Routing and Switching

Routing and Switching

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2nd Module Assessment

You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts and limit the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve this goal?   

a. Managed hubs  

b. Bridges  

c. Switches  

d. Switches configured with VLANs

  1. VLANs enhance the network

a.Security

b.Speed

c.Bandwidth

d.Reliability

Question 2. Which command does the network administrator use to determine whether interVLAN communication is functioning?

a.show vlan

b.ping

c.ipconfig

d.show interfaces

Question 3. Match the command with the correct descriptions.

switchport mode trunk

a.Configures the port to negotiate a trunk

b.Configures the trunk to not send DTP packets

c.Configures the port as a permanent 802.1Q trunk

d.Disables trunk mode

Question 4. Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?

a.IEEE 802.1X

b.HSRP

c.port channeld.

d.router on a stick

Question 5. What is the difference between an access port and a trunk port?

a.A trunk port belongs to a single VLAN; an access port provides access for multiple

VLANs between switches.

b.An access port can have a native VLAN, but a trunk port cannot.

c.An access port can have only one device attached.

d.Multiple VLANs traverse a trunk port, but an access port can belong to a single VLAN

Question 6. Which option to consider when configuring a trunk link between two switches?

a.The switchport nonegotiate command must be configured for trunks that use DTP.

b.Port security cannot be configured on the trunk interfaces.

c.Different encapsulation types can be configured on both ends of the trunk link

d.Trunk ports can be configured only on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.

Question 7. Switch S1 and Switch S2 are both configured with ports in the Faculty, Students, Management and Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 15 users. How many subnets are needed to address the VLANs?

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.6

Question 8. Which command make a port a trunk on VLAN.

a.Switch(config)# switchport mode trunk

b.Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

c.Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk on

d.Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk compatible-on

Question 9. When implementing router-on-a-stick, what is necessary for establishing communication between VLANs?

a.Multiple switch ports to connect to a single router interface

b.Native VLAN IP address that is configured on the router physical interface

c.All trunk ports configured in access mode

d.Router subinterfaces

Question 10. What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?

a.The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled.

b.All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers.

c.All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN.

d.Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.

Question 11. _________ are software-based virtual interfaces that are assigned to physical interfaces.

a.Subinterfacets

b.Legacy VLANs

c.Subinterfaces

d.Inter-VLANs

What command would be used to determine if all SVIs were “up and up” on a multilayer switch?

a.show vlans

b.show ip interface brief

c.show running-config

d.show interface switchport

Question 12. Legacy inter-VLAN routing requires routers to have.

a.Multiple Switches

b.Routed Ports

c.Switched Virtual Ports

d.Multiple Physical Interfaces

Question 13. What mechanism is used to achieve the separation between different VLANs as they cross a trunk link?

a.VLAN tagging using 802.1Q protocol

b.VLAN tagging using 802.1p protocol

c.VLAN multiplexing

d.VLAN set as a native VLAN

Question 14. Which option is invalid as inter-VLAN routing methods?

a.Traditional routing

b.Router-on-a-stick

c.Spanning-tree routing

d.Multilayer switch-based routing

Question 15. A network technician is configuring a router to support inter-VLAN routing. After entering interface G0/0 configuration mode, the network administrator attempts to enter the command encapsulation dot1q 10. The router refuses to accept this command. What could account for this failure?

a.Router port G0/0 is not physically connected to the switch

b.VLAN0001 has been renamed.

c.R1 interface G0/0 was configured for subinterface operation.282 Routing and Switching Essentials Companion Guide

d.This command can be configured only on router subinterfaces.

Question 16. How does the router-on-a-stick model for inter-VLAN routing differ from traditional routing?

  1. The router-on-a-stick model uses multiple physical interfaces on the router, each configured with a different Layer 3 address.
  2. The router-on-a-stick model uses a single physical interface on the router with only the no shutdown command issued.
  3. The router-on-a-stick model uses subinterfaces on the router with only the no shutdown command issued on the physical interface.
  4. The router-on-a-stick model uses subinterfaces on the switch with only the no shutdown command issued on the physical interface.

Question 17. A 24-port switch has been configured to support three VLANs named Sales, Marketing, and Finance. Each VLAN spans four ports on the switch. The network administrator has deleted the Marketing VLAN from the switch. Which statement describe the status of the ports associated with this VLAN?

a. The ports are inactive.

 b. The ports are administratively disabled.

c. The ports will become trunks to carry data from all remaining VLANs.

d. The ports were released from the Marketing VLAN and automatically reassigned to

VLAN 1

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3rd Module Assessment

Which routing protocols does not support VLSM?

