all of these

Question 9

In an experiment of tossing a coin. If A = getting a head and B = getting a tail. Then A and B are _________ events.

Select one:

a. mutually exclusive

b. equally likely

c. exhaustive

d. all of these

Question 10

Events are said to be _______ when one does not occur more often than the others.

Select one:

a. equally likely

b. complementary

c. disjoint

d. mutually exclusive

Question 11

In which case will the binomial distribution be applied?

Select one:

a. When we have to find the probability of 6 heads in 10 throws of a fair coin

b. When we have to find the probability that 3 out of 10 items produced by a machine, which produces 8 % defective items on an average, will be defective

c. both of these

d. None of these

Question 12

Which of the following will present a symmetrical graph when plotted?

Select one:

a. B(0.3,10)

b. B(0.5,10)

c. B(0.8,10)

d. B(0.9,10)

Question 13

Consider an experiment of rolling a fair dice. The probability that both dice show a 4 is ____

Select one:

a. 1/2

b. 1/36

c. 1/4

d. 1/12

Question 14

Total number of items in the sample space of an event of tossing two coins together is _____.

Select one:

a. 2

b. 4

c. 8

d. 16

Question 15

A table of 4 students has 1 is senior and 3 juniors. The teacher is going to pick 2 students at random from this group to present homework solutions. Probability that both students selected are juniors is _____.

Select one:

a. 1/3

b. 1/2

c. 1/4

d. 1/6

Question 16

Regarding a certain normal distribution concerning the income of the individuals we are given that mean = 500 rupees and standard deviation = 100 rupees. Find the possibility that an individual selected at random will belong to the income group Rs. 420 to Rs. 570.

Select one:

a. 0.183

b. 0.213

c. 0.546

d. none of these

Question 17

Births in a hospital occur randomly at an average rate of 1.8 births per hour. What is the probability of observing 4 births in a given hour at the hospital?

Select one:

a. 0.3628

b. 0.0723

c. 0.7329

d. none of these

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Other Questions

As per the “Multiplication Rule of Probability”, in case of Dependent events P(AB) = P(A) . P(B/A), where P(B/A) is called ____________ probability.

condtonal

In an experiment of tossing a coin. If A = getting a head and B = getting a tail. Then A and B are _________ events.

d. all of these ryt

As per the “Multiplication Rule of Probability”, in case of Dependent events P(AB) = P(A) . P(B/A), where P(AB) is called ____________ probability.

Joint

Addition rule of probability is P(A union B)= P(A)+P(B) for ______ events.

 non exhaustive

Normal Distribution is a continuous frequency distribution of _______ range.

infinite

If p represents the probability of success of a player in any game and M represents the sum of money he will receive in case of success

p*M

According to empirical rule _____ percentage of data lies between one standard deviation of data.  

68

As per the “Multiplication Rule of Probability”, in case of Dependent events P(AB) = P(A) . P(B/A), where P(A) is called ____________ probabilit

Marginal

Events are said to be _______ when one does not occur more often than the others.

Select one:

equally likely

Total number of items in the sample space of an event of tossing two coins together is

4

Which of the following will present a symmetrical graph when plotted?

B(0.5,10

In which case will the binomial distribution be applied?

both of these

In which case amongst the following can we use Poisson Distribution?

both of these

Regarding a certain normal distribution concerning the income of the individuals we are given that mean = 500 rupees and standard deviation = 100 rupees. Find the possibility that an individual selected at random will belong to the income group Rs. 420 to Rs. 570

0.546

A table of 4 students has 1 is senior and 3 juniors. The teacher is going to pick 2 students at random from this group to present homework solutions. Probability that both students selected are juniors is _____.

1/2

Births in a hospital occur randomly at an average rate of 1.8 births per hour. What is the probability of observing 4 births in a given hour at the hospital?

none of these  0.213   0.183 Wrong

Births in a hospital occur randomly at an average rate of 1.8 births per hour. What is the probability of observing 4 births in a given hour at the hospital?

0.0723

28/30

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3rd Module Assessment

What does the ‘representativeness’ of a sample mean?

Select one:

a. The size of the sample relative to the population

b. Whether a random or non-random sampling method has been used

c. How closely the sample represents or matches the population on key characteristics

d. The level of non-response bias present within a sample

Question 2

What is NOT a source of error in survey research?

Select one:

a. When people provide socially desirable answers

b. Bias introduced by the method of selecting participants

c. Effects of the survey interviewer or questions on respondents

d. The number of questions included in a survey

Question 3

When might you use stratified sampling?

Select one:

a. When conducting a household opinion survey

b. When the snowball method is not appropriate

c. When it is difficult or impossible to know who is part of the sampling frame

d. When you want to maintain the proportionality of groups in your sample

Question 4

The goal of sampling is to select a sample that accurately represents the larger population, taking into account the ________

Select one:

a. practicalities

b. constraints

c. both of these

d. none of these

Question 5

Sampling is a process of _________.

