Routing and Switching

Routing and Switching

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2nd Module Assessment

You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts and limit the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve this goal?   

a. Managed hubs  

b. Bridges  

c. Switches  

d. Switches configured with VLANs

  1. VLANs enhance the network

a.Security

b.Speed

c.Bandwidth

d.Reliability

Question 2. Which command does the network administrator use to determine whether interVLAN communication is functioning?

a.show vlan

b.ping

c.ipconfig

d.show interfaces

Question 3. Match the command with the correct descriptions.

switchport mode trunk

a.Configures the port to negotiate a trunk

b.Configures the trunk to not send DTP packets

c.Configures the port as a permanent 802.1Q trunk

d.Disables trunk mode

Question 4. Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?

a.IEEE 802.1X

b.HSRP

c.port channeld.

d.router on a stick

Question 5. What is the difference between an access port and a trunk port?

a.A trunk port belongs to a single VLAN; an access port provides access for multiple

VLANs between switches.

b.An access port can have a native VLAN, but a trunk port cannot.

c.An access port can have only one device attached.

d.Multiple VLANs traverse a trunk port, but an access port can belong to a single VLAN

Question 6. Which option to consider when configuring a trunk link between two switches?

a.The switchport nonegotiate command must be configured for trunks that use DTP.

b.Port security cannot be configured on the trunk interfaces.

c.Different encapsulation types can be configured on both ends of the trunk link

d.Trunk ports can be configured only on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.

Question 7. Switch S1 and Switch S2 are both configured with ports in the Faculty, Students, Management and Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 15 users. How many subnets are needed to address the VLANs?

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.6

Question 8. Which command make a port a trunk on VLAN.

a.Switch(config)# switchport mode trunk

b.Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

c.Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk on

d.Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk compatible-on

Question 9. When implementing router-on-a-stick, what is necessary for establishing communication between VLANs?

a.Multiple switch ports to connect to a single router interface

b.Native VLAN IP address that is configured on the router physical interface

c.All trunk ports configured in access mode

d.Router subinterfaces

Question 10. What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?

a.The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled.

b.All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers.

c.All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN.

d.Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.

Question 11. _________ are software-based virtual interfaces that are assigned to physical interfaces.

a.Subinterfacets

b.Legacy VLANs

c.Subinterfaces

d.Inter-VLANs

What command would be used to determine if all SVIs were “up and up” on a multilayer switch?

a.show vlans

b.show ip interface brief

c.show running-config

d.show interface switchport

Question 12. Legacy inter-VLAN routing requires routers to have.

a.Multiple Switches

b.Routed Ports

c.Switched Virtual Ports

d.Multiple Physical Interfaces

Question 13. What mechanism is used to achieve the separation between different VLANs as they cross a trunk link?

a.VLAN tagging using 802.1Q protocol

b.VLAN tagging using 802.1p protocol

c.VLAN multiplexing

d.VLAN set as a native VLAN

Question 14. Which option is invalid as inter-VLAN routing methods?

a.Traditional routing

b.Router-on-a-stick

c.Spanning-tree routing

d.Multilayer switch-based routing

Question 15. A network technician is configuring a router to support inter-VLAN routing. After entering interface G0/0 configuration mode, the network administrator attempts to enter the command encapsulation dot1q 10. The router refuses to accept this command. What could account for this failure?

a.Router port G0/0 is not physically connected to the switch

b.VLAN0001 has been renamed.

c.R1 interface G0/0 was configured for subinterface operation.282 Routing and Switching Essentials Companion Guide

d.This command can be configured only on router subinterfaces.

Question 16. How does the router-on-a-stick model for inter-VLAN routing differ from traditional routing?

  1. The router-on-a-stick model uses multiple physical interfaces on the router, each configured with a different Layer 3 address.
  2. The router-on-a-stick model uses a single physical interface on the router with only the no shutdown command issued.
  3. The router-on-a-stick model uses subinterfaces on the router with only the no shutdown command issued on the physical interface.
  4. The router-on-a-stick model uses subinterfaces on the switch with only the no shutdown command issued on the physical interface.

Question 17. A 24-port switch has been configured to support three VLANs named Sales, Marketing, and Finance. Each VLAN spans four ports on the switch. The network administrator has deleted the Marketing VLAN from the switch. Which statement describe the status of the ports associated with this VLAN?

a. The ports are inactive.

 b. The ports are administratively disabled.

c. The ports will become trunks to carry data from all remaining VLANs.

d. The ports were released from the Marketing VLAN and automatically reassigned to

VLAN 1

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3rd Module Assessment

Which routing protocols does not support VLSM?

Select one:

a.

RIPv2

b.

IGRP

c.

EIGRP

d.

OSPF

Question 2. Which statement correctly describe the components of a router?

a.RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.

b.ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.

c.NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

d.Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS

Question 3. Which of the following is not a parameter used to calculate metric?

a.Hop count

b.Bandwidth

c.Delay

d.Administrative distance

Question 4. The output of the show ip route command contains the following entry:

S 10.2.0.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2.

What value is indicated by the 1 in the [1/0] portion of the output?

a.Metric

b.Number of hops

c.Administrative distance

d.Interface ID through which the network can be reached

Question 5. Which of the following commands would you use to display an administrative message when a person connects to a router?

a.banner message

b.banner motd

c.banner

d.banner display

Question 6. During the process of encapsulation, how does the PC determine if the packet is destined for a host on a remote network?

a.By performing the AND operation on the destination IP address and its own subnet mask

b.By checking the ARP cache for the destination host MAC address

c.By querying the DNS server for the information of the destination host

d.By sending a broadcast to the local LAN segment to see if there is any response

Question 7. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

a.View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

b.Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

c.Recall previously entered commands

d.Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

Question 8. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

a.It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.

b.It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.

c.It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.

d.It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

Question 9. What code is used in the routing table to identify routes learned through RIP?

a.C

b.D

c.R

d.K

Question 10. When a router learns that multiple paths are available to a destination network from the same routing protocol, which factor is considered by a router to choose the best path to forward a packet?

a. The lowest metric

b.The order of paths on the routing table

c.The fastest bandwidth of exiting interfaces

d.The reliability value of the neighboring routers

A network engineer is configuring a new router. The interfaces have been configured with IP addresses and activated, but no routing protocols or static routes have been configured yet. What routes are present in the routing table?

a. Default routes 

b. Broadcast routes 

c. Direct Connections 

d. No routes

11. Your network is running EIGRP,OSPf,RIP and static routes. Which routing source will be the least preferred?

a.EIGRP

b.OSPF

c.RIP

d.Static

Question 12. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10011101?

a.159

b.157

c.185

d.187

Question 13. A network administrator has just entered new configurations in to Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?

a.Router1 # copy running-config flash

b.Router1# copy running-config startup-config

c.Router1 # copy startup-config running-config

d.Router1(config)# copy startup-config running-config

Question 14. Which statement is true regarding metrics used by routing protocols?

a.A metric is the quantitative value that a routing protocol uses to measure a given route

b.A metric is a cisco-proprietary means to convert distances to a standard unit

c.Metrics represent a composite value of the amount of packet loss occuring for all routing protocols

d.Metrics are used by the router to determine whether a packet has an error and should be reported

Question 15. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?

a.administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0

b.administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1

c.administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

d.administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1

Question 16. The network administrator configured the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0/0 command on the router. How will this command appear in the routing table, assuming that the serial 0/0/0 interface is up?

a.D 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected,Serial 0/0/0

b.S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

c.S* 0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 192,168.2.2

d.C 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.2.2

Question 17. Which statement describe characteristics of load balancing?

a.Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.

b.Load balancing occurs when the same number of packets is sent over static and dynamic routes.

c.Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.

d.If multiple paths with different metrics to a destination exist, the router cannot support load balancing.