Select one:

a.

RIPv2

b.

IGRP

c.

EIGRP

d.

OSPF

Question 2. Which statement correctly describe the components of a router?

a.RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.

b.ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.

c.NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

d.Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS

Question 3. Which of the following is not a parameter used to calculate metric?

a.Hop count

b.Bandwidth

c.Delay

d.Administrative distance

Question 4. The output of the show ip route command contains the following entry:

S 10.2.0.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2.

What value is indicated by the 1 in the [1/0] portion of the output?

a.Metric

b.Number of hops

c.Administrative distance

d.Interface ID through which the network can be reached

Question 5. Which of the following commands would you use to display an administrative message when a person connects to a router?

a.banner message

b.banner motd

c.banner

d.banner display

Question 6. During the process of encapsulation, how does the PC determine if the packet is destined for a host on a remote network?

a.By performing the AND operation on the destination IP address and its own subnet mask

b.By checking the ARP cache for the destination host MAC address

c.By querying the DNS server for the information of the destination host

d.By sending a broadcast to the local LAN segment to see if there is any response

Question 7. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

a.View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

b.Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

c.Recall previously entered commands

d.Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

Question 8. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

a.It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.

b.It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.

c.It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.

d.It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

Question 9. What code is used in the routing table to identify routes learned through RIP?

a.C

b.D

c.R

d.K

Question 10. When a router learns that multiple paths are available to a destination network from the same routing protocol, which factor is considered by a router to choose the best path to forward a packet?

a. The lowest metric

b.The order of paths on the routing table

c.The fastest bandwidth of exiting interfaces

d.The reliability value of the neighboring routers

A network engineer is configuring a new router. The interfaces have been configured with IP addresses and activated, but no routing protocols or static routes have been configured yet. What routes are present in the routing table?

a. Default routes 

b. Broadcast routes 

c. Direct Connections 

d. No routes

11. Your network is running EIGRP,OSPf,RIP and static routes. Which routing source will be the least preferred?

a.EIGRP

b.OSPF

c.RIP

d.Static

Question 12. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10011101?

a.159

b.157

c.185

d.187

Question 13. A network administrator has just entered new configurations in to Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?

a.Router1 # copy running-config flash

b.Router1# copy running-config startup-config

c.Router1 # copy startup-config running-config

d.Router1(config)# copy startup-config running-config

Question 14. Which statement is true regarding metrics used by routing protocols?

a.A metric is the quantitative value that a routing protocol uses to measure a given route

b.A metric is a cisco-proprietary means to convert distances to a standard unit

c.Metrics represent a composite value of the amount of packet loss occuring for all routing protocols

d.Metrics are used by the router to determine whether a packet has an error and should be reported

Question 15. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?

a.administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0

b.administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1

c.administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

d.administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1

Question 16. The network administrator configured the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0/0 command on the router. How will this command appear in the routing table, assuming that the serial 0/0/0 interface is up?

a.D 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected,Serial 0/0/0

b.S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

c.S* 0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 192,168.2.2

d.C 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.2.2

Question 17. Which statement describe characteristics of load balancing?

a.Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.

b.Load balancing occurs when the same number of packets is sent over static and dynamic routes.

c.Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.

d.If multiple paths with different metrics to a destination exist, the router cannot support load balancing.

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4th Module Assessment

When using a classful class A IP address scheme , how many octects are used to designate the host portion of the address?

a.

1

b.

2

c.

3

d.

4

Question 2. What is a supernet ?

a.

) the network for a default route

b.

a summarization of classful addresses

c.

a network that contains both private and public addresses

d.

a set of discontigous networks that are controlled by an ISP

Question 3. What type of static route is created when the next-hop IP address and exit interface are specified?

a.

Recursive static route

b.

Fully specified static route

c.

Directly connected static route

d.

Floating static route

Question 4. You have a single network connected to your ISP. What type of routing would allow the internal clients to reach the internet?

a.

RIP

b.

Static route

c.

Default route

d.

OSPF

Question 5. Which statement describe static routes?

a.

They are created in interface configuration mode.

b.

They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.

c.

They automatically become the default gateway of the router.

d.

They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shut down

Question 6. Which statement is true concerning configuring static routes using next-hop addresses?

a.

Routers cannot use more than one static route with a next-hop address.

b.

When the router identifies that a packet is destined for a route associated with a nexthop address in the routing table, the router requires no further information and can immediately forward the packet.

c.

Routers configured with the static route using a next-hop address must either have the exit interface listed in the route or have another route with the network of the next hop and an associated exit interface.

d.