Select one:

a. selecting observations from a larger population

b. arranging data in sequencing

c. data cleansing

d. organising data

Question 6

What is a ‘convenience sample’?

Select one:

a. Randomly selecting groups to participate

b. Selecting people at random from a population

c. Asking people to nominate others to participate

d. Selecting people based on their willingness or interest in taking part in the project

Question 7

What’s the difference between a statistic and a parameter?

Select one:

a. A statistic is the R2 value of a regression and a parameter is the regression weight

b. A statistic is an average and the parameter is a weighted average

c. A statistic is an estimate of a population parameter; we compute statistics and estimate parameters

d. none of these

Question 8

What does a population include?

Select one:

a. The population is a smaller sample of the larger group

b. The population includes all objects/observations of interest

c. The population is the group of observations that are selected at random

d. The population is a group of employees who report directly to a manager

Question 9

How is sampling NOT like an experiment?

Select one:

a. Sampling influences the observations whereas an experiment does not

b. Sampling is the same process as an experiment so there is no difference

c. Sampling is a process within an experiment as part of statistical analysis

d. Sampling does not influence or affect the observations whereas an experiment does

Question 10

What is ‘sampling error’?

Select one:

a. Forgetting to include everyone in the survey mailing list

b. Inaccuracies in our sample introduced by the methods we use to select participants

c. Sending the survey invitation to people outside your company

d. A way of quantifying the effects of a statistical cluster

Question 11

What is the critical z-score value for a 95% confidence level?

Select one:

a. 0.96

b. 1.96

c. 2.96

d. none of these

Question 12

If a z-score is 1.96, what does this mean?

Select one:

a. The score is 1.96 SD above the population mean, which is meaningful

b. The score is 1.96% above the population mean, which is not meaningful

c. The sample mean is 1.96

d. The sample mean ranges between +/- 1.96

Question 13

When do we use a t-distribution?

Select one:

a. when it is impractical to calculate z-scores

b. When the sample size is very large

c. For small samples and when the population SD is unknown

d. When we know the population SD

Question 14

What is the standard error?

Select one:

a. The error inherent within the sampling method

b. When the p-value exceeds 0.05

c. The standard deviation of the sampling distribution for the statistic

d. The 95% confidence interval

Question 15

What is the rule of thumb to assume a sampling distribution of a proportion is approximately normal?

Select one:

a. There must be 30 or more cases in the sample

b. √p(1-p)/n must be less than 1

c. n*p and n(1-p) both at least 10 or more

d. The reliability must be 0.70 or more

Question 16

What affects the sampling distribution of a proportion?

Select one:

a. Sample size only

b. The population proportion only

c. The standard error of the proportion

d. Both the sample size and the population proportion

Question 17

What is the key practical implication of the Central Limit Theorem?

Select one:

a. A sufficiently large sample can predict the parameters of a population such as a mean and standard deviation

b. It informs how you should sample respondents

c. The smaller the sample, the more accurate our estimates of the population parameters

d. A ‘normal’ distribution looks like a bell-shaped curve

Other Question

What is NOT a component of a confidence interval.

Select one:

a. A p-value

b. A statistic

c. A confidence level

d. A margin of error

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Statistics for Management (QAM601)-Semester I

5th Module Assessment

General equation of the regression line x on y is ________.

Select one:

a. (x-xbar)=b_xy (y-ybar)

b. (x-xbar)=b_yx (y-ybar)

c. (x+xbar)=b_xy (y+ybar)

d. (y-ybar)=b_xy (x-xbar)

Question 2

If cov (x,y) = 0 is zero, then is ______ correlation.

Select one:

a. positive

b. negative

c. zero

d. none of these

Question 3

In rank correlation coefficient formula, sum of squared differences between the ranks is divided by _______.

Select one:

a. n(n^2-1)

b. n(n^2+1)

c. n(1-n^2)

d. n(1+n^2)

Question 4

If cov (x,y) is negative, then variable x ______ as variable y increase.

Select one:

a. increase

b. decrease

c. remains constant

d. None of these

Question 5

Range of Correlation coefficient is _____.

Select one:

a. minus infinity to plus infinity

b. minus one to plus 1

c. minus one to zero

d. zero to plus one

Question 6

On the basis of change in proportion, which amongst the following is a type of correlation.

Select one:

a. Simple

b. Multiple

c. Zero

d. none of these

Question 7

Regression line equation is in which form of equation?

Select one:

a. intercept form of equation

b. point slope form of equation

c. two point form of equation

d. none of these

Question 8

On the basis of number of variables __________correlation is a type of correlation.