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4th Module Assessment

When using a classful class A IP address scheme , how many octects are used to designate the host portion of the address?

a.

1

b.

2

c.

3

d.

4

Question 2. What is a supernet ?

a.

) the network for a default route

b.

a summarization of classful addresses

c.

a network that contains both private and public addresses

d.

a set of discontigous networks that are controlled by an ISP

Question 3. What type of static route is created when the next-hop IP address and exit interface are specified?

a.

Recursive static route

b.

Fully specified static route

c.

Directly connected static route

d.

Floating static route

Question 4. You have a single network connected to your ISP. What type of routing would allow the internal clients to reach the internet?

a.

RIP

b.

Static route

c.

Default route

d.

OSPF

Question 5. Which statement describe static routes?

a.

They are created in interface configuration mode.

b.

They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.

c.

They automatically become the default gateway of the router.

d.

They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shut down

Question 6. Which statement is true concerning configuring static routes using next-hop addresses?

a.

Routers cannot use more than one static route with a next-hop address.

b.

When the router identifies that a packet is destined for a route associated with a nexthop address in the routing table, the router requires no further information and can immediately forward the packet.

c.

Routers configured with the static route using a next-hop address must either have the exit interface listed in the route or have another route with the network of the next hop and an associated exit interface.

d.

Routes associated with a next-hop address are more efficient than routes going to exit interfaces.

Question 7. You have been asked to create a subnet that supports 16 hosts. What subnet mask should you use?

a.255.255.255.252

b.255.255.255.248

c.255.255.255.240

d.255.255.255.224

Question 8. For the given classful network address, indicate the Class: “192.168.10.0”

a.Class A

b.Class B

c.Class C

d.Class D

Question 9. Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route?

a.ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

b.ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0

c.ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0/0/0

d.ip route 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/0/0

Question 10. Which of the following is the best summary statement for the following range of networks: 192.168.24.0/24 – 192.168.31.0/24

a.192.168.24.0 255.255.240.0

b.192.168.24.0/28

c.192.168.24.0/21

d.192.168.0.0/27

What is the advantage of route summarization?

a.Ensures job security for network admins because of difficulty of configuration

b.Reduces routing update traffic overhead

c.Reduces the impact of discontiguous subnets

d.Identifies flapping interfaces

11. Which of the following is true statement about the following command: ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.24.1

a.The command creates a default route

b.Traffic for the 10.1.24.0 networks is forwarded to the 192.168.1.0 network

c.Traffic for the 192.168.1.0 networks is forwarded to the 10.1.24.0 network

d.The command is used when configuring distance vector routing protocols

Question 12. What characteristics of VLSM capable routing protocols enables the use of different subnet masks against a single address class within a system?

a.The capability to configure the protocol on a subnetted interface()

b.Compliance with RFC 1918 addressing()

c.The use of areas and autonomous systems

d.The inclusion of the subnet mask for each network advertised in routing updates

Question 13. Given the mask 255.255.254.0, how many usuable hosts per subnet does this create?

a.254

b.256

c.510

d.512

Question 14. Why would a summarized static route be configured on a router?

a.To reduce the number of public IP addresses required by an organization

b.To provide a better route than a particular routing protocol

c.To provide a default gateway for a router that connects to an ISP

d.To reduce the size of the routing table

Question 15. Which is a valid summary route for networks 192.168.8.0/22, 192.168.12.0/22, and 192.168.16.0/22?

a.192.168.0.0/18

b.192.168.0.0/19

c.192.168.0.0/20

d.192.168.8.0/21

Question 16. Which subnet mask would be used for a network that has a maximum of 300 devices?

a.255.255.254.0

b.255.255.255.0

c.255.255.252.0

d.255.255.248.0

Question 17. A network administrator enters the following command into Routerl: ip route 192.168.0. 0 255.255.255.0 S 0 / 1 / 0 . Routerl then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?

a.Drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table

b.Looks up the MAC address of the S 0 / 1 / 0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame

c.Performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S 0 / 1 / 0 interface before forwarding the packet

d.Encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the 384 Routing and Switching Essentials Companion Guide S 0 / 1 / 0 interface

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5th Module Assessment

What parameter defines what internal addresses are translated by NAT?

a.

The access list

b.

The address pool

c.

The interface(s) that have the command ip nat inside applied

d.

The interface(s) that have the command ip nat outside applied

Question 2. What is an advantage of OSPF compared to RIP?

a.

Fast convergence

b.

Less complexity

c.

Less CPU processing

d.

Low memory requirements

Question 3. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?

a.

Exterior routing protocols are used only by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.

b.

Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.

c.

Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.

d.

Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

Question 4. Which statement is true concerning the advantage of a distance vector protocol?

a.

Perodic updates speed convergence

b.

Ease of implementation makes configuration simple

c.

They work well in complex networks

d.

Their convergence times are faster than link-state routing protocols

Question 5. A network technician issues the following commands when configuring a router: R1(config)# router ospf 11 R1(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 What does the number 11 represent?

a.

The autonomous system number to which R1 belongs

b.

The area number where R1 is located

c.

The cost of the link to R1

d.

The OSPF process ID on R1

Question 6. Router R1 is using the RIPv2 routing protocol and has discovered multiple unequal paths to reach a destination network. How will Router R1 determine which path is the best path to destination network?

a.

Lowest Metric

b.

Highest Metric

c.

Lowest Administrative distance

d.

Highest Administrative distance

Question 7. What will an OSPF router prefer to use first as a router ID?

a.

Any IP address that is configured using the router-id command

b.

A loopback interface that is configured with the highest IP address on the router

c.

The highest active interface IP that is configured on the router

d.

The highest active interface that participates in the routing process because of a specifically configured network statement

Question 8. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What is the additional uses of ACLs?

a.

Specifying source addresses for authentication

b.

Specifying internal hosts for NAT

c.

Identifying traffic for QoS

d.

Reorganizing traffic into VLANs

Question 9. What characteristics of link-state protocols compared to distance vector protocols?

a.

They know of the network topology from the perspective of their neighbors.

b.

They compute their own knowledge of the network topology.

c.

They use hop counts to compute the network topology.

d.

They flood the routing table periodically.

Question 10. Which algorithm is used by the OSPF routing process to construct the SPF tree on a router?

a.

DUAL algorithm

b.

Bellman-Ford algorithm

c.

Dijkstra’s algorithm

d.

Path vector protocol

What is the disadvantage of NAT?   

a. End-to-end traceability is lost. 

b. Uses too many legally registered addresses. 

c. Decreases the number of connections that can be used to the public network. 

d. Increased network costs

What reason would a network administrator have for using loopback interfaces when configuring OSPF?

a.

Loopbacks are logical interfaces and do not go down.

b.

Only loopback addresses can be used for an OSPF router id

c.

Loopback interfaces are used to set the OSPF metric

d.

OSPF error checking is enabled by loopback addresses

Question 12. The OSPF Hello timer has been set to 15 seconds on a router in a point-to-point network. By default, what is the dead interval on this router?

a.

