Cross Cultural Management (HR202)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment
Question 1. Hierarchy of needs theory was given by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Fredrick Herzberg
b. Elton Mayo
c. Rothlisberger
d. Abraham Maslow
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is the purpose of diversity training?
Select one:
a. Increase workplace harmony
b. Improve communication skills
c. Increase tolerance
d. Increase cultural knowledge
Clear my choice
Question 3. is NOT an aspect of understanding cultural differences.
Select one:
a. Cultural sensitivity
b. Cultural intelligence
c. Tolerance for all workers
d. Respect for all workers
Clear my choice
Question 4. “A person with an unsatisfied need will undertake goal-directed behaviour to satisfy the need.” This statement is .
Select one:
a. Correct
b. Incorrect
c. Partially Correct
d. Person can never have unsatisfied needs.
Clear my choice
Question 5. _ is a group in which members have similar backgrounds and generally perceive, interpret and evaluate events in similar ways. Select one: a. Bicultural group b. Homogeneous group c. Token group d. Multicultural group Clear my choice Question 6. Which of the following is related to appreciating diversity? Select one: a. Treating women fairly b. Tolerating people from different racial groups c. Treating people from other ethnic groups fairly d. Respecting and enjoying cultural and individual differences Clear my choice Question 7. Cultural intelligence is referred to as the ability to: Select one: a. interpret someone’s unfamiliar and ambiguous behavior the same way that others of the person’s culture would b. speak another language c. observe and accept unfamiliar and ambiguous behaviors in others d. research cultural differences Clear my choice Question 8. A culture is usually recognised to be as .
Select one:
a. fixed
b. stable
c. evolving
d. stagnant
Clear my choice
Question 9. In international business, the trend to “go local” has led to local people and foreign experts performing as .
Select one:
a. hosts and guests
b. workers and employers
c. trainee and trainer
d. a team
Clear my choice
Question 10. A culture that is characterised by strong emphasis on equality in the workplace and orientation to the task is known as ___.
Select one:
a. Family Culture
b. Eiffel Tower Culture
c. Guided missile Culture
d. Incubator Culture
Clear my choice
Question 11. Culture is embedded in our .
Select one:
a. minds
b. beliefs
c. expressions
d. gestures
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following statements is true for cross culture.
A. It recognizes the differences among business people of different nations, backgrounds. and ethnicities, and the importance of bridging them.
B. Business people working abroad need to learn subtle differences in style and substance in order to be effective.
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Both A & B
d. Both options are incorrect.
Clear my choice
Question 13. refers to the management of business operations for a company. It is used to conduct business in more than one country and requires familiarity with the business regulations and the ability to carry out transactions that may involve multiple currencies.
Select one:
a. Business Management
b. Multinational Management
c. International Management
d. Cross Cultural Management
Clear my choice
Question 14. Culture is related to .
Select one:
a. thinking
b. rules of behaviour
c. behaviour
d. attitude
Clear my choice
Question 15. These needs involve feeling of self-confidence and feeling good about oneself, feeling valued by others; that is, feeling that our achievements and contributions have been recognised by other people. These needs are referred to as . Select one: a. Safety Needs b. Love and Belongingness Needs c. Esteem Needs d. Health Needs Clear my choice Question 16. A group in which there are individuals from three or more different ethnic backgrounds, such as three U.S., three German, three Uruguayan, and three Chinese managers. It is known as __.
Select one:
a. bicultural group
b. homogeneous group
c. token group
d. multicultural group
Clear my choice
Question 17. _________culture is characterised by strong emphasis on hierarchy and orientation to the task. Jobs are well defined, employees know what they are supposed to do, and everything is coordinated from the top.
Select one:
a. Family
b. Eiffel Tower
c. Guided missile
d. Incubator
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2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. The GLOBE researchers considered six leadership profiles. Which of the following is not a part of this?
Select one:
a. Charismatic type
b. Authoritative type
c. Participative type
d. Self-protective
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following defined national culture as: “The collective programming of the mind which distinguishes the members of one group from another”?
Select one:
a. Geert Hofstede
b. Roger Harrison
c. Roger Harrison
d. Kenichi Ohmae
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following is not one of Kluckhohn and Strodtbeck’s dimensions of national culture?
Select one:
a. What is the role of women in society?
b. What is the nature of people?
c. What is the modality of human activity?
d. What is the conception of space?
Clear my choice
Question 4. When companies are open to hiring employees from all sorts of different backgrounds regardless of race, religion and culture is referred to as________.
Select one:
a. Regiocentric Orientation
b. Host Country Nationals
c. Polycentric Orientation
d. Cultural Diversity
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following is not one of the influences on culture cited in the text?
Select one:
a. Size
b. History and ownership
c. Nature of the product or service
d. People
Clear my choice
Question 6. Which of the following cannot be considered as a benefit of cultural diversity ?
Select one:
a. Increased productivity
b. Wider range of skills
c. Increase in employee conflict
d. Increased profits
Clear my choice
Question 7. Promoting cultural diversity in the workplace helps to enhance team performance because .
A. It allows employees to learn and grow by sharing each other’s experiences.
B. Employees from different backgrounds engage with each other.
C. It enables them to come up with fresh ideas.
D. It allows them to think out of the box and increase productivity.
Select one:
a. Only B & D
b. Only A & C
c. Only A & B
d. All A, B, C, D
Clear my choice
Question 8. The set of shared beliefs, behaviours and attitudes associated with a large group of people is called _.
Select one:
a. religion
b. culture
c. social framework
d. Values
Clear my choice
Question 9. “Cross-cultural understanding, along with local market knowledge, lends itself the production of more effective marketing strategy and materials.” This statement is .
Select one:
a. Correct
b. Incorrect
c. Partially Correct
d. Incomplete.
Clear my choice
Question 10. “Professional communication can be misinterpreted or difficult to understand across languages and cultures”.
Select one:
a. This statement is true.
b. This statement is not true.
c. This statement is partially true
d. Professional communication can never be misinterpreted
Clear my choice
Question 11. The GLOBE Project researches _.
Select one:
a. effects of leadership all over the world.
b. creation of country clusters for better management .
c. how traits are viewed in effective leadership all over the world.
d. about better styles of managing people.
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which of the following is not one of the Hofstede’s cultural dimensions ?
Select one:
a. Power distance
b. Cultural Favouritism
c. Individualism-collectivism
d. Masculinity-femininity
Clear my choice
Question 13. A culture distinguishes
Select one:
a. members of one generation from another
b. members of one nation from another
c. members of one human group from another.
d. members of one ethnic group from another
Clear my choice
Question 14. GLOBE project refers to _.
Select one:
a. Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Efficiency
b. Great Leaders and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness
c. Great Leaders and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness Summit
d. Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness
Clear my choice
Question 15. The GLOBE researchers uncovered nine cultural dimensions. Which of the following is NOT a cultural dimension ?
Select one:
a. performance orientation
b. uncertainty avoidance
c. leadership orientation
d. humane orientation
Clear my choice
Question 16. To succeed with managing cultural diversity, the organization has to obtain a culture where__________.
Select one:
a. people respect each other
b. people feel included
c. the employees can use their Knowledge to its full potential
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 17. The GLOBE project investigates how cultural values are related to _.
A. Organizational practices
B. Conceptions of leadership
C. Economic competitiveness of societies
D. Human condition of its members
Select one:
a. All A,BC,D
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & D
d. Only A & C

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3rd Module Assessment
Identify the statement which is true about cultural differences related to body positions and movements.
Select one:
a. In the United States, an up-and-down movement of the head means “yes” and a side-to-side movement of the head means “no.”
b. In China, people generally offer a handshake that is firm and long lasting.
c. In Indonesia, people do not view squatting as a normal body position.
d. In North America, looking directly at people during formal presentations is considered a sign of disrespect.
Question 1. It is in the family business environment that the hard-working nature of is particularly evident. Material success is important, not so much for the individual, but more for the sake of maintaining the family’s honour and ensuring a sound future for the family’s offspring.
Select one:
a. Americans
b. Indians
c. Africans
d. Germans
Clear my choice
Question 2. “Expect your colleagues to not be very emotive with their facial expressions and word choices. They are known for their dry wit.” The given statement refers to style of management .
Select one:
a. British
b. American
c. French
d. Japanese
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following is a challenge of cultural diversity in workplace?
Select one:
a. Colleagues from some cultures may be less likely to let their voices be heard
b. Different understandings of professional etiquette
c. Conflicting working styles across teams
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 4. is least consistent with U.S. values in general.
Select one:
a. Individual competition
b. Emphasis on change
c. Openness and accessibility
d. Egalitarianism
Clear my choice
Question 5. It refers to the feeling of uncertainty, confusion or anxiety that people may experience when moving to a new country or experiencing a new culture or surroundings.
Select one:
a. Culture difference
b. Culture shock
c. Environmental difference
d. Environmental shock
Clear my choice
Question 6. “Lifetime employment, that is large companies hire regular employees’ right out of school and keep them until retirement.” This is a characteristic of __ style .
Select one:
a. Japanese Management
b. Indian Management
c. French Management
d. Chinese Management
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is a warning sign that a company’s culture is broken?
Select one:
a. Unfriendly competition between employees
b. A large amount of office gossip
c. Managers don’t follow the core values
d. All of the options
Clear my choice
Question 8. “At the heart of organizations’ cultures are commonly shared values. None is right or wrong, but organizations need to decide which values they will emphasize. “The given statement is .
Select one:
a. Correct
b. Incorrect
c. Partially Correct
d. Incomplete.
Clear my choice
Question 9. A is a distinct cultural group within a larger culture.
Select one:
a. co-culture
b. material culture
c. sub culture
d. bi-culture
Clear my choice
Question 10. What is a “learned system of knowledge, behaviour, attitudes, beliefs, values, and norms shared by a group of people” called?
Select one:
a. Culture
b. dominant culture
c. community
d. co-culture.
Clear my choice
Question 11. Which style of management has the following characteristics:
A. The relationship among the employees and employer is like family members and taking responsibility for each other.
B. Seniority system for salaries and promotions, rather than on the basis of performance.
Select one:
a. Japanese Style of Management
b. Indian Style of Management
c. German Style of Management
d. UK Style of Management
Clear my choice
Question 12. The considerable variation between Americans and Chinese in the use of silence during meetings is an aspect of .
Select one:
a. haptics
b. proxemics
c. paralanguage
d. object language
Clear my choice
Question 13. ___managers motivate staff by showing solidarity with them. They work long hours, obey the rules and, though expecting immediate obedience, insist on fair play. Select one: a. British b. German c. Japanese d. Chinese Clear my choice Question 14. Which of these points relates to UK style of Management ? A. Avoid confrontational behavior or high-pressure tactics. Avoid displays of emotion and do not argue on the basis of feelings. B. Decision-making is slow and deliberate and so patience may be a necessary cross cultural attribute. Select one: a. Only A b. Only B c. Both A & B d. None of these Clear my choice Which of the following can be a challenge to manage Culture Change in the workplace? Select one: a. Resistance to Change b. Lack of Motivation to Change c. . Lack of Ownership d. All of the options Question 15. Canada is a country that scores high on the cultural value of __.
Select one:
a. collectivism
b. uncertainty avoidance
c. power distribution
d. individualism
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following is related to Organizing in USA style of Management:
A. Individual responsibility and accountability
B. Clarity and specificity of decision responsibility
C. Formal bureaucratic organizational structure
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Both A & B
c. Both B & C
d. All A,B, C
Clear my choice
Question 17. Following statements refer to which style of management?
A. Missing a deadline is a sign of poor management and inefficiency, and will shake people’s confidence.
B. People in controlled-time cultures tend to have their time highly scheduled, and it’s generally a good idea to provide and adhere to performance milestones.
Select one:
a. Japanese
b. British
c. American
d. French
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4th Module Assessment

The main goal of cross-cultural communication training is to________.
Select one:
a. give social status
b. develop business etiquette
c. improve behaviour
d. create strong cultural ties
Question 1. A number of steps can be taken to improve communication effectiveness in the international arena. These include .
Select one:
a. improving feedback systems
b. providing language and cultural training
c. increasing flexibility and cooperation.
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. ___ is NOT a strategy that will help overcome communication barriers?
Select one:
a. Using straightforward language and speak clearly.
b. Paying attention to individual differences in appearance.
c. Politely insisting that only English be spoken, even in international situations.
d. Being sensitive to nonverbal communication differences.
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the following is correct about cross-cultural communication?
Select one:
a. Cross-cultural communication should be avoided as it reduces group cohesiveness.
b. Effective cross-cultural communication minimizes problems stemming from misinterpretations.
c. Cross-cultural communication should be avoided as it reduces the productivity of a workplace.
d. Being able to communicate cross-culturally requires you to be ethnocentric in your outlook.
Clear my choice
Question 4. _ is a person’s view of reality. How people see reality can vary and will influence their judgment and decision making.
Select one:
a. Persuation
b. Perception
c. Cultural difference
d. proxemics
Clear my choice
Question 5. There are a wide variety of tactics used in international negotiation. These include location, time limits, buyer-seller relations, verbal behaviours, and nonverbal behaviours. This statement is _.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partially true
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. The effectiveness of communication in the international context is often determined by which of the following ?
A. How closely the sender and receiver have the same meaning for the same message.
B. If this meaning is different, effective communication will not occur.
Select one:
a. only A
b. Only B
c. Both A & B
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 7. is the study of communication through body movement and facial expression. Primary areas of concern include eye contact, posture, and gestures.
Select one:
a. Proxemics
b. Chronemics
c. Kinesics
d. Chromatics
Clear my choice
Question 8. Select the option which best supports the statement:
Trust most likely improves cross-cultural communication by .
Select one:
a. enabling managers to network effectively
b. encouraging the open exchange of ideas and information
c. replacing formal legal contracts for global firms
d. eliminating all variables that hinder the communication process
Clear my choice
Question 9. Posture, gestures, facial expressions, and eye contact are examples of which of the following ?
Select one:
a. kinesic behavior
b. proxemics
c. paralanguage
d. oculesics
Clear my choice
Question 10. _ is the transfer of information from subordinate to superior.
Select one:
a. Upward communication
b. downward communication
c. diagonal communication
d. wheel communication
Clear my choice
Question 11. Nonverbal behaviour is sometimes called as .
Select one:
a. Chromatics
b. Proxemics
c. silent language
d. Chronemics
Clear my choice
Question 12. is the use of colour to communicate messages. Select one: a. Chromatics b. Proxemics c. Chronemics d. Kinesics Clear my choice Question 13. __ is the process of bargaining with one or more parties to arrive at a solution that is acceptable to all. It has been estimated that managers can spend 50 percent or more of their time on this processes.
Select one:
a. Persuation
b. Negotiation
c. Bargaining
d. paralanguage
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following is a part of Upward Communication?
Select one:
a. provide feedback
b. ask questions
c. obtain assistance from higher-level management.
d. All of these
Clear my choice
“Language frequently causes miscommunication during international business situations.” Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for the given statement?
Select one:
a. being unable to speak a local language
b. translating a local language too literally
c. missing meanings conveyed through body language
d. assuming that others use similar reasoning processes
Question 15. Facial expressions such as smiles, frowns, yawns and posture and stance represent which form of communication?
Select one:
a. Verbal Communication
b. Nonverbal Communication
c. Vertical Communication
d. Diagonal Communication
Clear my choice
Question 16. For good and effective cross-cultural communication, the language .
Select one:
a. should not be influenced by your intended purpose.
b. should be guided by your target audience.
c. should not include active verbs
d. should be vague so that your message can be interpreted in multiple ways.
Clear my choice
Question 17. In cross-cultural communications, in order to avoid misinterpretations one should _.
Select one:
a. avoid using colloquial expressions.
b. use two-word verbs
c. use passive voice instead of active voice.
d. avoid using back translating procedures.
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5th Module Assessment
Which of the following can be classified as International Employees ?
Select one:
a. Host Country Nationals
b. Expatriates
c. Third Country Nationals()
d. All of these
Question 1. Expatriate training generally involves .
Select one:
a. Pre-departure training, that is before the employee leaves his/her home country
b. HCN training, that is after the employee joins the firm in the foreign country.
c. Both A & B
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. Managing international resources in the global context is indeed a process.
Select one:
a. lengthy
b. simple
c. smooth
d. complex
Clear my choice
Question 3. “The level of headquarters’ support provided to the individual and the family is an important performance variable that involves more than the tangible, monetary support contained in the compensation package.” The given statement is __.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partially true
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is NOT a type of employee in an international firm?
Select one:
a. host country national
b. Fifth Country National
c. parent-country national
d. third country national
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following factors affect Global Human Resource Management?
Select one:
a. Economic Factors
b. Societal Factors
c. Cultural Factors
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. ____can be defined as a set of activities targeting human resource management at the international level. Select one: a. International Human Resource Management b. Personnel management c. Human Resource Management d. Cross Cultural management Clear my choice Question 7. _______is the act of expanding operations outside domestic market. Select one: a. Internationalizing b. Ethnocentric Approach c. Nationalising d. Geocentric Approach Clear my choice Question 8. Employees belonging to a country where the company has set up a subsidiary or a manufacturing facility are called ____.
Select one:
a. home-country nationals
b. host-country nationals
c. third-country nationals
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 9. IHRM is referred to as .
Select one:
a. Institutional Human Resource Management
b. International Human Resource Management
c. Intiation Human Return Management
d. International Human Return Management
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which of the following is an advantage of staffing from the home country nationals?
A. greater control over activities of the organization
B. acquisition of experience in local markets
C. greater efficiency in implementing business strategy
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Both A & B
c. Both B & C
d. All A,B, C
Clear my choice
It involves a payment to compensate for the differences in the cost of living between the two countries resulting in an eventual difference in the expenditure made. It is known as .
Select one:
a. Home leave allowance
b. Cost of Living Allowance
c. Education allowance
d. Spouse assistance
Question 11. Notable areas of T&D programmes in international business can be .
A. language efficiency
B. understanding of the social and political environment of the host countries
C. awareness of the cultural and social environment
Select one:
a. All A,B,C
b. Only A & B
c. Only B
d. Only A & C
Clear my choice
Question 12. International HRM can be a challenging exercise because of which of the following reasons?
Select one:
a. Integration Issues
b. compensation relating problems
c. administrative services to expatriates
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. A host country national or third country national assigned to the home country of the company where it is headquartered is known as______.
Select one:
a. Inpatriate
b. Expatriate
c. Repatriate
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following is a /are variable/s that moderate (i.e. either diminish or accentuate) the differences between domestic and international HRM?
A. Cultural Environment
B. The industry with which the multinational is primarily involved
C. The extent of reliance of the multinational on its home country domestic market
D. The Attitude of Senior Management
Select one:
a. All A,B, C, D
b. Only A
c. Both B & C
d. Only C
Clear my choice
Question 15. If an employee is employed by the company whose headquarters are in London, he is a citizen of India and working in US. Then the employee is classified as .
Select one:
a. third country national
b. Expatriate
c. third world employees
d. host country nationals
Clear my choice
Question 16. International HRM as defined by has an interplay among three dimensions namely human resource activities, types of employees, and countries of operation.
Select one:
a. Trompenaar
b. Kluckhohn and Strodtbeck
c. Morgan
d. Hofstede
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is a major advantage of staffing from amongst the host country nationals?
A. elimination or reduction of language barriers;
B. better understanding of host country’s laws and regulations
C. reduction of hiring cost
D. reduced compensation package.
Select one:
a. Both B & D
b. Both A & B
c. Both B & C Case Study:
d. All A, B, C, D