Select one:

a. positive

b. negative

c. partial

d. zero

Question 9

Correlation is denoted by _______

Select one:

a. r

b. ρ

c. both of these

d. none of these

Question 10

“If a car increases speed, travel time to a destination decreases”, is an example of _______ correlation.

Select one:

a. Partial

b. Negative

c. Multiple

d. Positive

Question 11

Which amongst the following is not required to find rank correlation coefficient?

Select one:

a. Difference between ranks

b. Number of items

c. Pearson correlation coefficient

d. All of these

Question 12

Regression coefficient b_yx can be calculated as _____ * [S.D. (y) / S.D. (x)]

Select one:

a. rho

b. sigma

c. phi

d. alpha

Question 13

Which amongst the following is not required to find Karl pearson coefficient of correlation?

Select one:

a. Standard deviation

b. variance

c. covariance

d. None of these

Question 14

Variable of sales dependent upon both advertisement and price variables, can be considerred as an examples of ______ correlation.

Select one:

a. simple

b. partial

c. multiple

d. zero

Question 15

Following data refers to the years of service (variable X) put in by seven specialized workers in a factory and their monthly incomes (variable Y). X variable values with corresponding Y variable values can be listed as,, 11 years of service with income 700, 7 years of service with income 500, 9 years of service with income 300, 5 years of service with income 200, 8 years of service with income 600, 6 years of service with income 400, 10 years of service with income 800. Regression equation y on x is ______.

Select one:

a. y=3/4x+1

b. y=4/3x-1

c. y=3/4x-1

d. y=1-3/4x

Question 16

Following data refers to the years of service (variable X) put in by seven specialized workers in a factory and their monthly incomes (variable Y). X variable values with corresponding Y variable values can be listed as,, 11 years of service with income 700, 7 years of service with income 500, 9 years of service with income 300, 5 years of service with income 200, 8 years of service with income 600, 6 years of service with income 400, 10 years of service with income 800. Find the correlation coefiicient.

Select one:

a. -0.45

b. 0.29

c. 0.36

d. 0.75

Question 17

Following data refers to the years of service (variable X) put in by seven specialized workers in a factory and their monthly incomes (variable Y) in hundreds of rupees. X variable values with corresponding Y variable values can be listed as,, 11 years of service with income 700, 7 years of service with income 500, 9 years of service with income 300, 5 years of service with income 200, 8 years of service with income 600, 6 years of service with income 400, 10 years of service with income 800. Bases on the regression equation y on x, for 12 years of service in the similar field, what would be the recommended salary in hundreds of rupees?

Select one:

a. 600

b. 700

c. 500

d. 800

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Other questions

If cov (x,y) is positive, then variable x ______ as variable y increase.

Select one:

a. increase 

b. decrease

c. remains constant

d. None of these

Variables like Advertisement and Sales which would yield a positive correlation, can be considerred as an examples of ______ correlation.

Select one:

a. simple  

b. partial

c. multiple

d. zero

29/30


Assignment 2

A researcher is comparing two multiple-choice tests with different conditions. In the first test, a typical multiple-choice test is administered. In the second test, alternative choices (i.e. incorrect answers) are randomly assigned to test takers. The results from the two tests are given below.

            Regular test    Randomized answers

Mean   59.9     44.8

S.D.      10.2     12.7

Question 1 : Can the scatterness of the two distributions be compared, just by looking at the given figures?

Select one:

a. Yes, as the S.D. is given

b. No, as the mean is not same

c. May be

d. Can’t say

Question 2

What relative measure of dispersion can be used in order to compare these two distributions?

Select one:

a. Range

b. Coefficient of quartile deviation

c. Coefficient of variation

d. variance

Question 3

Value of coefficient of variation for first type “Regular test” will be ______.

Select one:

a. 10.4

b. 12.3

c. 17.3

d. 15

Question 4

Value of coefficient of variation for first type “Randomized answers” will be ______.

Select one:

a. 23

b. 28.3

c. 10

d. 16.3

Question 5

Coefficient of variation is measured in terms of ____.