15 seconds

b.

30 seconds

c.

45 seconds

d.

60 seconds

Question 13. What is the purpose of network command when RIP is being configured as the routing protocol?

a.

It identifies the networks connected to the neighboring router

b.

It restricts networks from being used for static routes

c.

It identifies all the destination networks that the router is allowed to install in its routing table

d.

It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the RIP routing updates.

Question 14. On a router running OSPF , what is the purpose of entering the bandwidth 56 command on a serial interface?

a.

Changes the cost value

b.

Functions only as a description

c.

Changes the throughput of the interface to 56 Kbps

d.

is necessary for the DUAL algorithm

Question 15. Given the following configuration , what is the OSPF router id of Router A?

RouterA (config)#interface serial 0/0/0

RouterA(config-if)# ip add 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.252

RouterA(config)#interface loopback 0

RouterA(config-if)#ip add 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.255

RouterA(config)#router ospf 1

RouterA(config-if)#network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

a.

10.1.1.1

b.

192.168.2.1

c.

192.168.2.0

d.

0.0.0.3

Question 16. After two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and formed an adjacency,what is the next thing to occur?

a.

They will take turns broadcasting their entire routing table to each other

b.

They will start sending link state packets to each other

c.

They negotiate to determine which will be the root router of the OSPF domain

d.

They will adjust their hello timers so that they don’t collide with each other

Question 17. Which statements is true about the DHCP server functions?

a.

When a client requests an IP address, the DHCP server searches the binding table for an entry that matches the client’s MAC address. If an entry exists, the corresponding IP address for the entry is returned to the client.

b.

Clients can be assigned an IP address from a predefined DHCP pool for a finite lease period.

c.

DHCP services must be installed on a dedicated network server to define the pool of IP addresses available to the client.

d.

The DHCP server can answer requests and assign IP addresses for a particular subnet only

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Assignment 2

Case Study: 

“Answer the following questions on the basis of given output:

       Router# debug ip rip

       RIP: received update from 172.16.0.1 on FastEthernet0/0

        172.17.0.0 in 1 hops

        172.18.0.0 in 2 hops

        172.19.0.0 in 16 hops ( inaccessible)

        0.0.0.0 in 4 hops

        RIP: sending update to 255.255.255.255 via FastEthernet 0/0 (172.16.0.2) 172.20.0.0, metric 1

        RIP : sending update to 255.255.255.255 via Serial 0/0/0 (172.20.0.1) 172.17.0.0 in 2 hops

        <output omitted>”

Question: What will happen to a packet destined for the 172.19.0.0 network?

a.

It will be forwarded out the FastEthernet 0/0 interface

b.

It will be forwarded out the Serial 0/0 interface

c.

It will be dropped

d.

It will be sent to the default route

Question 2. Which networks are directly attached to this router?

a.

172.16.0.0

b.

172.17.0.0

c.

172.18.0.0

d.

172.19.0.0

Question 3. Which command displays RIP routing updates?

a.

show ip route

b.

show protocols

c.

debug ip rip

d.

debug ip route

Question 4. Which routing protocols support VLSM?

a.

RIPv1

b.

RIPv2

c.

IGRP

d.

HSRP

Question 5. What is the Administrative distance value of RIP protocol?

a.

1

b.

90

c.

100

d.

120

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Introduction to Data Analytics

Introduction to Data Analytics

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1st Module Assessment

Data Analysis is a process of?

a.

inspecting data

b.

cleaning data

c.

transforming data

d.

All of the above

Question 2. Which of the following are Benefits of Big Data Processing?

a.

Businesses can utilize outside intelligence while taking decisions

b.

Improved customer service

c.

Better operational efficiency

d.

All of the above

Question 3. Which of the following is correct order of working?

a.

questions->evaluation ->algorithms

b.

evaluation->input data ->algorithms

c.

questions->input data ->algorithms

d.

all of the mentioned

Question 4.Data in ___________ bytes size is called Big Data

a.

Tera

b.

Giga

c.

Peta

d.

Meta

Question 5. Which of the following argument is used to set importance values?

a.

scale

b.

set

c.

value

d.

all of the mentioned

Question 6. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches?

a.

Data Mining

b.

Predictive Intelligence

c.

Business Intelligence

d.

Text Analytics

Question 7. Which of the following trade-off occurs during prediction?

a.

Speed vs Accuracy

b.

Simplicity vs Accuracy

c.

Scalability vs Accuracy

d.

None of the mentioned

Question 8. As companies move past the experimental phase with Hadoop, many cite the need for additional capabilities, including _______________

a.

Improved data storage and information retrieval

b.

Improved security, workload management, and SQL support

c.

Improved data warehousing functionality

d.

Improved extract, transform and load features for data integration

Question 9. Which of the following is the valid component of the predictor?

a.

data

b.

question

c.

algorithm

d.

all of the mentioned

Question 10. Transaction data of the bank is?

a.

structured data

b.

unstructured datat

c.Both A and B

d.

None of the above

11. What is a unit of data that flows through a Flume agent?

a.

Record

b.

Event

c.

Row

d.

Log

Question 12. Which of the following is correct skills for a Data Scientist?

a.

Probability & Statistics

b.

Machine Learning / Deep Learning

c.

Data Wrangling

d.

All of the above

Question 13. What are the different features of Big Data Analytics?

a.

Open-Source

b.

Scalability

c.

Data Recovery

d.

All the above

Question 14. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities

a.

FALSE

b.

TRUE

c.

Can not say

d.

Can be true or false

Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? Select one:  a. Business Intelligence  b. Data Mining  c. Predictive Intelligence  d. Text Analytics

Question 15. Which of the following is not a application for data science?

a.

Recommendation Systems

b.

Image & Speech Recognition

c.

Online Price Comparison

d.

Privacy Checker

Question 16. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis?

a.

2

b.

4

c.

3

d.

5

Question 17. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ?

a.

integer descriptors

b.

floating descriptors

c.

numerical descriptors

d.

decimal descriptors

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2nd Module Assessment

Which of the following is a good way of performing experiments in data science?

a.

Measure variability

b.

Generalize to the problem

c.

Have Replication

d.

All of the mentioned

Question 2. Data visualization is also an element of the broader _____________.

a.

deliver presentation architecture

b.

data presentation architecture

c.

dataset presentation architecture

d.

data process architecture

Question 3. The analysis performed to uncover interesting statistical correlations between associated-attribute-value pairs is called?

a.

Mining of Association

b.

Mining of Clusters

c.

Mining of Correlations

d.

None of the above

Question 4. “Efficiency and scalability of data mining algorithms” issues comes under?

a.

Mining Methodology and User Interaction Issues

b.

Performance Issues

c.

Diverse Data Types Issues

d.

None of the above

Question 5. How do you handle missing or corrupted data in a dataset?

a.

Assign a unique category to missing values

b.

Drop missing rows or columns

c.

Replace missing values with mean/median/mode

d.

All of the above

Question 6. Which of the following approach should be used if you can’t fix the variable?

a.

randomize it

b.

non stratify it

c.

generalize it

d.

none of the mentioned

Question 7. Text Analytics, also referred to as Text Mining?

a.

TRUE

b.

FALSE

c.

Can be true or false

d.

Can not say

Question 8. Data Analysis is a process of?

a.

cleaning data

b.

transforming data

c.

inspecting data

d.

