Environmental Science (OOBB 305)-Semester III

Environmental Science (OOBB 305)-Semester III
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Question 1. Plants are the _ of energy.
Select one:
a. Renewable source
b. Non -Renewable source
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Clear my choice
Question 2.
, such as minerals and oil are those which will be exhausted in the future if we continue to extract these without a thought for subsequent generations
Select one:
a. Nonrenewable resources
b. Renewable resources
c. Either A or B
d. Both A and B
Clear my choice
Question 3. Environmental studies is a/an ___.
Select one:
a. Applied Science
b. Science
c. Social Science
d. Traditional Science
Clear my choice
Question 4. Under typical atmospheric conditions, water vapour is continuously generated by and removed by _ .
Select one:
a. Evaporation, Condensation
b. Condensation, Evaporation
c. Evaporation, distillation
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
Select one:
a. Plastics
b. Polythene
c. Glass
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. Nitrogen is the
amount of gas found in air.
Select one:
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Neutral
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Our natural resources can be compared with money in a bank. If we use it rapidly, the capital will be reduced to zero. On the other hand, if we use only the interest, it can sustain us over the longer term. This is called __
.
Select one:
a. Development
b. Sustainable utilisation or development
c. Sustainable utilisation
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which day is Earth Day?
Select one:
a. 22nd April
b. 31st October
c. 12th July
d. 10th September
Clear my choice
Question 9. Environmental studies include –
Select one:
a. Biology, Geology, Chemistry, Physics, Engineering, Statistics, and Economics
b. Health, Anthropology, Sociology,Computers and Philosophy
c. Either A or B
d. Both A and B
Clear my choice
The greenhouse effect is the process by which radiation from a planet’s atmosphere___________ to a temperature above what it would be without this atmosphere.
Select one:
a. Warms the planet’s surface
b. Freeze the planets surface
c. Melt the planet surface
d. None of the above
Question 10. Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of rainfall
Select one:
a. Evaporation
b. Condensation
c. Both evaporation & condensation
d. Filtration
Clear my choice
Question 11. CPR Environmental Education Centre, Madras was established in ?
Select one:
a. 1988
b. 1980
c. 1987
d. 1989
Clear my choice
Question 12. CPR Environmental Education Centre, Madras attention focuses on –
Select one:
a. NGOs
b. Teachers
c. Women
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. Uttarkhand Seva Nidhi (UKSN), Almora, The Organisation is a Nodal Agency which supports NGOs in need of .
Select one:
a. Funds for their environment related activities
b. Betterment of natural resources
c. Decay of hazardous elements in the nature
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. What is the full form of BNHS ?
Select one:
a. Bombay Natural History Sector
b. Bombay Natural History Society
c. Bombay Nuclear History Sector
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
World Wide Fund for Nature was initiated in ?
Select one:
a. 1968
b. 1969
c. 1970
d. 1971
Question 15. Who wrote the ‘Origin of Species’, which brought to light the close relationship between habitats and species ?
Select one:
a. Salim Ali’
b. Ralph Emerson
c. Charles Darwin
d. Henry Thoreau
Clear my choice
Question 16. ____spoke of the dangers of commerce to our environment way back in the 1840s. Select one: a. John Muir b. Ralph Emerson c. Charles Darwin d. Henry Thoreau Clear my choice Question 17. __
is remembered as having saved the great ancient sequoia trees in California’a forests.
Select one:
a. Ralph Emerson
b. Henry Thoreau
c. Aldo Leopald
d. John Muir