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Assignment 2

The fundamental necessity to apprehend dynamic cultures is quite crucial as different cultures tend to interpret different views and things. Such views may be beneficial to one and neutral to another. The things and notions that are considered to be essential for one group within an organization may not be turn out to be the same for the other group. Hence with this contrast as well as diversity, an organization has to perceive and comprehend the necessity of different group of people. It is essential to harmonize sensitively and substantially to the need and wants of different groups. Efforts need to be put proactively to reduce the gap among the people belonging to different culture backgrounds who are working together in an organization. Cross-cultural management can be understood as the administration of individuals and activities that include an alternate culture backdrop and dynamic background. The study related to cross-culture focuses on the crucial notions such as training and encouraging how to deal with clashes of the diverse culture and initiate viable and sound management. Its fundamental objective is to plan an achievable management structure and the executive’s component over the distinctive culture foundations. It likewise plans to utilize endeavors’ assets, particularly apply potential estimation of undertakings proficiently and successfully. If we talk about the relative significance of cultural cognizance in the field of international business, there can be observed different aspects as well as facets. There are some firms that need more cross-cultural awareness as compared to other firms and organizations.Many countries may require more powerful cross-cultural sensitivity and scrutiny in comparison with other countries.Some functions do require more concentrated knowledge regarding cross culture than others.Because of contrasting role and personality, some people need a high level of cultural insight in comparison to others.

There are some impressive and compelling steps to achieve the perks of cross-cultural management. Better understanding with everyone – It is highly crucial and essential to bag a successful cross-cultural management within a particular organization. The administration and driving managers must have a bit commonality with gathering individuals and representatives to make a sound workplace. Perceiving the range of abilities of every worker that is special to different individuals must be acknowledged. An ideal manager never ignores the positive qualities of workers. Recognize the cultural fluctuation of a group – As it is voiced in culturally diverse administration article to think about the change in culture of the colleagues. Pioneers must take out some time to recognize the differences in culture, language, traditions, behavior as well as values of employees. In this way, positive aspects can be easily acknowledged that can enhance the business interest. Set transparent benchmarks – If there is a mixture and blend of numerous different cultures and backdrops within an organization, differentiation becomes quite obvious in such circumstances. These differences occur because of contrasting behavior and culture. To tackle such scenes, it is the duty and responsibility of a manager to state clear rules and benchmarks to get rid of any confusion. Effective steps should be taken to combat any negativity at workplace. Enhancing the individual connection – To surpass and overcome the possible conflicts or clashes within the organization, the individual connection must be given importance and should be made known to each and every team member. There are various modes and proceedings that can easily impact the personal connection among employees related to cross culture. It will also help in cutting down the level of negativity. Settling the disputes – while employees work together in a cross-cultural environment then conflicts and issues are likely to arise. These are known to be a common phenomenon, but settling these conflicts and issues matters the most.

With businesses becoming increasingly internationalized, and in-house and extended teams increasingly multicultural, today’s managers are faced with a conundrum that did not fall on their predecessors: how to communicate effectively across cultures.In order for businesses to remain effective and competitive, leaders need to engage their employees rather than inform and instruct. There are challenges in doing this: communication contexts differ across cultures. Managers who get it wrong are left to resolve cross-cultural misunderstandings. Often, this can be damaging to the organization’s internal and external reputation. In the worst cases, the inability to resolve cross-cultural misunderstandings can decimate promising businesses and mergers. Think DaimlerChrysler (a merger that was called a ‘merger of equals’ when it was conceived, a fiasco a few years later) or AOL and Time Warner (with the AOL-Time Warner share price down from $72 in 2000 to $15 in 2008), and you’ll realize the damage that cross-cultural differences can cause if left unresolved. Lets now discuss about strategy to avoid the need to resolve cross-cultural misunderstandings by preparing for them first.

1. Understand the communication style of different cultures

People from different cultures communicate differently. Some, like the United States, Australia and the UK, are more direct. Communication is precise and open, and more emotional. This is called ‘low-context’ culture.Others, especially Chinese, Japanese and Indian, are subtler. Meanings are often not explicitly stated, but instead implied within information provided. This is called ‘high-context’ culture.Some cultures communicate calmly, basing discussion wholly on facts and acting decisively (linear-active). Others are courteous, good listeners, and amiable (reactive). A third type of culture is warm and emotional (multi-active).By understanding these differences, you will be able to temper your communication style accordingly and be more effective in cross-cultural teams.

2. Understand that there will be differences in cultural value

Every culture has different values. These may develop over time. For example, the class-based society that was prevalent in the United Kingdom for many hundreds of years has largely been expunged. In India, the caste system is still very much alive despite being outlawed.

Geert Hofstede identifies five dimensions of cultural perspectives:

Power Distance

Individualism vs. Collectivism

Masculinity vs. Femininity

Uncertainty Avoidance

Long-term vs. Short-term Orientation

As an example of the above, power distance is the dimension that describes India’s caste culture – the acceptance of inequality between different people:

Individualism vs. collectivism refers to the emphasis on individual or collective success.

Masculinity vs. femininity refers to the extent to which the culture emphasizes masculine, work-related goals rather than humanist goals.

Uncertainty avoidance refers to the need for rules and direction rather than ambiguity.

Long-term orientation vs. short-term orientation refers to the level of goal-setting in a timeframe context.

By understanding how different cultures ‘operate’ within these five dimensions, you will be able to bridge the gap that exists between your cultural dimension and that of your employees or customers.

3. Develop effective communication style

When you understand these cultural differences, you can develop your communication style to avoid the need to resolve cross-cultural misunderstandings. This ability interlinks seamlessly with high-level emotional intelligence. You’ll become more tolerant of ambiguity, be more flexible toward different cultures, and less certain that your culture is right in all circumstances and situations. Developing communication skills such as openness and agreeability will help to build respect for you as a leader and engender effective communication. Request and expect feedback to help develop your cross-cultural communication capabilities. By appreciating cultural differences you’ll avoid cross-cultural misunderstandings, which can ruin promising relationships.

4. Avoid becoming frustrated

It is natural to expect others to behave in line with our own cultural norms. Should this not be the case, instinct is to reject it. Managers and leaders should not show such frustration toward behavior dictated by different cultural values, though this is incredibly difficult to do. The way to combat this is to open up to cultural differences. Instead of acting with prejudice, seek to learn more by asking about the values that dictate certain behaviors. This should help you resolve differences in a more understanding and cooperative environment.

5. Employ appropriate motivations

Motivational techniques and incentives are often dictated by organizational culture, and this is often highly linked to where the organization was founded or is currently headquartered. Companies often employ a single incentive scheme, with recognition and reward uniform across all their geographical locations. These are often made without regard for cultural differences within teams, also. When expanding to other geographical locations, employing a cross-cultural team, or seeking to benefit from talent via remote employment, it is possible that your current incentive scheme and motivational techniques lead to a reduction in productivity and effectiveness of your employees where cultural differences exist. It should be noted that such cultural differences can exist happily within communities of workers. For example, while one person may be motivated by being offered more autonomy, another may reject the freedom as they expect their supervisor or manager to be responsible for the task being done.
Which of the following is related to ‘high-context’ culture:
A. Communication is precise and open, and more emotional.
B. Meanings are often not explicitly stated, but instead implied within information provided.
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Both A & B
d. None of the options.
Clear my choice
Question 2. This case study related to cross-culture focuses on the crucial notions such as training and encouraging how to:
Select one:
a. deal with clashes of diverse culture
b. deal with difference of opinions
c. initiate viable and sound management
d. work for CSR initiatives
Clear my choice
Question 3. “To surpass and overcome the possible conflicts or clashes within the organization, the individual connection must be given importance and should be made known to each and every team member.” The given statement is _.
Select one:
a. Correct
b. Incorrect
c. Incomplete
d. Incorrect ,Individual connection increases conflicts.
Clear my choice
Question 4. The inability to resolve cross-cultural misunderstandings can _______promising businesses and mergers.
Select one:
a. Help
b. Decimate
c. Create
d. Help Building
Clear my choice
Question 5. In order for businesses to remain effective and competitive, leaders need to ________rather than inform and instruct.
Select one:
a. Help their employees
b. Manage their employees
c. engage their employees
d. Replace their employees
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Consumer Behaviour (MKTG604)-Semester III
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

1st Module Assessment
Question 1. Identify the Non-probability Sampling technique.
Select one:
a. Convenience Sampling
b. Judgement Sampling
c. Quota Sampling
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. Understanding of consumer needs and then developing a marketing mix to satisfy these needs is called as the .
Select one:
a. marketing concept
b. strategic plan
c. product influences
d. price influences
Clear my choice
Question 3. is a branch which deals with the various stages a consumer goes through before purchasing products or services for end use.
Select one:
a. Consumer behavior
b. Consumer interest
c. Consumer attitude
d. Consumer perception
Clear my choice
Question 4. ABC Machinery Ltd. lays a great deal of emphasis on performance and features of their machines. This relates to the orientation.
Select one:
a. market
b. seller
c. product
d. process
Clear my choice
Question 5. ADF Garments rolled out different communication campaigns for north, south, east and west zones. They have done a market . Select one: a. segmentation b. survey c. analysis d. orientation Clear my choice Question 6. A sample design addresses which of the following questions: Select one: a. who is to be surveyed (sampling unit) b. how many to survey (sample size) c. how should the respondents be chosen (the sampling procedure) d. All of these Clear my choice Question 7. Amy bought an ice cream for Jason. In this case Amy is a and Jason is a .
Select one:
a. buyer, User
b. User,buyer
c. User,sponsor
d. buyer, seller
Clear my choice
Question 8. Basic approaches to collect data in quantitative study are . Select one: a. Observation b. Experimentation c. Survey d. All of these Clear my choice Question 9. An individual who purchases goods and services from the market for their end use is called as .
Select one:
a. Customer
b. Purchaser
c. Creator
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. If you buy a chair for your office, you may be termed as a consumer.
Select one:
a. home
b. organizational
c. market
d. special
Clear my choice
is willingness of consumers to purchase products and services as per their taste, need and pocket.
Select one:
a. Consumer behavior
b. Consumer interest
c. Consumer attitude
d. Consumer perception
Question 11. The price of products and services often influence whether _, and, if so, which competitive offering is selected.
Select one:
a. Consumers will purchase them at all
b. Consumers see a need to buy
c. Consumers will decide to buy immediately
d. People would recommend the product
Clear my choice
Question 12. An economic circumstance that can greatly affect any product or brand choice is .
Select one:
a. retirement
b. values
c. lifestyle
d. borrowing power
Clear my choice
Question 13. factors affect consumer behavior.
Select one:
a. Brand name, quality, newness, and complexity
b. Advertising, marketing, product, and price
c. Outlets, strategies, concept, and brand name
d. Quality, advertising, product positioning
Clear my choice
Question 14. In recent years has become increasingly important for developing a marketing strategy.
Select one:
a. Change in consumers’ attitudes
b. Inflation of the dollar
c. The concept and the brand
d. Age groups, such as the teen market, baby boomers, and the mature market.
Clear my choice
can influence the consumers’ thoughts about products.
Select one:
a. Marketing and popularity
b. Advertising, sales promotions, salespeople, and publicity
c. Sales promotion, popularity, and marketing
d. Billboards
Question 15. If a company makes products and services for the purpose of reselling or renting them to others at a profit or for use in the production of other products and services, then the company is selling to the _.
Select one:
a. Business market
b. International market
c. Consumer market
d. Private sector market
Clear my choice
Question 16. Understanding of consumer buying behavior is not easy. The answers are often locked deep within the consumer’s head. The central question for marketers is .
Select one:
a. How much money is the consumer willing to spend?
b. How much does the consumer need the product being offered for sale?
c. How much does a discount or a coupon affect the purchase rate?
d. How do consumers respond to various marketing efforts the company might use?
Clear my choice
Question 17. The greatest barrier in effectively marketing to the Asian American market is considered to be .
Select one:
a. Reluctance to grant credit to this group
b. Language and cultural traditions
c. The urban nature of their neighborhoods
d. Lack of a mass media that reaches this group