All of the above

Question 9. Data Visualization in mining cannot be done using

a.

Photos

b.

Graphs

c.

Charts

d.

Information Graphics

Question 10. Point out the correct statement.

a.

findLinearColumns will also return a vector of column positions can be removed to eliminate the linear dependencies

b.

findLinearCombos will return a list that enumerates dependencies

c.

the function findLinearRows can be used to generate a complete set of row variables from one factor

d.

none of the mentioned

11. Which of the following is a foundational exploratory visualization package for the R language in pandas ecosystem?

a.

yhat

b.

Seaborn

c.

Vincent

d.

None of the mentioned

Question 12. Which of the following analytical capabilities are provided by information management company?

a.

Stream Computing

b.

Content Management

c.

Information Integration

d.

All of the mentioned

Question 13. In normalization of relations ,the property which is critical and must be achieved is classified as:

a.

non additive join property

b.

additive join property

c.

indepedency reservation property

d.

dependency preservation property

Question 14. The process of analysing relation schemas to achieve minimal redudancy and insertion or update anomolies is classified as

a.

normalization of data

b.

denomination of data

c.

isolation of data

d.

de-normalization of data

Which of the following is the top most important thing in data science?

a. answer

b. question 

c. data 

d. none of the mentioned

Question 15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

a.

To explain some observed event or condition

b.

To confirm that data exists

c.

To analyze data for expected relationships

d.

To create a new data warehouse

Question 16. An operational system is which of the following?

a.

A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on historical data.

b.

A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current data.

c.

A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current data.

d.

A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical data.

Question 17. A multifield transformation does which of the following?

a.

Converts data from one field into multiple fields

b.

Converts data from multiple fields into one field

c.

Converts data from multiple fields into multiple fields

d.

All of the above

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3rd Module Assessment

1. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ?

a.

numerical descriptors

b.

integer descriptors

c.

decimal descriptors

d.

floating descriptors

Question 2. A__________ begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S) and successively predicting lower level constituents until individual preterminal symbols are written.

a.

bottow-up parser

b.

top parser

c.

top-down parser

d.

bottom parser

Question 3. A feature F1 can take certain value: A, B, C, D, E, & F and represents grade of students from a college. Which of the following statement is true in following case?

a.

Feature F1 is an example of nominal variable

b.

Feature F1 is an example of ordinal variable

c.

It doesn’t belong to any of the above category

d.

Both of these

Question 4. In Model based learning methods, an iterative process takes place on the ML models that are built based on various model parameters, called ?

a.

hyper parameters

b.

optimized parameters

c.

mini-batches

d.

super parameters

Question 5. Different learning methods does not include?

a.

Analogy

b.

Memorization

c.

Deduction

d.

Introduction

Question 6. varImp is a wrapper around the evimp function in the _______ package

a.

plot

b.

numpy

c.

earth

d.

none of the mentioned

Question 7. Which of the following hyper parameter(s), when increased may cause random forest to over fit the data?

 1. Number of Trees

 2. Depth of Tree

 3. Learning Rate

a.

1,2 and 3

b.

2 and 3

c.

1 and 2

d.

Only 2

Question 8. Which of the following is true about regression analysis?

a.

describing associations within the data

b.

answering yes/no questions about the data

c.

estimating numerical characteristics of the data

d.

modeling relationships within the data

Question 9. Fit a straight line y=a+bx into the given data: (x,y):(5,12)(10,13)(15,14)(20,15)(25,16).

a.

y=1.1+0.2x

b.

y=11

c.

y=11+0.2x

d.

y=0.2x

Question 10. What would be the probability of an event ‘G’ if H denotes its complement, according to the axioms of probability?

a.

P (G) = 1 / P (H)

b.

P (G) = 1 – P (H)

c.

P (G) = 1 + P (H)

d.

P (G) = P (H)

11. The equation of the regression line is y = 5x + 3. Predict y when x = 8.

a.

53

b.

43

c.

23

d.

None

Question 12. Mutually Exclusive events ___________

a.

Contain all common sample points

b.

Contain all sample points

c.

Does not contain any common sample point

d.

Does not contain any sample point

Question 13. Can we perform linear regression with a neural network?

a.

Yes, we can

b.

Partially we can

c.

No, we can not

d.

None

Now situation is same as written in previous question(under fitting).Which of following regularization algorithm would you prefer? Select one: 

a. L2 

b. L1 

c. All 

d. None of these

Question 14. The expected value of a discrete random variable ‘x’ is given by ___________

a.

P(x)

b.

∑ x P(x)

c.

∑ P(x)

d.

1

Question 15. Which of the following function tracks the changes in model statistics?

a.

findTrack

b.

varImpTrack

c.

varImp

d.

none of the mentioned

Question 16. Randomly assigning treatment to experimental units allows:

a.

Population inference

b.

Causal inference

c.

Both types of inference

d.

Neither type of inference

Question 17. A national random sample of 20 ACT scores from 2010 is listed below. Calculate the sample mean and standard deviation. 29, 26, 13, 23, 23, 25, 17, 22, 17, 19, 12, 26, 30, 30, 18, 14, 12, 26, 17, 18

a.

20.85, 5.94

b.

20.50, 5.79

c.

20.50, 5.94

d.

20.85, 5.79

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4th Module Assessment

Which of the following is a disadvantage of decision trees?

a.

Factor analysis

b.

Decision trees are prone to be overfit

c.

Decision trees are robust to outliers

d.

None of the above

Question 2. That strategies can help reduce overfitting in decision trees?

(i) Enforce a maximum depth for the tree

(ii) Enforce a minimum number of samples in leaf nodes

(iii) Make sure each leaf node is one pure class

(IV) Pruning

a.

All

b.

(i), (iii), (iv)

c.

(i), (ii) and (iii)

d.

None

Question 3. Factors which affect the performance of learner system does not include

a.

Type of feedback

b.

Representation scheme used

c.

Training scenario

d.

Good data structures

Question 4. Which of the following is a reasonable way to select the number of principal components “k”?

a.

Use the elbow method

b.

Choose k to be 99% of m (k = 0.99*m, rounded to the nearest integer)

c.

Choose k to be the smallest value so that at least 99% of the varinace is retained

d.

Choose k to be the largest value so that 99% of the variance is retained

Question 5. Which of the following options is/are true for K-fold cross-validation?

Increase in K will result in higher time required to cross validate the result.

Higher values of K will result in higher confidence on the cross-validation result as compared to lower value of K.

If K=N, then it is called Leave one out cross validation, where N is the number of observations.

a.

1 and 2

b.

1 and 3

c.

1,2 and 3

d.

2 and 3

Question 6. What kind of learning algorithm for “Facial identities or facial expressions”?

a.

Prediction

b.

Generating Patterns

c.

Recognizing Anomalies Answe

d.

Recognition Patterns

Question 7. When performing regression or classification, which of the following is the correct way to preprocess the data?

a.

PCA -> normalize PCA output -> training

b.

Normalize the data -> PCA -> normalize PCA output -> training

c.

Normalize the data -> PCA -> training

d.

None of the above

Question 8. Which of the following is/are one of the important step(s) to pre-process the text in NLP based projects?

1. Stemming

2. Stop word removal

3. Object Standardization

a.

1 and 2

b.

1 and 3

c.

1,2 and 3

d.

All of them

Question 9. Which of the following clustering algorithms suffers from the problem of convergence at local optima?

a.