Select one:

a. units

b. ratios

c. percentages

d. none of these

15/15

 

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Marketing Management (MKTG601)-Semester I

Marketing Management (MKTG601)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment)  MBA  Semester 1

Question 1. The buying process begins when the buyer recognizes a _________.

a. a salesperson from a previous visit

 b. problem or need

 c. an advertisement for the product

 d. Product

Question 2. ________ can be conducted electronically, with buyer and seller seeing each other on their computer screens in real time.

 a. Personal selling

 b. Public relations

 c. Mass marketing

 d. Advertising

Question 3. Which of the following is a “key player” in the marketing industry?

 a. marketer

 b. suppliers or vendors

 c. All of these

 d. distributors or retailers

Question 4. A transaction usually involves ________.

 a. All of these

 b. at least two parties where each party has something that might be of value to the other party

 c. each party is capable of communication and delivery

 d. each party is free to accept or reject the exchange offer

Question 5. Marketing is considered as both an “art” and a “science”—there is constant tension between the formulated side of marketing and the ________ side

 a. management

 b. creative

 c. forecasting

 d. selling

Question 6. The MOST formal definition of marketing is ________.

 a. identifying and meeting human and social needs

 b. the 4Ps (Product, Price, Place, Promotion)

 c. meeting needs profitably

 d. an organizational function and a set of processes for creating, communicating, and delivering, value to customers, and for managing customer relationships in ways that benefit the organization and its stake holders.

Question 7. Good marketing is a result of careful planning and ________.

 a. selling

 b. research

 c. execution

 d. strategies

Question 8. Which of the following is a type of factor in a company’s macroenvironment?

 a. demographic

 b. All of these

 c. technological

 d. economic

Question 9. Marketing management is ________.

 a. selecting target markets

 b. monitoring the profitability of the companies products and services

 c. the art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and growing customers through creating, delivering, and communicating superior customer value

 d. developing marketing strategies to move the company forward

Question 10. ________ is the act of obtaining an object from someone by offering some other thing in return.

 a. Exchange

 b. Value creation

 c. Bribery

 d. A value proposition

Question 11. Global marketers should decide ________.

 a. how to enter each country (as an exporter, licenser, joint venture partner, contract manufacturer, or solo manufacturer)

 b. how to adapt their product and service features to each country

 c. how to price their products in different countries

 d. all of the above

Question 12. Marketers use the term ________ for covering various groupings of customers

 a. demographic segment

 b. market

 c. people

 d. social class position

Question 13. ________ goods constitute the bulk for most of the countries’ production and marketing efforts.

 a. Physical

 b. Durable

 c. Service

 d. Impulse

Question 14. ________ can be produced and marketed as a product

 a. Celebrities

 b. Information

 c. Organizations

 d. Properties

Question 15. In business markets, advertising can play a role, but a stronger role may be played by the sales force, ________, and the company’s reputation for reliability and quality

 a. promotion

 b. distribution

 c. brand image

 d. price

Question 16. ________ can be seen as the development, design, and implementation of marketing programs, processes, and activities that identifies the breadth and interdependencies of their effects.

 a. Niche marketing

 b. Relationship marketing

 c. Supply-chain marketing

 d. Holistic marketing

Question 17. A ________ is someone seeking a response (attention, a purchase, a vote, a donation) from another party, called the ________.

 a. fund raiser, contributor

 b. salesperson, customer

 c. celebrity, audience

 d. marketer, prospect

The ________ concept explains that consumers and businesses, if left alone, will ordinarily not buy enough of the organization’s products.

Select one:

a. holistic marketing

b. selling

c. production

d. marketing

Question 13. Marketers use the term ________ for covering various groupings of customers

Select one:

a. market

b. demographic segment

c. social class position

d. people

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2nd Module Assessment

Customer’s evaluation of the difference between all the benefits and all the costs of a marketing offer relative to those of competing offers refers to which of the following options?

Select one:

a. Customer perceived value

b. Customer satisfaction

c. Marketing myopia

d. Customer relationship management

Question 1. During market segmentation analysis, the marketer identifies which segments present the greatest opportunity. These segments are called ________.

Select one:

a. primary markets

b. tertiary markets

c. demographic markets

d. target markets

Clear my choice

Question 2.  ________ is the study of how individuals, groups, and organizations select, buy, use, and dispose of goods, services, ideas, or experiences to satisfy their needs and wants.

Select one:

a. Consumer behavior

b. Target marketing

c. Product Differentiation

d. Psychographic segmentation

Clear my choice

Question 3. Some companies switch from being solely product-centered to being more ________ centered.

Select one:

a. marketing

b. competency

c. strategy

d. customer-segment

Clear my choice

Question 4. Marketing strategies are often designed to influence _______________ and lead to profitable exchanges.

Select one:

a. Sales strategies

b. Export strategies

c. Advertising strategies

d. Consumer decision making

Clear my choice

Question 5. ______ is to evaluate each segment’s attractiveness and select one or more of the market segments.

Select one:

a. Market evaluation

b. Market targeting

c. Market positioning

d. Market segmentation

Clear my choice

Question 6. Buying goods and services for further processing or for use in the production process refers to _________ markets

Select one:

a. International markets

b. Consumer markets

c. Business markets

d. Government markets

Clear my choice

Question 7. ________ markets include a wide variety of profit and nonprofit organizations, such as hospitals, government agencies, and schools, which provide goods and services for the benefit of society.