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2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. _ named so because they receive a lot of rain.
Select one:
a. Tropical Deciduous Forests
b. Tropical Thorn forests
c. The tropical rain forest
d. Swamp Forests
Clear my choice
Question 2. Coal and Petroleum is the __
natural energy resource?
Select one:
a. Renewable exhaustible
b. Non Renewable exhaustible
c. Maximum energy resource
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. ____ is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophy to organic substances.
Select one:
a. Primary productivity
b. Secondary productivity
c. Tertiary productivity
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 4. The forest type mainly depends on –
Select one:
a. Climate and Soil
b. Deciduous
c. Xerophytes
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. _ of forest depends on plants and animals form communities that are specific to each forest type.
Select one:
a. Biotic type
b. Abiotic type
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. _______
which is the largest dam in Tamil Nadu located across Cauvery river.
Select one:
a. Mettur dam
b. Adavinainarkovil Dam
c. Amaravathi Dam
d. Aliyar Reservoir
Clear my choice
Question 7. The Bishnoi tribe in Rajasthan is known to have protected their _______ for several generations.
Select one:
a. Khejdi trees
b. The Adivasi Bhatra tribe
c. The Munda tribe
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. _____highest percentage is covered by forests. Select one: a. Arunachal Pradesh b. Madhya Pradesh c. Mizoram d. Nagaland Clear my choice Question 9. South Africa has lost a large area of natural habitat in the last four decades, due to- Select one: a. Deforestation b. Vast development c. Overpopulation d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 10. _____ is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem.
Select one:
a. Biogeochemical cycle
b. Substance turnover
c. Phosphorous cycle
d. Cycling of substances
Clear my choice
Question 11. A Jatropha Curcas plant can be used for ?
Select one:
a. Bio Fuel
b. Medicinal
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. __ land that is not good for cultivation anymore
Select one:
a. Derelict
b. Catchmand
c. Arable
d. Reclaimable
Clear my choice
Question 13. Tsunamis can result from _______.
Select one:
a. large volumes of water being displaced.
b. an oceanic plate colliding into a continental plate
c. violent seafloor movement associated with earthquakes.
d. an explosive volcanic eruption causing an earthquake in a continental plate.
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which Land can be used for farming ?
Select one:
a. Catchmand
b. Arable
c. Reclaimable
d. Derelict
Clear my choice
Question 15. Components of a GIS is/are-
Select one:
a. An input system that allows for the collection of data
b. Computer hardware and software systems
c. Output system that generates hard copy
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 16. The first computerised GIS began its life in 1964 as a project of the Rehabilitation and Development Agency Programme under the__________________.
Select one:
a. Government of India
b. Government of Canada
c. Government of China
d. Government of US
Clear my choice
Question 17. can be defined as the collection of data about an object from a distance or collection of data remotely.
Select one:
a. Remote sensing
b. Geographical Information System
c. Satellite
d. None of the above
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3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. Wildlife Act was introduced in the____year.
Select one:
a. 1972
b. 1978
c. 1988
d. 1998
Clear my choice
Question 2. One of the following is air pollution?
Select one:
a. Species
b. Lichens
c. Algae
d. Bryophytes
Clear my choice
Question 3. _ is a problem not associated with population growth. Select one: a. Food and energy storages b. Environmental pollution c. Increased resource consumption d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 4. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year: Select one: a. 1986 b. 1974 c. 1994 d. 1975 Clear my choice Question 5. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was : Select one: a. Water Act b. Air Act c. Environmental Act d. Noise Pollution Rule Clear my choice Question 6. Which of the following environmental law allows private rights to use a resource that is, groundwater, by viewing it as an attachment to the land? Select one: a. Easement Act b. Indian Fisheries Act c. Factories Act d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 7. The Water Act contains: Select one: a. 4 Chapters b. 5 Chapters c. 6 Chapters d. 7 Chapters Clear my choice Question 8. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in: Select one: a. 1981 b. 1987 c. 1982 d. 2000 Clear my choice Question 9. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year: Select one: a. 1986 b. 1974 c. 1980 d. 1972 Clear my choice Question 10. The Forest (Conservation) Act extends to the whole of India except: Select one: a. Uttar Pardesh b. Karnataka c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Haryana Clear my choice Question 11. Coniferous forests requires ___