K- Means clustering

b.

Hierarchical clustering

c.

Diverse clustering

d.

All of the above

Question 10. What are the advantages of neural networks over conventional computers?

(i) They have the ability to learn by

(ii) They are more fault

(iiI) They are more suited for real time operation due to their high „computational‟

a.

Only (i)

b.

(i) and (iii)

c.

All

d.

(i) and (ii)

For clustering, we do not require-

a. Unlabeled data 

b. Numerical data 

c. Labeled data 

d. Categorical data

11. What is a support vector?

a.

The average distance between all the data points

b.

The distance between two boundary data points

c.

The distance between any two data points

d.

The minimum distance between any two data points

Question 12. On which data type, we can not perform cluster analysis?

a.

Multimedia data

b.

Text data

c.

Time series data

d.

None

Question 13.Which of the following is a lazy learning algorithm?

a.

KNN

b.

Decision tree

c.

SVM

d.

All of the above

Question 14. Which version of the clustering algorithm is most sensitive to outliers?

a.

K-means clustering algorithm

b.

K-medians clustering algorithm

c.

K-modes clustering algorithm

d.

None

Question 15. Which of the following is the best algorithm for text classification?

a.

Naive Bayes

b.

Random forest

c.

KNN

d.

Decision tree

Question 16. Support Vector Machine is-

a.

a lazy learning classifier

b.

a discriminative classifier

c.

a probabilistic classifier

d.

None

Question 17. What is the most widely used distance metric in KNN?

a.

Perpendicular distance

b.

Manhattan distance

c.

Euclidean distance

d.

All of the above

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5th Module Assessment

  1. Let the following state-reward transactions are observed if a fixed policy is applied on some MDP with two state A,B. What will the value function for this when TD(O) is applied on the data,

A,2,B,3,A,4,B,3,A,3

B,4,B,3,A,9

A3

Select one:

a.

V(A) = 55/7, V(B) = 64/7

b.

V(A) = 60/7, V(B) = 66/7

c.

V(A) = 37/7, V(B) = 26/7

d.

V(A) = 57/7, V(B) = 55/7

Question 2. The multi-armed bandit problem is a generalized use case for-

a.

Unsupervised learning

b.

Supervised learning

c.

Reinforcement learning

d.

All of the above

Question 3. A definition of a concept is if it recognizes all the instances of that concept

a.

Consistent

b.

Complete

c.

Constant

d.

None of these

Question 4. Iteration is also called as ________

a.

Self-correcting process

b.

Accurate process

c.

Approximate process

d.

Rounding off process

Question 5. Which of the following is true about reinforcement learning?

a.

The target of an agent is to maximize the rewards

b.

The agent gets rewards or penalty according to the action

c.

It’s an online learning

d.

All of the above

Question 6. Case-based learning is

a.

A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory.

b.

An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation

c.

Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a hypothesis

d.

None of these

Question 7. What is the parameter of analysis in reinforcement learning?

a.

Number of requests during wake cycle

b.

Number of processes to achieve final outcome

c.

Degree of failure

d.

Degree of success

Question 8. Reinforcement learning is

a.

Unsupervised learning

b.

Award based learning

c.

Supervised learning

d.

None

Question 9. What is the difference between TD(O) and Monte-Carlo value function update equations?

a.

MC uses unbiased sample of the return while TD(O) uses biased sample

b.

MC uses biased sample of the return while TD(O) uses sample

c.

For a single update step MC uses reward while TD(()) a sample of the reward

d.

or a single update step MC uses sample of the reward while T D(O) uses reward

Question 10. Which of the factors affect the performance of learner system does not include?

a.

Training scenario

b.

Type of feedback

c.

Good data structures

d.

Representation scheme used

11. A model of language consists of the categories which does not include ________.

a.

structural units

b.

System Unit

c.

data units

d.

empirical units

Question 12. Real-Time decisions, Game AI, Learning Tasks, Skill Aquisition, and Robot Navigation are applications of which of the folowing

a.

Unsupervised Learning: Clustering

b.

Unsupervised Learning: Regression

c.

Supervised Learning: Classification

d.

Reinforcement Learning

Question 13. Concept learning inferred a ———– valued function from training examples of its input and output.

a.

Hexadecimal

b.

Decimal

c.

Boolean

d.

All of the above

Question 14. ________ produces the relation that has attributes of Ri and R2

a.

Difference

b.

Cartesian product

c.

Intersection

d.

Product

SET concept is used in: 

a. Relational Model 

b. Hierarchical Model 

c. Network Model 

d. None of these

Question 15. Which one of the following statements is

(a.) Planning can used when MDP parameters are unknown but sample can taken

(b.) Learning can be used when MDP parameters are unknown but samples can taken

(c.) Planning can used when a model is present even if sampling is not allowed

(d.) Learning can when a model is present even if sampling is not allowed

Select one:

a.

(a.)

b.

(a.) and (b.)

c.

(b.) and (c.)

d.

(d.) and (c.)

Question 16. Assertion: Having a simulator/model is an advantage when using rollouts based methcds

Reason: Multiple trajectories can sampled from the model from any given state

(a.) Assertion and Reason are both true and Reason is a explanation of Assertion

(b.) Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion

(c.) Assertion is true but Reason is false

(d.) Assertion and Reason are falæ

Select one:

a.

(a.)

b.

(a.) and (b.)

c.

(b.) and (c.)

d.

(d.) and (c.)

Question 17. Assertion: a-learning can use asynchronous samplæ from different policies to update Q values.

Reason: a-leaming is an online learning algorithm explanation of Assertion

(a.) Assertion and Reawn are true and Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion

(b.) Assertion and Reason are both true and Reason is a correct “

(c.) Assertion is false but Reason is true” (d.) Assertion is true but Reason is false

a.

(a.)

b.

(a.) and (b.)

c.

(b.) and (c.)

d.

(d.) and (c.)

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Assignment 2

Case Study: 

The oil and gas industry uses predictive analytics in many different ways to ensure efficient, safe, and clean extraction, processing, and delivery of their product. While shale oil and gas are abundant in the US, they are difficult to find and extract safely. Horizontaldrilling and fracking are expensive and possibly cause environmental damage. They are also relatively inefficient. As a result, some of the biggest oil and gas corporations are using prescriptive analytics to help deal with and minimize these problems

Question: How does Bigdata helps to oil and gas industry?

a.

Analytics of gas and oil field data

b.

Simulation of weather data

c.

Drilling

d.

Extration of oil

Question 2. The mapping or classification of a class with some predefined group or class is known as

a.

Data Characterization

b.

Data Discrimination

c.

Data Set

d.

Data Sub Structure

Question 3. In Model based learning methods including oil and gas, an iterative process takes place on the ML models that are built based on various model parameters, called ?

a.

mini-batches

b.

super parameters

c.

optimized parameters

d.

hyper parameters

Question 4. Data Analysis of oil and gas are a process of?

a.

inspecting data

b.

cleaning data

c.

transforming data

d.

All of the above

Question 5. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches of oil and gas ?

a.

Business Intelligence

b.

Data Mining

c.

Predictive Intelligence

d.

