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Data Structure using C (CSIT124)-Semester II

February 7, 2022February 7, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Data Structure using C (CSIT124)-Semester II

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1st Module Assessment

Which of these best describes an array?

Select one:

a. A data structure that shows a hierarchical behavior

b. Container of objects of similar types

c. Arrays are immutable once initialised

d. Array is not a data structure

Question 1. Which of the following operations is not O(1) for an array of sorted data. You may assume that array elements are distinct.

Select one:

a. Find the ith largest element

b. Delete an element

c. Find the ith smallest element

d. All of the above

Clear my choice

Question 2. Which of the following highly uses the concept of an array?

Select one:

a. Binary Search tree

b. Caching

c. Spatial locality

d. Scheduling of Processes

Clear my choice

Question 3. Two-dimensional arrays are also called

Select one:

a. tables arrays

b. matrix arrays

c. both of above

d. none of the above

Clear my choice

Question 4. Elements in an array are accessed _____________

Select one:

a. randomly

b. sequentially

c. exponentially

d. logarithmically

Clear my choice

Question 5. The memory address of the first element of an array is called

Select one:

a. floor address

b. foundation address

c. first address

d. base address

Clear my choice

Question 6. Assuming int is of 4bytes, what is the size of int arr[15];?

Select one:

a. 15

b. 19

c. 11

d. 60

Clear my choice

Question 7. What are the advantages of arrays?

Select one:

a. Objects of mixed data types can be stored

b. Elements in an array cannot be sorted

c. Index of first element of an array is 1

d. Easier to store elements of same data type

Clear my choice

Question 8. When does the ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException occur?

Select one:

a. Compile-time

b. Run-time

c. Not an error

d. Not an exception at all

Clear my choice

Question 9. In general, the index of the first element in an array is __________

Select one:

a. 0

b. -1

c. 2

d. 1

Clear my choice

Question 10. How do you initialize an array in C?

Select one:

a. int arr[3] = (1,2,3);

b. int arr(3) = {1,2,3};

c. int arr[3] = {1,2,3};

d. 1. int arr(3) = (1,2,3);

Clear my choice

What is the maximun number of dimensions an array in C may have?

Select one:

a. Two

b. eight

c. sixteen

d. Theoratically no limit. The only practical limits are memory size and compilers

Question 11. Which of the following is an illegal array definition?

Select one:

a. Type COLONGE : (LIME, PINE, MUSK, MENTHOL); var a : array [COLONGE] of REAL;

b. var a : array [REAL] of REAL;

c. var a : array [‘A’…’Z’] of REAL;

d. var a : array [BOOLEAN] of REAL;

Clear my choice

Question 12. What is the output of the below code?

#include <stdio.h>

int main()

{

int arr[5]={10,20,30,40,50};

printf(“%d”, arr[5]);

}

return 0;

}

Select one:

a. Garbage value

b. 10

c. 50

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 13. A program P reads in 500 integers in the range [0..100] exepresenting the scores of 500 students. It then prints the frequency of each score above 50. What would be the best way for P to store the frequencies?

Select one:

a. An array of 50 numbers

b. An array of 100 numbers

c. An array of 500 numbers

d. A dynamically allocated array of 550 numbers

Clear my choice

Question 14. Consider an array A[20, 10], assume 4 words per memory cell and the base address of array A is 100. What is the address of A[11, 5] ? Assume row major storage.

Select one:

a. 560

b. 565

c. 570

d. 575

Clear my choice

Question 15. What is the output of the following piece of code?

public class array

{

public static void main(String args[])

{

int []arr = {1,2,3,4,5};

System.out.println(arr[2]);

System.out.println(arr[4]);

}

Select one:

a. 3 and 5

b. 5 and 3

c. 2 and 4

d. 4 and 2

Clear my choice

Question 16. Let A be a square matrix of size n x n. Consider the following program. What is the expected output?

C = 100

for i = 1 to n do

for j = 1 to n do

{

Temp = A[i][j] + C

A[i][j] = A[j][i]

A[j][i] = Temp – C

}

for i = 1 to n do

for j = 1 to n do

Output(A[i][j]);

Select one:

a. The matrix A itself

b. Transpose of matrix A

c. Adding 100 to the upper diagonal elements & subtracting 100 from diagonal elements of A

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 17. What will be the address of the arr[2][3] if arr is a 2-D long array of 4 rows and 5 columns and starting address of the array is 2000?

Select one:

a. 2048

b. 2056

c. 2052

d. 2042

2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. Which of the following principle does Queue use?

Select one:

a. LIFO principle

b. FIFO principle

c. Linear tree

d. Ordered array

Clear my choice

Question 2. Which data structure is mainly used for implementing the recursive algorithm?

Select one:

a. Queue

b. Stack

c. Binary tree

d. Linked list

Clear my choice

Question 3. If the size of the stack is 10 and we try to add the 11th element in the stack then the condition is known as___

Select one:

a. Underflow

b. Garbage collection

c. Overflow

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 4. Which one of the following is the process of inserting an element in the stack?

Select one:

a. Insert

b. Add

c. Push

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 5. Which one of the following is not the application of the Queue data structure?

Select one:

a. Resource shared between various systems

b. Data is transferred asynchronously

c. Load balancing

d. Balancing of symbols

Clear my choice

Question 6. When the user tries to delete the element from the empty stack then the condition is said to be a ____

Select one:

a. Underflow

b. Garbage collection

c. Overflow

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 7. Which of the following is the infix expression?

Select one:

a. A+B*C

b. +A*BC

c. ABC+*

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 8. A list of elements in which enqueue operation takes place from one end, and dequeue operation takes place from one end is__

Select one:

a. Binary tree

b. Stack

c. Queue

d. Linked list

Clear my choice

Question 9. Which one of the following is not the application of the stack data structure

Select one:

a. String reversal

b. Recursion

c. Backtracking

d. Asynchronous data transfer

Clear my choice

Question 10. Which one of the following is not the type of the Queue?

Select one:

a. Linear Queue

b. Circular Queue

c. Double ended Queue

d. Single ended Queue

Clear my choice

Question 11. The time complexity of enqueue operation in Queue is __

Select one:

a. O(1)

b. O(n)

c. O(logn)

d. O(nlogn)

Clear my choice

Question 12. Which one of the following is the overflow condition if linear queue is implemented using an array with a size MAX_SIZE?

Select one:

a. rear = front

b. rear = front+1

c. rear=MAX_SIZE -1

d. rear = MAX_SIZE

Clear my choice

Question 13. If the elements ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’ are inserted in a queue, what would be order for the removal?

Select one:

a. 1234

b. 4321

c. 3241

d. None of the above

Clear my choice

Question 14. What is the outcome of the prefix expression +, -, *, 3, 2, /, 8, 4, 1?

Select one:

a. 12

b. 11

c. 5

d. 4

Clear my choice

Question 15. Which of the following option is true if implementation of Queue is from the linked list?

Select one:

a. In enqueue operation, new nodes are inserted from the beginning and in dequeue operation, nodes are removed from the end.

b. In enqueue operation, new nodes are inserted from the end and in dequeue operation, nodes are deleted from the beginning.

c. In enqueue operation, new nodes are inserted from the end and in dequeue operation, nodes are deleted from the end.

d. Both a and b

Clear my choice

Question 16. Consider the following code.

int fun()

{

if(isEmpty())

{

return -10;

}

else

{

int n;

n= q[front];

front++;

return n;

}

Which operation does the above code perform?

Select one:

a. Enqueue

b. Dequeue

c. Return the front element

d. Both b and c

Clear my choice

Question 17. What would be the output after performing the following operations in a Deque?

Insertfront(10);

Insertfront(20);

Insertrear(30);

Insertrear(40);

Deletefront();

Insertfront(50);

Deleterear();

Display();

Select one:

a. 10, 20, 30

b. 50, 10, 30

c. 40, 20, 30

d. None of the above

3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. What is the space complexity for deleting a linked list?

Select one:

a. O(1)

b. O(n)

c. Either O(1) or O(n)

d. O(logn)

Clear my choice

Question 2. In circular linked list, insertion of node requires modification of?

Select one:

a. One pointer

b. Two pointer

c. Three pointer

d. None

Clear my choice

Question 3. In a circular linked list

Select one:

a. Components are all linked together in some sequential manner.

b. There is no beginning and no end.

c. Components are arranged hierarchically.

d. Forward and backward traversal within the list is permitted.

Clear my choice

Question 4. In linked list each node contain minimum of two fields. One field is data field to store the data second field is?

Select one:

a. Pointer to character

b. Pointer to integer

c. Pointer to node

d. Node

Clear my choice

Question 5. What is the time complexity to count the number of elements in the linked list?

Select one:

a. O(1)

b. O(n)

c. O(logn)

d. O(n2)

Clear my choice

Question 6. Which of these is not an application of a linked list?

Select one:

a. To implement file systems

b. For separate chaining in hash-tables

c. To implement non-binary trees

d. Random Access of elements

Clear my choice

Question 7. Doubly linked list is also called as

Select one:

a. list

b. two-way linked list

c. skip list

d. none

Clear my choice

Question 8. Which of the following operations is performed more efficiently by doubly linked list than by singly linked list?

Select one:

a. Deleting a node whose location in given

b. Searching of an unsorted list for a given item

c. Inverting a node after the node with given location

d. Traversing a list to process each node

Clear my choice

Question 9. In doubly linked lists, traversal can be performed?

Select one:

a. Only in forward direction

b. Only in reverse direction

c. In both directions

d. None

Clear my choice

Question 10. A linear collection of data elements where the linear node is given by means of pointer is called?

Select one:

a. Linked list

b. Node list

c. Primitive list

d. None

Clear my choice

Question 11. public void function(Node node)

{

if(size == 0)

head = node;

else

{

Node temp,cur;

for(cur = head; (temp = cur.getNext())!=null; cur = temp);

cur.setNext(node);

}

size++;

}

Select one:

a. Inserting a node at the beginning of the list

b. Deleting a node at the beginning of the list

c. Inserting a node at the end of the list

d. Deleting a node at the end of the list

Clear my choice

Question 12. Consider an implementation of unsorted singly linked list. Suppose it has its representation with a head pointer only. Given the representation, which of the following operation can be implemented in O(1) time?

i) Insertion at the front of the linked list

ii) Insertion at the end of the linked list

iii) Deletion of the front node of the linked list

iv) Deletion of the last node of the linked list

Select one:

a. I and II

b. I and III

c. I,II and III

d. I,II and IV

Clear my choice

Question 13. Consider the following definition in c programming language

struct node

{

int data;

struct node * next;

}

typedef struct node NODE;

NODE *ptr;

Which of the following c code is used to create new node?

Select one:

a. ptr=(NODE*)malloc(sizeof(NODE));

b. ptr=(NODE*)malloc(NODE);

c. ptr=(NODE*)malloc(sizeof(NODE*));

d. ptr=(NODE)malloc(sizeof(NODE));

Clear my choice

Question 14. In worst case, the number of comparison need to search a singly linked list of length n for a given element is

Select one:

a. log n

b. n/2

c. log2n-1

d. n

Clear my choice

Question 15. public int function(int data)

{

Node temp = head;

int var = 0;

while(temp != null)

{

if(temp.getData() == data)

{

return var;

}

var = var+1;

temp = temp.getNext();

}

return Integer.MIN_VALUE;

}

Select one:

a. Find and delete a given element in the list

b. Find and return the given element in the list

c. Find and return the position of the given element in the list

d. Find and insert a new element in the list

Clear my choice

Question 16. The following C function takes a singly linked list as input argument. It modifies the list by moving the last element to the front of the list and returns the modified list. Some part of the code left blank.

typedef struct node

{

int value;

struct node* next;

}Node;

Node* move_to_front(Node* head)

{

Node* p, *q;

if((head==NULL) || (head->next==NULL))

return head;

q=NULL;

p=head;

while(p->next != NULL)

{

q=p;

p=p->next;

}

return head;

}

Choose the correct alternative to replace the blank line

Select one:

a. q=NULL; p->next=head; head =p ;

b. q->next=NULL; head =p; p->next = head;

c. head=p; p->next=q; q->next=NULL;

d. q->next=NULL; p->next=head; head=p;

Clear my choice

Question 17. consider the function f defined here:

struct item

{

int data;

struct item * next;};

int f (struct item *p)

{

return((p==NULL) ||((p->next==NULL)||(p->data<=p->next->data) && (p->next)));

}

For a given linked list p, the function f returns 1 if and only if

Select one:

a. the list is empty or has exactly one element

b. the element in the list are sorted in non-decreasing order of data value

c. the element in the list are sorted in non-increasing order of data value

d. not all element in the list have the same data value

4th Module Assessment

Question 1. While converting binary tree into extended binary tree, all the original nodes in binary tree are …….

Select one:

a. Internal nodes on extended tree

b. External nodes on extended tree

c. Vanished on extended tree

d. Intermediate nodes on extended tree

Clear my choice

Question 2. If every node u in G adjacent to every other node v in G, A graph is said to be

Select one:

a. isolated

b. complete

c. finite

d. strongly connected

Clear my choice

Question 3. If every node u in G is adjacent to every other node v in G,A graph is said to be ……..