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM
2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. Brand name and logo of the company can also act as . Select one: a. products b. stimuli c. services d. None of these Clear my choice Question 2. is one of the most basic influences on an individual’s needs, wants, and behaviour.
Select one:
a. Brand
b. Culture
c. Product
d. Price
Clear my choice
Question 3. A strong internal stimulus that calls for action is .
Select one:
a. Drive
b. cue
c. response
d. perception
Clear my choice
Question 4.The selection of stimulus depends on an individual’s past experiences and his .
Select one:
a. choices
b. wants
c. motives
d. requirement
Clear my choice
develops on the basis of wealth, skills and power.
Select one:
a. Economical classes
b. Purchasing communities
c. Competitors
d. Social classes
Question 5. _ refers to the activities which influence consumer behavior. Select one: a. Extrinsic Stimuli b. Intrinsic stimuli c. Marketing d. Advertising Clear my choice Question 6. refers to the information a consumer has stored in their memory about a product or service.
Select one:
a. Cognitive dissonance
b. Product knowledge
c. Product research
d. Marketing research
Clear my choice
Question 7. describes the changes in an individual’s behavior arising from experience.
Select one:
a. Modeling
b. Motivation
c. Perception
d. Learning
Clear my choice
Question 8. Product and its components like packaging, label, features etc make _ stimuli. Select one: a. extrinsic () b. Intrinsic c. casual d. None of these Clear my choice Question 9. Product involvement refers to ___ or personal relevance of an item.
Select one:
a. A consumer’s perception of the importance
b. The need of the product
c. The price of the product
d. The amount of people who bought the product
Clear my choice
Question 10. The process by which people select, organize, and interpret information to form a meaningful picture of the world is .
Select one:
a. Readiness
b. Selectivity
c. Perception
d. Motivation
Clear my choice
Question 11. When a consumer describes a car as being the “most economical car on the market,” then this descriptor is .
Select one:
a. Rule
b. Attitude
c. Belief
d. Cue
Clear my choice
puts people into a frame of mind of liking or disliking things, of moving towards or away from them.
Select one:
a. A rule
b. An attitude
c. A belief
d. A cue
Question 12. When a consumer tells his friends “I like my car more than any other car on the road,” then the consumer has expressed a/an . Select one: a. Rule b. Attitude c. Belief d. Cue Clear my choice Question 13. _ refers to the information a consumer has stored in their memory about a product or service.
Select one:
a. Cognitive dissonance
b. Product knowledge
c. Product research
d. Marketing research
Clear my choice
Question 14. In consumer behaviour culture, social class, and reference group influences have been related to purchase and .
Select one:
a. Economic situations
b. Situational influences
c. Consumption decisions
d. Physiological influences
Clear my choice
Question 15. One of the key tasks of the marketers is _ and to create consumer perceptions that the product is worth purchasing.
Select one:
a. To make products easily visible and available
b. To promote sales of products
c. To differentiate their products from those of competitors
d. To do marketing surveys
Clear my choice
Question 16. If the purchase is for a high-involvement product, consumers are likely to develop a high degree of _ so that they can be confident that the item they purchase is just right for them.
Select one:
a. Brand loyalty
b. Society
c. Product knowledge
d. References
Clear my choice
Question 17. People can form different perceptions of the same stimulus because of three perceptual processes. These processes are best described as being:
Select one:
a. Selective attention, selective distortion, and selective retention
b. Subliminal perception, selective remembrance, selective forgetting
c. Closure, modeling, and perceptual screening.
d. Needs distortion, wants analysis, and perceptual screening

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM
3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. _ portrays the “whole person” interacting with his or her environment. Select one: a. Attitude b. Personality c. Lifestyle d. Self-concept Clear my choice Question 2. __ is a person’s pattern of living as expressed in their activities, interests, and opinions.
Select one:
a. role
b. status
c. position
d. lifestyle
Clear my choice
Question 3. A person’s unique psychological characteristics that lead to relatively consistent and lasting responses to their own environment is . Select one: a. Psychographics() b. Personality c. Demographics d. Lifestyle Clear my choice Question 4. The energizing force that activates behavior and provides purpose and direction to that behavior is known as .
Select one:
a. motivation
b. personality
c. emotion
d. perception
Clear my choice
Question 5. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, the lowest order of needs are . Select one: a. Self-actualization needs b. Social needs c. Safety needs d. Physiological needs Clear my choice Question 6. Synonym for motive can be _.
Select one:
a. omen
b. need
c. drive
d. cue
Clear my choice
Question 7. Consumers often choose and use brands that have a brand personality consistent with how they see themselve. This is known as .
Select one:
a. actual self-concept
b. ideal self-concept
c. others’ self-concept
d. prohibitive self-concept
Clear my choice
Question 8. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, the highest order of needs are .
Select one:
a. Self-actualization needs
b. Social needs
c. Safety needs
d. Physiological needs
Clear my choice
Question 9. The main tool used in motivational research is .
Select one:
a. depth-interview
b. observation
c. focus study
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. A need that is sufficiently pressing to direct the person to seek satisfaction of the need is called . Select one: a. Motive b. want c. demand d. requirement Clear my choice _ reflects that people’s possessions contribute to and reflect their identities i.e. “we are what we have.”
Select one:
a. lifestyle concept
b. self-concept
c. personality concept
d. cognitive concept
Question 11. The theory of motivation which views people as responding to urges that are repressed but never fully under control was developed by .
Select one:
a. Marshall
b. Kant
c. Freud
d. Maslow
Clear my choice
Question 12. Smoke detectors, preventive medicines, insurance, retirement investments, seat belts, burglar alarms, and sunscreen are all examples of products to satisfy consumers’ _ needs. Select one: a. safety b. self-actualization c. physiological d. belongingness Clear my choice Question 13. also includes a situation-specific component.
Select one:
a. personality
b. self-concept
c. involvement
d. demographics
Clear my choice
Question 14. Marketers who target consumers on the basis of their believe that they can influence purchase behavior by appealing to people’s inner selves.
Select one:
a. core values
b. sophistication
c. money constrain
d. social class
Clear my choice
Many sub-cultural barriers are on a decline because of mass communication, mass transit, and a . Select one: a. Decline in the influence of religious values b. Decline in communal influences c. Strong awareness of brands in the market d. Strong awareness of pricing policies in the market. Question 15 Not yet answered Marked out of 4.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text When Ben was a high school student, he enjoyed rock music and regularly purchased hip clothing sported by his favorite rock band. However, five years later, when he became an accountant, his preference shifted toward formal clothing. Which of the following personal characteristics is likely to have had the most influence on Ben’s preferences during his high school days? Select one: a. education b. age c. income d. gender Clear my choice Question 16. “I’m comfortable being the greatest that ever was or will be. Be comfortable. Uncompromised. Start with your feet.” This ad shows a picture of Muhammad Ali, world famous boxer. In terms of Maslow’s hierarchy, this ad was designed to appeal to the consumer’s ________.
Select one:
a. Psychological needs
b. Need for esteem
c. Safety needs
d. Self-actualization needs
Clear my choice
Question 17. Changes in consumer values can be recognized by many business firms for expanding their emphasis on _ products.
Select one:
a. Latest technology
b. Timesaving, convenience-oriented
c. Health related
d. Communication

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

4th Module Assessment

Question 1. Which of the following would be the best illustration of a subculture?
Select one:
a. a religion
b. a group of close friends
c. your university
d. a fraternity or sorority
Clear my choice
Question 2. is the definition of reference groups.
Select one:
a. Groups that an individual looks to when forming attitudes and opinions
b. Groups of people who have been referred to by someone they know
c. Groups of office colleagues
d. Chat groups on the internet
Clear my choice
Question 3. In large nations, the population is bound to lose a lot of its homogeneity resulting into .
Select one:
a. Multilingual needs
b. Cultures
c. Subcultures
d. Product adaptation requirements
Clear my choice
Question 4. According to the buyer decision process suggested in the text, the first stage is . Select one: a. Awareness b. Information search c. Need recognition d. Demand formulation Clear my choice Question 5. _ is a person within a reference group who, because of special skills, knowledge, personality, or other characteristics, exerts influence on others.
Select one:
a. facilitator
b. referent actor
c. opinion leader
d. social role player
Clear my choice
Question 6. The stage in the buyer decision process in which the consumers are aroused to search for more information is called . Select one: a. Information search b. Evaluation of alternatives c. Search for needs d. Perceptual search Clear my choice Question 7. consists of the activities people are expected to perform according to persons around them.
Select one:
a. behavior
b. attitude
c. role
d. status
Clear my choice
Question 8. Individuals and households who buy goods and services for personal consumption are . Select one: a. The target market b. A market segment c. The consumer market d. The ethnographic market. Clear my choice Question 9. Problem recognition is process.
Select one:
a. Continuous
b. one time
c. time consuming
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. For the marketing manager, social class offers some insights into consumer behavior and is potentially useful as a . Select one: a. Market research information b. Market segmentation variable c. Source of understanding competition’s strategy d. Source to predict future trends Clear my choice Question 11. As per the stimulus-response model of buyer behavior , the place where consumers process marketing stimuli prior to making purchase decision is called as _.
Select one:
a. Consumer’s value chain
b. Consumer’s cognitive schema
c. Consumer’s black box
d. Consumer’s thoughts-emotions network
Clear my choice
Question 12. (is) are transmitted through three basic organizations: the family, religious organizations, and educational institutions. In today’s society, educational institutions are playing an increasingly greater role in this regard.
Select one:
a. Consumer feedback
b. Marketing information systems
c. Market share estimates
d. Cultural values
Clear my choice
Question 13. Even though buying roles in the family keeps on changing constantly, the __ has traditionally been the main purchasing agent for the family.
Select one:
a. Wife
b. husband
c. teenage children
d. grandparent
Clear my choice
Question 14. Consumer purchases are influenced strongly by cultural, social, personal, and _ characteristics.
Select one:
a. Psychographic
b. Psychological
c. Psychometric
d. Supply and demand
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following can be considered as the most valuable piece of information for determining the social class of your best friend’s parents?
Select one:
a. The number of years schooling that they had
b. Their ethnic backgrounds
c. Their combined annual income
d. Their occupations
Clear my choice
Question 16. In terms of the consumption decisions, middle class consumers prefer to .
Select one:
a. Buy at a market that sells at a whole sale rates
b. Buy what is popular
c. Buy only the brands which sell at affordable prices
d. Analyze the market and select the best at the lowest prices
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the buyer decision process?
Select one:
a. need recognition
b. brand identification
c. information search
d. purchase decision
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

5th Module Assessment
Question 1. A field of computer science that uses statistical techniques to give computer systems the ability to ‘learn’ with data, without being explicitly programmed, is called . Select one: a. computational algorithms b. machine learning c. machine pedagogy d. All of these Clear my choice Question 2. Ambient communication: Select one: a. Uses the environment to display its marketing messages b. Facilitates the emergence of new platforms such as 3D technology c. Engages the consumer in private spaces d. Is only digital in nature Clear my choice Question 3. Mobile marketers are able to reach audiences: Select one: a. Using a ‘pull’ strategy b. Using a ‘push’ strategy c. In real time d. All of these Clear my choice Question 4. Which of the following is not a standard in online advertising? Select one: a. Dynamic banner b. Static banners c. Referrals links d. Signal Clear my choice Question 5. Social media complaints are: Select one: a. fake news on Facebook: b. consumer ‘rants’ on a Twitter thread c. the use of any social media platform with which to highlight a complaint about a product or service failure d. None of these Clear my choice Question 6. Mobile marketing has innovative ways to reach the consumer. Which of the following is not one of them? Select one: a. Mobile apps b. Mobile retail payments c. Yellow pages advertising d. Barcode calls-to-action Clear my choice Big Data is: Select one: a. reports written in an extremely large font size for the visually impaired. b. extremely large data sets that may be analysed computationally to reveal patterns, trends, and associations, especially relating to human behaviour and interactions c. all the information that is contained within the servers of Google d. None of these Question 7. Cyber security can be defined as: Select one: a. the CCTV systems installed to protect the locations of internet service providers b. a business simulation computer game called Prison Tycoon that puts the user in charge of a prison c. the protection of computer systems from theft of or damage to their hardware, software or electronic data, as well as from disruption or misdirection of the services they provide d. None of these Clear my choice Question 8. Paid advertising based on a per-click model is called .
Select one:
a. Sponsored search-engine advertising
b. Feedback
c. Source advertising
d. ICT indicators
Clear my choice
Question 9. Geo-pricing enables:
Select one:
a. companies to control different prices for different countries
b. retail companies to change their prices in accordance with changes in their local economy
c. e-commerce businesses to personalise prices and promotions based on a customer’s location
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. What is unique about social media marketing?
Select one:
a. Generates contacts quickly
b. Can combine game and other elements
c. Interactive communication
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Which of the following is not an example of demarketing activities aimed at consumers?
Select one:
a. Warning labels
b. Advertising restrictions
c. Higher taxes
d. All of these
Question 11. Consumer analysis should include . Select one: a. consumer trends and global consumer markets b. communication methods to reach target markets c. models to predict purchase and consumption patterns d. All of these Clear my choice Question 12. Consumer product manufacturers study consumer behavior to influence .
Select one:
a. brand choice
b. purchase
c. consumption
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following areas can be better understood by studying consumer behavior?
Select one:
a. Consumer preferences for different advertisements
b. Financial decisions
c. Voting in elections
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. “Only the customer can fire us all” implies that . Select one: a. consumers determine which firms survive and which fail. b. customers can be manipulated into buying goods and services. c. customers are concerned only when prices go higher. d. firms should not bother with research as the customer is fickle. Clear my choice Question 15. Whereas a focuses on how an organization adapts to consumers, a _ extends this focus to how all organizations in a demand chain adapt to changing consumer lifestyles and behaviors. Select one: a. selling orientation; marketing orientation b. marketing orientation; comprehensive consumer orientation c. manufacturing orientation; selling orientation d. comprehensive consumer orientation; manufacturing orientation Clear my choice Question 16. As the mother of the groom, Mary was willing to wear the subdued-colored, tailored suit that the bride had selected for her for the wedding. Later the sales clerk showed her a red off-shoulder cocktail dress. The sales clerk kept telling Mary how great the dress looked on her and the price of the dress was substantially lower than the suit. Assuming Mary really likes her son’s fiancée and does not want to do anything to damage her relationship with him or his bride, Mary’s decision to buy the red dress was a result of __ influences.
Select one:
a. Economic
b. Marketing
c. Reference group
d. Cultural
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is a situation in which consumer behavior occurs?
Select one:
a. communications situation
b. purchase situation
c. usage situation
d. All of these

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

Assignment 2

The influence of Reference Groups varies according to the nature of the product and/or service. Reference groups have varied influence on consumers depending upon the type of the product, whether a luxury or a necessity, and whether it used in public and viewed by others or whether it is used in private.Bearden and Etzel have examined the issue from two perspectives, viz., a) the decision to purchase the type of product; and b) the choice of the brand. They concluded that reference group influence varied by 1) the type of product; whether it is a luxury or a necessity; and 2) its visibility; whether it is used in public or private settings or environment.

According to Bearden and Etzel, reference group influence is strong both for the purchase decision as well as for the brand in case of public luxuries, like expensive carpets, paintings, antiques etc. The consumer does not possess a need for such products, but requires them for social approval and acceptance, and finds these purchases as crucial for avoidance of social embarrassment, and ridicule. Because of the lifestyle and the social class that a consumer belongs to, he is conscious towards the purchase of such products as well as the brands that he buys.

Thus, reference groups influence both the consumer’s need for the product in general as well as the choice of brand. On the other hand, when in case of products which are public necessities, like a car or a cell phone, reference group influence is weak with respect to the purchase decision, but strong with respect to the choice of the brand. The reference group does not affect the decision to make a purchase as the product is already regarded as one of necessity and will be purchase regardless of what the members of the reference group have to say; the only impact that a reference group can make is with respect to the brand.