Text Analytics

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Unix And Shell Programming

Unix and Shell Programming
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Q1. Discuss the features of UNIX operating system that have made them such phenomenally successful Operating systems
Q2. What is shell programming? Write a shell program toprint all the contents of an existing text file in uppercase
Q3. Describe what the grep command does? Illustrate its use with an original example.
Q4Write a shell program to generate the first “n” terms of the following sequence without using multiplication
Q5. What are filters? Give some examples of commands that can be used as filters
Q6. What are the different kinds of file systems available to UNIX operating system.
Q7. Write shell programs for the following:
i.To find second largest number among the 5 numbers given.
ii. To find sum of all the alternate digits in a given 7 digit number.
iii. To count number of vowels in a given string.
iv. To take 2 strings as input, concatenate them and display the length of the resultant string.
v. To display the reverse of a given number.

Q8. Write the UNIX commands for the following
i) To display the sizes and names of the six largest files in /bin, listed in descending order of their size.
ii) To display the number of words in the last 250 lines of any file.
iii) To display the name of the oldest file (and only the oldest file) in the current working directory.
iv) To show the number of all files and directories (including hidden ones, but not. or.) in the directory /bin.
v) Use the ps command, and the grep command, in a pipeline to find all the processes owned by you.

Assignment B
Q1.What is an i-node and what information is contained in it? Describe how named files are mapped to i-nodes.
Q2How is the information associating disc blocks with i-nodes represented?
Q3 What restrictions are placed on name to i-node links to simplify file system recovery?

1. UNIX uses ls to list files in a directory. The corresponding command in MS environment is—
2. A file with extension .txt—
3. What is POSIX?
4. Which of the following files in the current directory are identified by the regular
expression a?b*.
5. For some file the access permissions are modified to 764. Which of the following interpretation are valid?
6. The file’s properties in Windows environment include which amongst the following?
7. Which of the following information is contained in inode structure?
8. What are utilities?
9. Which directory under the root contains the information on devices?
10. What is the command ‘mv’ used for in Unix?
11. What is the result of typing the command pwd?
12. Which unix command will display all files starting with an a?
13. Unix Operating System is—
14. The program is known as _________ that interacts with the inner part of called kernel.
15. Identify the odd thing in the services of operating system—
16. Dead lock handling in ______ OS, the response time is very critical.
17. Software is a program that directs the overall operation of the computer facilitates its use and interacts with the user. What are the different types of such software?
18. PCB stands for—
19. The primary job of the operating system of a computer is to—
20. Super computers typically employ—
21. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between the processes and programs in a computer system at any given moment?
22. Multiprogramming systems –
23. Multiprocessing
24. Which is not the state of the process?
The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and the-
25. A process is—
26. The kernel of the operating system remains in the primary memory because—
27. Which of the following statement is not true?
28. The term “Operating System ” means—
29. What is a shell?
30. The operating system manages—
31. chown means—
32. The process which terminates before the parent process exits, is called as—
33. Identify the point(s) that is not true w.r.t. signals—
34. ———Works as a command interpretor.
35. An important task that the operating system performs is____, which keeps track of the files stored on a PC so that they can be retrieved when needed
36. The means by which an operating system or any other program interacts with the user is called–
———- was originally developed at AT&T Bell Labs as an operating system
37. For multiprogramming systems, most UNIX operating systems use—
38. What are the tasks of an Operating System?
39. For multiprogramming systems, most UNIX operating systems use—
40. What are the tasks of an Operating System?
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Data and File Structure using C

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Q1. A two-dimensional array defined as a [4…7, -1 …….3] requires 2 bytes of storage space for each element. If the array is stored in row-major form, then calculate the address of element at location a[6,2]. Give the base address is 100.
Q2. Write a C program to implement bubble sort.
Q3. Write a program in C to show PUSH and POP operations in a stack.
Q4. Write the algorithms for the insertion and deletion operations performed on the circular queue.
Q5. What is double linked list? What are the advantage and disadvantage of double linked list ?
Q6. What is a binary search tree? Construct a binary search tree from these numbers – 50, 30, 60, 22, 38, 55, 34.
Q7. Explain the Dijkastra’s Algorithm.
Q8. What do you mean by the Hashing? Explain different method of hashing.

Q1. If you are using C language to implement the heterogeneous linked list, what pointer type will you use?
Q2. What is the binary tree? What are threaded and properties of binary trees?
Q3. What is directed graph? Explain the various types of graph and traversal of directed graph.

1. The memory address of the first element of an array is called
2. memory address of fifth element of an array can be calculated by the formula
3. Which of the following data structures are indexed structures?
4. Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm?
5. Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm?
6. Two dimensional arrays are also called
7. A variable P is called pointer if
8. Which of the following data structure can’t store the non-homogeneous data elements?
9. Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data elements?
10. Each data item in a record may be a group item composed of sub-items; those items which are indecomposable are called
11. The difference between linear array and a record is
12. Which of the following statement is false?
13. Binary search algorithm can not be applied to

14. When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is no available space; this situation is usually called
15. The situation when in a linked list START=NULL is
16. Which of the following is two way lists?
17. Which of the following name does not relate to stacks?
18. The term “push” and “pop” is related to the
19. A data structure where elements can be added or removed at either end but not in the middle
20. When in order traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would return
21. Value of the first linked list index is________
22. A linked list index is ____ that represents the position of a node in a linked list
23. Why is the constructor of the Queue Linked List class empty?
24. _______ form of access is used to add and remove nodes from a queue
25. ______ form of access is used to add and remove nodes from a stack
26. New nodes are added to the _____ of the queue.
27. A _______ is a data structure that organizes data similar to a line in the supermarket, where the first one in line is the first one out.
28. In an array queue, data is stored in an _____ element
29. The pop () member function determines if the stack is empty by calling the _____ member function
30. What happens when you push a new node onto a stack?
31. Which of the following algorithm solves the all – pair shortest path problem?
32. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as
33. To delete a dynamically allocated array named `a`, the correct statement is
34. The memory address of the first element of an array is called
35. Which of the following data structure store the homogeneous data elements?
36. The number of possible binary trees with 4 nodes is
37. Which of the following data structure is not linear data structure?
38. Finding the location of the element with a given value is:
39. Preorder is same as
40. Which of the following is the feature of stack?

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Software Engineering

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Software Engineering

Q1. Explain the Spiral Model of software development. What are the limitations of such a model?
Q2. Is it possible to estimate software size before coding? Justify your answer with suitable examples
Q3. Explain the concepts of Function Points. Why FPs is becoming acceptable in industry?
Q4. The effort distribution for a 420 KLOC Semi-detached mode software development project is: product design 10%, detailed design 14%, code & unit test 26%, integrate and test 30%. How would the following change, from low to high, affect the phase distribution of effort and the total effort: analyst Capability, virtual machine experience, Programmer capability, and required language experience?
Q5 What do you understand by the term Software Development Life Cycle? Why is it important to adhere to a life cycle model while developing a large software system?
Q 6 List the five desirable characteristics of good SRS document
Q7. Enumerate the different types of coupling that might exist between two modules.
Q8.

Q.1) Consider a project to develop a full screen editor. The major components identified are screen edit, command language interpreter, file input and output, cursor movement, screen movement. The sizes for these are estimated to be 4K, 2K, 1K, 2K and 3K delivered source lines. Use COCOMO Model to determine:
a) Overall cost and schedule estimates.
b) Cost and schedules for different phases.