Select one:

a. isolated

b. complete

c. finite

d. strongly connected.

Clear my choice

Question 4. A connected graph T without any cycles is called

Select one:

a. a tree graph

b. free tree

c. a tree

d. All of above

Clear my choice

Question 5. A graph is said to be ……. if every node u in G is adjacent to every other node v in G

Select one:

a. Absolute

b. Entire

c. Inclusive

d. Complete

Clear my choice

Question 6. In a graph if e=[u,v], then u and v are called

Select one:

a. endpoints of e

b. adjacent nodes

c. neighbours

d. all of the above

Clear my choice

Question 7. Three standards ways of traversing a binary tree T with root R …….

Select one:

a. Prefix, infix, postfix

b. Pre-process, in-process, post-process

c. Pre-traversal, in-traversal, post-traversal

d. Pre-order, in-order, post-order

Clear my choice

Question 8. The post order traversal of a binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre order Traversal.

Select one:

a. ABFCDE

b. ADBFEC

c. ABDECF

d. ABDCEF

Clear my choice

Question 9. A binary tree whose every node has either zero or two children is called ………

Select one:

a. Complete binary tree

b. Binary Search tree

c. Extended binary tree

d. E2 tree

Clear my choice

Question 10. The post order traversal of binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal.

Select one:

a. ABFCDE

b. ADBFEC

c. ABDECF

d. ABDCEF

In a graph if e=(u,v) means …….

Select one:

a. u is adjacent to v but v is not adjacent to u.

b. e begins at u and ends at v

c. u is node and v is an edge.

d. both u and v are edges.

Clear my choice

Question 11. In linked representation of Binary trees LEFT[k] contains the …….. of at the node N, where k is the location.

Select one:

a. Data

b. Location and left child

c. Right child address

d. Null value

Clear my choice

Question 12. In-order traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the pre-order traversal would return.

Select one:

a. FAEKCDBHG

b. FAEKCDHGB

c. EAFKHDCBG

d. FEAKDCHBG

Clear my choice

Question 13.

What is the average case time complexity for finding the height of the binary tree?

Select one:

a. h = O(loglogn)

b. h = O(nlogn)

c. h = O(n)

d. h = O(log n)

Clear my choice

Question 14. What is a complete binary tree?

Select one:

a. Each node has exactly zero or two children

b. A binary tree, which is completely filled, with the possible exception of the bottom level, which is filled from right to left

c. A binary tree, which is completely filled, with the possible exception of the bottom level, which is filled from left to right

d. A tree In which all nodes have degree 2

In a full binary tree if number of internal nodes is I, then number of nodes N are?

Select one:

a. N = 2*I

b. N = I + 1

c. N = I – 1

d. N = 2*I + 1

Clear my choice

Question 15. In the given graph identify the cut vertices.

Select one:

a. B and E

b. C and D

c. A and E

d. C and B

Clear my choice

Question 16. For which of the following combinations of the degrees of vertices would the connected graph be eulerian?

Select one:

a. 1,2,3

b. 2,3,4

c. 2,4,5

d. 1,3,5

Clear my choice

Question 17. In a complete k-ary tree, every internal node has exactly k children or no child. The number of leaves in such a tree with n internal nodes is:

Select one:

a. nk

b. (n – 1) k+ 1

c. n( k – 1) + 1

d. n(k – 1)

5th Module Assessment

Question 1. The worst-case occur in linear search algorithm when …….

Select one:

a. Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

b. Item is not in the array at all

c. Item is the last element in the array

d. Item is the last element in the array or item is not there at all

Clear my choice

Question 2. Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm?

Select one:

a. must use a sorted array

b. requirement of sorted array is expensive when a lot of insertion and deletions are needed

c. there must be a mechanism to access middle element directly

d. binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data elements more than 1500.

Clear my choice

Question 3. The Average case occurs in the linear search algorithm ……….

Select one:

a. when the item is somewhere in the middle of the array

b. when the item is not the array at all

c. when the item is the last element in the array

d. Item is the last element in the array or item is not there at all

Clear my choice

Question 4. Is putting an element in the appropriate place in a sorted list yields a larger sorted order list.

Select one:

a. Insertion

b. Extraction

c. Selection

d. Distribution

Clear my choice

Question 5. If the number of records to be sorted is small, then …… sorting can be efficient.

Select one:

a. Merge

b. Heap

c. Selection

d. Bubble

Clear my choice

Question 6. Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide and conquer type?

Select one:

a. Bubble sort

b. Insertion sort

c. Merge sort

d. Selection sort

Clear my choice

Question 7. Complexity of linear search algorithm is ………

Select one:

a. O(n)

b. O(logn)

c. O(n2)

d. O(n logn)

Clear my choice

Question 8. Binary search algorithm cannot be applied to …

Select one:

a. sorted linked list

b. sorted binary trees

c. sorted linear array

d. pointer array

Clear my choice

Question 9. Consider the situation in which assignment operation is very costly. Which of the following sorting algorithm should be performed so that the number of assignment operations is minimized in general?

Select one:

a. Insertion sort

b. Selection sort

c. Heap sort

d. None

Clear my choice

Question 10. Which of the following is not a stable sorting algorithm?

Select one:

a. Insertion sort

b. Selection sort

c. Bubble sort

d. Merge sort

Clear my choice

Question 11. Suppose we have a O(n) time algorithm that finds median of an unsorted array. Now consider a QuickSort implementation where we first find median using the abovealgorithm, then use median as pivot. What will be the worst case time complexity of this modified QuickSort.

Select one:

a. O(n^2 Logn)

b. O(n^2)

c. O(n Logn Logn)

d. O(nLogn)

Clear my choice

Question 12. The total number of comparisons in a bubble sort is ….

Select one:

a. O(n logn)

b. O(2n)

c. O(n2)

d. O(n)

Clear my choice

Question 13. If the number of record to be sorted large and the key is long, then …… sorting can be efficient.

Select one:

a. Merge

b. Heap

c. Quick

d. Bubble

Clear my choice

Question 14. The given array is arr = {1,2,4,3}. Bubble sort is used to sort the array elements. How many iterations will be done to sort the array?

Select one:

a. 4

b. 2

c. 1

d. 0

Clear my choice

Question 15. Select the appropriate code that performs bubble sort.

Select one:

a. for(int j=arr.length-1; j>=0; j–)

{

for(int k=0; k<j; k++)

{

if(arr[k] > arr[k+1])

{

int temp = arr[k];

arr[k] = arr[k+1];

arr[k+1] = temp;

}

b. for(int j=arr.length-1; j>=0; j–)

{

for(int k=0; k<j; k++)

{

if(arr[k] < arr[k+1])

{

int temp = arr[k];

arr[k] = arr[k+1];

arr[k+1] = temp;

}

c. for(int j=arr.length; j>=0; j–)

{

for(int k=0; k<j; k++)

{

if(arr[k] > arr[k+1])

{

int temp = arr[k];

arr[k] = arr[k+1];

arr[k+1] = temp;

}

d. for(int j=arr.length; j>=0; j–)

{

for(int k=0; k<j; k++)

{

if(arr[k] > arr[k+2])

{

int temp = arr[k];

arr[k] = arr[k+1];

arr[k+1] = temp;

}

Clear my choice

Question 16. How can you improve the best case efficiency in bubble sort? (The input is already sorted)

Select one:

a. boolean swapped = false;

for(int j=arr.length-1; j>=0 && swapped; j–)

{

swapped = true;

for(int k=0; k<j; k++)

{

if(arr[k] > arr[k+1])

{

int temp = arr[k];

arr[k] = arr[k+1];

arr[k+1] = temp;

swapped = false;

}

b. boolean swapped = true;

for(int j=arr.length-1; j>=0 && swapped; j–)

{

swapped = false;

for(int k=0; k<j; k++)

{

if(arr[k] > arr[k+1])

{

int temp = arr[k];

arr[k] = arr[k+1];

arr[k+1] = temp;

}

c. boolean swapped = true;

for(int j=arr.length-1; j>=0 && swapped; j–)

{

swapped = false;

for(int k=0; k<j; k++)

{

if(arr[k] > arr[k+1])

{

int temp = arr[k];

arr[k] = arr[k+1];

arr[k+1] = temp;

swapped = true;

}

d. boolean swapped = true;

for(int j=arr.length-1; j>=0 && swapped; j–)

{

for(int k=0; k<j; k++)

{

if(arr[k] > arr[k+1])

{

int temp = arr[k];

arr[k] = arr[k+1];

arr[k+1] = temp;

swapped = true;

}

Clear my choice

Question 17. Suppose we are sorting an array of eight integers using quicksort, and we have just finished the first partitioning with the array looking like this:

2 5 1 7 9 12 11 10

Which statement is correct?

Select one:

a. The pivot could be either the 7 or the 9.

b. The pivot could be the 7, but it is not the 9

c. The pivot is not the 7, but it could be the 9

d. Neither the 7 nor the 9 is the pivot.

Assignment 2

Question 1. To implement Forward and Backward functionality in the Internet Browser, which data structure would be the appropriate to choose

Select one:

a. Array

b. Stack

c. Queue

d. Linked Lists

Clear my choice

Question 2. How many stacks are needed to implement a queue. Consider the situation where no other data structure like arrays, linked list is available to you.

Select one:

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

Clear my choice

Question 3. Which of these is an application of linked lists?

Select one:

a. To implement file systems

b. For separate chaining in hash-tables

c. To implement non-binary trees

d. All of the mentioned

Clear my choice

Question 4. As part of the maintenance work, you are entrusted with the work of rearranging the library books in a shelf in proper order,at the end of each day. The ideal choice will be .

Select one:

a. Bubble Sort

b. Insertion Sort

c. SelectionSort

d. Merge Sort

Clear my choice

Question 5. In a binary tree, certain null entries are replaced by special pointers which point to nodes higher in the tree for efficiency. These special pointers are called .

Select one:

a. Leaf

b. Branch

c. Path

d. Thread

Business Environment (OOBB 203)-Semester II

February 1, 2022February 1, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Business Environment (OOBB 203)-Semester II.docx2

Module 1

We all live in some kind of environment. Usually, it includes our family, friends, neighbors, and colleagues, as well as buildings, roads, etc. We need to communicate and cooperate with others. And just like people, businesses don’t exist in isolation, but rather in various types of business environments. Companies that remain passive in their relationships with other firms and the rest of the world risk losing their position and ending up in the last place. To be successful, a company needs to recognize multiple elements of a business environment and to adapt its strategies accordingly. A business environment is a conglomeration of various inner and outer forces, factors, and institutions that have an effect on the functioning and development of companies and firms. Among those factors, you can find the consumers, competitors, suppliers, the government, etc. Some of these have a direct influence on the company’s operations, while others have more of a butterfly effect. The internal environment factors refer to anything within the company and under the control of the company no matter they are tangible or intangible. These factors after being figured out are grouped into the strengths and weaknesses of the company. If one element brings positive effects to the company, it is considered as strength. On the other hand, if a factor prevents the development of the company, it is a weakness. Within the company, there are numerous criteria need to be taken into consideration.

Human resources: It can be said that the human element is among the most important factors that internally exert impacts on the growth of the company. The employees can be either a strength or weakness of the company depending on the level of practical skills, attitudes toward work and so on. For example, if a business has skillful and motivated workers, they are sure to be the biggest asset of this enterprise. Conversely, employees without carefully trained and have negative attitudes to their task will be an enormous challenge for the company to address. Capital resources: Of course, money is a vital part of any enterprise to perform its plan. No company can survive without having capital resources. Once a company has enough budgets, they can easily launch their projects and expand its scale. There are also several ways for an enterprise to maintain stable budgets by some resources such as investment opportunities, funding, and annual income. Operational efficiency: The way an enterprise operates directly affects their success in the marketplace. The operation of a company includes a bundle of contributing factors such as products, employees, customers. The business owners need to fully understand how their products manufactured, how it is consumed and favorable by consumers, how their employees perform their tasks, what improvements need to be made, etc. Only when the operator truly knows the level of efficiency the company is, can he thinks about appropriate adjustment methods to handle all current problems. Organizational structure: To have a suitable organizational structure requires the owners have to consider carefully set up a system to work smoothly within the company. Whether it is a centralized or decentralized system, the most important thing is how effective the structure is when applied for the company. The heads of departments need to make sure that the information flow is widely conveyed to all customers. Suitable rules and regulations are being applied to ensure the benefits of employees, and the business as well. Infrastructure: When you already have well-trained and motivated workers, an effective operational and organizational system, make sure that the infrastructure of the company is good enough for all your functions. With the modern and high-quality facilities, stable power, internet, and wifi connection, and so on your company is likely to perform better. In other words, the better your infrastructure, the more opportunities for your company to perform successfully.