Select one:

a. Business-to-business (Industrial)

b. Institutional

c. Consumer

d. Reseller

Clear my choice

Question 8. What is the last stage of the consumer decision process?

Select one:

a. post purchase behavior

b. alternative evaluation

c. purchase

d. problem recognition

Clear my choice

Question 9. _______ divides buyers into different groups based on their social class, lifestyle, and personality characteristics.

Select one:

a. Psychographic segmentation

b. Geographic segmentation

c. Demographic segmentation

d. Behavior segmentation

Clear my choice

Question 10. The underlying concept of ______ is to identify market segments, select one or more, and develop products and marketing mixes tailored to each selected segment.

Select one:

a. mass marketing

b. product-variety marketing

c. target marketing

d. macromarketing

Clear my choice

Question 11. How do consumers respond to various marketing efforts the company might use? What is a starting point of a buyer’s behavior?

Select one:

a. Stimulus-response Model

b. Belief

c. Post purchase feeling

d. Subculture

Clear my choice

Question 12. Listing alternatives that will solve the problem at hand and determining the characteristics of each occurs during which stage of the final consumer’s decision process?

Select one:

a. Information search

b. Post purchase

c. Evaluation of alternatives

d. Purchase

Clear my choice

Question 13. You purchase cleaning supplies for your custodial help regularly. It is showing which buying situation?

Select one:

a. Straight rebuy

b. Consumer buy

c. Modified straight rebuy

d. Modified rebuy

Clear my choice

Question 14. While buying milk which kind of behaviour is displayed by a person?

Select one:

a. Extensive problem solving behaviour

b. None of the above

c. Variety seeking behaviour

d. Routinized buying behaviour

Clear my choice

For each target market, a firm develops a ________. The offering is positioned in the minds of the target buyers as delivering some central benefits.

Select one:

a. niche offering

b. segment offering

c. value offering

d. market offering

Question 15. Holistic marketers achieve profitable growth by expanding their customer share, ________, and capturing customer lifetime value.

Select one:

a. renewing a customer base

b. building customer loyalty

c. milking the market for product desires

d. undermining competitive competencies

Clear my choice

Question 16. For buyers of consumer durable products, what ‘customer care services’ can be planned as a manager of a firm marketing new brand of motorcycle.

Select one:

a. 0% finance scheme

b. Specified period warranties & Exchange offer

c. All of these

d. Easy monthly instalments & Free servicing

Clear my choice

Question 17. Mr. Sharma buys goods and services for use in the production of products that are sold and supplied to others. He is involved in ________.

Select one:

a. consumer buying behavior

b. post-purchase dissonance

c. business buyer behavior

d. retail buyer behavior

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Module III: Managing Product Strategies

Question 1. In __________ stage of the product life cycle sales peak

Select one:

a. Saturation

b. Decline

c. Growth

d. Introduction

Clear my choice

Question 2. Price competition starts to occur in ___________ phase of the product life cycle

Select one:

a. Saturation

b. Introduction

c. Decline

d. Growth

Clear my choice

Question 3. ________ means that services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before they are bought.

Select one:

a. Service perishability

b. Service intangibility

c. Service inseparability

d. Service heterogeneity

Clear my choice

Question 4. Which of the following statements about product-mix strategy is true?

Select one:

a. Adding new products to a product mix can help a company’s competitive position.

b. A retailer that carries books, toys, video games, and coffee would have a deeper product mix than a store that sells only cosmetics

c. A store that sells nothing but t-shirts has a broad product mix.

d. All of the different flavors of Jell-O gelatin would be an example of a product mix.

Clear my choice

Question 5. In this stage of the product life cycle, advertising and promotion are aimed at retaining existing customers and persuading customers to switch from competitor products

Select one:

a. Growth

b. Saturation

c. Maturity

d. Introduction

Clear my choice

Question 6. ________ is the firm’s tangible offering to the market.

Select one:

a. packaging

b. sales support team

c. service offer

d. product

Clear my choice

Question 7. In _______________ stage of the product life cycle profits peak

Select one:

a. Introduction

b. Decline

c. Maturity

d. Growth

Clear my choice

Question 8. All of the following are accurate descriptions of new product ideas, except which one?

Select one:

a. Customers must be careful not to rely too heavily on customer input when developing new products.

b. New product development starts with idea generation.

c. Some companies use brainstorming exercises that expand people’s minds and generate new ideas around the client’s problem.

d. At the beginning of the process, carefully scrutinize each idea and throw far-fetched and impractical ones out the window.

Clear my choice

Question 9. Product mix ________ refers to the number of different product lines the company carries.

Select one:

a. length

b. height

c. width

d. depth

Clear my choice

Question 10. Advertising campaigns can help to create name recognition, brand knowledge, and maybe even some brand preference. Brands are maintained not only by advertising but by the ________.