Further Bearden and Etzel also conclude that reference group influence is weak both for the purchase decision as well as for the brand in case of private necessities, like towels, soaps and detergents etc. The consumer is aware of such necessities, and will purchase them irrespective of what the reference group has to say. Further, he would not be conscious of social approval and/or embarrassment as these products are not viewed publicly, and so the influence of reference groups with respect to the brand will also be low. Finally, in case of products which are private luxuries, like sauna baths, body massagers etc., reference groups influence is strong with respect to the purchase decision, but weak with respect to the choice of the brand. This is because the product is not used publicly and the brand purchased would not cause any social embarrassment.

The impact of reference groups depends on . Select one: a. visibility b. conspicuousness of product c. Both A and B d. None of these Clear my choice Question 2. Which of the following is true about Bearden and Etzel’s Model? Select one: a. Bearden and Etzel have examined the issue from two perspectives, viz., a) the decision to purchase the type of product; and b) the choice of the brand. b. Reference group influence varied by the type of product; whether it is a luxury or a necessity c. It is also influenced by the visibility; whether it is used in public or private settings or environment. d. All of these Clear my choice Question 3. Which of the following are commonly used reference group appeals? Select one: a. Celebrity appeals and executive appeals b. expert appeals and trade or spokes-character appeals c. common man appeals d. All of these Clear my choice Question 4. Based on the regularity of contact and the importance given to subsequent interaction, groups may be classified as and __.
Select one:
a. Primary and secondary
b. Primary and Tertiary
c. important and necessary
d. family and friends
Clear my choice
Question 5. Reference group appeals are useful for a marketer in the following ways:
Select one:
a. they provide information
b. increase consumer awareness and knowledge
c. they reduce perceived risk amongst consumers, with respect to market offerings.
d. All of these
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

Business Communication (BC107)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Business Communication (BC107)-Semester I

Module 1
He __ up early in the morning.
Select one:
a. woke
b. wakes
c. awaken
d. woken

Question 1. The Word “Kindergarten” has been taken from which of the following languages:
Select one:
a. English
b. German
c. France
d. Italian
Clear my choice
Question 2. I feel happy whenever she _ at me. Select one: a. would smile b. will smile c. smiled d. smiles Clear my choice Question 3. What does the expression “faux pas” means? Select one: a. sacrilege b. a grave mistake c. a social blunder d. a political blunder Clear my choice Question 4. Sam along with his friends on holiday.
Select one:
a. is
b. were
c. has
d. are
Clear my choice
Question 5. He had been living in Delhi for the past five years.”What tense has been used in the sentence?
Select one:
a. Past Perfect Continuous Tense
b. Present Perfect Continuous Tense
c. Present Perfect Tense
d. Past Perfect Tense
Clear my choice
Question 6. Neither you nor I _ going to the party. Select one: a. am b. are c. were d. is Clear my choice

Question 7. Find out the errors in the following sentence: “Mary dare not insult you in front of the whole staff.” Select one: a. insult you b. Mary dares not c. in front of the whole staff d. no errors Clear my choice

Question 8. Sam asked us “Are we leaving today?” Change into indirect speech. Select one: a. Sam asked us were we leaving today? b. Sam asked us whether we were leaving today. c. Sam asked us whether we are leaving that day. d. Sam asked us whether we were leaving that day. Clear my choice

Question 9. It is two years since we her.
Select one:
a. met
b. meet
c. have met
d. had met
Clear my choice
Question 10. I saw many grazing in the meadow.
Select one:
a. cow
b. cattles
c. cattle
d. none of the above
Clear my choice

Correct punctuation: Help please save me cried mary
Select one:
a. Help please save me. Cried Mary.
b. “Help! Please save me!”, cried Mary.
c. Help! Please save me cried Mary
d. Help Please save me! cried Mary

Question 11. I saw a bear lumbering through the woods and the air smelled like pine but as I listened I could hear him breathing and he was giant. This sentence is an example of: (Choose the right option)
Select one:
a. Compound Sentence
b. Compound-Complex Sentence
c. Complex Sentence
d. Rambling Sentence
Clear my choice
Question 12. Where _ my ?
Select one:
a. are/spectacle
b. is/spectacle
c. are/spectacles
d. are/spectacle
Clear my choice
Question 13. The class handing in their answer sheets.
Select one:
a. is
b. had
c. are
d. has
Clear my choice
Question 14. Put apostrophe: Mices tails are shorter than rats tails.
Select one:
a. Mices’ Rats
b. Mice’s rat’s
c. Mice’s rats’
d. Mice’ rat’s
Clear my choice
Question 15. The word “siesta” is a _ word that means .
Select one:
a. “Spanish: a short nap during the afternoon”
b. “Yiddish: a long and sound sleep during the night”
c. “Italian: a 2-hours sleep during afternoon”
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 16. Nothing but clouds _ seen. Select one: a. is b. are c. has d. were() Clear my choice Question 17. The whole building collapsed due to earthquake but none _ injured
Select one:
a. are
b. was
c. were
d. None of the above

The crowd __ cheering, yelling, and clapping.
Select one:
a. was
b. is being
c. had
d. were

If I had been there I _ definitely saved you from the robbers
Select one:
a. will have
b. would have
c. would have been
d. will have been

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 2
Philosophical subjects, such as right and wrong, reality, consciousness, the meaning of the universe, etc. are related to which type of essay?
Select one:
a. Imaginative
b. Cathartic
c. Reflective
d. All the options
Question 1. a _ essay consists of thoughts on some topic, which is generally of an abstract nature Select one: a. collaborative b. reflective c. Expository d. All the options Clear my choice

Question 2. Historical stories, legends, a journey, an accidents, etc are some subjects that can be related to essays.
Select one:
a. Expository
b. reflective
c. Imaginative
d. Narrative
Clear my choice
Question 3. Precis is connected with the French word .
Select one:
a. Present
b. Precise
c. prevu
d. None of these.
Clear my choice
Question 4. The essay should consist of introduction, body and
Select one:
a. conclusion
b. message
c. thoughts
d. perception
Clear my choice
Question 5. _ must be in unity, treating in an orderly manner of one subject; it should be concisely written and not too long, and the style should be simple, direct and clear; and it should have an individuality, or show the personal touch of the writer. Select one: a. A report b. An essay c. A debate d. None of these. Clear my choice

Question 6. For general preparation of an essay, one must start focussing on- reading, conversation/communication, and .
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Preparation
c. Hard Work
d. Mind-Map
Clear my choice
Question 7. Essays are classified. How many classifications?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
Clear my choice
Question 8. “The limit should be about three hundred words; though of course, there can be no strict rule as to length, which will depend a good deal on the nature of the subject. But an essay should be brief exercise], concisely expressed.” Which characteristic is being talked about in these lines?
Select one:
a. Style
b. The Personal Touch
c. Brevity
d. None of these.
Clear my choice
Question 9. As a rule, a précis should be written in __, after a “ verb of saying” in the past tense. Select one: a. indirect speech b. direct speech c. simple language d. present tense Clear my choice

Question 10. Characteristics of a good essay. Choose the odd one out. Select one: a. Unity b. Brevity c. Order d. Font Clear my choice Paraphrasing can be useful in .
Select one:
a. Understanding
b. Explanation
c. Questioning
d. Research

Question 11. There are four characteristics of a good paraphrase. Choose the odd one out.
Select one:
a. Translation
b. Immitation
c. Fullness
d. Wholeness
Clear my choice
Question 12. “A complete Piece of Prose” means?
Select one:
a. That the paraphrase is verbally rich.
b. That the paraphrase is complete.
c. That the paraphrase is understood by all.
d. All of these.
Clear my choice
Question 13. Is there a rule for the length of a paraphrase as compared with the length of the original passage?
Select one:
a. Maximum 500 words
b. Minimum one paragraph
c. No there is no rule as such
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. What is paraphrasing?
Select one:
a. Phrasing the sentence structure
b. Restatement
c. Discourse
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. A translation must be accurate and explanatory to be any value, so a __ must faithfully reproduce and interpret the thought of the original passage.
Select one:
a. summary
b. paraphrase
c. notice
d. essay
Clear my choice
Question 16. Steps for good precis writing include-
Select one:
a. Making rough drafts
b. Reading and Writing
c. Using French words
d. A and B
Clear my choice
Question 17. Special preparation in order to write a good essay includes–?
Select one:
a. Reading
b. Researching
c. Logical Arrangemts
d. All of these

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 3
Question 1. Which of the following is an Example of Non-verbal Communication?
Select one:
a. Oral narratives
b. Silent movies/mimes
c. Literary texts
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is not a principle of effective Communication?
Select one:
a. strategic use of grapevine communication
b. participation of the receiver
c. persuasive and convincing speech
d. one-way transmission of message
Clear my choice
Question 3. The term “communication” is derived from which of the following languages:
Select one:
a. German
b. Greek
c. Italian
d. Latin
Clear my choice
Question 4. In a classroom communication, the trust level of the communicator is assessed by
Select one:
a. the tone of the voice
b. the use of abstract talk
c. use of hyperbole
d. eye-contact
Clear my choice
Question 5. The English word “Communication” is derived from:
Select one:
a. Communion and Common Sense
b. Communism and Communalism
c. Communist and Commune
d. Communis and Communicare
Clear my choice
Question 6. In communication, transformation of messages, ideas and information into verbal and non-verbal signs is known as
Select one:
a. Mediation
b. Channelization
c. Encoding
d. Decoding
Clear my choice
Question 7. When does the communication process ends?
Select one:
a. When the message is sent
b. When the Message is decoded by the receiver
c. When the Sender encodes the Message
d. When the receiver understands the message.
Clear my choice
Question 8. The mode of communication which involves a single source transmission of information to a large group of receivers simultaneously is known as-
Select one:
a. Mass Comunication
b. Group Communication
c. Intra-Personal Communication
d. Inter-personal Communication
Clear my choice
Question 9. Who of the following determines what kind of information should be delivered, in what manner it should be delivered, and what should be the proper time and place to deliver that information and who will deliver that information?
Select one:
a. Mediator
b. Audience
c. The communicator himself
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 10. Sender and receiver should be available in the process of communication through a proper __.
Select one:
a. medium
b. channel
c. middleman
d. all of the above
Clear my choice
Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:
Select one:
a. Personal Language
b. Physical Language
c. Para Language
d. Delivery Language

Question 11. In the process of communication, which of the following is in correct chronological sequence?
Select one:
a. Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
b. Message, Communicator, Medium, Effect, Receiver
c. Communicator, Medium, Message, Receiver, Effect
d. Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
Clear my choice
Question 12. Communication can be classified into and _ according to the way of expression. Choose the right answer from the following:
Select one:
a. Upward Communication; Downward Communication
b. Formal Communication; Informal Communication
c. Oral Communication; Written Communication
d. Interpersonal Communication; Intra-personal Communication
Clear my choice
Question 13. In non-verbal communication, kinesics means:
Select one:
a. Investigation of bodily movements and developments comparative with correspondence or body language
b. Study of contact and touch as a type of correspondence which takes a look at behaviour.
c. Physical Appearance and the ways in which an individual controls it.
d. Investigation of importance of space and spatial qualities in correspondence
Clear my choice
Question 14. What are the psychological barriers to communication?
Select one:
a. language barrier, speech of voice defect
b. inattentiveness, stress and anxiety, and premature evaluation.
c. dialogue, summary and self-review
d. eye-contact, personal statements, and simple narration
Clear my choice
What is Empathetic Listening?
Select one:
a. With empathy, trying to understand what other person is trying to communicate. (this is wrong)
b. Showcasing empathy, understanding the speaker’s view by putting oneself in the speaker’s position.
c. trying to comprehend with the speaker and the character; hold genuine listening
d. listening while wishing well for the speaker.

Question 15. The term “Communication” is understood as a process of __.
Select one:
a. Transformation of thoughts into readable texts intended for the readers.
b. Exchange of ideas, thoughts and facts between two or more individuals.
c. Transmission of signals via electronic and non-electronic medium.
d. All of the Above.
Clear my choice
Question 16. Verbal communication is a primary tool for:
Select one:
a. Communicating one’s emotions and feelings
b. Providing detailed instructions and solving issues and problems
c. Brief and precise discussion
d. all of the above
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following are the characteristics of communication?a. It involves both understanding and information. b. It is a circular process. c. It is a continuous process. d. It contains exchange of ideas, thoughts, facts and opinions. Choose the right answer from below:
Select one:
a. b, c and d.
b. a, b and d
c. a, b, c and d
d. a, b and c

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 4
Question 1. is basically rules and standards for interfacing with others on the web in a chivalrous, deferential way.
Select one:
a. Bio
b. general intro
c. Pretext
d. netiquette
Clear my choice
Question 2. it’s known as “glossophobia”
Select one:
a. Pressure
b. social phobia, or social anxiety disorder.
c. Fear of order
d. Dressing Phobia
Clear my choice
Question 3. ____________can be utilized as your lift discourse—the in-person presentation that fills in as a beginning stage to systems administration at work fairs or expert get-togethers. Select one: a. Euro Legacy b. The expert profile c. The inadverted presentation d. business portfolio Clear my choice

Question 4. Even the most polished moderators get somewhat
Select one:
a. Nervous
b. anxious
c. apprehensive
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 5. Emphatic speaker-
Select one:
a. Being Imaginative
b. being solid and intense. This is in the middle of the bookends of forceful and aloof.
c. Being Reflective
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 6. The more you can control the , the less apprehension you will understand and the more leftover vitality you should dedicate to the introduction itself. FILL IN THE BLANK Select one: a. vulnerability b. confidence c. volume d. None of these. Clear my choice

Question 7. When you comprehend what you are going to state, you have to set yourself up for the real conveyance. Choose what you are going to wear – make it agreeable and suitable. Which Presentation Step is being talked about here? Select one: a. Know Your Audience b. Know Your Material c. Get ready, Prepare, Prepare d. None of these. Clear my choice

Question 8. Structure Your Presentation means ? Select one: a. control your own vulnerability b. to alter the speed c. to Expose your content d. All the options Clear my choice

Question 9. Proficient nonverbally means Select one: a. clear correspondence with non-verbal communication b. message c. unnatural thoughts d. None of these. Clear my choice

Question 10. Six Steps to Conquering Your Presentation Nerves. Which one is the odd one out? Select one: a. Know Your Audience b. Know Your Material c. Practice, Practice, Practice d. Know the design Clear my choice Qualities of a skillful presenter includes Capturing and maintaining attention, and __
Select one:
a. Observation
b. Handling questions
c. Hard Work
d. Mind-Map
Question 11. Blogging has become an elective profession or side _ to many. Select one: a. gig b. side hussle c. hobby d. All of these Clear my choice Question 12. The more incessant and better your blog entries are, the higher the odds for your site to get found and visited by your _ group.
Select one:
a. intended interest
b. Immitation
c. Friendly
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. A blog –
Select one:
a. Digital blog
b. an abbreviated rendition of “weblog”
c. Digital book
d. Digital pad
Clear my choice
Question 14. is an assortment of abilities that one needs to run and administer a . This involves outfitting a page with devices to make the way toward composing, posting, connecting, and sharing substance simpler on the web.
Select one:
a. Blogging, Blog
b. OTT, content
c. Instagram, Feed
d. None of these
Clear my choice
To start with, you have to choose a name for your blog, additionally called . Select one: a. an area name b. an arena c. description d. Research Question 15. In all kinds of letters there are six points of form to be attended to- Identify the point that cannot be included Select one: a. The heading consisting of a) the writer’s address, b) the date b. The communication or message- The body of the letter c. The signature d. none of these can be excluded Clear my choice Question 16. This is the place all the data is contained. A proper welcome isn’t needed in a notice. Simply transfer the important data with lucidity and accuracy. (With respect to Notice Writing) Select one: a. Headline b. The body of a notice c. Both A and B d. None of these Clear my choice Question 17. __ are messages, and certain letterforms have been established by experience and custom as the most useful forms learned and used by every __ writing, for neglect of them is sign of ignorance and carelessness.
Select one:
a. Memo
b. Researching
c. Letters
d. Circulars