.
Select one:
a. High temperature
b. Low temperature
c. Moderate temperature
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. The diversions channels of the western Himalaya is known as _.
Select one:
a. Guls or Kuls
b. Khadins
c. Phalodi
d. Johads
Clear my choice
Question 13. _______is the first state in India which has made roof top rain water harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the state. Select one: a. Kerala b. Assam c. Tamil Nadu d. Goa Clear my choice ____________are the organisms that have animal like traits. Select one: a. Agaporomorphus colberti b. Zooplanktons c. Caligula d. None of the above Question 14. ________
components of an ecosystem which are inorganic constituents, organism and energy input forms environmental system.
Select one:
a. The three functional
b. The two functional
c. The four functional
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. Krishna Raja Sagara is a dam built on river Kaveri,The total surface area of the dam is approximately _____.
Select one:
a. 126 km2
b. 127 km2
c. 128 km2
d. 129 km2
Clear my choice
Question 16. Thorn forests are found in the _ of India.
Select one:
a. Semi-arid regions
b. Himalayan regions
c. Desert regions
d. Northeast regions
Clear my choice
Question 17. Evergreen forests look green throughout the year due to high rainfall. The trees ____
to form a continuous canopy.
Select one:
a. Because of less rainfall
b. Because of snowfall
c. Because of less temperature
d. Overlap with each other
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4th Module Assessment
Question 1. What is the hazardous pollutant released from inductive coils?
Select one:
a. Arsenic
b. Barium
c. Cobalt
d. Copper
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following element/s is/are cause of e-waste?
Select one:
a. Lead
b. Cadmium
c. Beryllium, or Brominates flame retardants
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. What is the hazardous pollutant released from LED’s?
Select one:
a. Arsenic
b. Barium
c. Cobalt
d. Cadmium
Clear my choice
Question 4. What are the types of e-Waste ?
Select one:
a. Large household appliances
b. IT and telecommunications equipment
c. Electrical and electronic tools
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the hazardous pollutant occurs in plastic?
Select one:
a. Lithium
b. PCBs
c. Lead
d. Copper
Clear my choice
Question 6. Nickel is released from _ Select one: a. Display b. Calculator c. Alloy d. Transformers Clear my choice Question 7. What is the hazardous pollutant released from circuit boards? Select one: a. Arsenic b. Barium c. Lead d. Copper Clear my choice Question 8. What is the hazardous pollutant released from telephones? Select one: a. Lithium b. Barium c. Lead d. Copper Clear my choice Question 9. Which of the following element make e-waste hazardous in nature? Select one: a. Lead b. Glass c. Plastic d. Iron Clear my choice Question 10. Plasma Pyrolys is a new generation, which integrates the_____ properties of plasma with the pyrolysis process
Select one:
a. Thermo-chemical
b. Thermo -electrical
c. Both of the above
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
______ defined the term biodiversity hot spots?
Select one:
a. Norman Myers
b. Aziz Ab’Saber
c. Warder Clyde Allee
d. Charles Christopher Adams
Question 11. Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlife conflict?
Select one:
a. Increase in the forest area
b. Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
c. Damage to human property
d. Destruction of habitat
Clear my choice
Question 12. ____ is called for the natural habitats under in-situ conservation?
Select one:
a. Protected areas
b. Exploited areas
c. Depleted areas
d. Unprotected areas
Clear my choice
Question 13. ______ help to scare off destructive nocturnal wildlife.
Select one:
a. Half motion sensor
b. Half strobe light
c. Strobe lights
d. Flashlight
Clear my choice
Question 14. The aggradational Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the _______ which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.
Select one:
a. Ganga and the Brahmaputra
b. Ganga and Vaishali
c. Vaishali and Brahmaputra
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. ______ links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.
Select one:
a. The Biligiriranga hills
b. Ananthagiri hills
c. Coonoor hills
d. Munnar hills
Clear my choice
Question 16. _______is not the biodiversity hotspot region? Select one: a. Antarctica b. Mesoamerica c. Madrean pine-oak woodlands d. California Floristic Province Clear my choice Question 17. ____________ is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone.
Select one:
a. Animals conflict
b. Desertification
c. Rural development
d. Organic farming
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5th Module Assessment