Innovation: With the fast pace of the fourth industrial revolution, the world is on the ways to strongly change the life of people including how they work, they communicate with each other. Therefore, each company also needs to innovate themselves firstly to keep up with the development of the whole world and secondly to make themselves outstanding among competitors. Innovations can be taken in the manufacturing process, organizational structure, or even infrastructure. On the contrary to internal factors, external elements are affecting factors outside and under no control of the company. Considering the outside environment allows businessmen to take suitable adjustments to their marketing plan to make it more adaptable to the external environment. There are numerous criteria considered as external elements. Among them, some most outstanding and important factors that need to list are the current economic situation, laws, surrounding infrastructure, and customer demands.

Economic situation: Economy is one of the most determining factors for the success of the company even though it is an external element. Within the economy, some contributing factors such as the fluctuation of interest rate, economic crisis, and so on directly and strongly affects the consumption of buyers, and consequently, the profits of businesses. Laws: The rules and regulations from the local government play an integral role in the development of the company. There are some countries which their laws prevent the development of certain industries. That can be a threat to the company. On the other hand, some industries receive positive and continuous support from the local governments via their rules and regulations. Besides, if the laws allow organizations outside the countries to invest in local industries, they will indirectly create an enormous source of financial support for local businesses. Surrounding: Depending only on inside infrastructure is not enough for the company to develop. If they have a well-structured and modern infrastructure, but the road to access the company is not well created will be deterrence for the business. They will find trouble in the delivery method and looking for a collaborator. Especially, if your company manufactures hi-tech devices; however, the outside infrastructure is not suitable to equip these devices, it would be a big challenge. Customer demands: We all know that what people want, what people need, and what they demand are usually different from each other. Customers need something to communicate with their family member outside their countries, they want to a smart phone which can perform multi-function; however, they cannot afford that smart phone with a limited budget. Therefore, their demand is just a typical phone which can perform basic functions. If your company is not able to figure out what are your customer demands, you will face difficulty in how to make your products consumed by customers. In conclusion, there is a bunch of contributing factors to the success of the company which comes from both outside and inside a business. Either outside or inside factors are of utmost importance for the development of the company. If a business hopes to perform smoothly and successfully, they need to take all these elements into consideration before making any decision.

Question -1 In external environmental scanning, interest rates, the cycle of recessions and inflation are classified

Select one:

a. geographic influences

b. government influences

c. economic influences

d. technological advancement

Question 2

In external environmental scanning, tax legislations, social security legislations and tax provisions are classified as

Select one:

a. geographic influences

b. government influences

c. economic influences

d. technological advancement

Question 3

Primary produces such as wheat farmers, construct dams in an attempt to influence their businesses

Select one:

a. internal Environment

b. external Environment

c. Micro Environment

d. Macro Environment

Question 4

Procedure of analyzing threats and opportunities of organization’s environment is classified as

Select one:

a. environmental influences

b. environmental economics

c. environmental planning

d. environmental scanning

Question 5

The influences in a society and/or its culture/s that affect people’s attitudes, beliefs, behaviours, preferences, customers and lifestyles are known as

Select one:

a. Demographic forcces

b. Technological forces

c. Sociocultural forces

d. Legal forces

Question 6

When using the PESTL framework, marketers are investingating___

Select one:

a. Internal forces

b. Macro-environmental forces

c. Micro-environmental forces

d. Competitive forces

Question 7

Which of the following is not a part of an organisation’s external environment?

Select one:

a. Customers

b. Competitors

c. The micro-environment

d. All of the options listed are a part of an organisation’s external environment

Question 8

Which of the following is part of an organisation’s marketing environment?

Select one:

a. The organisation’s micro-environment

b. The organisation’s macro-environment

c. Any internal or external force that affects the organisation’s ability to create, communicate, deliver and exchange offerings of value

d. All of the options listed are part of an organisation’s marketing environment

Question 9

Which of the following statements is correct?

Select one:

a. The internal environment includes those factors that are not controllable by the organisation

b. Weakenesses are internal factors that marketers seek to minimise

c. The internal environment includes factors that are controllable by the organisation

d. Both b and c

Question 10

Which of the following would not be a part of an organisation’s micro-environment?

Select one:

a. Competitors

b. Partners such as suppliers and retailers

c. Customers

d. The economy

Business Environment (OOBB 203)-Semester II.docx2 (1)

Module 2

A mixed economy is a market system of resource allocation, commerce, and trade in which free markets coexist with government intervention. A mixed economy may emerge when a government intervenes to disrupt free markets by introducing state-owned enterprises (such as public health or education systems), regulations, subsidies, tariffs, and tax policies. Alternatively, a mixed economy can emerge when a socialist government makes exceptions to the rule of state ownership to capture economic benefits from private ownership and free-market incentives. A combination of free-market principles of private contracting and socialist principles of state ownership or planning is common to all mixed economies. In developed Western economies, the historical development of the mixed economy is the evolutionary change of the free market concept as it adapted to avoid the risks of widespread social unrest and potential revolutionary socialist or Marxist change. Social democratic programs that arose in continental Europe in the 20th century created coalitions of business interests with major social groups to improve social welfare without jettisoning private property and the market economy. This mixed economic approach included economic planning, high tariffs, guarantees of group rights, and social welfare programs.

Mixed economies also arose in many countries that formerly had centrally planned and socialist economies. The mixed economies in modern China and Russia, for example, evolved from communist systems that were too inefficient to compete in the modern global economy. The social experience of the Chinese and Russian people during that process was a profound testament to the personal difficulties and turmoil that people endure when a country makes a transition to a mixed economy.

Question 1: A situation that occurs when two or more businesses try to sell the same type of product to the same customers is referred to as

Select one:

a. Competition

b. Factors of production

c. Consumer goods

d. Free enterprise

Question 2

An economic system in which business are allowed to produce any goods and services they wish to is referred to as …

Select one:

a. A centrally planned economy

b. Free enterprise

c. A mixed economy

d. A private economy

Question 3

An economic system in which private property is almost totally restricted is called …

Select one:

a. A mixed economy

b. Competition

c. Free enterprise

d. A centrally planned economy

Question 4

An economic system that has Government restrictions on the actions of individuals and businesses is called

Select one:

a. A mixed economy

b. A centrally planned economy

c. Free enterprise

d. Factors of production

Clear my choice

Question 5

Out of the given options , the Three basic types of economic systems are …

Select one:

a. Natural resources, labour, capital

b. What to produce, how to produce, who will receive the goods and services

c. Free enterprise, centrally planned economy, mixed economy

d. Government, business, consumers

Question 6

The term that indicates ownership, either by individuals or by a business, is …

Select one:

a. Centrally planned economy

b. Competition

c. Free enterprise

d. Private property

Question 7

Things that are needed to produce goods and services are called__

Select one:

a. Efficient use of resources

b. Factors of production

c. Economic systems

d. Private property

Question 8

What are the limitations of a Mixed economy?

Select one:

a. High taxation and less incentive to work hard

b. All profit goes to the government

c. Restrictions on personal freedoms

d. Uneven distribution of resources, consumer difficulty in obtaining information, and health-risk products

Question 9

What is the basic question(s) all economic systems try to answer?

Select one:

a. What to produce?

b. How to produce it?

c. For whom to produce?

d. All of the above

Question 10

What is the main goal of a Mixed Economy?

Select one:

a. To gain private property

b. To ensure fairness in business

c. To get rid of high taxation

d. To promote individual and social rights

Module 3

Unemployment is a term referring to individuals who are employable and seeking a job but are unable to find a job. Furthermore, it is those people in the workforce or pool of people who are available for work that does not have a job. Usually measured by the unemployment rate, which is dividing the number of unemployed people by the total number of people in the workforce, unemployment serves as one of the indicators of an economy’s status. The term “unemployment” can be tricky and often confusing, but it certainly includes people who are waiting to return to a job after being discharged from it. However, it does not anymore encompass individuals who have stopped looking for a job in the past four weeks due to various reasons such as leaving work to pursue higher education, retirement, disability, and personal issues. Even people who are not actively seeking a job anywhere but actually want to find one are not considered unemployed.

Interestingly, people who have not looked for a job in the past four weeks but have been actively seeking one in the last 12 months are put into a category called the “marginally attached to the labor force.” Within this category is another category called “discouraged workers,” which refers to people who have lost all their hope of finding a job.

The too many details and exclusions mentioned above make a lot of people believe that unemployment is vague and that the unemployment rate does not fully represent the actual number of people who are unemployed. So, it is a good idea to also look at the term “employment,” which the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) describes as individuals aged 16 and above who have recently put hours into work in the past week, paid or otherwise, because of self-employment. 1. Normal, Transitional Unemployment

According to economists this exists at all times at a rate of 2-3 percent and harms no one. For individuals or groups, it lasts for a few months when people move from job to job for better wages or wait for better opportunities.

2. Casual and Seasonal Unemployment

Some occupations are adversely affected by weather conditions and workers in these trades expect a certain amount of casual unemployment. Seasonal unemployment often occurs in agriculture, dockyard, hotels, restaurants and construction business. Such unemployment is inevitable and tends to be overcome by casual labor. 3. Frictional Unemployment

This type of unemployment exists because of friction in the labor market. Jobs may exist but people do not go to take up jobs away from home for domestic reasons such as children’s education, family and friendly ties and, the housing problem in a new place.

4. Structural Unemployment

It is caused by a change in the demand for the products of a given industry. The closing of the particular industry may cause structural changes in the nation’s industry as a whole. If labor is specific, it is immobile between industries and unemployment results. The pace of modern technology is so fast that it makes past techniques obsolete, causing unemployment in old industries.

5. Cyclical Unemployment

Both external and internal factors such as wars, strikes, population changes, political disturbances, floods, droughts, changes in consumption patterns, investment, savings, spending, the supply of credit, business outlook, etc. bring about this type of unemployment. This type of unemployment was a serious problem before the Second World War. Now it has been largely mastered by Government activity to control the development of cycles.

Marks – 10 /10

Question -1 Due to the introduction of new technology, workers may be replaced by machines leading to___

Select one:

a. Technological unemployment

b. Frictional unemployment

c. Seasonal unemployment

d. Disguised unemployed

Question 2

If people are made unemployed because of a fall in aggregate demand this is known as

Select one:

a. frictional unemployment

b. seasonal unemployment

c. Cyclical unemployment

d. Structural unemployment

Question 3

if there is Cyclical unemployment in the economy the government might

Select one:

a. increase interest rates

b. encourage savings

c. cut income tax

d. reduce government spending

Question 4

People who are unwilling to work at the existing wage rate are___

Select one:

a. Voluntary unemployed

b. Frictional unemployed

c. Casual unemployed

d. Seasonal unemployed

Question 5

Reducing involuntary unemployment

Select one:

a. helps the economy move on to the Production Possibility Frontier

b. helps shift the economy’s Production Possibility Frontier inwards

c. Helps the economy move along its Production possibility frontier

d. helps the economy move inside the production possibility frontier.

Question 6

Structural unemployment occurs when…

Select one:

a. workers’ skills no longer meet the needs of the job market

b. workers’ lose their job due to bad economies.

c. workers’ skills aren’t needed in this season of the year

d. All of the choices

Question 7

the natural rate of unemployment is likely to fall if

Select one:

a. unemployment benefits increase

b. income tax increases

c. more training is available for the unemployed

d. Geographically immobility increases

Question 8

unemployment which occurs when the workers move from one job to another job is known as __

Select one:

a. cyclical unemployment

. seasonal unemployment

c. technological unemployment

d. frictional unemployment

Question 9

unemplyment in a developing country generally takes place due to ___

Select one:

a. Natural disasters

b. Lack of Effective demand

c. Lack of Complementary factors of production

d. switch over from one job to another

Question 10

Which person is an example of someone who frictionally unemployed?

Select one:

a. A engineer who quit their last and start another in 2 months

b. Minnesota lifeguard in the winter

c. A welder who got laid-off due to the economy

d. A teacher in the summer

Module 4

Some aspects of CSR may be required by law. For example, banks and hospitals are legally required to protect people’s private information. Others are voluntary.

The benefits of CSR are many. Companies establish good reputations, attract positive attention, save money through operational efficiency, minimize environmental impacts, attract top talent and inspire innovation. Public companies often report on their CSR performance in their annual reports.

CSR matters for companies because if the community does not approve of how they do business, they may lose customers or see their reputations suffer. The news media and activist groups often watch companies closely and are quick to publicize instances of irresponsible behavior. Corporate social responsibility (CSR) is a self-regulating business model that helps a company be socially accountable — to itself, its stakeholders, and the public. By practicing corporate social responsibility, also called corporate citizenship, companies can be conscious of the kind of impact they are having on all aspects of society including economic, social, and environmental. To engage in CSR means that, in the normal course of business, a company is operating in ways that enhance society and the environment, instead of contributing negatively to them.

Published Standards for CSR

In 2010, the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) released a set of voluntary standards meant to help companies implement corporate social responsibility. Unlike other ISO standards, ISO 26000 provides guidance rather than requirements because the nature of CSR is more qualitative than quantitative, and its standards cannot be certified. Instead, ISO 26000 clarifies what social responsibility is and helps organizations translate CSR principles into effective actions. The standard is aimed at all types of organizations regardless of their activity, size, or location. And, because many key stakeholders from around the world contributed to developing ISO 26000, this standard represents an international consensus.