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Module 5
Question 1. what is the use of a Glossary in a Report ?
Select one:
a. It is helpful to give a sequential rundown of specialized terms with a short, away from of each term.
b. You can remember for this segment clarification of the abbreviations
c. You can check for clarification of contractions or standard units utilized in your report.
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 2. _ are characterized as records or rundowns of individual’s instruction, proficient experience, capabilities, and aptitudes utilized as a component of an employment form. Select one: a. LINKEDIN b. API c. RESUME d. PROFILE Clear my choice

Question 3. A ___ is composed piece of writing for a specific crowd. Explicit data and proof are introduced, examined and applied to a specific issue.
Select one:
a. Canvas
b. communication
c. report
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 4. Reasons why reports are utilized as written assessments: ? Choose the right option.
Select one:
a. vulnerability
b. To discover what you have gained from your perusing, exploration or experience.
c. to Expose your content
d. None of these.
Clear my choice
Question 5. It surveys how a member performs under various circumstances in a gathering.
Select one:
a. GD
b. INTERVIEW
c. MEETINGS
d. NETIQUETTES
Clear my choice
Question 6. What not to remember for a resume?
Select one:
a. Try not to utilize nonexclusive explanations or banality phrases in your resume.
b. Try not to incorporate inconsequential data or encounters.
c. Try not to pick text styles, which are hard to reador are casual.
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 7. Under this heading you ought to incorporate all the supporting data you have utilized that isn’t distributed. This may incorporate tables, diagrams, polls, studies or records. Allude to the addendums in the body of your report. What is this section called ?
Select one:
a. Attachment Section
b. Reference Section
c. ID Section
d. All the options
Clear my choice
Question 8. The substance page should list the various parts as well as headings along with the . Select one: a. Enrollment Number b. Remarks c. Quotation d. page numbers Clear my choice

Question 9. The ought to quickly depict the substance of the report.
Select one:
a. synopsis
b. report
c. table
d. Annexure
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which among the options cannot be included in the 3 C’s of GD. ?
Select one:
a. Clarity
b. Creative
c. Content
d. Criticising
Clear my choice
This ought to quickly yet unequivocally depict the reason for the report (if this isn’t evident from the title of the work). Different subtleties you may incorporate could be your name, the date and for whom the report is composed. What is it called?
Select one:
a. SUBSTANCE
b. COVER SHEET
c. ANNEXURE
d. SYNOPSIS
Question 11. This assesses the applicant’s capacity to interface with the gathering and is estimated from a double viewpoint – verbal and non-verbal. While verbal correspondence scores the students on boundaries like familiarity, explanation and tweak, the non-verbal remainder characterizes his/her sufficiency vis-and vis non-verbal communication, signal, eye-to-eye connection and stance.
Select one:
a. Digital blog
b. Data Scrutinity
c. Horizontal Thinking
d. Relational Abilities
Clear my choice
Question 12. The group discussion assesses the candidate’s ability to:
Select one:
a. Argue
b. Control others
c. Lead others
d. Exchange opinions
Clear my choice
Question 13. The ideal way to apply for the vacancy of a job is to submit a resume that is:
Select one:
a. full of personal information
b. suitable for any job
c. self-recommending
d. specially written for that specific job
Clear my choice
Question 14. What is the preliminary objective in a group discussion?
Select one:
a. prove your superiority
b. create sub-groups
c. act as a self-appointed leader of the group
d. catch the group’s attention
Clear my choice
This mirrors your capacity to think off the feet and contribute on an imaginative and strange digression. It is significantly more pertinent for a theoretical theme, where the extension to see the point from a vanguard edge is proportionately more (for example in a point like “red and blue”, someone who makes an interpretation of this into a coke (red) and Pepsi (blue) fighting or examine the showcasing methodologies of kingfisher (red) and fly (blue) or harp on the sex contrasts as referenced in John Gray’s “Men are from Mars (red) and ladies are from Venus (blue)”, will stand separated.)
Select one:
a. intended interest
b. Relational Abilities
c. Horizontal Thinking
d. None of these
Question 15. Reports present conclusions based on:
Select one:
a. Investigation
b. Intuition
c. Belief
d. Impression
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of these is not a parameter in a report?
Select one:
a. Ability to acquire information
b. Quality of Information
c. Extent of Information
d. Age of the Writer
Clear my choice
Question 17. A report may be used for?
Select one:
a. Reading
b. Writing
c. Both Reading and Writing
d. None of these

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Assignment 2

Question 1. The teacher asked the students to write a concise note with minimal words on the text of Rabindranath Tagore’s The Religion of the Forest. What does the teacher wants the students to write?
Select one:
a. An Analytical essay
b. A Precis
c. A Report
d. Summary
Clear my choice
Question 2. A job seeker went for his interview in a company but forgot to bring his essential document showcasing his profile and credentials. What document did he forget?
Select one:
a. Letter of Experience
b. Memorandum
c. Resume
d. Educational certificates
Clear my choice
Question 3. A man was standing with his arms folded listening to the talk of his friend but made no gestures or movements while his friend was excitedly talking about his first experience at his new job. What barrier does this form of communcation reflect?
Select one:
a. Speaker was reflecting excessive emotion
b. Speaker was proud of getting a new job
c. reflecting listener’s attitude and passive listening
d. the speaker was not interested in his listener’s response
Clear my choice
Question 4. A severe accident happened on the road in which some people got injured. A journalist came there and put down all information in a note to be published in a newspaper. What did the journalist write?
Select one:
a. A Newspaper Article
b. A Journal article
c. Letter to the Editor
d. A Report
Clear my choice
Question 5. It was raining heavily. Suddenly a lightening struck and lo! the tree cracked open. The second clause in the second sentence is an example of:
Select one:
a. Exclamation
b. Compound Sentence
c. Complex Sentence
d. Imperative

Business Communication (BC107)-Semester I

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1
Business Communication (BC107)-Semester I

Security Analysis & Portfolio Management (EDL 306)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

The need for corporate governance has arisen because of the increasing concern about the non-compliance of standards of financial reporting and accountability by boards of directors and management of corporate inflicting heavy losses on investors.

The collapse of international giants likes Enron, World Com of the US and Xerox of Japan are said to be due to the absence of good corporate governance and corrupt practices adopted by management of these companies and their financial consulting firms.The failures of these multinational giants bring out the importance of good corporate governance structure making clear the distinction of power between the Board of Directors and the management which can lead to appropriate governance processes and procedures under which management is free to manage and board of directors is free to monitor and give policy directions.

In India, SEBI realised the need for good corporate governance and for this purpose appointed several committees such as Kumar Manglam Birla Committee, Naresh Chandra Committee and Narayana Murthy Committee.Investors and shareholders of a corporate company need protection for their investment due to lack of adequate standards of financial reporting and accountability. It has been noticed in India that companies raised capital from the market at high valuation of their shares by projecting wrong picture of the company’s performance and profitability.The investors suffered a lot due to unscrupulous management of corporate that performed much less than reported at the time of rais¬ing capital. “Bad governance was also exemplified by allotment of promoters’ share at preferential prices disproportionate to market value affecting minority holders interest”.

There is increasing awareness and consensus among Indian investors to invest in companies which have a record of observing practices of good corporate governance. Therefore, for encouraging Indian investors to make adequate investment in the stock of corporate companies and thereby boosting up rate of growth of the economy, the protection of their interests from fraudulent practices of corporate of boards of directors and management are urgently needed.Corporate governance is considered as an important means for paying heed to investors’ grievances. Kumar Manglam Birla Committee on corporate governance found that companies were not paying adequate attention to the timely dissemination of required information to investors in by India.Investors will be willing to invest in the companies with a good record of corporate governance.

Question 1: Investors and shareholders of a corporate company need protection for their………… due to lack of adequate standards of financial reporting and accountability.

 a. decision-making

 b. efficiency

 c. investment

 d. none of the above

Question 2. It has been noticed in India that …………. raised capital from the market at high valuation of their shares by projecting wrong picture of the company’s performance and profitability.

 a. companies

 b. informal

 c. both of the above

 d. none of the above

Question 3. SEBI realised the need for …………….. and for this purpose appointed several committees such as Kumar Manglam Birla Committee, Naresh Chandra Committee and Narayana Murthy Committee.

 a. good corporate governance

 b. trustee

 c. AMC

 d. none of the above

Question 4. The need for ……… has arisen because of the increasing concern about the non-compliance of standards of financial reporting and accountability by boards of directors and management of corporate inflicting heavy losses on investors.

 a. corporate governance

 b. PR

 c. QR

 d. none of the above

Question 5. There is increasing awareness and consensus among Indian investors to invest in ………….which have a record of observing practices of good corporate governance.

a. companies

 b. trustee

 c. AMC

 d. none of the above

Question 6. Therefore, for encouraging Indian ………….. to make adequate investment in the stock of corporate companies and thereby boosting up rate of growth of the economy, the protection of their interests from fraudulent practices of corporate of boards of directors and management are urgently needed.

 a. sponsor

 b. investors

 c. AMC

 d. none of the above

Question 7. ……… realised the need for good corporate governance

 a. power

 b. politics

 c. SEBI

 d. all of the above

Question 8. …………. on corporate governance found that companies were not paying adequate attention to the timely dissemination of required information to investors in by India.

 a. sponsor

 b. trustee

 c. Kumar Manglam Birla Committee

 d. all of the above

Question 9. ………….. will be willing to invest in the companies with a good record of corporate governance.

 a. Investors

 b. PR

 c. QR

 d. none of the above

Question 10. …………..governance was also exemplified by allotment of promoters’ share at preferential prices disproportionate to market value affecting minority holders interest

 a. industrial engineering

 b. operations management

 c. Bad

 d. none of the above

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2nd Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

In financial markets, stock valuation is the method of calculating theoretical values of companies and their stocks. The main use of these methods is to predict future market prices, or more generally, potential market prices, and thus to profit from price movement – stocks that are judged undervalued (with respect to their theoretical value) are bought, while stocks that are judged overvalued are sold, in the expectation that undervalued stocks will overall rise in value, while overvalued stocks will generally decrease in value.

In the view of fundamental analysis, stock valuation based on fundamentals aims to give an estimate of the intrinsic value of a stock, based on predictions of the future cash flows and profitability of the business. Fundamental analysis may be replaced or augmented by market criteria – what the market will pay for the stock, disregarding intrinsic value. These can be combined as “predictions of future cash flows/profits (fundamental)”, together with “what will the market pay for these profits?” These can be seen as “supply and demand” sides – what underlies the supply (of stock), and what drives the (market) demand for stock?

In the view of John Maynard Keynes, stock valuation is not a prediction but a convention, which serves to facilitate investment and ensure that stocks are liquid, despite being underpinned by an illiquid business and its illiquid investments, such as factories.The most theoretically sound stock valuation method, called income valuation or the discounted cash flow (DCF) method, involves discounting of the profits (dividends, earnings, or cash flows) the stock will bring to the stockholder in the foreseeable future, and a final value on disposal.[1] The discounted rate normally includes a risk premium which is commonly based on the capital asset pricing model.

In July 2010, a Delaware court ruled on appropriate inputs to use in discounted cash flow analysis in a dispute between shareholders and a company over the proper fair value of the stock. In this case the shareholders’ model provided value of $139 per share and the company’s model provided $89 per share. Contested inputs included the terminal growth rate, the equity risk premium, and beta.[2]

The fundamental valuation is the valuation that people use to justify stock prices. The most common example of this type of valuation methodology is P/E ratio, which stands for Price to Earnings Ratio. This form of valuation is based on historic ratios and statistics and aims to assign value to a stock based on measurable attributes. This form of valuation is typically what drives long-term stock prices.

The other way stocks are valued is based on supply and demand. The more people that want to buy the stock, the higher its price will be. And conversely, the more people that want to sell the stock, the lower the price will be. This form of valuation is very hard to understand or predict, and it often drives the short-term stock market trends.

There are many different ways to value stocks. The key is to take each approach into account while formulating an overall opinion of the stock. If the valuation of a company is lower or higher than other similar stocks, then the next step would be to determine the reasons.

Question 1: In the view of fundamental analysis, stock valuation based on fundamentals aims to give an estimate of the …………. of a stock

 a. planning

 b. organising

 c. staffing

 d. intrinsic value

Question 2. The discounted rate normally includes a ………. which is commonly based on the capital asset pricing model.

 a. planning

 b. production

 c. transportation

 d. risk premium

Question 3. The fundamental valuation is the valuation that people use to justify …………. prices.

 a. stock

 b. minimize

 c. keep same

 d. all

Question 4. The main use of these methods is to predict……….. market prices

 a. public

 b. management

 c. employees

 d. future

Question 5. The most theoretically sound stock valuation method, called …………., involves discounting of the profits (dividends, earnings, or cash flows) the stock will bring to the stockholder in the foreseeable future, and a final value on disposal.

 a. network flow problems

 b. multi-commodity flow problems

 c. income valuation or the discounted cash flow (DCF) method

 d. none

Question 6. The other way stocks are valued is based on ………. and demand.

 a. all

 b. new

 c. old

 d. supply

Question 7. If the…………. of a company is lower or higher than other similar stocks, then the next step would be to determine the reasons.

 a. information

 b. valuation

 c. both

 d. none

Question 8. ………. analysis may be replaced or augmented by market criteria – what the market will pay for the stock, disregarding intrinsic value.

 a. economics

 b. engineering

 c. management

 d. Fundamental

Question 9. ……….. valuation is not a prediction but a convention, which serves to facilitate investment and ensure that stocks are liquid, despite being underpinned by an illiquid business and its illiquid investments, such as factories.

 a. public

 b. management

 c. employees

 d. stock

Question 10. …………is the method of calculating theoretical values of companies and their stocks.

 a. stock valuation

 b. maslow

 c. fayol

 d. all

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3rd Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

Fundamental analysts examine earnings, dividends, assets, quality, ratio, new products, research and the like. Technicians employ many methods, tools and techniques as well, one of which is the use of charts. Using charts, technical analysts seek to identify price patterns and market trends in financial markets and attempt to exploit those patterns.

Technicians using charts search for archetypal price chart patterns, such as the well-known head and shoulders  or double top/bottom reversal patterns, study technical indicators, moving averages, and look for forms such as lines of support, resistance, channels, and more obscure formations such as flags, pennants, balance days and cup and handle patterns.

Technical analysts also widely use market indicators of many sorts, some of which are mathematical transformations of price, often including up and down volume, advance/decline data and other inputs. These indicators are used to help assess whether an asset is trending, and if it is, the probability of its direction and of continuation. Technicians also look for relationships between price/volume indices and market indicators. Examples include the moving average, relative strength index, and MACD. Other avenues of study include correlations between changes in Options (implied volatility) and put/call ratios with price. Also important are sentiment indicators such as Put/Call ratios, bull/bear ratios, short interest, Implied Volatility, etc.

There are many techniques in technical analysis. Adherents of different techniques (for example, Candlestick analysis -the oldest form of technical analysis developed by a Japanese grain trader-, Harmonics, Dow theory, and Elliott wave theory) may ignore the other approaches, yet many traders combine elements from more than one technique. Some technical analysts use subjective judgment to decide which pattern(s) a particular instrument reflects at a given time and what the interpretation of that pattern should be. Others employ a strictly mechanical or systematic approach to pattern identification and interpretation.

Contrasting with technical analysis is fundamental analysis, the study of economic factors that influence the way investors price financial markets. Technical analysis holds that prices already reflect all the underlying fundamental factors. Uncovering the trends is what technical indicators are designed to do, although neither technical nor fundamental indicators are perfect. Some traders use technical or fundamental analysis exclusively, while others use both types to make trading decisions.