Select one:

a. word-of-mouth elements

b. product mix

c. brand experience

d. marketing experience

Clear my choice

A Company can expand its product line in which way?

Select one:

a. line mixing

b. internal marketing

c. line filling

d. product mix

Question 11. Bread and milk are ____________

Select one:

a. Unsought products

b. Shopping products

c. Convenience products

d. Specialty Products

Clear my choice

Question 12. _______ are consumer products and services with unique characteristics or brand identification for which a significant group of buyers are willing to make a special purchase effort.

Select one:

a. Unsought products

b. Specialty products

c. Industrial products

d. Shopping products

Clear my choice

Question 13. ________ can be produced and marketed as a product

Select one:

a. Information

b. Organizations

c. Celebrities

d. Durable goods

Clear my choice

Question 14. One of the jobs of marketers is ____________ and to create consumer perceptions that the product is worth purchasing.

Select one:

a. To do marketing surveys

b. To differentiate their products from those of competitors

c. To make products easily visible and available

d. To promote sales of products

Clear my choice

Question mark products in the Boston Consulting Group matrix are usually in ________ stage of their product life cycle

Select one:

a. Growth

b. Introduction

c. Maturity

d. Decline

Question 15. Adding new features to a product is advocated by ___________

Select one:

a. Production Approach

b. Marketing Approach

c. Product Approach

d. Selling Approach

Clear my choice

Question 16. A clothing marketer is planning to launch an existing brand name into a new product category. Which brand development strategy should be implemented?

Select one:

a. rebranding

b. brand extension

c. multibranding

d. line extension

Clear my choice

Question 17. Which of the following is/are product life cycle extension strategies?

Select one:

a. Market development

b. Product development and unrelated diversification

c. Product development

d. Market development and product development

Clear my choice

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Module IV: Identifying Pricing Methods and Strategies-

‘Mark-up’ pricing is based on ___ cost.

Select one:

a. indirect cost

b. fixed cost

c. direct cost

d. variable cost

Question 1. ________ markets are made up of members of the distribution chain.

Select one:

a. Channel

b. Consumer

c. Institutional

d. Business-to-business (industrial)

Clear my choice

Question 2. A distribution channel includes distributors, wholesalers, retailers, and agents that _____________ the product or service to the buyer or user.

Select one:

a. display, sell, or deliver

b. display

c. deliver

d. sell

Clear my choice

Question 3. Intermediaries make possible the flow of products from producers to buyers by performing three basic functions of ____

Select one:

a. buying, sorting, and financing

b. assorting, storing, and sorting

c. transactional, logistical, and facilitating

d. production, transmission, display

Clear my choice

Question 4. The combination of succession stages of production and distribution under a single ownership is ____

Select one:

a. corporate vertical marketing system

b. forward integration

c. horizontal marketing system

d. backward integration

Clear my choice

Question 5. _____ is the term for the volume of products sold that, at a given price, will cover the company’s costs.

Select one:

a. target profit

b. breakeven point

c. equilibrium point

d. match point

Clear my choice

Question 6. How many levels of intermediaries are there in a direct sales channel?

Select one:

a. one

b. two

c. zero

d. three

Clear my choice

Question 7. In ________ pricing approach a low initial price is set to attract a large number of buyers quickly and win a large market share.

Select one:

a. Leader

b. Market-skimming

c. Market-penetration

d. Value-based

Clear my choice

Question 8. _________________ helps a company to promote, sell, and distribute its goods to final buyers.

Select one:

a. Suppliers

b. Competitor networks

c. Marketing intermediaries

d. Service representatives

Clear my choice

Question 9. When there is trouble between different levels in a channel like a wholesaler and manufacturer this is called ___

Select one:

a. diagonal conflict

b. multi level conflict

c. horizontal conflict

d. vertical conflict

Clear my choice

Question 10. Which of the following is not a market-based pricing method?

Select one:

a. customer value pricing

b. going-rate pricing

c. contribution pricing

d. psychological price barriers

Clear my choice

Question 11. One of the jobs of marketers is ____________ and to create consumer perceptions that the product is worth purchasing.

Select one:

a. To differentiate their products from those of competitors

b. To promote sales of products

c. To make products easily visible and available

d. To do marketing surveys

Clear my choice

Question 12. Bread and milk are ____________

Select one:

a. Specialty Products

b. Convenience products

c. Unsought products

d. Shopping products

Clear my choice

Question 13. ________ can be produced and marketed as a product

Select one:

a. Information

b. Celebrities

c. Organizations

d. Durable goods

Clear my choice

Question 14. _______ are consumer products and services with unique characteristics or brand identification for which a significant group of buyers are willing to make a special purchase effort.