Question -1 All definitions Corporate social Responsibility recognize that

Select one:

a. companies have a responsibility for their impact on society and environment.

b. the natural environment should be the main focus of CSR activities.

c. Business ethics is a complex issue.

d. Companies must pay equal attention to ethics abd sustainability.

Question 2

Corporate social Responsibility is also referred to as

Select one:

a. Social responsibility

b. socio- corp responsibility

c. corporate citizenship

d. none of these

Question 3

CSR activities may include

Select one:

a. Reinvesting profits in health and safety or environmental programs

b. Supporting charitable organizations in the communities where a company operates

c. Company policies that insist on working with partners who follow ethical business practices

d. All of Above

Question 4

CSR is a self-regulating business model that helps a company be ________to itself, its stakeholders, and the public.

Select one:

a. relevant

b. socially accountable

c. very honest

d. none of these

Question 5

ISO 26000 clarifies

Select one:

a. what social responsibility is

b. helps organizations translate CSR principles into effective actions.

c. Both a & b

d. none of these

Question 6

ISO is referred to as

Select one:

a. Internal Organization for Standardization

b. International Organization for Standardization

c. Internal Organization for Stakeholders

d. International Organization for Stakeholders

Question 7

The concept of social responsibility is applicable to businesses around the world, but adaptations of implementation and other details on the local level are needed.

Select one:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

c. Partially true

d. Cant say

Question 8

The general four types of social responsibility include

Select one:

a. legal, philanthropic, economic, and ethical

b. ethical, moral, social, and economic

c. philanthropic, justice, economic, and ethical

d. legal, moral, ethical, and economic

Question 9

The ________ dimension of social responsibility refers to a business’s societal contribution of time, money, and other resources.

Select one:

a. ethical

b. philanthropic

c. volunteerism

d. strategic

Question 10

which of the following is a benefit of CSR ?

Select one:

a. minimize environmental impacts

b. Companies establish good reputations

c. save money through operational efficiency

d. All of Above

Module 5

Property Rights (TRIPS), which sought to improve protection of intellectual property across borders; the Understanding on Rules and Procedures Governing the Settlement of Disputes, which established rules for resolving conflicts between members; the Trade Policy Review Mechanism, which documented national trade policies and assessed their conformity with WTO rules; and four plurilateral agreements, signed by only a subset of the WTO membership, on civil aircraft, government procurement, dairy products, and bovine meat (though the latter two were terminated at the end of 1997 with the creation of related WTO committees). These agreements were signed in Marrakech, Morocco, in April 1994, and, following their ratification, the contracting parties to the GATT treaty became charter members of the WTO. By the 2010s the WTO had more than 160 members. The WTO has six key objectives: (1) to set and enforce rules for international trade, (2) to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalization, (3) to resolve trade disputes, (4) to increase the transparency of decision-making processes, (5) to cooperate with other major international economic institutions involved in global economic management, and (6) to help developing countries benefit fully from the global trading system. Although shared by the GATT, in practice these goals have been pursued more comprehensively by the WTO. For example, whereas the GATT focused almost exclusively on goods—though much of agriculture and textiles were excluded—the WTO encompasses all goods, services, and intellectual property, as well as some investment policies. In addition, the permanent WTO Secretariat, which replaced the interim GATT Secretariat, has strengthened and formalized mechanisms for reviewing trade policies and settling disputes. Because many more products are covered under the WTO than under the GATT and because the number of member countries and the extent of their participation has grown steadily—the combined share of international trade of WTO members now exceeds 90 percent of the global total—open access to markets has increased substantially.

The rules embodied in both the GATT and the WTO serve at least three purposes. First, they attempt to protect the interests of small and weak countries against discriminatory trade practices of large and powerful countries. The WTO’s most-favored-nation and national-treatment articles stipulate that each WTO member must grant equal market access to all other members and that both domestic and foreign suppliers must be treated equally. Second, the rules require members to limit trade only through tariffs and to provide market access not less favorable than that specified in their schedules (i.e., the commitments that they agreed to when they were granted WTO membership or subsequently). Third, the rules are designed to help governments resist lobbying efforts by domestic interest groups seeking special favors. Although some exceptions to the rules have been made, their presence and replication in the core WTO agreements were intended to ensure that the worst excesses would be avoided. By thus bringing greater certainty and predictability to international markets, it was thought, the WTO would enhance economic welfare and reduce political tensions.

Question 1 : GATT came into force in the year____

Select one:

a. 1948

b. 1952

c. 1964

d. 1991

Question 2

The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an international institution that_____

Select one:

a. resolves the disputes between management & labour

b. oversees the global trade rules between nations.

c. Both a & b

d. none of these

Question 3

The WTO began operations in_____

Select one:

a. January , 1995.

b. July , 1996.

c. January , 1997.

d. March, 1991.

Question 4

The WTO is the successor to ____

Select one:

a. International Trade Organisation (ITO)

b. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

c. United Nations

d. None of these

Question 5

TRIPS , is referred to as __

Select one:

a. Trade-Relation of Intellectual Property Rights

b. Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights

c. Trade-Rights Aspects of Intellectual Property Row

d. Trade-Relation of Intellectual Privacy Rights

Question 6

What is the underlying characteristic of the WTO?

Select one:

a. It facilitates economic co-operation between different countries

b. It resolves disputes between economic trade blocks

c. It facilitates the development of less developed countries

d. It acts as an umbrella institution that regulates the agreements concluded at the Uruguay round, the organisation’s ultimate goal being the promotion of free international trade

Question 7

Which of the following is a function of WTO

Select one:

a. It administers the WTO agreements

b. It reviews trade policies of member states acting as a forum for the resolution of international trade disputes

c. Both a & b

d. none of these

Question 8

Which of the following is an objective of WTO :

Select one:

a. to resolve trade disputes

b. to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalization

c. to increase the transparency of decision-making processes

d. All of above

Question 9

which of the following is true in context of ” An executive apparatus”

Select one:

a. the Director General and the Secretariat acting in their administrative capacity.

b. the Ministerial Conference and the General Council acting in their decision-making capacity.

c. Both a & b

d. none of these

Question 10

World Trade Organization (WTO), international organization established to______

Select one:

a. supervise

b. liberalize world trade.

c. Both a & b

d. none of these

Assignment 2

CSR policies should set the ‘rules of the game’ which the company concerned has established, and within which broader corporate financial returns need to be secured. “Basic CSR principles and commitments should be considered non-negotiable parameters of business operations rather than being subject to specific financial performance requirements,” says Mr Potts.

Future embrace

At present, the incorporation of CSR programs by businesses on a fundamental level appears as prevalent as ever. However, the jury is still very much out as to whether companies have it within them to embrace a broad or multifaceted vision of CSR. “It would be utopic to expect a sea change among industries,” says Mr. Potts. “While there are plenty of examples of companies using strong CSR performance as a brand-building and product marketing strategy, far too many corporate executives still rely on the old financial and hierarchical models of yesteryear as the basis of their own planning. The biggest and most influential companies also tend to be the most reliant on the ‘conventional way’ of doing business. What is happening, however, is a broad transition to the adoption of external multi-stakeholder processes – in the form of multi-stakeholder sustainability standards and labels – as a way of outsourcing the stakeholder engagement process.”

Ultimately, there are no hard and fast rules governing CSR. The more companies understand the growing resilience, reputation and legal risk they face, the more opportunities our globalized and connected world has to offer them. “This often depends on the sector,” points out Mr Webb. “If you make mining equipment, your focus will be energy efficiency and perhaps new technology that is safer. If you sell chocolate, your concerns are around the economic viability of your supply chain.”

With a number of recent legislative and behavioral developments, such as the transparency of supply chains, sustainable development goals, the ramifications of the Modern Slavery Act 2015 and the zero-landfill initiative, all contributing to the CSR melting pot, Ms Kozlov is in no doubt that companies are unifying their CSR activities under an overarching, business-aligned strategy, and using them as a tool to drive innovation, tackle material issues, strengthen community engagement and mitigate risks.

Question -1 An honest adoption of CSR often requires___

Select one:

a. serious reformulation of corporate purpose

b. decision-making structures

c. Both a & b

d. None of these

Question 2

As per this case study, IISD is referred to as ___?

Select one:

a. International Institute for Sustainable Development

b. International Institute for Suitable Development

c. Internal Institute for Suitable Development

d. Internal Institute for Sustainable Development

Question 3

CSR allows businesses_______ to ensure a sustainable future.

Select one:

a. to demonstrate their values

b. to engage their employees

c. to communicate with the public about how they operate and the choices they make

d. All of above

Question 4

CSR helps pave the way for partnerships between businesses and civil society that are based on____

Select one:

a. common goals

b. shared actions to deliver impact-driven outcomes

c. Both a & b

d. None of these

Question 5

CSR Stands for ?

Select one:

a. Corporative social Responsibility

b. Corporate social Responsibility

c. Corporate secret Responsibility

d. Company social Responsibility

Question 6

CSR strategy is also sometimes referred to as___

Select one:

a. sustainable scenario

b. sustainability strategy

c. strategy for Society

d. Social strategy

Question 7

the study mentioned in the case study, showed that CSR-orientated companies had a ____

Select one:

a. higher level of employee engagement

b. provided a markedly better standard of customer service.

c. Both a & b

d. None of these

Question 8

Which of the following does the term Corporate Social Responsibilityrelate to ?

Select one:

a. Ethical conduct

b. Environmental practice

c. Community investment

d. All of the above

Question 9

Which of the following does the term Corporate Social Responsibility relate to?

Select one:

a. Human rights and employee relations

b. Environmental practice

c. Ethical conduct

and community investment

d. All of the above

Question 10

Which of the following is not a criticism of CSR

Select one:

a. CSR is too costly

b. CSR encourages cynicism

c. CSR leads to enhanced brand reputation

d. CSR is misguided

Environment Studies (OEDL 206)-Semester II

February 1, 2022February 1, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Environment Studies (OEDL 206)-Semester II

Tropical Rain Forests Area under tropical rainforest covers 10 degrees north or south of the equator. Tropical rainforests are present in different parts of the world like Asia, Australia, Africa, South America, Central America, Mexico and he pacific islands. These are also known as lowland equatorial evergreen rainforests. Minimum normal annual rainfall between ,1750 millimeters (69 in) and 2,000 millimeters (79 in) occurs in this climate region. Mean monthly temperatures exceed 18 °C (64 °F) during all months of the year. Rainforests are home to half of all the living animal and plant species on the planet. Tropical rainforests are called the “world’s largest pharmacy”, because over one-quarter of modern medicines originate from its plants. The undergrowth in a rainforest is restricted in many areas by the lack of sunlight at ground level. This makes it possible for people and other animals to walk through the forest. If the leaf canopy is destroyed or thinned for any reason, the ground beneath is soon colonised by a dense tangled growth of vines, shrubs and small trees called a jungle.

Question 1 : An integrated environment of living and non-living things interacting with each other and creating a unique biological, chemical and physical environment is known as –

Select one:

a. Eco environment

b. Eco friendly

c. Ecosystem

d. Ecological

Question 2

Ecology is distinguishable according to the ______.

Select one:

a. Geographical and biological factors.

b. Climatic

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Question 3

Ecosystems are divided into

Select one:

a. Terrestrial ecosystems and aquatic ecosystems.

b. Land based ecosystem and water based ecosystem

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Question 4

Energy flow in ecosystem is ____.

Select one:

a. Bidirectional

b. Unidirectional

c. All around

d. All of the above

Question 5

Man made ecosystem can be seen in the form of –

Select one:

a. Tissue Culture

b. Forest

c. Aquarium

d. All of the above

Question 6

The environment where the organism or communities live is known as –

Select one:

a. Niche

b. Habit

c. Habitat

d. None of the above

Question 7

The plant of cold or temperate habitat require low temperature for their growth are called –

Select one:

a. Mega herms

b. Mesoderm’s

c. Microtherm

d. Ekistotherms

Question 8

The Water vapor present in the unit volume of air is called –

Select one:

a. Relative humidity

b. Static humidity

c. Absolute humidity

d. Total humidity

Question 9

What is Biodiversity ?

Select one:

a. Many types of flora and fauna in one forest

b. Many types of flora in much forest

c. Many population of one species in one forest

d. All of the above

Question 10

What is the cause for highest biomass in aquatic ecosystem?