Question 1. ___________, the date was shifted to commemorate the adoption of the Convention on May 22, 1992 at the Rio Earth
Select one:
a. On December 20, 2000
b. On November 20, 2000
c. On December 20, 2001
d. On November20, 2000
Clear my choice
Question 2. Where we can find more number of brown palm civet animals in Tiger reserve?
Select one:
a. Kalakkad Mundanthurai tiger reserve
b. Jim Corbett tiger reserve
c. Sunderban tiger reserve
d. Periyar tiger reserve
Clear my choice
Question 3. _____ is a beautiful species of tarantula which is found only in a small area of less than 100 square kilometers of Andhra Pradesh in India. Despite its venomous nature, the tarantula is one of the costliest pets in the exotic pet trade.
Select one:
a. Cobalt blue tarantula
b. Pink toe tarantula
c. Chilean rose tarantula
d. Gooty tarantula
Clear my choice
Question 4. __ zone of peninsular India is by far the most extensive zone, covering India’s finest forest.
Select one:
a. Deccan Plateau
b. Semi-Arid
c. Desert
d. Himalayas
Clear my choice
Question 5. _______ on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
Select one:
a. The Nagoya Protocol
b. Th Kyoto Protocol
c. Earth Protocol
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. Himalayas are divided into how many ranges ?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Clear my choice
Question 7. is one of the ways for conservation of biodiversity.
Select one:
a. Overexploitation
b. Removal of exotic species
c. Increase in the pollution level in the ecosystem
d. Converting forest land into agricultural land in rapid way
Clear my choice
Question 8. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 to implement India’s
Select one:
a. Biological Diversity Act (2003)
b. Biological Diversity Act (2002)
c. Biological Diversity Act (2001)
d. Biological Diversity Act (2000)
Clear my choice
Question 9. ___
consists with its sparse vegetation and it has the richest wild sheep and goat community in the world.
Select one:
a. The Himalayan ranges immediately north of the Great Himalayan range
b. The Himalayan ranges immediately south of the Great Himalayan range
c. The Himalayan ranges immediately west of the Great Himalayan range
d. The Trans Himalayan region
Clear my choice
The fan-throated lizard is a species of agamid lizard which is found in _____.
Select one:
a. Northern India
b. Western India
c. Southern India
d. Eastern India
Question 10. _____ is considered as the national animal of two major countries India and Bangladesh.
Select one:
a. Komodo dragon
b. Baird’s tapir
c. Fennec fox
d. Bengal tiger
Clear my choice
Question 11. The aggradational Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the _______ which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.
Select one:
a. Ganga and the Brahmaputra
b. Ganga and Vaishali
c. Vaishali and Brahmaputra
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. ____ is called for the natural habitats under in-situ conservation?
Select one:
a. Protected areas
b. Exploited areas
c. Depleted areas
d. Unprotected areas
Clear my choice
Question 13. _______ defined the term biodiversity hot spots?
Select one:
a. Norman Myers
b. Aziz Ab’Saber
c. Warder Clyde Allee
d. Charles Christopher Adams
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlife conflict?
Select one:
a. Increase in the forest area
b. Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
c. Damage to human property
d. Destruction of habitat
Clear my choice
Question 15. _______is not the biodiversity hotspot region? Select one: a. Antarctica b. Mesoamerica c. Madrean pine-oak woodlands d. California Floristic Province Clear my choice Question 16. ____________ links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.
Select one:
a. The Biligiriranga hills
b. Ananthagiri hills
c. Coonoor hills
d. Munnar hills
Clear my choice
Question 17. ______ is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone.
Select one:
a. Animals conflict
b. Desertification
c. Rural development
d. Organic farming
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Assignment 2