Routes associated with a next-hop address are more efficient than routes going to exit interfaces.

Question 7. You have been asked to create a subnet that supports 16 hosts. What subnet mask should you use?

a.255.255.255.252

b.255.255.255.248

c.255.255.255.240

d.255.255.255.224

Question 8. For the given classful network address, indicate the Class: “192.168.10.0”

a.Class A

b.Class B

c.Class C

d.Class D

Question 9. Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route?

a.ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

b.ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0

c.ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0/0/0

d.ip route 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/0/0

Question 10. Which of the following is the best summary statement for the following range of networks: 192.168.24.0/24 – 192.168.31.0/24

a.192.168.24.0 255.255.240.0

b.192.168.24.0/28

c.192.168.24.0/21

d.192.168.0.0/27

What is the advantage of route summarization?

a.Ensures job security for network admins because of difficulty of configuration

b.Reduces routing update traffic overhead

c.Reduces the impact of discontiguous subnets

d.Identifies flapping interfaces

11. Which of the following is true statement about the following command: ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.24.1

a.The command creates a default route

b.Traffic for the 10.1.24.0 networks is forwarded to the 192.168.1.0 network

c.Traffic for the 192.168.1.0 networks is forwarded to the 10.1.24.0 network

d.The command is used when configuring distance vector routing protocols

Question 12. What characteristics of VLSM capable routing protocols enables the use of different subnet masks against a single address class within a system?

a.The capability to configure the protocol on a subnetted interface()

b.Compliance with RFC 1918 addressing()

c.The use of areas and autonomous systems

d.The inclusion of the subnet mask for each network advertised in routing updates

Question 13. Given the mask 255.255.254.0, how many usuable hosts per subnet does this create?

a.254

b.256

c.510

d.512

Question 14. Why would a summarized static route be configured on a router?

a.To reduce the number of public IP addresses required by an organization

b.To provide a better route than a particular routing protocol

c.To provide a default gateway for a router that connects to an ISP

d.To reduce the size of the routing table

Question 15. Which is a valid summary route for networks 192.168.8.0/22, 192.168.12.0/22, and 192.168.16.0/22?

a.192.168.0.0/18

b.192.168.0.0/19

c.192.168.0.0/20

d.192.168.8.0/21

Question 16. Which subnet mask would be used for a network that has a maximum of 300 devices?

a.255.255.254.0

b.255.255.255.0

c.255.255.252.0

d.255.255.248.0

Question 17. A network administrator enters the following command into Routerl: ip route 192.168.0. 0 255.255.255.0 S 0 / 1 / 0 . Routerl then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?

a.Drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table

b.Looks up the MAC address of the S 0 / 1 / 0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame

c.Performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S 0 / 1 / 0 interface before forwarding the packet

d.Encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the 384 Routing and Switching Essentials Companion Guide S 0 / 1 / 0 interface

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5th Module Assessment

What parameter defines what internal addresses are translated by NAT?

a.

The access list

b.

The address pool

c.

The interface(s) that have the command ip nat inside applied

d.

The interface(s) that have the command ip nat outside applied

Question 2. What is an advantage of OSPF compared to RIP?

a.

Fast convergence

b.

Less complexity

c.

Less CPU processing

d.

Low memory requirements

Question 3. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?

a.

Exterior routing protocols are used only by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.

b.

Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.

c.

Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.

d.

Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

Question 4. Which statement is true concerning the advantage of a distance vector protocol?

a.

Perodic updates speed convergence

b.

Ease of implementation makes configuration simple

c.

They work well in complex networks

d.

Their convergence times are faster than link-state routing protocols

Question 5. A network technician issues the following commands when configuring a router: R1(config)# router ospf 11 R1(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 What does the number 11 represent?

a.

The autonomous system number to which R1 belongs

b.

The area number where R1 is located

c.

The cost of the link to R1

d.

The OSPF process ID on R1

Question 6. Router R1 is using the RIPv2 routing protocol and has discovered multiple unequal paths to reach a destination network. How will Router R1 determine which path is the best path to destination network?

a.

Lowest Metric

b.

Highest Metric

c.

Lowest Administrative distance

d.

Highest Administrative distance

Question 7. What will an OSPF router prefer to use first as a router ID?

a.

Any IP address that is configured using the router-id command

b.

A loopback interface that is configured with the highest IP address on the router

c.

The highest active interface IP that is configured on the router

d.

The highest active interface that participates in the routing process because of a specifically configured network statement

Question 8. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What is the additional uses of ACLs?

a.