Select one:

a. Benthonic and brown algae

b. Sea grass and slime molds

c. Nanoplankton, blue green algae, green algae

d. None of the above

10/10

Module 2

Environmental Impact Assessment

Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is an important management tool for

ensuring optimal use of natural resources for sustainable development. Environmental Impact Assessment is a planning tool whose main purpose is: “to give the environment its due place in the decision-making process by clearly evaluating the environmental Consequences of a proposed activity before action is taken. The concept has ramifications in the long run for almost all development activity because sustainable development depends on protecting the natural resources which is the foundation for further development” EIA is conducted through the following steps: screening, Scoping, Prediction and mitigation, managing, monitoring and audit. Every development project has to go through the EIA so that we can assess in advance the various impacts, Negative and positive, of the proposed developed project. For this governments of almost the entire nation had laid down procedures for the same. For conducting the EIA. We can use different methods, such as baseline studies, checklists, matrices, network diagrams, overlays and mathematical modeling. The EIA report is submitted to the governmental agencies and if they give the approval then only the project is carried further. The major benefits of conducting on EIA are prevention of any permanent changes in the environment by the project, the assessment of the impact caused by the project, the project can be modified to save the resources required, increased acceptance level of the proposed project, and avoiding any violations of laws and regulations. Improved project performance helps in curtailing treatment/clean-up costs. With the help of TQM and Environmental management system we can not only increase the customer satisfaction level, but can also improve the use of natural resources, reduce environmental impact and reduce cost of production. By this objective the companies are implementing TQM and EMS approaches.

Question 1 : Areas which come under environmental audit, is/are –

Select one:

a. Material management, savings and alternatives

b. Energy management and savings

c. Water management and economy of use

d. All of the above

Question 2

EIA involves –

Select one:

a. “Assessment of existing environment, analysis of various factors of ecosystem and adverse impact of the project on it and on the people of the surrounding.”

b. Assessment of the economic and social benefits which a project will yield after implementation.

c. Assessment of the impact of the proposed project on the environment in general sense.

d. Assessment of the impact of the proposed project on the habitats of the animals living nearby.

Question 3

Environmental audit is conducted in stages –

Select one:

a. Pre-audit

b. On-site audit

c. Post-audit

d. All of the above

Question 4

ISO 14000 deals with-

Select one:

a. General guidelines on principles of EMS.

b. Guideline for environmental auditing or General principle of auditing.

c. Guidelines for certification.

d. Life cycle assessment.

Question 5

Landfill is a place where-

Select one:

a. Usually the biodegradable waste is dumped and it decomposes in to store of manure.

b. Any kind of waste is dumped and is left there as place for disposal was not available.

c. There is deep trench and waste is used to fill the trench.

d. The water resource is filled by waste to create land.

Question 6

The cost of environmental assessment depends on

Select one:

a. The size of the project

b. The economic benefits

c. Criticality in the development process

d. All of the above

Question 7

The new series of ISO14000 standards are designed to cover:

Select one:

a. Environmental management systems

b. Environmental auditing

c. Life-cycle assessment

d. All of the above

Question 8

What is a Baseline Study ?

Select one:

a. Method of finding the status of various factors pertaining to environment and society.

b. Method of finding the status of various factors pertaining to environment.

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Question 9

What is a Checklist?

Select one:

a. Tool to collect, represent and interpret data for conducting an EIA.

b. Tool to collect, data for conducting an EIA.

c. Tool to collect, and interpret data for conducting an EIA.

d. None of the above

Question 10

What is the long-term aim of EIA?

Select one:

a. To promote sustainable development by ensuring that development proposals

b. To inform the process of decision-making by identifying the potentially significant environmental effects and risks of development proposals.

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

10/10

Module 3

The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was:

Select one:

a. Air Act

b. Noise Pollution Rule

c. Environmental Act

d. Water Act

Question 2

Incinerators and Emissions pollutants are responsible for the cause of __________?

Select one:

a. Methane

b. Species

c. Nitrous oxide

d. SMOG

Question 3

The Water Act contains:

Select one:

a. 5 Chapters

b. 6 Chapters

c. 7 Chapters

d. 4 Chapters

Question 4

Which of the following environmental law allows private rights to use a resource that is, groundwater, by viewing it as an attachment to the land?

Select one:

a. Factories Act

b. Indian Fisheries Act

c. Easement Act

d. All of these

Question 5

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year:

Select one:

a. 1975

b. 1974

c. 1986

d. 1994

Question 6

Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:

Select one:

a. 1981

b. 1982

c. 2000

d. 1987

Question 7

One of the following is air pollution?

Select one:

a. Bryophytes

b. Species

c. Lichens

d. Algae

Question 8

Global warming also refers to as-

Select one:

a. Atmosphere change

b. Climate change

c. None of these

d. Ecological change

Question 9

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

Select one:

a. Carbon monoxide

b. Nitrous oxide

c. Methane

d. Carbon di-oxide

Question 10

Which of the following is (are) the anticipated effect(s) of Global warming?

Select one:

a. All of these

b. Expansion of deserts

c. Changing precipitation

d. Rising sea levels

10/10

Module 4

Resources that people use are concentrated on the

Select one:

a. Earth

b. Continental Shelf

c. Ocean Shelf

d. Ocean Water

Question 2

Which of the following is best method from environment point of view?

Select one:

a. Reduce

b. Reuse

c. Recycle

d. All of these

Question 3________________the water is delivered to the surface of the soil directly above the root system of the plants. In subsurface drip irrigation the water is applied directly to the root system.

Select one:

a. Both Of these

b. Subsurface drip irrigation

c. Surface drip irrigation

d. None of these

Question 4

_____________ of water is the process of removing undesirable chemicals, biological contaminants and gases from water.

Select one:

a. Rainwater harvesting

b. Oxidation

c. Purification

d. Sublimation

Question 5

When was the ‘Sustainable Development’ came into existence?

Select one:

a. 1986

b. 1980

c. 1982

d. 1984

Question 6

Which of the following is/are not an objective (s) of sustainable development?

Select one:

a. Maintain a dynamic balance of water resources

b. Maintain a dynamic balance of arable land

c. To bring about a gradual and sometime catastrophic transformation of environment

d. Continue to implement the family planning program.

Question 7

Resources which are found everywhere are called ________ .

Select one:

a. Biotic Resource

b. Ubiquitous Resource

c. Potential Resource

d. Renewable Resource

Question 8

Floods can be prevented by

Select one:

a. Afforestation

b. Removing top soil

c. Deforestation

d. Agriculture

Question 9

Which of the following environmental law allows private rights to use a resource that is, groundwater, by viewing it as an attachment to the land?

Select one:

a. Easement Act

b. All of these

c. Indian Fisheries Act

d. Factories Act

Question 10

Rain Water Harvesting diminishes___________ by diminishing the probability of runoffs during times of hefty precipitation.

Select one:

a. None of these

b. Flooding

c. Soil disintegration

d. Both Of these

10/10

Module 5

Question 1

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted on

Select one:

a. 1-Dec-48

b. 31-Dec-48

c. 10-Dec-48

d. 11-Dec-48

Question 2

When did Janani Suraksha Yojana launched?

Select one:

a. 2005

b. 2003

c. 2002

d. 2004

Question 3

Helsinki Declaration, 1964 is concerned with

Select one:

a. Gender discrimination

b. War prevention

c. Human Experimentation

d. Child Abuse

Question 4

Janani Suraksha Yojana works –

Select one:

a. Pensions to widow women

b. Reducing maternal and neonatal mortality

c. shelters to poor people

d. Encourage people to use safe sexual methods

Question 5

Which programme comes in Family Welfare ?

Select one:

a. Malnutrition programme

b. One child one nation policy

c. IUD programme

d. Child marriage

Question 6

Study of trends in human population growth and prediction of future growth is called

Select one:

a. Psychology

b. Demography

c. Biography

d. Paleography

Question 7

Who can be appointed as the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?

Select one:

a. Retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

b. Retired Chief Justice of any High Court

c. Judge of the Supreme Court

d. Person appointed by the President

Question 8

Which is the first country to initiate a Family Planning program in the world?

Select one:

a. China

b. India

c. France

d. US

Question 9

What is the reason for poor standard of living and malnutrition in India?

Select one:

a. Due to over population

b. Due to the poor economy of India

c. Due to absence of natural resources

d. Due to environmental conditions

Question 10

The protection of Human Rights Act in India was enacted in the year

Select one:

a. 1990

b. 1991

c. 1992

d. 1993

10/10

Assignment 2

Case study

Major Ecosystems of the World The structure of the ecosystem is characterized by the organization of both the biotic as well as abiotic animals. The structure of the ecosystem can primarily be divided into the two most important components, biotic and abiotic.

Biotic Components : Biotic components have referred to life in general in any ecosystem. Based on the types of nutrition, biotic components can be divided into the following categories: • Producers • Consumer • Primary consumer • Secondary consumer • Tertiary consumer • Quaternary consumer • Decomposers.

Abiotic Components : Abiotic components are the non-living components of this ecosystem. This includes air, water, sunlight, nutrients, and turbidity. Abiotic Components Abiotic components are the non-living components of this ecosystem. This includes air, water, sunlight, nutrients, and turbidity.

Desert Ecosystems : The most common feature of the desert ecosystem is low precipitation that ranges from zero to 10 inches. Plants comprised of desert flora, sagebrush, and mesquite, quickly developing annuals that can rapidly begin from seed after an uncommon downpour in the sand dunes. Desert ecosystems will, in general, be those that can tunnel to get away from the desert warmth, and they frequently look for food after the dry condition. Desert is found throughout the world. These are areas with next to no precipitation. The days are hot and the evenings are cold.

The Taiga Ecosystem : The Taiga land zone bolsters a huge populace of conifers, especially tidy and fir. Lakes, swamps, and bogs accentuate the scene. There are fewer kinds of plants and creatures than in the woodland. Long winters set up for sleeping vertebrates and moving fowls.

The Tundra Ecosystem: The Tundra lies at extraordinary scopes where trees develop nearly nothing or not in the least. Cold winter makes a layer of permafrost under the dirt. The developing season is short, delivering little aside from greenery, lichens, and a few kinds of grass and annuals which uphold Caribou and bugs. Winged creatures raise their young in the late spring before relocating. Tundra environments are without trees and are found in chilly atmospheres or where precipitation is scant. These are secured with snow for the majority of the year. The environment in the Arctic or peaks is tundra type.The Chaparral Ecosystem: The Chaparral may get up to 30 centimetres of precipitation every year, generally throughout the winter. Plants lie lethargic during its dry summers. The Chaparral is found in California. Trees are generally oaks. Grapes, olives, and figs do well in the Chaparral, as do eucalyptus.

Question 1: Where life exists is known as-

Select one:

a. Biosphere

b. Atmosphere

c. Lithosphere

d. Hydrosphere

Question 2

Ecosystem is smallest unit of

Select one:

a. Ionosphere

b. Lithosphere

c. Biosphere

d. Mesosphere

Question 3

____________is an example of lotic biome.

Select one:

a. Oceans

b. Rivers

c. Lakes

d. All of the above

Question 4

In an ecosystem, ___________ is/are the type of entities occupies more than one trophic level?

Select one:

a. Fish

b. Lion

c. Snake

d. Lizard

Question 5

______________ecosystem has the maximum biomass.

Select one:

a. Forest

b. Mountain

c. Lake

d. Grassland

Question 6

Energy _____ in an Ecosystem.

Select one:

a. Released

b. Flows

c. Moved

d. Travel

Question 7

The set of ecosystems is ______.

Select one:

a. Abiome

b. Biome

c. Structure

d. System

Question 8

Every Ecosystem has ___ major component(s).

Select one:

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

Question 9

Herbivores are ________.

Select one:

a. Primary Consumers

b. Secondary

c. Tertiary

d. None of the above

Question 10

Carnivores are _______________.

Select one:

a. Primary Consumers

b. Secondary

c. Tertiary

d. None of the above

10/10

Computers In Management (OOBB 202)-Semester II

February 1, 2022February 1, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Computers In Management (OOBB 202)-Semester II

Module 1

Case Study

A computer is a device that can be instructed to carry out sequences of arithmetic or logical operations automatically via computer programming. Modern computers have the ability to follow generalized sets of operations, called programs. These programs enable computers to perform an extremely wide range of tasks.

Computers are used as control systems for a wide variety of industrial and consumer devices. This includes simple special purpose devices like microwave ovens and remote controls, factory devices such as industrial robots and computer-aided design, and also general purpose devices like personal computers and mobile devices such as smartphones.

Question 1: Convert 34 from Base 10 to Base 2

Select one:

a. 100010

b. 110010

c. 101000

d. 100110

Question 2

Convert 95 from Base 10 to Base 2

Select one:

a. 1011011

b. 1011111

c. 1000111

d. 1111111

Question 3

Convert 0.1001 from Base 2 to Base 10.

Select one:

a. 0.1325

b. 0.5625

c. 0.7625

d. 1

Question 4

Convert 0.46 from Base 10 to Base 2.

Select one:

a. 101100

b. 101110

c. 101101

d. 101111

Question 5

Convert 11101 from Base 2 to Base 10.

Select one:

a. 42

b. 44

c. 46

d. 47

Question 6

Which of the following is Brain of the computer?