Select one:

a. Shopping products

b. Specialty products

c. Industrial products

d. Unsought products

Clear my choice

Question mark products in the Boston Consulting Group matrix are usually in ________ stage of their product life cycle

Select one:

a. Growth

b. Introduction

c. Maturity

d. Decline

Question 15. Companies form a ________ to collect information about each customer’s past transactions, demographics, psychographics, and media and distribution preferences

Select one:

a. marketing network

b. holistic union

c. supply-chain network

d. sales network

Clear my choice

Question 16. John recently opened a sandwich shop but he is not sure what prices to charge for his various products. His customers tell him that they would never pay more than £4.00 for a sandwich. Then he sets his top price at £4.00. What kind of pricing strategy is he using?

Select one:

a. contribution pricing

b. going-rate pricing

c. customer value pricing

d. psychological price barriers

Clear my choice

Question 17. When a company distributes its products through a channel structure that includes one or more resellers, this is known as ________.

Select one:

a. integrated marketing

b. multi-level marketing

c. Indirect marketing

d. direct marketing

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Module V: Managing Channel Dynamics & Integrated Marketing Communication

Question 1. Marketing planning is concerned with ____

Select one:

a. Planning the amount the placement of newspaper ads

b. Planning sales force size and deployment

c. Planning consignment sales contracts to be offered

d. All of the above

Clear my choice

Question 2. The largest medium for direct response is______

Select one:

a. Telemarketing

b. Door-to-door

c. Broadcast

d. Mail

Clear my choice

Question 3. __ is the non paid form of promotion

Select one:

a. Personal selling

b. Public relations

c. Advertising

d. Direct selling

Clear my choice

Question 4. The _____ is a written document that describes the overall marketing strategy and programs developed for an organization, product line, or brand.

Select one:

a. marketing plan

b. marketing audit

c. communications plan

d. promotional plan

Clear my choice

Question 5. According to the concept of _____ , all of an organization’s marketing and promotional elements and activities communicate with its customers.

Select one:

a. the marketing mix

b. integrated marketing communications

c. the promotional mix

d. exchange

Clear my choice

Question 6. Promotion mix is the combination of promotional tools used by a company to _____ with its audiences.

Select one:

a. Plan

b. Help

c. Purchasing Decision

d. Communicate

Clear my choice

Question 7. The first step in the Integrated Marketing Communication planning process is _______

Select one:

a. A review of the marketing plan

b. Budget determination

c. The situation analysis

d. Specification of communications objectives

Clear my choice

Question 8. A marketing plan usually includes _____

Select one:

a. A corporate mission statement

b. A detailed situation analysis

c. Job descriptions and job specifications

d. A media schedule

Clear my choice

Question 9. Advertising plays an important role in _____

Select one:

a. Information

b. Highlighting Specific Features

c. Brand image

d. All of the above

Clear my choice

Question 10. What is the next stage in the IMC planning process, once marketing and communication objectives have been set?

Select one:

a. Implementation of those objectives

b. Media selection scheduling

c. Budget determination

d. Recruitment of marketing and promotion personnel

Clear my choice

What is triple bottom line?

Select one:

a. An accounting tool that looks at the impact on people, planet and profits

b. An accounting tool that looks at cost, profit and loss

c. A management strategy which focuses on corporate social responsibility

d. A management strategy which states all the attention should be on profits

Question 11. Prior to the movement to integrated marketing communications, the promotional function in most companies was dominated by _________

Select one:

a. Sales promotion

b. Publicity

c. Mass media advertising

d. Public relations

Clear my choice

Question 12. _________ uses direct communication with consumers to generate a response in the form of an order, a request for further information, or a visit to a retail outlet.

Select one:

a. Sales promotion

b. Personal selling

c. Direct marketing

d. Advertising

Clear my choice

Question 13. Integrated marketing communications is a concept of marketing communications planning that recognizes the added value of a________ plan.

Select one:

a. coherent

b. comprehensive

c. integrated

d. complete

Clear my choice

Question 14. ___________ represents all of the communications that a marketer may use in the market place.

Select one:

a. Promotion

b. Advertising

c. Public relation

d. Sales promotion

Clear my choice

Which type of sales promotion uses free samples, coupons, and rebates?