Case Study (Centres of Biodiversity)

The mountain ecosystem is globally important as a centre of biological diversity.

The greatest diversity of vascular plant species occurs in mountains: Costa Rica, the

tropical eastern Andes, the Atlantic forest of Brazil, the eastern Himalaya-Yunnan

region, northern Borneo and Papua New Guinea. Other important centres are found in

arid subtropical mountains. Many of these areas with the greatest biological diversity

are designated as national reserves or other types of protected area. Mountains also

have a wide variety of animals like the bears, large cats, sheep, etc

The is exclusively found in South African fynbos vegetation.
Select one:
a. Orange-breasted sunbird
b. Ruby-cheeked sunbird
c. Fraser’s sunbird
d. Grey-headed sunbird
Clear my choice
Question 2. Clinotarsus curtipes is endemic to the _
.
Select one:
a. California
b. South Africa
c. Great Basin
d. Western Ghats of India
Clear my choice
Question 3. Amphipsalta zelandica, a species endemic to _.
Select one:
a. New Zealand
b. California
c. Great Basin
d. South Africa
Clear my choice
Question 4. __
is the modern concept of conservation.
Select one:
a. Bird Sanctuary
b. Biosphere reserve
c. National Park
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. MAB means ?
Select one:
a. Mammal & biological Programme
b. Man & biosphere Programme
c. Mammal & biosphere Programme
d. None of the above
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Research Methods for Managers (QAM204)-Semester III

Research Methods for Managers (QAM204)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment
Question 1. To reduce risk in managerial decision making of research, we require _.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Tools
c. Process and tools
d. Nothing
Clear my choice
Question 2. The descriptive study does not explain why the variables interact the way they do.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Maybe
d. mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 3. Experimental research will include at least:
Select one:
a. one independent variable
b. One dependent variable
c. one independent variable and one dependent variable
d. two independent variable and no dependent variable
Clear my choice
Question 4. First step in research is to identify _.
Select one:
a. The Problem()
b. Opportunity
c. Problem or Opportunity
d. Nothing
Clear my choice
Question 5. For a management decision, we require _.
Select one:
a. The Problem
b. Opportunity
c. Problem or Opportunity
d. Nothing
Clear my choice
Question 6. The study that explains why an event has occurred is known as ___ study.
Select one:
a. Explanatory
b. Descriptive
c. Explanatory and Descriptive
d. Neither Explanatory and Descriptive
Clear my choice
Question 7. A study tries to discover answer related to the question who, what, when, where and sometimes how. It is known as __ study.
Select one:
a. predictive
b. Experimental
c. Exploratory
d. Descriptive
Clear my choice
Question 8. These are the characteristics of a good research except:
Select one:
a. Clearly defined purpose
b. Detailed research process
c. Thoroughly planned research design
d. Unclear objectives
Clear my choice
Question 9. Research assists in making increasingly complex decision on:
Select one:
a. Goals
b. Strategies
c. Tactics
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. The descriptive study does not explain why an event has occurred.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Maybe
d. mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 11. When subject do not know if they are receiving the experiment treatment, they are said to be .
Select one:
a. blind
b. control
c. measurement
d. product
Clear my choice
Question 12. The purpose of research proposal is to present the management question to be researched and relate its importance.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Maybe
d. mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 13. Following are the components of research design except:
Select one:
a. sample selection
b. data collection
c. sample size determination
d. fund allocation
Clear my choice
Question 14. A document that suggests the data necessary for solving the management question and how the data will be gathered, treated and interpreted is called _
.
Select one:
a. weekely update
b. daily report
c. contract
d. research proposal
Clear my choice
Question 15. The artificiality of laboratory in experimental method is a/an _
.
Select one:
a. Advantage
b. Disadvantage
c. Bonus
d. Major benefit
Clear my choice
Question 16. When researchers lack a clear idea of the problem they will meet during the study, then they prefer:
Select one:
a. Exploratory Study
b. Descriptive study
c. Observation
d. Historical research
Clear my choice
Question 17. Repeating an experiment with different subject groups and conditions in experimental research is a/an __.
Select one:
a. Advantage
b. Disadvantage
c. Constraint
d. Concern