Select one:

a. CPU

b. Mouse

c. Keyboard

d. Screen

Question 7

__ is the processed and organized data presented in a meaningful form.

Select one:

a. DATA

b. Process

c. INFORMATION

d. Output

Question 8

__enables the application software to interact with the computer hardware.

Select one:

a. Operating Software

b. Utility Software

c. System Software

d. Device software

Question 9

__is the non-tangible part that tells the computer how to do its job.

Select one:

a. PEOPLEWARE

b. Firmware

c. SOFTWARE

d. HARDWARE

Question 10

____ is a sequence of 8 bits

Select one:

a. BIT

b. BYTE

c. WORD

d. None of the above

Module 2

Case Study

An Oracle database is a collection of data treated as a unit. The purpose of a database is to store and retrieve related information. A database server is the key to solving the problems of information management. In general, a server reliably manages a large amount of data in a multiuser environment so that many users can concurrently access the same data. All this is accomplished while delivering high performance. A database server also prevents unauthorized access and provides efficient solutions for failure recovery.

Oracle Database is the first database designed for enterprise grid computing, the most flexible and cost effective way to manage information and applications. Enterprise grid computing creates large pools of industry-standard, modular storage and servers. With this architecture, each new system can be rapidly provisioned from the pool of components. There is no need for peak workloads, because capacity can be easily added or reallocated from the resource pools as needed.

The database has logical structures and physical structures. Because the physical and logical structures are separate, the physical storage of data can be managed without affecting the access to logical storage structures.

Question 1: A ___ is a syntax similar to a computer programming language for defining data structures, especially database schemas.

Select one:

a. DML

b. Query language

c. DDL

d. Report Generator

Question 2

A ____ is a set of formally described tables from which data can be accessed or reassembled in many different ways without having to reorganize the database tables.

Select one:

a. Network Database

b. relational database

c. Hierarchical database

d. None of the above

Question 3

A ____ model is a data model in which the data is organized into a tree-like structure.

Select one:

a. Network Database

b. relational database

c. Hierarchical database

d. None of the above

Question 4

A ____ model is a database model that allows multiple records to be linked to the same owner file.

Select one:

a. Network Database

b. relational database

c. Hierarchical database

d. None of the above

Question 5

A___is a major software system consisting of a number of elements.

Select one:

a. Linux

b. DBMS

c. Unix

d. MS-DOS

Question 6

DML is a language that enables users to access or manipulate the appropriate data model.

Select one:

a. DML

b. Query language

c. DDL

d. Report Generator

Question 7

___enables users to ask specific questions of the database

Select one:

a. DML

b. Query language

c. DDL

d. Report Generator

Question 8

____ is a collection of similar groups of data which fit under one heading.

Select one:

a. File

b. Database

c. Structure

d. None of the above

Question 9

____- helps the user to design and generate reports and graphs in

printed form.

Select one:

a. DDL

b. DML

c. Query Language

d. Report Generator

Question 10

________is a collection of related files

stored together in a logical manner.

Select one:

a. Organization

b. Database

c. Structure

d. None of the above

Module 3

Case Study

In general multimedia is the combination of visual and audio representations. These representations could include elements of texts, graphic arts, sound, animation, and video. However, multimedia is restricted in such systems where information is digitalized and is processed by a computer. Interactive multimedia and hypermedia consist of multimedia applications that the user has more active role. Education is perhaps the most useful destination for multimedia and the place where multimedia has the most effective applications, as it enriches the learning process. Multimedia both in nursing education and in medical informatics education has several applications as well. A multimedia project can be developed even as a “stand alone” application (on CD-ROM), or on World Wide Web pages on Internet. However several technical constraints exist for developing multimedia applications on Internet. For developing multimedia projects we need hardware and software, talent and skill. The software requirements for multimedia development consist of one or more authoring systems and various editing applications for text, images, sounds and video.

Question 1: A smaller version of an image is called a:

Select one:

a. clipart

b. thumbnail

c. portable network graphic

d. bitmap

Question 2

A standalone multimedia system includes computer, CD drive and

Select one:

a. Floppy disk

b. Display Unit

c. Internet

d. ERP

Question 3

Images included in many software titles are called _________.

Select one:

a. .tiff files

b. .jpg files

c. clipart

d. popups

Question 4

One of the disadvantages of multimedia is:

Select one:

a. cost

b. adaptability

c. usability

d. relativity

Question 5

The convergence of technology and creative invention in multimedia is ____

Select one:

a. Planning

b. Designing

c. CAD tool

d. virtual reality

Question 6

The process of planning your multimedia presentation is known as a:

Select one:

a. development

b. layout

c. design

d. storyboard

Question 7

The text color in a presentation should contrast with the ________ color.

Select one:

a. CPU

b. frame

c. stack

d. background

Question 8

Virtual reality is the presentation of anything in a

Select one:

a. 2-dimensional world

b. Designing

c. 3-dimensional world

d. None of the above

Question 9

_____ is content that uses a combination of different content forms such as text, audio, images, animations, video and interactive content.

Select one:

a. Multimedia

b. Program

c. Files

d. ERP

Question 10

____________ refers to any type of application or presentation that involves more than one type of media, such as text, graphics, video, animation, and sound.

Select one:

a. An executable file

b. Multimedia

c. Desktop publishing

d. Hypertext

Module 4

Case Study

Electronic commerce is a way of doing business over large electronic networks such as the Internet. Also called e-commerce, electronic commerce greatly facilitates transactions between companies and consumers (B2C), between one company and another (B2B), and between individual consumers (C2C).In e-commerce, exchanges occur between two parties over some electronic medium, typically the Internet. These exchanges are most commonly transactions between companies and consumers, wherein consumers purchase products and services by credit card payment over a secured website. These exchanges, however, can also include transactions between companies as well as between individuals.

An example of business-to-consumer e-commerce would be an online store such as Amazon.com. Anyone with Internet access and a credit card can access the website, browse products and services, make a selection, and purchase a product by credit card payment with the assurance of delivery in the mail.

An example of e-commerce between individuals, or between two consumers, would be an online marketplace such as eBay.com. Similar to the example above, anyone with Internet access and a credit or debit card can browse and purchase available products. The difference here is that products are being sold by individual sellers (other consumers) rather than one large online store.

Question 1: B2C stands for

Select one:

a. Business to consumer

b. Business to call

c. Books to consumer

d. None of the above

Question 2

e-Commerce stands for

Select one:

a. Elected Commerce

b. Electronic commerce

c. Envision commerce

d. None of the above

Question 3

The dimension of e-commerce that enables commerce across national boundaries is called _______.

Select one:

a. interactivity

b. global reach

c. richness

d. ubiquity

Question 4

The primary source of financing during the early years of e-commerce was _______.

Select one:

a. bank loans

b. large retail firms

c. venture capital funds

d. initial public offerings

Question 5

Which of the following describes e?commerce?

Select one:

a. Buying Goods

b. Sale of goods

c. Doing business

d. Doing business electronically

Question 6

Which of the following is not considered to be one of the three phases of e-commerce?

Select one:

a. Preservation

b. Innovation

c. Consolidation

d. Reinvention

Question 7

Which of the following is part of the four main types for e?commerce?

Select one:

a. B2B

b. B2C

c. C2B

d. All of the above

Question 8

Which one of the following is not one of the major types of e-commerce?

Select one:

a. B2C

b. C2C

c. C2B

d. B2B

Question 9

Which segment do eBay, Amazon.com belong?

Select one:

a. B2Bs

b. B2Cs

c. C2Bs

d. C2Cs

Question 10

Which type of e?commerce focuses on consumers dealing with each other?

Select one:

a. B2B

b. B2C

c. C2B

d. C2C

10/10

5 Module

Case Study

Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) enables fast, accurate and reliable exchange of data between the computer systems of organizations that do business together.

The Need for EDI

For companies of any size, implementing EDI is necessary for maximum competitiveness and growth. It reduces costs and improves operational performance across your organization. From the start, EDI accelerates data exchange and sharpens accuracy. Your company and your customers benefit from streamlined administration, improved information flow, more accurate accounting, better inventory management, and lower costs. Because electronic transactions are so efficient, customers that use EDI prefer to work with vendors that have EDI systems in place.

From financial, operational, and technical perspectives, the right EDI solution makes irrefutable business sense.

Question 1:All of the following are metrics for e-mail campaigns except..

Select one:

a. open rate

b. delivery rate

c. bounce-back rate

d. cart conversion rate

Question 2

All of the following are techniques B2C e-commerce companies use to attract customers, except

Select one:

a. Registering with search engines

b. Viral marketing

c. Online Ads

d. Virtual marketing

Question 3

Compared to B2C e-commerce, B2B e-commerce is .

Select one:

a. of equal size

b. slightly smaller

c. slightly larger

d. much larger

Question 4

EDI standard

Select one:

a. is not easily available

b. defines several hundred transaction sets for various business forms

c. is not popular

d. defines only a transmission protocol

Question 5

EDI stands for

Select one:

a. Electronic Data Interchange

b. Electronic digital interchange

c. Electrical diagram interchange

d. None of the above

Question 6

In Electronic cash payment

Select one:

a. a debit card payment system is used

b. a customer buys several electronic coins which are digitally signed by coin issuing bank

c. a credit card payment system is used

d. RSA cryptography is used in the transactions

Question 7

In the e-commerce security environment, which of the following constitutes the inner-most layer?

Select one:

a. people

b. data

c. technology solutions

d. organizational policies and procedures

Question 8

What encourages users of a product or service supplied by a B2C company to ask friends to join in as well?

Select one:

a. Spam

b. Viral marketing

c. Affiliate programs

d. None of the above

Question 9

Which products are people most likely to be more uncomfortable buying on the Internet?

Select one:

a. Books

b. Furniture

c. Movies

d. All of the above

Question 10

Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click on the ad, and are taken to the site of the advertiser?

Select one:

a. Affiliate programs

b. Click-through

c. Spam

d. All of the above

10/10

Assignment 2

Case Study

What is Computer : Computer is an electronic device that is designed to work with Information. The term computer is derived from the Latin term ‘computare’, this means to calculate or programmable machine. Computer can not do anything without a Program. It represents the decimal numbers through a string of binary digits. The Word ‘Computer’ usually refers to the Center Processor Unit plus Internal memory.

Charles Babbage is called the “Grand Father” of the computer. The First mechanical computer designed by Charles Babbage was called Analytical Engine. It uses read-only memory in the form of punch cards.

Computer is an advanced electronic device that takes raw data as input from the user and processes these data under the control of set of instructions (called program) and gives the result (output) and saves output for the future use. It can process both numerical and non-numerical (arithmetic and logical) calculations.

Question 1: A light sensitive device that converts drawing, printed text or other images into digital form is

Select one:

a. Keyboard

b. Plotter

c. Scanner

d. OMR

Question 2

Fifth generation computers are based on

Select one:

a. Artificial Intelligence

b. Programming Intelligence

c. System Knowledge

d. VVLSI

Question 3

First generation of computer was based on which technology?

Select one:

a. Transistor

b. LSI

c. VLSI

d. Vaccum Tube

Question 4

In how many generations a computer can be classified?

Select one:

a. 3rd

b. 4th

c. 6th

d. 5th

Question 5

In order to tell Excel that we are entering a formula in cell, we must begin with an operator such as

Select one:

a. $

b. @

c. equal to(=)

d. #

Question 6

Microprocessor was introduced in which generation of computer?

Select one:

a. 3rd

b. 5th

c. 4th

d. 6th

Question 7

Second generation computers are made of

Select one:

a. Vaccum Tubes

b. Transistors

c. LSI

d. VLSI

Question 8

The basic architecture of computer was developed by

Select one:

a. John Von Neumann

b. Charles Babbage

c. Blaise Pascal

d. Garden Moore

Question 9

Which of the following memory is non-volatile?

Select one:

a. SRAM

b. DRAM

c. ROM

d. All of the above

Question 10

Which protocol provides e-mail facility among different hosts?

Select one:

a. FTP

b. SMTP

c. TELNET

d. SNMP

10/10*

Software Engineering and Modeling (CSIT142)-Semester II

January 28, 2022January 28, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Software Engineering and Modeling (CSIT142)-Semester II

MODULE 1 INTRODUCTION TO SOFTWARE ENGINEERING.

Question 1

Software consists of ______ .

Select one:

a. Set of instructions + operating procedures

b. Programs + documentation + operating procedures

c. Programs + hardware manuals<

d. Set of programs

Question 2

Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?

Select one:

a. Software development

b. Software dependence

c. Software validation

d. Software specification

Question 3

Infrastructure software are covered under ?

Select one:

a. Customised Products

b. Generic and Customised Products

c. Generic Products

d. None of the above

Question 4

What are attributes of good software?

Select one:

a. Software functionality

b. Software maintainability

c. Software development

d. Both Software functionality & maintainability

Question 5

Compilers, Editors software come under which type of software?

Select one:

a. System software

b. Application software

c. Scientific software

d. None of the above.

Question 6

Software Engineering is defined as systematic, disciplined and quantifiable approach for the development, operation and maintenance of software.

Select one:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

Question 7

What is the simplest model of software development paradigm?

Select one:

a. Spiral model

b. Big Bang model

c. V-model

d. Waterfall model

Question 8

SDLC stands for

Select one:

a. System Development Life cycle

b. Software Design Life Cycle

c. Software Development Life Cycle

d. System Design Life Cycle

Question 9

What are the characteristics of software?