Select one:

a. sales force promotion

b. consumer promotion

c. trade promotion

d. place promotion

Question 15. Promotion mix includes tools like ____

Select one:

a. Advertising, sales promotion, Personal selling, Distribution network, and direct marketing

b. Advertising, product development, Sales promotion, Personal selling and direct marketing

c. Product, price, place, public relations

d. Advertising, Public Relations, Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Direct Marketing

Clear my choice

Question 16.Triple bottom line audit is _____

Select one:

a. An audit of the all Sporting resources of enterprise

b. A social , economic and environmental audit

c. An audit of three major financial projects of a business

d. An audit by the Physical Health of the employees

Clear my choice

Question 17. Internet Marketing does NOT deal with _____

Select one:

a. Interactive Marketing

b. E-mail Marketing and Web advertising

c. Display Advertising

d. Advertising

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Assignment 2

Case Study

Case: Cadbury-Kraft Focuses on Consumer Behaviour Inside Shops

Shelves full of Oreo biscuits at a local Mumbai store are described as a “blue wall” by visiting Cadbury-Kraft executives. The food giant has attempted to replicate the metaphoric “blue-wall” in many stores in Mumbai and other cities in a bid to drive sales. The results have been encouraging. Since its launch, Oreo has garnered an over six percent market share in the lucrative and intensely fought Rs 4,000-crore premium biscuit market, where it competes with Britannia’s Treat-O and Bourbon, Parle Products’ Kreams and Hide & Seek, and ITC’s Sunfeast, among others.

What Cadbury-Kraft has done with Oreo is part of a game that includes other brands and categories as well. The firm aggressively pushed a marketing & sales programme that has targeted shoppers in the top metros and cities of the country. Branded visicoolers, a range of dispensers developed by local and international design experts, are part of the company’s efforts to make the overall shopping experience exciting for consumers. The firm has refurbished packaging of its brands such as chewing gum brand Bubbaloo and pushed promotions to drive sales. Cadbury-Kraft focused on in-store display and placement of products after studying shopper behaviour and preferences at the top 50,000 high-end groceries, food stores and chemists within its retail universe of over 700,000 stores in India.

Studying consumers

The focus on behaviour of consumers in shops is important because they make the final purchase decision there. How the product is positioned, its packaging, pricing, etc. goes a long way in determining whether consumers will buy the product. The 50,000 outlets Cadbury-Kraft focused on in India to stock one or more of these products: chocolates which include Cadbury Dairy Milk, Celebrations, Bournville, 5 Star, Perk, and Gems; confectionary such as Bubbaloo, Eclairs, and Halls; biscuits such as Oreo and powdered beverages that include Tang and Bournvita.

The company has put in place consumer promotions within stores in key categories such as chocolates and biscuits to help drive sales at these outlets. While the combined Cadbury-Kraft business remains smaller than other strategic markets within Kraft Foods, which was split into two – a $32-billion snacking powerhouse and a $16-billion grocery business – India is still key. 

Cadbury-Kraft’s main rivals include key food companies in India, such as Nestle, which own Maggi and Kit Kat; Britannia; HUL, makers of Knorr, owners of Kissan and Bru; Parle Products, ITC and GlaxoSmithKline with its Horlicks, Viva, and Maltova brands. Like most of its rivals, the bulk of Cadbury-Kraft’s sales come from traditional retail stores. Modern trade or organised retail constitutes only one per cent of its universe, but the company has been keen to push this number up, given that packaged foods as a category show greater traction in such retail outlets.

Cadbury-Kraft has banked on technology, much like HUL, to help it replenish stock quickly at stores, both traditional and modern. The frontline sales force have been upgraded with handhelds to capture store orders, which are linked to the distributor billing software. Distributors are linked to company portals to manage auto replenishment of inventory. The Mumbai-based company is looking to increase its retail footprint beyond the over 700,000 stores in 5,200 towns that it now reaches. This number will be ramped up in rural areas as well.

Question 1 : A retailer’s role in the field of personal consumption is that of _______ and ______.

Select one:

a. distributor, facilitator

b. provider, facilitator

c. distributor, provider

d. giver, taker

Clear my choice

Question 2. ____ is the process by which people select, organize, and interpret information to form a meaningful picture of the world; whereas _____ is a descriptive thought that a person holds about something.

Select one:

a. Attitude, Belief

b. Perception, Belief

c. Value, Ethics

d. Perception, Attitude

Clear my choice

Question 3. If an individual is loyal to a particular store, he would probably follow _______ type of decision-making.

Select one:

a. brand first and retail outlet second

b. Retail outlet first, brand second

c. None of these

d. Brand and retail outlet simultaneously

Clear my choice

Question 4. _________ are people whose attitudes, behavior, beliefs, opinions, preferences, and values are used by an individual as the basis for his or her judgment; whereas ________ referes to group of two or more people related by blood, marriage or adoption, living together in a household.

Select one:

a. celebrity, reference group

b. reference group, family

c. family, reference group

d. salespersons, family

Clear my choice

Question 5. Companies like Cadbury-Kraft that practice both a reactive and proactive marketing orientation are implementing a ________ and are likely to be the most successful.

Select one:

a. competitive, customer focus

b. total market orientation

c. external focus

d. customer focus

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