Q2: Explain why a design with low coupling helps maintainability
Q3 Discuss the significance and use of requirement engineering. What are the problems in the formulation of requirements?
1. The development is supposed is supposed to be processed linearly through the phases
2. The DFD depicts
3. The most desirable form of coupling is
4. If failure intensity is 0,005 failures/hour during 10 hours of operation of software, its reliability can be expressed as
5. Regression testing is primarily related to
6. Which one is not a step of requirement engineering?
7. Which one is not a requirement elicitation technique?
8. Level-O DFD is similar to
9. The DFD depicts
10. Which one is not a size measure for software?
11. Estimation of size for a project dependent on
12. COCOMO-II was developed at
13. How many stages are in COCOMO-II?
14. Which one is not a risk Management Activity?
15. The worst type of cohesion is
16. Which one is not a strategy for design?
17. A system that does not interact with external environment is called
18. The extent to which different modules are dependent upon each other is called
19. Which one is not a category of software metrics?
20. Which one is not a measure of software science theory?
21. Minimal implementation of any algorithm was given the following name by Hallstead:
22. Which one is the International standard for size measure?
23. Fault is
24. As the reliability increases, failure intensity
25. Software Quality is
26. How many product quality factors have been proposed in McCall quality model?
27. Which one is not a software quality model?
28. NHPP stands for
29. Total numbers of maturing levels in CMM are
30. CMM is developed by
31. Software reliability is defined with respect to
32. Software mistakes during coding are known as:
33. For a function of two variables, how many test cases robustness testing will generate?
34. Beta testing is carried out by:
35. Acceptance testing is done by:
36. Cyclomatic Complexity is equal to
37. Alpha & Beta testing techniques are related to
38. Integration testing techniques are
39. Functionality of software is tested by
40. Thread testing is used for testing
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Digital Electronics & Computer Oraganisation

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Q1. What are flip flop circuits in digital electronics? Discuss race around condition in J-K Flip Flop.
Q2. What is virtual memory? How address mapping is done in cache memory? Elaborate your answer with examples.
Q3. Design 8:1 Mux for a given function, f=Σ (0, 1,5,7,9, 13)
Q4. How branching takes place in Instruction pipeline. Explain with suitable examples
Q5. Write short notes on any three of the following.
a) Microprocessor
b) Modes of data transfer.
c) I/O processor
d) Associative memory
e) Software and Hardware interrupt
Q6. Design a mod-15 counter. Explain the various steps in designing the counter
Q7. What are shift registers? Design a 8 bit shift register with features like PISO, SISO, SIPO and PIPO.
Q8. Compare RISC & CISC architecture.
Case Study
Q1. Give the organization of Micro programmed control unit and explain its operation. Explain the role of address sequencer in detail. If you convert your control unit to hardwired unit, what are the changes you will observe?
Q2. Explain in details the block diagram of timing and control unit.

1. Where does a computer add and compare data?
2. Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory location where the next instruction is located?
Question 3: A complete microcomputer system consists of

Question 4: CPU does not perform the operation
Question 5: Pipelining strategy is called implement
Question 6: A stack is
Question 7: A stack pointer is
Question 8: The branch logic that provides decision making capabilities in the control unit is known as
Question 9: Interrupts which are initiated by an instruction are
Question 10: A time sharing system imply
11. Processors of all computers, whether micro, mini or mainframe must have
Question 12: What is the control unit’s function in the CPU?
Question 13: What is meant by a dedicated computer?
Question 14: The most common addressing techiniques employed by a CPU is
Question 15: Pipeline implement
Question 16: Which of the following code is used in present day computing was developed by IBM corporation?
Question 17: When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instructions stored in/on the
Question 18: A microprogram written as string of 0’s and 1’s is a
Question 19: Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to instructions
20. A collection of 8 bits is called
Question 21: An AND gate generates a high output when–
Question 22: How many address lines are needed to address each memory locations in a 2048 x 4 memory chip?
23. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an
Question 24: In immediate addressing the operand is placed
Question 25: Microprocessor 8085 can address location upto
Question 26: The ALU and control unit of most of the microcomputers are combined and manufacture on a single silicon chip. What is it called?
Question 27: When the RET instruction at the end of subroutine is executed,
Question 28: A microporgram is sequencer perform the operation
Question 29: Interrupts which are initiated by an I/O drive are
30. A 32-bit processor has
31. Clock speed is measured in—
32. A parity bit is—
33. On-chip cache has—
34. The system bus is made up of—
35. Modern processor chips may be classified as—
36. A nanosecond is—
37. The clock speed of a modern PC is of the order of—
38. An OR gate generates a low output when—
39. The ascending order or a data Hierarchy is—
40. A conditional jump instruction–
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Introduction to Computer and Programming Concept

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Q1. Classify computer systems according to capacity. How they are different from computers according to the classification of technology. Provide comparative study also.
Q2. Write the importance of operating system. Describe the working methodology of online and real-time operating system with the help of two examples of each.
Q3. Write a ‘C’ program to accept any 3 digit integer number from the keyboard and display the word equivalent representation of the given number.
Q4. Write a ‘C’ functions to arrange the elements of an integer array in such a way that all the negative elements are before the positive elements. The array is passed to it as an argument.
Q5. Write a ‘C’ function to generate the following figure for n = 7.
1
1 3
1 3 5
1 3 5 7
1 3 5
1 3
1
The value of n is passed to the function as an argument. Print the triangle only if n is odd otherwise print an error message.

Q1. How is communication between computers established in Internet. What characteristics need to be defined in a communication protocol? Explain the physical and logical paths in a computer communication network also.
Q2. Define a structure to store roll no, name and marks of a student. Using the structure of above write a ‘C’ program to create a file “student.dat”. There must be one record for every student in the file. Accept the data from the user.
Q3. Using the “student.dat” of above write a ‘C’ program to search for the details of the student whose name is entered by the user.
1. In General purpose OS user cannot change which state of process?
2. Which addressing scheme is not common for 8085 & 8086 ?
3. A software that allows a personal computer to pretend is as a terminal is—
4. Which one of the following always resides in the memory?
5. 8085 is –
6. The process of loading the operating system from the secondary memory to primary memory is called as-
7. Which of the following allows devices on one network to communicate with devices on another network?
8. p++ executes faster than p+1 because—
9. main()
{
int *p ;
p=(int *)malloc(-10);
}
10. Which addressing scheme is not common for 8085 & 8086?
11. The number of address lines required to address 4k of memory are—
12. Where is CMOS setup stored?
13. main ( ){
char *a=”Hello”;
*a++ = h ;
printf(“%s\n”,a);
}
14. main()
{
for( printf(“a”) ; printf(“b”) ; printf(“c”) ) ;
}
15. The ……………….variable is not destroyed on exit from the function; instead its value is presented and becomes available again, when the function is next called. These variables are declared as …………………
16. Output of the printf(“%-2.3f\n”,17.23478) will be—
17. Suppose that ‘i’ is an integer variable whose value is 7 and ‘f ‘is floating point variable whose value is 8.5. Evaluate the expression: ( i + f)%4
18. What will be the output of the following?
#include
main ( )
{
int *i, *j, a=12, b=2,c;
c = (a=a+b, b=a/b, a=a*b, b=a-b);
i = &c;
printf(“%d”,–(*i));
}
19. The conversion characters for data input means that the data item is—
20. What is max data capacity for optical fiber cable?
21. In C, a Union is–
22. If you want to exchange two rows in a two dimensional array, the fastest way is to-
23. Study the following C program.
#include