Select one:

a. Software is developed or engineered; it is not manufactured in the classical sense.

b. Software doesn’t “ wear out ”

c. Software can be custom built or custom build

d. All mentioned above.

Question 10

“Software engineers shall –

Select one:

a. act consistently with the public interest.”

b. act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favour.”

c. ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”

d. all of the mentioned

Question 11

The level at which the software uses scarce resources is ______ .

Select one:

a. Reliability

b. Efficiency

c. Portability

d. All of the above

Question 12

The spiral model was originally proposed by –

Select one:

a. Barry Boehm

b. Pressman

c. Royce

d. Pressman

Question 13

If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?

Select one:

a. Concurrent Model

b. Spiral Model

c. WINWIN Spiral Model

d. Incremental Model

Question 14

Which phase is not available in software life cycle?

Select one:

a. Coding

b. Testing

c. Maintenance

d. Abstraction

Question 15

The spiral model of software development

Select one:

a. Ends with the delivery of the software product

b. Is more chaotic than the incremental model

c. Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration

d. All of the above

Question 16

As the reliability increases, failure intensity

Select one:

a. decreases

b. increases

c. no effect

d. none of the above

Question 17

Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?

Select one:

a. Prototyping Model

b. RAD Model

c. Build & Fix Model

d. Waterfall Model

MODULE II : SOFTWARE REQUIREMENT ENGINEERING AND CODING

Question 1

Coding is undertaken:

Select one:

a. After the design phase is complete

b. deign document is reviewed

c. while design document is in review

d. A & B only

Question 2

The fundamnetal notions of software engineering does not account for?

Select one:

a. Software Security

b. Software reuse

c. Software processes

d. Software validation

Question 3

The main advantage of adhering to coding standard is

Select one:

a. uniform appearance to code

b. Code understandibility

c. good programming practice

d. all of the above

Question 4

Software Requirement Engineering and Coding

Select one:

a. Portability

b. Maintainability

c. Availability

d. Both Portability and Maintainability

Question 5

When comparing questionnaires to interviews, questionnaires:

Select one:

a. Are rated high in terms of information richness

b. Are rated high in terms of expense

c. Are limited in terms of chances for follow up

d. Have an active and involved subject

Question 6

Which of the following are type of code review?

Select one:

a. code inspection

b. code walkthrough

c. both

d. none

Question 7

Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?

Select one:

a. Entry level personnel

b. Middle level stakeholder

c. Managers

d. Users of the software

Question 8

Which of the following is not a traditional method of collecting system requirements?

Select one:

a. Interviewing

b. RAD

c. Observations

d. Document analysis

Question 9

The best way to conduct a requirements validation review is:

Select one:

a. examine the system model for errors

b. have the customer over the requiremnets

c. send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns

d. use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement

Question 10

The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?

Select one:

a. SDD

b. SRS

c. DDD

d. SRD

Question 11

What are the most common scenarios for resolutions?

Select one:

a. Designers frequently work bottom up or skip levels of abstraction

b. To specify some part of product design to its physical level details before others are specified

c. All of the mentioned

d. None of the mentioned

Question 12

Stakeholder role for Generate/Improve alternatives?

Select one:

a. Participate in generation and improvement

b. Answer the question

c. None of the mentioned

d. All of the above

Question 13

Confirming with stakeholder that a product design satisfies their needs and desires are called?

Select one:

a. None of the mentioned

b. Requirements validation

c. Requirements elicitation

d. Requirements analysis

Question 14

What is the correct syntax of for statement?

Select one:

a. for(initialization;condition;update)

b. for(initialization,condition,update)

c. for(condition;initialization;update)

d. for(initialization;condition;)

Question 15

……………… is actually a multi-step process that focuses on four distinct attributes of a program, data structure, software architecture, interface representations and procedural detail.

Select one:

a. Software analysis

b. Software design

c. Coding

d. Testing

Question 16

Reliability in software system can be achieved using which of the following strategies.

i) Fault Avoidance ii) Fault Tolerance

iii) Fault Detection iv) Fault Deletion

Select one:

a. A) i, ii and iii only

b. B) ii, iii and iv only

c. C) i, iii and iv only

d. D) All i, ii, iii and iv

Question 17

The cost of software engineering includes approximately …………… of development costs and …………. of testing costs.

Select one:

a. A) 50%, 50%

b. B) 40%, 60%

c. C) 80%, 20%

d. D) 60%, 40%

MODULE III : SOFTWARE DESIGN

Question 1

How many type of cohesion are there in software design?

Select one:

a. 5

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

Question 2

Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?

Select one:

a. Control Coupling

b. Stamp Coupling

c. External Coupling

d. Content Coupling

Question 3

Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?

Select one:

a. Functional Cohesion

b. Temporal Cohesion

c. Functional Cohesion

d. Sequential Cohesion

Question 4

Which tool is use for structured designing ?

Select one:

a. Program Chart

b. Structure chart

c. Module Chart

d. All of the above

Question 5

Which of the following is not an Advantage of modularization?

Select one:

a. Smaller components are easier to maintain

b. Concurrent execution can be made possible

c. Program cannot be divided based on functional aspects

d. Desired level of abstraction can be brought in the program

Question 6

Which of the following defines the degree of intra-dependability within elements of a module?

Select one:

a. Cohesion

b. Coupling

c. Design Verification

d. None of the above

Question 7

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good software design?

Select one:

a. Correctness

b. Understandability

c. Complex Design

d. Efficiency

Question 8

Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design.

Select one:

a. It consists of module definitions

b. Modules represent data abstraction

c. Modules support functional abstraction

d. None of the above

Question 9

Software design yields ______ levels of results.

Select one:

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

Question 10

When multiple modules share common data structure and work on different part of it, it is called ___________.

Select one:

a. Common coupling

b. Share coupling

c. Data coupling

d. Stamp coupling

Question 11

In which of the following design phases, do the software designers free to make any alterations, corrections and modifications?

Select one:

a. Preliminary design phase

b. Detailed design phase

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Question 12

Which is the most desirable form of coupling?

Select one:

a. Control coupling

b. Data coupling

c. Common coupling

d. Stamp coupling

Question 13

________ is an indication of the relative interdependence among modules.

Select one:

a. Cohesion

b. Coupling

c. Modularity

d. Cohesion and coupling.B

Question 14

___________ is an indication of the relative functional strength of a module.

Select one:

a. Cohesion

b. Coupling

c. Modularity

d. Cohesion and coupling

Question 15

Read List-I and List-II and Match the following:

a. Data coupling ——————— i. Module A and Module B have shared data.

b. Stamp coupling —————— ii. Dependency between modules is based on the fact they communicate by only passing of data.

c. Common coupling ————— iii. When complete data structure is passed from one module to another.

d. Content coupling —————– iv. When the control is passed from one module to the middle of another.

Select one:

a. a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv

b. a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv

c. a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i

d. a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i

Question 16

Which of the following objectives are not the one that the software designing phase claim to offer?

(i) Identify software design activities

(ii)Identify important items developed during the software design phase

(iii)To improve the designing skills of the developers

Select one:

a. All i, ii and iii are correct

b. Only i and ii are correct

c. Only i and iii are correct

d. None of the given options is correct

Question 17

Which of the following statements is true?

(i)The software design phase comes after the feasibility and resources analysis phase.

(ii) The quality of the software depends upon the design phase a lot.

Select one:

a. Only i is true

b. Only ii is true

c. Both i and ii are true

d. None of them is true

MODULE IV : SOFTWARE TESTING

Question 1

White box testing techniques are?

Select one:

a. Statement coverage testing

b. Decision coverage testing

c. Data flow testing

d. All of the above

Question 2

Software testing is:

Select one:

a. the process of demonstrating that errors are not present

b. the process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do

c. the process of executing a program to show it is working as per specifications

d. the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors

Question 3

Cyclomatic complexity is?

Select one:

a. White-box testing

b. Black box testing

c. Grey box testing

d. All of the above

Question 4

In which environment we can performed the Beta testing?

Select one:

a. User’s and developer’s end

b. Developer’s end

c. User’s end

d. None of the above

Question 5

Which of the following testing is related to the boundary value analysis?

Select one:

a. White box and black box testing

b. White-box testing

c. Black box testing

d. None of the above

Question 6

Which of the following is not another name of white box testing?

Select one:

a. Structural testing

b. Behavioral testing

c. Glass box testing

d. None of the mentioned

Question 7

Which of the following testing is also known as white-box testing?

Select one:

a. Structural testing

b. Error guessing technique

c. Design based testing

d. None of the above

Question 8

Which of the below testing is related to Non-functional testing?

Select one:

a. Unit Testing

b. Black-box Testing

c. Performance Testing

d. None of the above

Question 9

In which environment we can performed the Alpha testing?

Select one:

a. User’s end

b. Developer’s end

c. User’s and developer’s end

d. None of the above

Question 10

Which of the below is not a part of the Test Plan?

Select one:

a. Schedule

b. Risk

c. Incident reports

d. Entry and exit criteria

Question 11

———- are those software mistakes that occurred during the coding phase?

Select one:

a. Defects

b. Failures

c. Errors

d. Bugs

Question 12

Which of the below testing is related to black-box testing?

Select one:

a. Boundary value analysis

b. Code path analysis

c. Basic path testing

d. None of the above

Question 13

The Decision table testing is a ———-?

Select one:

a. White box Test Design Technique

b. Black Box Test Design Technique

c. Experience-based Test Design Technique

d. Grey Box Test Design Technique

Question 14

Which of the below statement is true about the Equivalence Partitioning technique?

Select one:

a. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing.

b. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing.

c. The black box testing technique is used only by developers.

d. A black box testing technique that can only be used during system testing

Question 15

For a function of n variables, boundary value analysis yields:

Select one:

a. 4n+3 test cases

b. 4n+1 test cases

c. n+4 test cases

d. None of the above

Question 16

For a function of two variables, how many cases will be generated by robustness testing?

Select one:

a. 9

b. 13

c. 25

d. 42

Question 17

—— are the problems that threaten the success of a project but which has not yet happened.

Select one:

a. Risk

b. Bug

c. Failure

d. Error

MODULE V : SOFTWARE PROJECT PLANNING AND MANAGEMENT

Question 1

Line of code(LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures?

Select one:

a. Indirect measures

b. Direct measures

c. Coding

d. None of the above

Question 2

Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?

Select one:

a. Configuration item identification

b. Risk management

c. Release management

d. Branch management

Question 3

Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?

Select one:

a. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed

b. Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation

c. Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates

d. The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars

Question 4

The intent of project metrics is:

Select one:

a. minimization of development schedule

b. for strategic purposes

c. assessing project quality on ongoing basis

d. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis

Question 5

Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?

Select one:

a. Costs of networking and communications

b. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space

c. Costs of lunch time food

d. Costs of support staff

Question 6

Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?

Select one:

a. Project Size

b. Project Planning

c. Project Complexity

d. Degree of Structural uncertainity

Question 7

What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

Select one:

a. Function-related metrics

b. Product-related metrics

c. Size-related metrics

d. None of the mentioned

Question 8

What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?

Select one:

a. Regression Testing

b. System Testing

c. Integration Testing

d. Unit Testing

Question 9

Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?

Select one:

a. Baselines

b. Source code

c. Data model

d. None of the mentioned

Question 10

In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W. Boehm?

Select one:

a. Putnam model

b. COCOMO

c. Both a & b

d. None of the above

Question 11

Which of the following is the task of project indicators:

Select one:

a. help in assessment of status of ongoing project

b. track potential risk

c. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk

d. none of the mentioned

Question 12

Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce a different output than its original version?

Select one:

a. Coverage

b. Minimization

c. Safe

d. Maximization

Question 13

The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

Select one:

a. Corrective

b. Adaptive

c. Perfective

d. Preventive

Question 14

Which metrics are derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity measures by considering the size of the software that has been produced?

Select one:

a. Size oriented

b. Function-Oriented

c. Object-Oriented

d. Use-case-Oriented

Question 15

Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include

Select one:

a. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization

b. A separate configuration management team for each project

c. Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members

d. All of the mentioned

Question 16

Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?

Select one:

a. An application-composition model

b. A post-architecture model

c. A reuse model

d. An early design model

Question 17

Which may be estimated either in terms of KLOC (Kilo Line of Code) or by calculating number of function points in the software?

Select one:

a. Time estimation

b. Effort estimation

c. Cost estimation

d. Software size estimation

Operating System Concepts (CSIT123)-Semester II

January 28, 2022January 28, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Semester II Operating System Concepts (CSIT123)-Semester II
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                                 MODULE 1  MODULE 1 INTRODUCTION TO OPERATING SYSTEM .

Question 1
What else is a command interpreter called?

Select one:
a. Prompt
b. shell
c. Command
d. Kernel

Question 2
Multiprogramming of the computer system increases

Select one:
a. Multiprogramming of the computer system increases
b. Storage
c. CPU – Utilization
d. cost

Question 3
When was the first operating system developed?