Specifying source addresses for authentication

b.

Specifying internal hosts for NAT

c.

Identifying traffic for QoS

d.

Reorganizing traffic into VLANs

Question 9. What characteristics of link-state protocols compared to distance vector protocols?

a.

They know of the network topology from the perspective of their neighbors.

b.

They compute their own knowledge of the network topology.

c.

They use hop counts to compute the network topology.

d.

They flood the routing table periodically.

Question 10. Which algorithm is used by the OSPF routing process to construct the SPF tree on a router?

a.

DUAL algorithm

b.

Bellman-Ford algorithm

c.

Dijkstra’s algorithm

d.

Path vector protocol

What is the disadvantage of NAT?   

a. End-to-end traceability is lost. 

b. Uses too many legally registered addresses. 

c. Decreases the number of connections that can be used to the public network. 

d. Increased network costs

What reason would a network administrator have for using loopback interfaces when configuring OSPF?

a.

Loopbacks are logical interfaces and do not go down.

b.

Only loopback addresses can be used for an OSPF router id

c.

Loopback interfaces are used to set the OSPF metric

d.

OSPF error checking is enabled by loopback addresses

Question 12. The OSPF Hello timer has been set to 15 seconds on a router in a point-to-point network. By default, what is the dead interval on this router?

a.

15 seconds

b.

30 seconds

c.

45 seconds

d.

60 seconds

Question 13. What is the purpose of network command when RIP is being configured as the routing protocol?

a.

It identifies the networks connected to the neighboring router

b.

It restricts networks from being used for static routes

c.

It identifies all the destination networks that the router is allowed to install in its routing table

d.

It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the RIP routing updates.

Question 14. On a router running OSPF , what is the purpose of entering the bandwidth 56 command on a serial interface?

a.

Changes the cost value

b.

Functions only as a description

c.

Changes the throughput of the interface to 56 Kbps

d.

is necessary for the DUAL algorithm

Question 15. Given the following configuration , what is the OSPF router id of Router A?

RouterA (config)#interface serial 0/0/0

RouterA(config-if)# ip add 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.252

RouterA(config)#interface loopback 0

RouterA(config-if)#ip add 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.255

RouterA(config)#router ospf 1

RouterA(config-if)#network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

a.

10.1.1.1

b.

192.168.2.1

c.

192.168.2.0

d.

0.0.0.3

Question 16. After two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and formed an adjacency,what is the next thing to occur?

a.

They will take turns broadcasting their entire routing table to each other

b.

They will start sending link state packets to each other

c.

They negotiate to determine which will be the root router of the OSPF domain

d.

They will adjust their hello timers so that they don’t collide with each other

Question 17. Which statements is true about the DHCP server functions?

a.

When a client requests an IP address, the DHCP server searches the binding table for an entry that matches the client’s MAC address. If an entry exists, the corresponding IP address for the entry is returned to the client.

b.

Clients can be assigned an IP address from a predefined DHCP pool for a finite lease period.

c.

DHCP services must be installed on a dedicated network server to define the pool of IP addresses available to the client.

d.

The DHCP server can answer requests and assign IP addresses for a particular subnet only

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Assignment 2

Case Study: 

“Answer the following questions on the basis of given output:

       Router# debug ip rip

       RIP: received update from 172.16.0.1 on FastEthernet0/0

        172.17.0.0 in 1 hops

        172.18.0.0 in 2 hops

        172.19.0.0 in 16 hops ( inaccessible)

        0.0.0.0 in 4 hops

        RIP: sending update to 255.255.255.255 via FastEthernet 0/0 (172.16.0.2) 172.20.0.0, metric 1

        RIP : sending update to 255.255.255.255 via Serial 0/0/0 (172.20.0.1) 172.17.0.0 in 2 hops

        <output omitted>”

Question: What will happen to a packet destined for the 172.19.0.0 network?

a.

It will be forwarded out the FastEthernet 0/0 interface

b.

It will be forwarded out the Serial 0/0 interface

c.

It will be dropped

d.

It will be sent to the default route

Question 2. Which networks are directly attached to this router?

a.

172.16.0.0

b.

172.17.0.0

c.

172.18.0.0

d.

172.19.0.0

Question 3. Which command displays RIP routing updates?

a.

show ip route

b.

show protocols

c.

debug ip rip

d.

debug ip route

Question 4. Which routing protocols support VLSM?

a.

RIPv1

b.

RIPv2

c.

IGRP

d.

HSRP

Question 5. What is the Administrative distance value of RIP protocol?

a.

1

b.

90

c.

100

d.

120

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