}
What will be the value of n after the execution of the above program?
24. Study the following C program.
#include
main()
{
..
}
What will be the value of n after the execution of the above program?
25. Which of these is not a layer in OSI model?
26. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor what was to be done is—
27. Which of the following holds the ROM, CPU, RAM and expansion cards?
28. The term ‘baud’ is a measure of the—
29. Subtracting (1010)2 from (1101)2 using 1st complement—
30. Using 2’s Complement, substraction, of (1010)2 from (0011)2 is—
31. The chief reason why digital computers use complemented subtraction is that, it—
32. In ______ OS, the response time is very critical.
33. The primary job of the operating system of a computer is to ________.
34. A program at the time of executing is called ________.
35. Multiprogramming systems ________.
36. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________.
37. Which of the following allows devices on one network to communicate with devices on another network?
38. Which of the following memories needs refresh?
39. FDDI is a—
40. What is the central device in star topology?
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Amity MBA online solve assignment for Numerical & Statistical Computations

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Amity MBA online solve assignment for Numerical & Statistical Computations

1.Find the negative root of the equation x3 – 21x + 3500 = 0 correct to two decimal places by Newton Raphson Method.
2.Solve the following set of linear equations by Gauss Seidal method 1.2x + 2.1y + 4.2z = 9.9 5.3x + 6.1y + 4.7z = 21.6 9.2x + 8.3y + z = 15.2
3.Define Interpolation with the help of suitable example.
4.Derive the relation between divided differences and ordinary differences.
5.Integrate the function x³ + 2x +1 with respect to x from 0 to 1 by using Trapezoidal. Divide the interval into eight equal intervals
6.. Fit a straight line trend by the method of least square to the following data. Year 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 Production 240 255 225 260 280 Estimate the likely product for the year 2000.
7. Solve the following differential equation by using RungaKutta fourth order method to find out y(1). y’ = x2 – y2 Given that y(0) = 1, h =0.5 Findf’ (3) and f” (3) from the following table using Newton’s forward formula. x 3 3.2 3.4 3.6 3.8 4.0 y -14 -10.032 -5.296 0.256 6.672 14 8
8..Discuss the three available methods (Bi-Section, Regula Falsi and Newton Raphson Method) and explain the merits and demerits of each method.
Assignment B
1. Compare and contrast Trapezoidal, Simpson’s 1/3 and Simpson’s 3/8 rule of integration.
2.Find the value of f(x) at 3.1 and 3.9 for the following data by using the appropriate formula. x 3 3.2 3.4 3.6 3.8 4.0 y -14 -10.032 -5.296 0.256 6.672 14
3.Define Interpolation. Prove that E-?=1, where E is the shift operator. (b)?4y0=y4-4y3+6y2-4y1+y0
Assignment C
1.Which one is a method for getting solution to non linear algebraic equation? Options RungaKutta Method Newton Raphson Method Jacobi Method Divided Difference Formula
2.y=mx+c is the equation of a– Options Polygon Circle Line None
3.Which one of the following is not a method for finding the root of an algebraic equation? Options Newton Raphson Method Bi-Section Method Gregory’s Method Regula Falsi Method
4.The formula for Newton Raphson method is Options
5.For x3 – 5x +3 =0, the root lies in between Options [0, 1] [4, 5] [3, 4] [0, -1]
6.The value of Δ f(x) is Options f(x1) + f(x0) f(x1) – f(x0) f(x1) None of these
7.Which one is not a method for numerical integration Options Trapezoidal Rule Gauss Method Simpson’s 1/3 Rule Simpson’s 3/8 Rule
8.The Formula for Bi-section method is Options (x1+x2)/2 (x1-x2)/2 (x1x2)/2 None of these
9.The value of f(x) is Options y3-3y2+3y1-y0 y3+3y2+3y1+y0 y0-3y1+3y2-y3 None of these
10.In forward difference formula ‘h’ is Options The difference between two consecutive y. The difference between two consecutive x The difference between first and last x values The difference between first and last y values
11.In line fitting method, the general equation of a line is Options y = a + bx y2 = a + bx y = a + bx2 None of these
12.For Trapezoidal rule the Generalized Quadrature formula uses Options n=1 n=2 n=3 None of these
13.Gauss elimination method is used to solve the set of linear algebraic equations Options True False
14.For f(a) and f(b)are of same sign then equation f(x)=0 has at least one root with in [a,b]. Options True False
15.C (n, r) or nCr. = n! / (n+r)! r! Options True False
16.In Gauss Elimination method, coefficient matrix A is reduced to upper triangle matrix by using the elementary row operations Options True False
17.Modified Euler is a modified version of Euler Method. Options True False
18.Gauss Elimination method reduces the system of equations to an equivalent upper triangular matrix. Options True False
19.Regula Falsi Method converges fastest among Bi-section, Regula Falsi and Newton Raphson Method. Options True False
20.The number of distinguishable words that can be formed from the letters of MISSISSIPPI is 34650. Options True False
21.The set of linear algebraic equations can be arranged in matrix for AX=B, where A is the coefficient matrix, X is the variable matrix. Options True False
22.Numerical methods give always-exact solutions to the problems Options True False
23.Simpson’s method is used to interpolate the value of the function at some given point. Options True False
24.The set of equation 3x+2y = 0 and 2x+7y = 9 can be solved by using Bi-Section method. Options True False
25.In solving simultaneous equation by Gauss- Jordan method , the coefficient matrix is reduced to ————- matrix Options Null Unit Skew Diagonal
26.The order of convergence in Newton Raphson method is Options 2 3 0 None of these
27.Which of the following is a step by step method Options Taylor`s Adams-Bashforth Picard`s Euler`s
28.In the case of Bisection method , the convergence is Options LINEAR Quadratic Very slow None
29.Solutions of simultaneous non- linear equations can be obtained using Options Method of iteration Newton-Raphson method Bisection method None
30.Bessel`s formula is most appropriate when p lies between Options -0.25 and 0.25 25 and 0.75 75 and 1 None of the above
31.The order of the matrix [473] is. Options 3*1 1*3 3*3 1*1
32.If B is square matrix and BT = – B, then B is called Options Symmetric Skew symmetric Singular Non Singular
33.Find the coefficient of x³ in the Taylor series about x = 0 for f(x) =sin2x ? Options -2/3 -4/3 4/3 2/3
34.The bisection method of finding roots of nonlinear equations falls under the category of a (an) —————- method. Options Open Bracketing Random Graphical
35.A unique polynomial of degree —————–passes through n+1 data points. Options n+1 n n or less n+1 or less
36.Interpolation is the technique to find the value of dependent variable for the given value of independent variable Options True False
37.By increasing the iterations of any Numerical methods, we increase the correctness of the solution. Options True False
38.Lagrange’s Interpolation method can be used only for equal interval problems. Options True 2.False
39.Trapezoidal Integration Method is derived by putting Options n =0 n=1 n=2 n=4
40.If f(x) is a real continuous function in [a,b], and f(a)f(b)<0, then for f(x),there is (are).............in the domain [a,b]. Options One root An undeterminable number of roots No root 4.At least on root We Also Provide SYNOPSIS AND PROJECT. Contact www.kimsharma.co.in for best and lowest cost solution or Email: solvedstudymaterial@gmail.com Call: +91 82907-72200 (Call/WhatsApp) or +91 88003-52777 (WhatsApp Only)