Select one:
a. 1947
b. 1963
c. 1950
d. 1943

Question 4
BIOS is used?

Select one:
a. Operatiing System
b. aplication Software
c. By compiler
d. interpreter

Question 5
What is the main function of the command interpreter?

Select one:
a. to get and execute the next user-specified command
b. to provide the interface between the API and application program
c. to handle the files in operating system
d. none of the mentioned

Question 6
Which of the following is not an operating system?

Select one:
a. Linux
b. Windows
c. oracle
d. unix

Question 7
Another type of multiple-CPU system is the

Select one:
a. clustered System
b. Mini Computer
c. Super Computer
d. both b and c

Question 8
Environment in which programs of the computer system are executed is:

Select one:
a. Operatiing System
b. Node
c. Clustered System
d. both a and b

Question 9
Which is the Linux operating system?

Select one:
a. Private operating system
b. Windows operating system
c. Open-source operating system
d. None of these

Question 10
What is the full name of FAT?

Select one:
a. File Allocation Table
b. File attribute table
c. Front attribute table
d. Format attribute table

Question 11
The OS X has __

Select one:
a. monolithic kernel
b. hybrid kernel
c. microkernel
d. monolithic kernel with modules

Question 12
Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?

Select one:
a. VxWorks
b. QNX
c. RTLinux
d. Palm OS

Question 13
To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the _

Select one:
a. System calls
b. API
c. Library
d. Assembly instructions

Question 14
Multiprocessor system have advantage of

Select one:
a. Increased Throughput
b. Expensive hardware
c. operating system
d. both a and b

Question 15
The eye is an interface between the object and the part of the brain that processes __

Select one:
a. Visual data
b. Graphic data
c. Audio data
d. Text data

Question 16
Which of the following is an example of a spooled device?

Select one:
a. A graphic display device
b. A line printer used to print the output of a number of jobs
c. A secondary storage device in a virtual memory system
d. A terminal used to enter input data to a running program

Question 17
What is the name of the operating system that reads and reacts in terms of actual time?

Select one:
a. Real time system
b. Time sharing system
c. Quick response system
d. Batch system

MODULE II : PROCESSES MANAGEMENT

Question 1

Select one:
a. Long term Scheduler
b. Short term Scheduler
c. Mid term Scheduler
d. All of the mentioned

Question 2
Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?

Select one:
a. FCFS
b. SJF
c. Round – robin
d. Priority
b. SJF

Question 3
If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a __

Select one:
a. log file
b. another running process
c. new file
d. none of the mentioned

Question 4
What is FIFO algorithm?

Select one:
a. first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b. first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c. first executes the job that came in first in the queue
d. first executes the job that has maximum processor needs

Question 5
What is ‘Aging’?

Select one:
a. keeping track of cache contents
b. keeping track of cache contents
c. keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d. increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time

Question 6
Round robin scheduling falls under the category of __

Select one:
a. Non-preemptive scheduling
b. Preemptive scheduling
c. All of the mentioned
d. None of the mentioned

Question 7
A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low – priority processes is __

Select one:
a. Starvation
b. Wait queue
c. Ready queue
d. Aging

Question 8
Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

Select one:
a. FCFS – First come First served
b. SJF – Shortest Job First
c. RR – Round Robin
d. None of the mentioned

Question 9
Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?

Select one:
a. it schedules in a very complex manner
b. its scheduling takes up a lot of time
c. it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU
d. none of the mentioned

Question 10
What is the main function of the command interpreter?

Question 11
The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is __

Select one:
a. it is too good an algorithm
b. knowing the length of the next CPU request
c. it is too complex to understand
d. it is too complex to understand

Question 12

Complex scheduling algorithms __

Select one:
a. are very appropriate for very large computers
b. use minimal resources
c. use many resources
d. all of the mentioned

Question 13
The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for __

Select one:
a. time sharing systems
b. multiprogramming systems
c. multiprocessor systems
d. operating system

Question 14
Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is sometimes called _

Select one:
a. Fast SJF scheduling
b. EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
c. HRRN scheduling – Highest Response Ratio Next
d. SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining Time Next

Question 15
Which one of the followingstatement is true

i) Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation

ii) Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation

iii) Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time

Select one:
a. i only
b. i and iii only
c. ii and iii only
d. i, ii and iii

Question 16
There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an input event in the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method. Which out of the following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the processes have a short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?

Select one:
a. tQ = 15ms
b. tQ = 40ms
c. tQ = 45ms
d. tQ = 50ms

Question 17
Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in milliseconds. Process Burst time

P1 6

P2 8

P3 7

P4 3

Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm.

Select one:
a. The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b. The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c. The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d. The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms

MODULE-III: MEMORY MANAGEMENT

Question 1

When memory is divided into several fixed sized partitions, each partition may contain __.
Select one:
a. exactly one process
b. atleast one process
c. multiple processes at once
d. None of these

Question 2

A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called:
Select one:
a. stack pointer
b. cache
c. accumulator
d. disk buffer

Question 3

Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?
Select one:
a. physical address
b. absolute address
c. logical address
d. none of the mentioned

Question 4

Sometimes the overhead of keeping track of a hole might be :
Select one:
a. larger than the memory
b. larger than the hole itself
c. very small
d. All of these

Question 5

Memories are normally classified according to their
Select one:
a. speed
b. cost
c. indexes
d. both a and b

Question 6

Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by
Select one:
a. memory management unit
b. CPU
c. PCI
d. none of the mentioned

Question 7

Because of virtual memory, the memory can be shared among:
Select one:
a. processes
b. threads
c. instructions
d. none of the mentioned

Question 8

Main memory of computer system is also called
Select one:
a. non volatile
b. volatile
c. reserved
d. large

Question 9
Swap space exists in:
Select one:
a. primary memory
b. secondary memory
c. CPU
d. none of the mentioned

Question 10
External fragmentation exists when :
Select one:
a. enough total memory exists to satisfy a request but it is not contiguous
b. the total memory is insufficient to satisfy a request
c. a request cannot be satisfied even when the total memory is free
d. None of these

Question 11

_ is the concept in which a process is copied into main memory from the secondary memory according to the requirement.
Select one:
a. Paging
b. Demand paging
c. Segmentation
d. Swapping

Question 12

The relocation register helps in :
Select one:
a. providing more address space to processes
b. a different address space to processes
c. to protect the address spaces of processes
d. None of these

Question 13
In internal fragmentation, memory is internal to a partition and :
Select one:
a. is being used
b. is not being used
c. is always used
d. None of these

Question 14
The first fit, best fit and worst fit are strategies to select a __.
Select one:
a. process from a queue to put in memory
b. processor to run the next process
c. free hole from a set of available holes
d. All of these

Question 15
Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data from secondary storage for use in main memory is called:
Select one:
a. fragmentation
b. paging
c. mapping
d. none of the mentioned

Question 16
Consider a virtual memory system with FIFO page replacement policy. For an arbitrary page access pattern, increasing the number of page frames in main memory will
Select one:
a. Always decrease the number of page faults
b. Always increase the number of page faults
c. Some times increase the number of page faults
d. Never affect the number of page faults

Question 17
Suppose the time to service a page fault is on the average 10 milliseconds, while a memory access takes 1 microsecond. Then a 99.99% hit ratio results in average memory access time of
Select one:
a. 1.9999 milliseconds
b. 1 millisecond
c. 9.999 microseconds
d. 1.9999 microseconds

MODULE IV : FILE AND DEVICE MANAGEMENT

Question 1

Which of the following is not an appropriate criterion for file organisation?
Select one:
a. Larger access time
b. ease of update
c. simple maintenance
d. economy of storage

Question 2

Allocated size of a file comes under?
Select one:
a. basic information
b. address information
c. access control information
d. usage information

Question 3

_ itself is a file owned by the operating system
Select one:
a. Logical file
b. Record
c. Database
d. Directory

Question 4

A filename without path information.
Select one:
a. File name
b. Complete filename
c. Directory name
d. Relative filename

Question 5

When will file system fragmentation occur?
Select one:
a. unused space or single file are not contiguous
b. used space is not contiguous
c. unused space is non-contiguous
d. multiple files are non-contiguous

Question 6
Mapping of file is managed by __
Select one:
a. virtual memory
b. file metadata
c. file system
d. None of the above

Question 7

MFD stands for?
Select one:
a. Main File Directory
b. Memory File Directory
c. Master File Directory
d. Master Format Directory

Question 8

Which one of the following explains the sequential file access method?
Select one:
a. random access according to the given byte number
b. read/write randomly by record
c. read bytes one at a time, in order
d. read/write sequentially by record

Question 9

What is the mounting of file system?
Select one:
a. attaching portion of the file system into a directory structure
b. removing the portion of the file system into a directory structure
c. rating of a filesystem
d. deleting a filesystem

Question 10

A basic element of data in a file.
Select one:
a. Memory
b. Record
c. Field
d. Value

Question 11

Typically, ………………… is on an individual block basis where each block contains a pointer to the next block in the chain.
Select one:
a. Variable allocation
b. Indexed allocation
c. Chained allocation
d. contiguous allocation

Question 12

…………………… are used mostly in applications where data are rarely processed exhaustively.
Select one:
a. sequential file
b. indexed file
c. indexed sequential file
d. pile

Question 13

An interactive user or a process has associated with pathname is a current directory which is often referred to as the …………………….
Select one:
a. working directory
b. list directory
c. update directory
d. create directory

Question 14

………………….. is a preallocation strategy, using variable size portions where the file allocation table needs just a single entry for each file, showing the starting block and the length of the file.
Select one:
a. Contiguous allocation
b. Variable allocation
c. Chained allocation
d. Indexed allocation

Question 15

To solve the problem of external fragmentation __ needs to be done periodically.
Select one:
a. compaction
b. check
c. formatting
d. replacing memory

Question 16

On systems where there are multiple operating system, the decision to load a particular one is done by _
Select one:
a. boot loader
b. bootstrap
c. process control block
d. file control block

Question 17

If too little space is allocated to a file _
Select one:
a. the file will not work
b. there will not be any space for the data, as the FCB takes it all
c. the file cannot be extended
d. the file cannot be opened

MODULE V : SECURITY AND PROTECTION

Question 1
Which principle states that programs, users and even the systems be given just enough privileges to perform their task?
Select one:
a. Principle of operating system
b. Principle of least privilege
c. Principle of process scheduling
d. None of the mentioned

Question 2

_ is an approach to restricting system access to authorized users.
Select one:
a. Role-based access control
b. Process-based access control
c. Job-based access control
d. None of the mentioned

Question 3
For system protection, a process should access _
Select one:
a. all the resources
b. few resources but authorization is not required
c. only those resources for which it has authorization
d. All of the mentioned

Question 4
From the following, which is not a common file permission?
Select one:
a. Write
b. Execute
c. Stop
d. Read

Question 5
The protection domain of a process contains _
Select one:
a. object name
b. rights-set
c. both object name and rights-set
d. None of the mentioned

Question 6
Who can add new rights and remove some rights?
Select one:
a. Copy
b. Trfer
c. Limited copy
d. Owner

Question 7
For system protection, a process should access _
Select one:
a. all the resources
b. only those resources for which it has authorization
c. few resources but authorization is not required
d. all of the mentioned

Question 8
Which of the following is a strong password?
Select one:
a. 19thAugust88
b. Darshan025
c. Engineering
d. P@assw0rd

Question 9
If the set of resources available to the process is fixed throughout the process’s lifetime then its domain is _
Select one:
a. static
b. dynamic
c. neither static nor dynamic
d. both static as well as dynamic

Question 10
The protection domain of a process contains _
Select one:
a. object name
b. rights-set
c. both object name and rights-set
d. None of the mentioned

Question 11
What forces the user to change password at first logon ?
Select one:
a. Default behavior of OS
b. Part of AES encryption practice
c. Devices being accessed forces the user
d. Account administrator

Question 12
Which Design Principles of Security states that unless the subject is given explicit access to the object it should be denied access to that object?
Select one:
a. Principles of least privileges
b. Principles of separation of privileges
c. Principles of least common mechanism
d. Principles of fail safe defaults

Question 13
What forces the user to change password at first logon ?
Select one:
a. Default behavior of OS
b. Part of AES encryption practice
c. Devices being accessed forces the user
d. Account administrator

Question 14
Which Design Principles of Security states that subject should be given only those privileges that it requires?
Select one:
a. Principles of least privileges
b. Principles of separation of privileges
c. Principles of least common mechanism
d. Principles of fail safe defaults

Question 15
What is not a good practice for user administration ?
Select one:
a. Isolating a system after a compromise
b. Perform random auditing procedures
c. Granting privileges on a per host basis
d. Using telnet and FTP for remote access

Question 16
Why is one time password safe ?
Select one:
a. It is easy to generated
b. It cannot be shared
c. It is different for every access
d. It is a complex enctypted password

Question 17
What is characteristic of RADIUS system ?
Select one:
a. It is essential for centralized encryption and authentication
b. It works on Network layer to deny access to unauthorized people
c. It provides centralized authentication mechanism via network devices
d. It’s a strong File access system.
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