Question 1. Contrasting with technical analysis is fundamental analysis, the study of ……….. factors that influence the way investors price financial markets.

 a. after

 b. equal to

 c. economic

 d. together

Question 2. Fundamental analysts examine ………

 a. earnings

 b. dividend

 c. assets

 d. all of the above

Question 3. Some technical analysts use subjective judgment to decide which pattern(s) a particular instrument reflects at a given time and what the interpretation of that ………… should be.

 a. pattern

 b. tri

 c. fri

 d. hex

Question 4. Some traders use technical or fundamental analysis exclusively, while others use both types to make ……………decisions.

 a. 20

 b. economic

 c. trading

 d. correct

Question 5. Technical analysis holds that prices already reflect all the underlying ……….factors.

 a. 25

 b. 20

 c. fundamental

 d. 40

Question 6. Technical analysts also widely use …………of many sorts, some of which are mathematical transformations of price, often including up and down volume, advance/decline data and other inputs.

 a. primal simplex algorithm

 b. auction algorithm.

 c. market indicators

 d. none of the above

Question 7. Technicians also look for relationships between price/volume indices and ……….indicators.

 a. sociology research

 b. management training

 c. secondary and higher psychology instruction

 d. market

Question 8. Technicians using charts search for archetypal price chart …………., such as the well-known head and shoulders

 a. physiologic

 b. safety

 c. belonging

 d. patterns

Question 9. These indicators are used to help assess whether an ……… is trending

 a. asset

 b. physiological

 c. safety

 d. belonging

Question 10. Using ……….., technical analysts seek to identify price patterns and market trends in financial markets and attempt to exploit those patterns

 a. efficiency

 b. stick

 c. charts

 d. all of the above

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4th Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

In finance, arbitrage pricing theory (APT) is a general theory of asset pricing that holds that the expected return of a financial asset can be modelled as a linear function of various macro-economic factors or theoretical market indices, where sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient. The model-derived rate of return will then be used to price the asset correctly—the asset price should equal the expected end of period price discounted at the rate implied by the model. If the price diverges, arbitrage should bring it back into line.

The theory was proposed by the economist Stephen Ross in 1976.In the APT context, arbitrage consists of trading in two assets – with at least one being mis-priced. The arbitrageur sells the asset which is relatively too expensive and uses the proceeds to buy one which is relatively too cheap.

Under the APT, an asset is mispriced if its current price diverges from the price predicted by the model. The asset price today should equal the sum of all future cash flows discounted at the APT rate, where the expected return of the asset is a linear function of various factors, and sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient.

A correctly priced asset here may be in fact a synthetic asset – a portfolio consisting of other correctly priced assets. This portfolio has the same exposure to each of the macroeconomic factors as the mis-priced asset. The arbitrageur creates the portfolio by identifying x correctly priced assets (one per factor plus one) and then weighting the assets such that portfolio beta per factor is the same as for the mispriced asset.

When the investor is long the asset and short the portfolio (or vice versa) he has created a position which has a positive expected return (the difference between asset return and portfolio return) and which has a net-zero exposure to any macroeconomic factor and is, therefore, risk free (other than for firm-specific risk). The APT along with the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) is one of two influential theories on asset pricing. The APT differs from the CAPM in that it is less restrictive in its assumptions. It allows for an explanatory (as opposed to statistical) model of asset returns. It assumes that each investor will hold a unique portfolio with its own particular array of betas, as opposed to the identical “market portfolio”. In some ways, the CAPM can be considered a “special case” of the APT in that the securities market line represents a single-factor model of the asset price, where beta is exposed to changes in value of the market.

Additionally, the APT can be seen as a “supply-side” model, since its beta coefficients reflect the sensitivity of the underlying asset to economic factors. Thus, factor shocks would cause structural changes in assets’ expected returns, or in the case of stocks, in firms’ profitability.

On the other side, the capital asset pricing model is considered a “demand side” model. Its results, although similar to those of the APT, arise from a maximization problem of each investor’s utility function, and from the resulting market equilibrium (investors are considered to be the “consumers” of the assets).

Question 1. A correctly priced ……….. here may be in fact a synthetic asset – a portfolio consisting of other correctly priced assets.

 a. physical

 b. cooperative

 c. asset

 d. all of the above

Question 2. Arbitrage consists of trading in two ………… – with at least one being mis-priced.

 a. military bearing

 b. physical fitness

 c. confidence

 d. assets

Question 3. is a general theory of asset pricing that holds that the expected return of a financial asset can be modeled as a linear function of various macro-economic factors or theoretical market indices, where sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient.

 a. economics

 b. political science

 c. psychology

 d. APT

Question 4. The …………. today should equal the sum of all future cash flows discounted at the APT rate, where the expected return of the asset is a linear function of various factors, and sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient.

 a. physical

 b. asset price

 c. non-cooperative

 d. emotional

Question 5. The arbitrageur sells the asset which is relatively too expensive and uses the proceeds to ………..one which is relatively too cheap.

a. buy

 b. motivation

 c. style

 d. none of the above

Question 6. The theory was proposed by the economist Stephen Ross in 1976.

 a. APT

 b. motivation

 c. style

 d. none of the above

Question 7. The ……….. creates the portfolio by identifying x correctly priced assets (one per factor plus one) and then weighting the assets such that portfolio beta per factor is the same as for the mispriced asset.

 a. physical

 b. cooperative

 c. arbitrageur

 d. shares

Question 8. This ……… has the same exposure to each of the macroeconomic factors as the mispriced asset.

 a. physical

 b. portfolio

 c. non-cooperative

 d. emotional

Question 9. Under the APT, an asset is mispriced if its………diverges from the price predicted by the model.

 a. same

 b. current price

 c. equal

 d. relevant

Question 10. …………..is a general theory of asset pricing that holds that the expected return of a financial asset can be modeled as a linear function of various macro-economic factors or theoretical market indices, where sensitivity to changes in each factor is represented by a factor-specific beta coefficient.

 a. APT

 b. motivation

 c. style

 d. none of the above

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5th Module Assessment

CASE STUDY

The Treynor ratio (sometimes called the reward-to-volatility ratio or Treynor measure), named after Jack L. Treynor, is a measurement of the returns earned in excess of that which could have been earned on an investment that has no diversifiable risk (e.g., Treasury bills or a completely diversified portfolio), per each unit of market risk assumed.

The Treynor ratio relates excess return over the risk-free rate to the additional risk taken; however, systematic risk is used instead of total risk. The higher the Treynor ratio, the better the performance of the portfolio under analysis.Like the Sharpe ratio, the Treynor ratio (T) does not quantify the value added, if any, of active portfolio management. It is a ranking criterion only. A ranking of portfolios based on the Treynor Ratio is only useful if the portfolios under consideration are sub-portfolios of a broader, fully diversified portfolio. If this is not the case, portfolios with identical systematic risk, but different total risk, will be rated the same. But the portfolio with a higher total risk is less diversified and therefore has a higher unsystematic risk which is not priced in the market.

An alternative method of ranking portfolio management is Jensen’s alpha, which quantifies the added return as the excess return above the security market line in the capital asset pricing model. As these two methods both determine rankings based on systematic risk alone, they will rank portfolios identically.In finance, Jensen’s alpha (or Jensen’s Performance Index, ex-post alpha) is used to determine the abnormal return of a security or portfolio of securities over the theoretical expected return. It is a version of the standard alpha based on a theoretical performance index instead of a market index.

The security could be any asset, such as stocks, bonds, or derivatives. The theoretical return is predicted by a market model, most commonly the capital asset pricing model (CAPM). The market model uses statistical methods to predict the appropriate risk-adjusted return of an asset. The CAPM for instance uses beta as a multiplier.Jensen’s alpha was first used as a measure in the evaluation of mutual fund managers by Michael Jensen in 1968. The CAPM return is supposed to be ‘risk adjusted’, which means it takes account of the relative riskiness of the asset.

This is based on the concept that riskier assets should have higher expected returns than less risky assets. If an asset’s return is even higher than the risk adjusted return, that asset is said to have “positive alpha” or “abnormal returns”. Investors are constantly seeking investments that have higher alpha.

Since Eugene Fama, many academics believe financial markets are too efficient to allow for repeatedly earning positive Alpha, unless by chance. Nevertheless, Alpha is still widely used to evaluate mutual fund and portfolio manager performance, often in conjunction with the Sharpe ratio and the Treynor ratio.

Question 1: A ranking of portfolios based on the Treynor Ratio is only useful if the portfolios under consideration are sub-portfolios of a broader, …………… portfolio.

 a. collective values,

 b. beliefs

 c. principles of organizational members

 d. fully diversified

Question 2. It is a version of the standard alpha based on a theoretical performance index instead of a market index.

 a. Jensen alpha

 b. leadership

 c. motivation

 d. all

Question 3. Like the ……….. ratio, the Treynor ratio (T) does not quantify the value added, if any, of active portfolio management.

 a. performance optimization

 b. safety engineering

 c. testing

 d. Sharpe

Question 4. The CAPM for instance uses …………. as a multiplier.

 a. beta

 b. leadership

 c. motivation

 d. all

Question 5. The higher the Treynor ratio, the better the performance of the ………… under analysis.

 a. club

 b. seminar

 c. hotel

 d. portfolio

Question 6. The security could be any asset, such as ,…………..

 a. stock

 b. assets

 c. derivatives

 d. all

Question 7. The theoretical return is predicted by a market model, most commonly the …………

 a. capital asset pricing model (CAPM).

 b. different

 c. unequal

 d. relevant

Question 8. The Treynor ratio relates excess return over the ……….

 a. history

 b. product

 c. market

 d. risk-free rate

Question 9. ……………is a measurement of the returns earned in excess of that which could have been earned on an investment that has no diversifiable risk

 a. Treynor ratio

 b. leadership

 c. motivation

 d. all

Question 10. ……………….is used to determine the abnormal return of a security or portfolio of securities over the theoretical expected return.

 a. club

 b. seminar

 c. hotel

 d. Jensen alpha

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Mutual fund executives owe their livelihoods to shareholders, but most treat investors like ordinary customers rather than partners or bosses.

That’s why we get to this time of year and I feel a need to ask fund honchos to give shareholders some meaningful gifts for the holidays. The changes fund firms could make to help shareholders are endless — but I’m not greedy. Every year or two I create a wish list and would gladly settle for just a few upgrades at a time.

Fund companies should fulfill shareholder wishes not because ‘tis the season for it, but because it’s the right thing to do. Regulators know it; in the past, the things I have requested have become reality mostly when some wrongdoing came to light that required a slap on the wrist to the industry. These “reforms” have mostly been about injecting some common sense into the fund-ownership process.Funds provide investment objectives, but that’s a vague statement, more about methods than expectations. Rules prohibit funds from making projections.

But managers and fund directors know the background and they create targets that aren’t shared with the outside world; they understand that they created a fund because they felt they could achieve, say, “above-average results over time horizons of five years and longer.” Fund boards use those kinds of expectations to decide if a manager is doing the job well enough to be rehired, but they also give those managers a lot of slack. Shareholders, however, should be able to see whether the fund is achieving its internal goals. It would let them create clear expectations and measure whether a fund is meeting them.Many times, a fund’s biggest asset to the sponsor is that marketers can sell it, rather than that it can deliver superior performance. In those cases, it’s not in the shareholder’s best interests to keep things going.

Unfortunately, because mediocre funds create something of an annuity for the management company — regularly delivering fees from investors who are inert or simply oblivious to inferior, uninspired results — the fund world is not a meritocracy. Sponsors often keep lousy funds operating for decades.

If a fund doesn’t deserve to survive — if performance is undistinguished and second-rate — kill it off. Merge or liquidate it, but encourage shareholders to find worthwhile investments rather than subjecting them to second-rate, uninspired issues.The Internal Revenue Service does a better job of highlighting changes to tax codes and filing instructions than funds do of notifying shareholders whenever there are changes in the prospectus or operating rules. A simple, highlighted summary of what is new and different this year immediately alerts investors to changes; even if all they do is skim the documents, it enhances their understanding of the fund, and reduces the potential for surprises.

Question 1. A fund’s biggest asset to the ………. is that marketers can sell it

 a. leadership

b. sponsor

 c. style

 d. none of the above

Question 2. Funds provide ………… objectives, but that’s a vague statement, more about methods than expectations.

 a. investment

 b. culture

 c. leadership

 d. motivation

Question 3. it’s not in the ……….. best interests to keep things going.

 a. shareholder’s

 b. Henri Fayol

 c. Chester Barnard

 d. Mary Parker Follet

Question 4. mediocre funds create something of an …………. for the management company

 a. Henri Fayol

 b. annuity

 c. Chester Barnard

 d. Mary Parker Follet

Question 5. Mutual fund executives owe their livelihoods to shareholders, but most treat ………… like ordinary customers rather than partners or bosses.

 a. Henri Fayol

 b. Chester Barnard

 c. Mary Parker Follet

 d. investors

Question 6. Rules prohibit funds from making ………….

 a. social relationships (may be wrong)

 b. job content

 c. projections

 d. all (wrong)

Question 7. Shareholders, however, should be able to see whether the …………is achieving its internal goals.

 a. Lillian Gilbreth

 b. Frank Gilbreth

 c. fund

 d. none of the above

Question 8. Merge or liquidate it, but encourage …….to find worthwhile investments rather than subjecting them to second-rate, uninspired issues.

 a. shareholders

 b. culture

 c. leadership

 d. motivation

Question 9. ……… companies should fulfill shareholder wishes

 a. Fund

 b. Henri Fayol

 c. Chester Barnard

 d. Mary Parker Follet

Question 10. …………… often keep lousy funds operating for decades.

 a. leadership

 b. Sponsors

 c. style

 d. none of the above

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Cost & Management Accounting (EDL 305)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Case Study

The general meaning of material is all commodities physical objects used to make the final product. It may be direct or indirect.

(i) Direct Materials: Materials, cost of which can be directly attributable to the end product for which it is being used, in an economically feasible way.

(ii) Indirect Materials: The materials which are not directly attributable to a particular final product.

Material Control is the systematic control over the procurement, storage and usage of materials to maintain even flow of materials and avoiding at the same time excessive investment in inventories.

Illustration:- From the details given below, calculate:

(i) Re-ordering level

(ii) Maximum level

(iii) Minimum level

(iv) Danger level.

Re-ordering quantity is to be calculated on the basis of following information:

•         Cost of placing a purchase order is INR. 20

•         Number of units to be purchased during the year is 5,000

•         Purchase price per unit inclusive of transportation cost is INR.  50

•         Annual cost of storage per units is INR. 5.

Details of lead time:       Average- 10 days, Maximum- 15 days, Minimum-5 days.

                                            For emergency purchases- 4 days.

Rate of consumption:   Average: 15 units per day,

                                         Maximum: 20 units per day.

Question 1. As per given information, Re-ordering level is …………

 a. 300 units

 b. 400 units

 c. 200 units

 d. 250 units

Question 2. Continuous stock taking is a part of

 a. Annual stock taking

 b. Perpetual inventory

 c. ABC analysis

 d. Bin Cards

Question 3. Danger level is ……………

 a. 60 units

 b. 90 units

 c. 100 units

 d. 10 units

Question 4. Direct material can be classified as

 a. Variable cost

 b. Fixed cost

 c. Semi-variable cost

 d. Prime Cost

Question 5. In most of the industries, the most important element of cost is

 a. Material

 b. Labour

 c. Overheads

 d. Administration Cost

Question 6. Maximum level is …………..

 a. 400 units

 b. 300 units

 c. 250 units

 d. 450 units

Question 7. Minimum level is ……………….

 a. 250 units

 b. 150 units

 c. 350 units

 d. 50 units

Question 8. What is the Minimum rate of consumption per day ?

 a. 20 units per day

 b. 10 units per day

 c. 30 units per day

 d. 25 units per day

Question 9. What is the Re-order Quantity (ROQ)?

 a. 200 units

 b. 250 units

 c. 100 units

 d. 300 units

Question 10. Which of the following is considered to be the normal loss of materials?

 a. Loss due to accidents

 b. Pilferage

 c. Loss due to breaking the bulk

 d. Loss due to careless handling of materials

 

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2nd Module Assessment

Case Study

Labour cost is a very important constituent of total cost of any product/services. It is very necessary to account for labour cost properly so that we may able to analyze it and control the avoidable part of labour cost.

The management objective of keeping labour cost as low as possible is achieved by balancing productivity with wages. Low wages do not necessarily mean low labour cost. Low labour cost is possible by giving substantial increase in wages against corresponding increase in productivity.

Overheads are the expenditure which cannot be conveniently traced to or identified with any particular cost unit. Such expenses are incurred for output generally and not for a particular work order e.g., wages paid to watch and ward staff, heating and lighting expenses of factory etc.

Question-1: “Fixed overhead costs are not affected in monetary terms during a given period by a change in output”. But this statement holds good provided

 a. Increase in output is not substantial

 b. Increase in output is substantial

 c. Both (a) and (b)

 d. None of the above

Question 2. Abnormal cost is the cost:

 a. Cost normally incurred at a given level of output

 b. Cost not normally incurred at a given level of output

 c. Cost which is charged to customer

 d. Cost which is included in the cost of the product

Question 3. Identify among the following a scientific and accurate method of factory overhead absorption

 a. Percentage of direct material cost method

 b. Percentage of direct labour cost method

 c. Percentage of prime cost method

 d. Machine hour rate method

Question 4. Identify among the following a scientific and accurate method of factory overhead absorption

 a. Percentage of direct material cost method

 b. Percentage of direct labour cost method

 c. Percentage of prime cost method

 d. Machine hour rate method

Question 5. Labour turnover means:

 a. Turnover generated by labour

 b. Rate of change in composition of labour force during a specified period

 c. Either of the above

 d. Both of the above

Question 6. Overhead refers to:

 a. Direct or Prime Cost

 b. All Indirect costs

 c. only Factory indirect costs

 d. Only expenses

Question 7. The allotment of whole items of cost to cost centres or cost units is called

 a. Overhead absorption

 b. Cost apportionment

 c. Cost allocation

 d. None of the above

Question 8. The concept of ‘idle capacity of plant’ as used in cost accounting is its

 a. Best capacity for normal production

 b. Capacity used for standard setting

 c. Theoretical maximum capacity

 d. Capacity below which production should not fall

Question 9. The difference between actual factory overhead and absorbed factory overhead will be usually at the minimum level, provided pre- determined overhead rate is based on

 a. Maximum capacity

 b. Direct labour hours(wrong)

 c. Machine hours

 d. Normal capacity

Question 10. Which of the following is not an avoidable cause of labour turnover:

 a. Dissatisfaction with Job

 b. Lack of training facilities

 c. Low wages and allowances

 d. Disability, making a worker unfit for work

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3rd Module Assessment

Case Study

Marginal costing is not a distinct method of ascertainment of cost but it is a technique which applies existing methods in a particular manner so that the relationship between profit & the volume of output can be clearly brought out. It is an accounting system where only variable cost or direct cost will be charged to the cost units. It concentrates on the controllable aspects of business by separating fixed and variable costs.

Marginal costing is not a separate costing. It is only a technique used by accountants to aid management decision. It is also called as “Direct Costing” in U.S.A. This technique of costing is also known as “Variable Costing”, “Differential Costing” or “Out-of-pocket” costing.

Management Information and Reporting System

Today’s computer age, management information system (i.e. MIS) is becoming popular in the corporate circle for giving quick information to the management. The purpose of MIS is reporting and is to provide the necessary information to managers and supervisors at various levels to help them to discharge their functions of organising, planning, control and decision making.

MIS is a scientific way of collecting; processing, storing and communicating information relating to the various activities of an organisation to the various levels of management so that management may be facilitated in discharging its functions efficiently and run the organisation in an efficient way for the betterment of all.

Question-1: Following information is available of XYZ Limited for quarter ended June, 2013 Fixed cost Rs. 5,00,000; Variable cost Rs. 10 per unit; Selling price Rs. 15 per unit; Output level 1,50,000 units.  What will be amount of profit earned during the quarter using the marginal costing technique?

 a. Rs. 2,50,000

 b. Rs. 10,00,000

 c. Rs. 5,00,000

 d. Rs. 17,50,000

Question 2. Management accounting is applicable to

 a. Service entities

 b. Manufacturing entities

 c. Non profit entities

 d. All of these

Question 3. Managerial accounting information is generally prepared for …………………

 a. Shareholders

 b. Creditors

 c. Managers

 d. Regulatory agencies

Question 4. Period costs are

 a. Variable costs

 b. Fixed costs

 c. Prime costs

 d. Overheads costs

Question 5. The main difference between marginal costing and absorption costing is regarding the treatment of

 a. Prime cost

 b. Fixed overheads

 c. Direct materials

 d. Variable overheads

Question 6. Under marginal costing the cost of product includes

 a. Prime costs only

 b. Price costs and variable overheads

 c. Prime costs and fixed overheads

 d. Prime costs and factory overheads

Question 7. under marginal costing:

 a. All costs are classified into two groups – variable and fixed

 b. Variable costs form part of the product cost and inventory valuation

 c. Fixed costs are treated as period costs

 d. All of the above

Question 8. When sales and production (in units) are same then profit under

 a. Marginal costing is higher than that of absorption costing

 b. Marginal costing is lower than that of absorption costing

 c. Marginal costing is equal to that of absorption costing

 d. None of the above

Question 9. When sales exceed production (in units) then profit under

 a. Marginal costing is higher than that of absorption costing

 b. Marginal costing is lower than that of absorption costing

 c. Marginal costing is equal than that of absorption costing

 d. None of above

Question 10. Which of the following is not an internal user of management information?

 a. Creditor

 b. Department manager

 c. Controller

 d. Treasurer

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4th Module Assessment

CASE STUDY-

Organisations, who do not wish to know how much it costs to make a product with precise accuracy, may be happy with traditional costing system. Others however fix their price on cost and need to be able to determine it with reasonable accuracy. The latter organisations have been greatly benefitted from the development of activity based costing (ABC), which is more a modern absorption costing method, and was evolved to give more accurate product costs.

Activity Based Costing is an accounting methodology that assigns costs to activities rather than products or services. This enables resources & overhead costs to be more accurately assigned to products & services that consume them. ABC is a technique which involves identification of cost with each cost driving activity and making it as the basis for apportionment of costs over different cost objects/ jobs/ products/ customersor services.

Question-1: A cost driver is:

 a. An item of production overheads

 b. A common cost which is shared over cost centres

 c. Any cost relating to transport

 d. An activity which generates costs

Question 2. A cost driver:

 a. Is a force behind the overhead cost

 b. Is an allocation base

 c. Is a transaction that is a significant determinant of cost

 d. All of the above

Question 3. In activity based costing, costs are accumulated by activity using:

 a. Cost drivers

 b. Cost objects

 c. Cost pools

 d. Cost benefit analysis

Question 4. In an activity based cost system; an activity/unit of work or task with differentiated purposes will be classified as

 a. different task

 b. purpose cost

 c. an activity

 d. an allocation cost

Question 5. Steps in ABC include:

 a. Identification of activities and their respective costs

 b. “Identification of cost driver of each activity and computation of an allocation rate per activity”

 c. Allocation of overhead cost to products/ services based on the activities involved

 d. All of the above

Question 6. The key elements of activity based budgeting are:

 a. Type of activity to be performed

 b. Quantity of activity to be performed

 c. Cost of activity to be performed

 d. All of the above

Question 7. The steps involved for installation of ABC in a manufacturing company include the following except:

 a. Borrowing fund

 b. Feasibility study

 c. Building up necessary IT infrastructure and training of line employees

 d. Strategy and value chain analysis

Question 8. Transactions undertaken by support department personnel are the appropriate cost drivers. They are:

 a. The number of purchase, supplies and customers’ orders drives the cost associated with new material inventory, work-in-progress and finished goods inventory

 b. The number of production runs undertaken drives production scheduling, inspection and material handling

 c. The quality of raw material issued drives the cost of receiving department costs

 d. The number of packing orders drives the packing costs

Question 9. Which of the following is not a benefit of ABC?

 a. Accurate cost allocation

 b. Improved decision making

 c. Better control on activity and costs

 d. Reduction of prime cost

Question 10. Which of the following statements are true: (1) Activity based Management involves activity analysis and performance measurement. (2) Activity based costing serves as a major source of information in ABM.

 a. (1) True; (2) False

 b. (1) True; (2) True

 c. (1) False; (2) True

 d. (1) False; (2) False

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5th Module Assessment

CASE STUDY-

Budgetary control and standard costing systems are two essential tools frequently used by business executives for the purpose of planning and control. In the case of budgetary control, the entire exercise starts with the setting up of budgets or targets and ends with the taking of an action, in case the actual figures differ with the budgetary ones.

A factory which expects to operate 7,000 hours, i.e., at 70% level of activity, furnishes details of expenses as under:

Variable expenses – INR. 1,260

Semi-variable expenses – INR. 1,200

Fixed expenses – INR.  1,800

The semi-variable expenses go up by 10% between 85% and 95% activity and by 20% above 95% activity. Construct a flexible budget for 80, 90 and 100 per cent activities.

Question-1: “A favourable budget variance is always an indication of efficient performance”. Do you agree, give reason?

 a. A favourable variance indicates, saving on the part of the organization hence it indicates efficient performance of the organization.

 b. “Under all situations, a favourable variance of an organization speaks about its efficient performance.”

 c. “A favourable variance does not necessarily indicate efficient performance, because such a variance might have been arrived at by not carrying out the expenses mentioned in the budget.”

 d. None of the above

Question 2. If a company wishes to establish a factory overhead budget system in which estimated costs can be derived directly from estimates of activity levels, it should prepare a

 a. Master budget

 b. Cash budget

 c. Flexible budget

 d. Fixed budget

Question 3.The budget control organization is usually headed by a top executive who is known as

 a. General manager

 b. Budget director/budget controller

 c. Accountant of the organization

 d. None of the above

Question 4. The classification of fixed and variable cost is useful for the preparation of

 a. Master budget

 b. Flexible budget

 c. Cash budget

 d. Capital budget

Question 5. What are the Fixed Expenses at 90% level of activity?

 a. INR. 1900

 b. INR. 1800

 c. INR. 2000

 d. INR. 1500

Question 6. What are the Semi-Veriable Expenses at 90% level of activity?

 a. INR. 1320

 b. INR. 1200

 c. INR. 1440

 d. INR. 1300

Question 7. What are the Total Expenses at 70% level of activity?

 a. 4,260

 b. 5,000

 c. 5430

 d. 4,000

Question 8. What are the Total Expenses at 80% level of activity?

 a. 4,100

 b. 4,440

 c. 4,200

 d. 4,900

Question 9. What are the Total Expenses at 90% level of activity?

 a. 4,500

 b. 4,320

 c. 4,740

 d. 4,533

Question 10. What are the Veriable Expenses for 80% level of activity?

 a. INR. 1260

 b. INR. 1440

 c. INR. 1800

 d. INR. 1900

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY-

Management of an organisation uses standard costing as a controlling tool for cost control and performance evaluation. Controlling is a principal function of management alongwith planning, directing and staffing. Every organisation sets a goal and to achieve it management of the organisation make plans, get these plans executed and monitor the work for any deviation from the plan. Please note the word deviation.

Deviation means the amount by which a single measurement differs from a fixed value such as the mean or standard (here it is used in the context of cost accounting).Deviation is measured by comparing actual figure with the standard figure.

Standard Costing is a method of costing which measures the performance or an activity by comparing actual cost with standard cost, analyse the variances (deviations) and reporting of variances for investigation and appropriate action.

ILLUSTRATION- NXE Manufacturing Concern furnishes the following information:

Standard:   Material for 70 kg finished products 100 kg.

Standard:   Price of material INR.  1 per kg.

Actual:        Output    2,10,000 kg.

Actual:        Material used 2,80,000 kg.

Actual:        Cost of Materials INR.  2,52,000

Calculate: (a) Material usage variance, (b) Material price variance, (c) Material cost variance.

Question 1. As per given illustration, what is the Standard Quantity of input for actual output?

 a. 3,30,000 kg.

 b. 3,00,000 kg.

 c. 4,00,000 kg.

 d. 2,00,000 kg.

Question 2. The deviations between actual and standard cost is known as

 a. Multiple analysis

 b. Variable cost analysis

 c. Variance analysis

 d. Linear trend analysis

Question 3. The standard most suitable from cost control point of view is

 a. Normal standard

 b. Theoretical standard

 c. Expected standard

 d. Basic standard

Question 4. The standard which is attainable under favourable conditions is

 a. Theoretical standard

 b. Expected standard

 c. Normal standard

 d. Basic standard

Question 5. Under standard cost system the cost of the product determined at the beginning of production is its:

 a. Direct cost

 b. Pre-determined cost

 c. Historical cost

 d. Actual cost

Question 6. What is the actual price of material?

 a. INR. 0.90 per kg.

 b. INR. 0.50 per kg.

 c. INR. 0.30 per kg.

 d. INR. 1.20 per kg.

Question 7. What is the value of Material Cost Variance?

 a. INR. 50,000 (F)

 b. INR. 48, 000 (F)

 c. INR. 45,000 (F)

 d. INR. 40,000 (F)

Question 8. What is the value of Material Price Variance?

 a. INR. 25,000 (F)

 b. INR. 20,000 (F)

 c. INR. 30,000 (F)

 d. INR. 28, 000 (F)

Question 9. What is the value of Material Usage Variance?

 a. INR. 30,000 (F)

 b. INR. 10,000 (F)

 c. INR. 20,000 (F)

 d. INR. 25,000 (F)

Question 10. Which of the following variance arises when more than one material is used in the manufacture of a product

 a. Material price variance

 b. Material usage variance

 c. Material yield variance

 d. Material mix variance

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Customer Relationship Management (EDL 422)-Semester IV

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1st Module Assessment

Case Study

“CRM or Customer Relationship Management is a system which aims at improving the relationship with existing customers, finding new prospective customers, and winning back former customers. This system can be brought into effect with software which helps in collecting, organizing, and managing the customer information.

Implementing a CRM strategy is advantageous to both small-scale and large-scale business ventures. If you want to find out what are the benefits of using CRM for your business, then read further to know the key points.

One of the prime benefits of using a CRM is obtaining better customer satisfaction. By using this strategy, all dealings involving servicing, marketing, and selling your products to your customers can be carried out in an organized and systematic way. You can also praovide better services to customers through improved understanding of their issues and this in turn helps in increasing customer loyalty and decreasing customer agitation.In this way, you can also receive continuous feedback from your customers regarding your products and services. It is also possible that your customers recommend you to their acquaintances, when you provide efficient and satisfactory services.

By using a CRM strategy for your business you will be able to increase the revenue of your company to a great extent. Using the data collected, you will be able to popularize marketing campaigns in a more effective way. With the help of CRM software, you can ensure that the product promotions reach a different and brand new set of customers, and not the ones who had already purchased your product, and thus effectively increase your customer revenue.

A CRM system allows up-selling which is the practice of giving customers premium products that fall in the same category of their purchase. The strategy also facilitates cross selling whic his the practice of offering complementary products to customers, on the basis of their previous purchases. This is done by interacting with the customers and getting an idea about their wants, needs, and patterns of purchase. The details thus obtained will be stored in a central database, which is accessible to all company executives. So, when an opportunity is spotted, the executives can promote their products to the customers, thus maximizing up-selling and cross selling.Better internal communication

Following a CRM strategy helps in building up better communication within the company. The sharing of customer data between different departments will enable you to work as a team. This is better than functioning as an isolated entity, as it will help in increasing the company’s profitability and enabling better service to customers.

With the help of CRM, you will be able to understand your customer needs and behavior, thereby allowing you to identify the correct time to market your product to the customers. CRM will also give you an idea about the most profitable customer groups, and by using this information you will be able to target similar prospective groups, at the right time. In this way, you will be able to optimize your marketing resources efficiently. You can also be ensured that you don’t waste your time on less profitable customer groups.”

Question 1. A CRM system allows up-selling which is the practice of giving customers …………products that fall in the same category of their purchase.

 a. premium

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. By using a CRM strategy for your business you will be able to increase the………….. of your company to a great extent.

 a. cost

 b. revenue

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 3. By using this strategy, all dealings involving …………., ……………, and …………. your products to your customers can be carried out in an organized and systematic way.

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. all

Question 4. CRM will also give you an idea about the most profitable ……………., and by using this information you will be able to target similar prospective groups, at the right time.

 a. customer groups

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 5. Following a CRM strategy helps in building up better …………… within the company.

 a. communication

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 6. Implementing a ……………. strategy is advantageous to both small-scale and large-scale business ventures.

 a. HRM

 b. CRM

 c. both

 d. none

Question 7. One of the prime benefits of using a CRM is obtaining better ……….. satisfaction.

 a. customer

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 8. when an opportunity is spotted, the executives can promote their ……….. to the customers, thus maximizing up-selling and cross selling.

 a. customer

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 9. With the help of CRM …….., you can ensure that the product promotions reach a different and brand new set of customers, and not the ones who had already purchased your product, and thus effectively increase your customer revenue.

 a. software

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 10. ………… is a system which aims at improving the relationship with existing customers, finding new prospective customers, and winning back former customers.

 a. CRM or Customer Relationship Management

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

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2nd Module Assessment

Case Study

“There are many ways sales team can build relationship with the customers to generate more repeat sales and here are the top 5 ways to do it:

Customer Satisfaction. This is the first order of business for any organization involved in sales. Keep the customers satisfied. Deliver service beyond your scope to give the customers an unforgettable customer experience. If customers are satisfied with your performance, they will value your service and will be happy to keep giving you repeat sales.

Show and Express Appreciation. Always thank the customer. Most customers are particular in gestures offered by sales personnel. From a company’s standpoint, finding a way to show your company’s appreciation for the customer’s business may be made through a letter or a short note or a little token, which will definitely go a long way. Most successful businesses are not afraid to spend on something for a valued customer.

Build Trust and Keep it. Building trust should start from the initial transaction all the way to the after-sales stage. It’s a constant process of reinforcing the relationship with the customer. If you are able to be honest with the customers about some of the disadvantages of your products, you are likely to gain more credibility in the eyes of the customers. Customers will trust you if they know you are not just after making a sale or closing a deal.

Keep Constant Communication. Customers appreciate sales personnel who go out of their way to inform them if there are price increases forthcoming for the products or services that they are availing from you. Even a simple asking if the customers are satisfied with the products will give the customers the feeling that you are genuinely concerned with how they find your product or service. Keeping them apprised of the latest changes going on at the company like production delays, new models or changes to product specifications, and promotions will be valuable to them.

Be accommodating all the time. Customers love feeling special. Making every customer feel special by instantaneously attending to their needs will trigger their emotions and make them feel important which creates so much appreciation. Working hand-in-hand with your customer will definitely create a happy and lasting relationship.

A successful business or sales organization makes sure that repeat sales are achieved as these boost profits and generate more leads. By constantly building good relationship with the customers, your business is inclined to benefit more from it because the opportunities of making sales out of referrals made by the satisfied customers can just make your sales volume increase and your business grow.

Creating repeat sales is easy if you are willing to go the extra mile in creating good relationship with your clients. Superb service plus quality products are two secret recipes of a successful business. Do remember that satisfied customers will bring in more customers to your business and every individual is a potential client so give quality treatment to people walking in your business.”

Question 1. A successful business or sales ………makes sure that repeat sales are achieved as these boost profits and generate more leads.

 a. organization

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. Creating repeat sales is easy if you are willing to go the extra mile in creating good relationship with your …………….

 a. customer

 b. clients

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 3. Do remember that satisfied ……………. will bring in more customers to your business

 a. customers

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 4. every individual is a potential ………….so give quality treatment to people walking in your business.

 a. client

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 5. If customers are satisfied with your performance, they will value your service and will be happy to keep giving you repeat …………….

 a. HRM

 b. sales

 c. both

 d. none

Question 6. Most customers are particular in gestures offered by …………… personnel.

 a. sales

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 7. This is the first order of business for any organization involved in sales.

 a. Customer satisfaction

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 8. Working hand-in-hand with your customer will definitely create a happy and lasting ………..

 a. cost

 b. relationship

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 9. your business is inclined to benefit more from it because the opportunities of making ………..out of referrals made by the satisfied customers can just make your sales volume increase and your business grow.

 a. sales

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 10. ………. appreciate sales personnel who go out of their way to inform them if there are price increases forthcoming for the products or services that they are availing from you.

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. Customers

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3rd Module Assessment

Case Study

Virtually every business loses some customers, but few ever measure or recognise how many of their customers become inactive. Most businesses, ironically, invest an enormous amount of time, effort and expense building that initial customer relationship. Then they let that relationship go unattended, in some cases even losing interest as soon as the sale been made, or even worse, they abandon the customer as soon as an easily remedied problem occurs, only to have to spend another small fortune to replace that customer. The easiest way to grow your business is not to lose your customers. Once you stop the leakage, it’s often possible to double or triple your growth rate because you’re no longer forced to make up lost ground just to stand still.So many people do an excellent job of making the initial sale, then drop the ball and get complacent, ignoring the customer, while they chase more business. Your selling has actually only just begun when someone makes that initial purchase decision because virtually everyone is susceptible to buyer’s remorse. To lock in that sale, and all of the referrals and repeat business that will flow from it, you need to strike while the iron is hot to allay your customers’ fears and demonstrate by your actions that you really care. You should thank them and remind them again why they’ve made the right decision to deal with you … and put a system in place to sell to them again, and again, constantly proving that they made the right decision.There’s little point in dedicating massive resources to generating new customers when 25-60% of your dormant customers will be receptive to your attempts to regenerate their business if you approach them the right way, with the right offer. Reactivating customers who already know you and your product is one of the easiest, quickest ways to increase your revenues. Re-contacting and reminding them of your existence, finding out why they’re no longer buying, overcoming their objections and demonstrating that you still value and respect them will usually result in a tremendous bounty of sales and drastically increased revenues in a matter of days … and will lead to some of your best and most loyal customers.Avoid losing your customers by building relationships and keeping in touch using a rolling calendar of communications. This is a programmed sequence of letters, events, phone calls, “thank you’s”, special offers, follow-ups, magic moments, and cards or notes with a personal touch etc. that occur constantly and automatically at defined points in the pre-sales, sales and post-sales process. People not only respond to this positively, they really appreciate it because they feel valued and important. It acknowledges them, keeps them informed, offsets post-purchase doubts, reinforces the reason they’re doing business with you and makes them feel part of your business so that they want to come back again and again.               

Question 1. Avoid losing your …………….. by building relationships and keeping in touch using a rolling calendar of communications.

 a. customer

 b. clients

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 2. Most businesses, ironically, invest an enormous amount of time, effort and expense building that initial ………..

 a. HRM

 b. customer relationship

 c. both

 d. none

Question 3. Re-contacting and reminding them of your existence, finding out why they’re no longer buying, overcoming their objections and demonstrating that you still value and respect them will usually result in a tremendous bounty of ……………… and drastically increased revenues in a matter of days

 a. sales

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 4. The easiest way to grow your ……………… is not to lose your customers.

 a. business

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 5. This is a programmed sequence of letters, events, phone calls, “thank you’s”, special offers, follow-ups, magic moments, and cards or notes with a personal touch etc. that occur constantly and automatically at defined points in the …………., sales and post-sales process.

 a. pre-sales

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 6. To lock in that ……………., and all of the referrals and repeat business that will flow from it, you need to strike while the iron is hot to allay your customers’ fears and demonstrate by your actions that you really care.

 a. cost

 b. sale

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 7. Virtually every business loses some customers, but few ever measure or recognise how many of their …………. become inactive.

 a. customers

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 8. Your selling has actually only just begun when someone makes that initial ………………. decision because virtually everyone is susceptible to buyer’s remorse.

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. purchase

Question 9. ………… customers who already know you and your product is one of the easiest, quickest ways to increase your revenues.

 a. Reactivating

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 10. …………. not only respond to this positively, they really appreciate it because they feel valued and important.

 a. People

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

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4th Module Assessment

Case Study

“Supply chain management (SCM) is the active management of supply chain activities to maximize customer value and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage. It represents a conscious effort by the supply chain firms to develop and run supply chains in the most effective & efficient ways possible. Supply chain activities cover everything from product development, sourcing, production, and logistics, as well as the information systems needed to coordinate these activities.

The concept of Supply Chain Management (SCM) is based on two core ideas:

The first is that practically every product that reaches an end user represents the cumulative effort of multiple organizations. These organizations are referred to collectively as the supply chain.

The second idea is that while supply chains have existed for a long time, most organizations have only paid attention to what was happening within their “four walls.” Few businesses understood, much less managed, the entire chain of activities that ultimately delivered products to the final customer. The result was disjointed and often ineffective supply chains.

The organizations that make up the supply chain are “linked” together through physical flows and information flows.

Physical Flows

Physical flows involve the transformation, movement, and storage of goods and materials. They are the most visible piece of the supply chain. But just as important are information flows.

Information Flows

Information flows allow the various supply chain partners to coordinate their long-term plans, and to control the day-to-day flow of goods and materials up and down the supply chain.”   

Question 1. Few businesses understood, much less managed, the entire ………..of activities that ultimately delivered products to the final customer.

 a. chain

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. It represents a conscious effort by the supply chain firms to develop and run supply chains in the most effective & efficient ways possible.

 a. HRM

 b. customer relationship

 c. both

 d. none

Question 3. The first is that practically every product that reaches an end user represents the cumulative effort of multiple …………………

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. organizations

Question 4. The organizations that make up the supply chain are “linked” together through ………. and information flows.

 a. physical flows

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 5. The second idea is that while supply chains have existed for a long time, most ………… have only paid attention to what was happening within their “four walls.”

 a. cost

 b. organizations

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 6. They are the most visible piece of the supply chain.

 a. Physical flows

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 7. ……… activities cover everything from product development, sourcing, production, and logistics, as well as the information systems needed to coordinate these activities.

 a. Supply chain

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 8. ………is the active management of supply chain activities to maximize customer value and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage.

 a. SCM

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 9. ……….. flows allow the various supply chain partners to coordinate their long-term plans, and to control the day-to-day flow of goods and materials up and down the supply chain.

 a. Information

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 10. ………… flows involve the transformation, movement, and storage of goods and materials.

 a. Physical

 b. clients

 c. price

 d. cost

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5th Module Assessment

Case Study

“Companies would never construct their offices without a blueprint. According to Gartner, however, more than 60 percent of companies that have implemented CRM did not have mutually agreed upon goals for their projects prior to the installation. Like a building without a bearing wall, a CRM initiative without goals will collapse.

The project leader must start by crafting a valid business case for CRM before selecting a vendor, upgrading software, or launching a new project. Assemble a cross-functional team to determine specific, measurable goals for the initiative. Areas to consider include automating processes that will improve user productivity and boost customer satisfaction, streamlining marketing and sales processes, giving customer-facing employees access to a 360-degree view of customer information, and supporting contact center agents with the tools to cross-sell and upsell.

After deciding on a project, create a phased implementation plan. Conduct smaller, more manageable implementations that can be completed within 30, 60, or 90 days. “”It’s about getting a quick return on investment,”” says Benjamin Holtz, president and CEO of Green Beacon, a mid-market CRM consultant, in Watertown, MA. Smaller projects also enable customers to change things as they go. Holtz compares it to home remodeling: “”When you remodel a house, once you do the kitchen you might decide you want to do something different with the living room.””

Jim Rubin, CFO of Tripos, which provides computational solutions for drug discovery research, had never been a believer in creating a static business case. His experiences in software systems implementations taught him that a static business plan can pigeonhole an organization into an undesirable situation, he says. Yet, when his CRM consultant convinced him of the benefits of writing a business case at the outset of a CRM project, he gave it a shot. The results changed his view on the matter: “”Doing [the CRM implementation] in stages and demonstrating the benefits to each stage is critical to the success,”” Rubin says.”

Question 1. After deciding on a …………., create a phased implementation plan.

 a. project

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. Areas to consider include automating processes that will improve user productivity and boost …………., streamlining marketing and sales processes, giving customer-facing employees access to a 360-degree view of customer information, and supporting contact center agents with the tools to cross-sell and upsell.

 a. customer satisfaction

 b. price

 c. profit

 d. cost

Question 3. Assemble a cross-functional team to determine specific, measurable ………… for the initiative.

 a. marketing

 b. goals

 c. servicing

 d. selling

Question 4. Companies would never construct their offices without a ………..

 a. HRM

 b. blueprint

 c. none

 d. Financial Management

Question 5. Conduct smaller, more manageable …………. that can be completed within 30, 60, or 90 days.

 a. none

 b. Financial Management

 c. implementations

 d. HRM

Question 6. Doing [the CRM implementation] in stages and demonstrating the benefits to each stage is critical to the ……….

 a. cost

 b. success

 c. product

 d. price

Question 7. more than 60 percent of companies that have implemented ………….. did not have mutually agreed upon goals for their projects prior to the installation.

 a. customer relationship

 b. none

 c. HRM

 d. both

Question 8. Smaller ……….. also enable customers to change things as they go.

 a. price

 b. clients

 c. cost

 d. projects

Question 9. The ,…………..must start by crafting a valid business case for CRM before selecting a vendor, upgrading software, or launching a new project.

 a. project leader

 b. product

 c. cost

 d. price

Question 10. When you remodel a house, once you do the kitchen you might ……….. you want to do something different with the living room.

 a. decide

 b. none

 c. HRM

 d. Financial Management

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Assignment 2

Case Study

“Brand Equity is defined as value and strength of the Brand that decides its worth whereas Customer Equity is defined in terms of lifetime values of all customers.

Brand Equity and Customer Equity have two things in common-

 Both stress on significance of customer loyalty to the brand

 Both stress upon the face that value is created by having as many customers as possible paying as high price as possible.

But conceptually both brand equity and customer equity differ.

 While customer equity puts too much emphasis on lower line financial value got from the customers, brand equity attempts to put more emphasis on strategic issues in managing brands.

 Customer Equity is less narrow alternative. It can overlook a brands optional value and their capacity effect revenues and cost beyond the present marketing environment.

 Just as customer equity can persist without brand equity, brand equity may also exist without customer equity. For instance I may have positive attitude towards brands – McDonald and Burger King, but I may only purchase from McDonald’s brand consistently.

To conclude, we can say brands do not exist without consumer and consumer do not exist without brands. Brands serve as a temptation that utilizes other intermediaries to lure the customers from whom value is extracted. Customers serve as a profit-medium for brands to encash their brand value. Both the concepts are highly co-related.”

Question 1. Brands serve as a temptation that utilizes other intermediaries to lure the ………… from whom value is extracted.

 a. customers

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 2. It can overlook a brands optional value and their capacity effect revenues and cost beyond the present marketing environment.

 a. cost

 b. customer equity

 c. price

 d. profit

Question 3. ……. equity may also exist without customer equity.

 a. brand

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 4. …….. equity can persist without brand equity

 a. customer

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 5. ………. Equity is less narrow alternative.

 a. Customer

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 6. ………. is defined in terms of lifetime values of all customers.

 a. HRM

 b. Customer Equity

 c. both

 d. none

Question 7. ……….. is defined as value and strength of the Brand that decides its worth

 a. Brand Equity

 b. HRM

 c. Financial Management

 d. none

Question 8. ………… puts too much emphasis on lower line financial value got from the customers

 a. customer equity

 b. product

 c. price

 d. cost

Question 9. ………….. attempts to put more emphasis on strategic issues in managing brands.

 a. servicing

 b. marketing

 c. selling

 d. brand equity

Question 10. ………….. do not exist without consumer and consumer do not exist without brands.

 a. brands

 b. clients

 c. price

 d. cost

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