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2nd Module Assessment
The difference between a statistic and the parameter is called .
Select one:
a. Non-random
b. Probability
c. Sampling error
d. Random
Question 1. Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?
Select one:
a. Quota sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Snowball sampling
d. Stratified random sampling
Clear my choice
Question 2. Of the following sampling methods, which one is a probability method?
Select one:
a. Judgement
b. Quota
c. Simple random
d. Convenience
Clear my choice
Question 3. Snowball sampling can help the researcher to:
Select one:
a. Access deviant or hidden populations
b. Theorise inductively in a qualitative study
c. Overcome the problem of not having an accessible sampling frame
d. All the other three options are correct
Clear my choice
Question 4. Sample is regarded as a subset of
.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Set
c. Distribution
d. Population
Clear my choice
Question 5. Among these, which sampling is based on equal probability?
Select one:
a. Simple random sampling
b. Stratified random sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Probability sampling
Clear my choice
Question 6. A simple random sample is one in which:
Select one:
a. Every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected from a random starting point.
b. A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalise.
c. The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups.
d. Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected.
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?
Select one:
a. Snowball sampling
b. Stratified random sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Convenience sampling
Clear my choice
Question 8. Measurement scale for age in years is .
Select one:
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval Scale
d. Ratio Scale
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling?
Select one:
a. The researcher chooses who to approach and so might bias the sample.
b. Those who are available to be surveyed in public places are unlikely to constitute a representative sample.
c. The random selection of units makes it possible to calculate the standard error.
d. It is a relatively fast and cheap way of finding out about public opinions.
Clear my choice
Question 10. Measurement scale for temperature in degrees is
.
Select one:
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval Scale
d. Ratio Scale
Clear my choice
Question 11. Questionnaire is a:
Select one:
a. Research method
b. Measurement technique
c. Tool for data collection
d. Data analysis technique
Clear my choice
Question 12. Questionnaires can address the events and characteristics taking place at which time?
Select one:
a. In the past (retrospective questions)
b. In the present (current time questions)
c. In the future (prospective questions)
d. in past, present and future
Clear my choice
Question 13. Studies made by others for their own purpose represent _____.
Select one:
a. primary data
b. secondary data
c. primary and secondary
d. neither primary nor secondary
Clear my choice
Question 14. When constructing a questionnaire it is important to do each of the following except:
Select one:
a. Use “leading” or “loaded” questions
b. Use natural language
c. Understand your research participants
d. Pilot your test questionnaire
Clear my choice
For determination of equaity, we use _.
Select one:
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval Scale()
d. Ratio Scale()
Question 15. A census taker often collects data through which of the following?
Select one:
a. Standardised test
b. Interview
c. Secondary data
d. Observations
Clear my choice
Question 16. In case of quantitative research, samples are selected mostly by using:
Select one:
a. Probability techniques
b. Non-probability techniques
c. either Probability or non-probability
d. both probability and non-probability
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?
Select one:
a. Questionnaires
b. Focus groups
c. Correlational method
d. Secondary data

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3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. Function of hypothesis is to identify facts that are relevant and those that are not.
Select one:
a. Never
b. Always
c. Sometimes
d. Occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 2. Function of hypothesis is to guide the direction of the study.
Select one:
a. Never
b. Always
c. Sometimes
d. Occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 3. A strong hypothesis should be testable emparically.
Select one:
a. Always
b. Never
c. Sometimes
d. Occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 4. Reject the hypothesis if the sample mean is in:
Select one:
a. Acceptance zone
b. Rejection region
c. Reject by anymeans
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 5. 25 % level of significance means there are 75 out of 100 chances of committing type I error
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. May be
d. sometimes true
Clear my choice
Question 6. Degree of freedom for a ANOVA table is ___.
Select one:
a. n-1
b. c-1
c. r-1
d. n+1
Clear my choice
Question 7. A strong hypothesis should be adequate for its purpose.
Select one:
a. Always
b. Never
c. Sometimes
d. Occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 8. 25% level of significance means there are 25 out of 100 chances of committing type I error.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. May be
d. sometimes true
Clear my choice
Question 9. Accept the hypothesis if the sample mean is in:
Select one:
a. Acceptance zone
b. Rejection region
c. Reject by anymeans
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. The alternative hypothesis is the logical opposite of the null hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Never
b. sometimes
c. Always
d. occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 11. Null Hypothesis relates to:
Select one:
a. Sample statistic
b. Population Parameter
c. Sampling Distribution
d. indipendent Variable
Clear my choice
Question 12. The alternative hypothesis is the logical opposite of the null hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Never
b. sometimes
c. Always
d. occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 13. Significance level is indicated by _.
Select one:
a. aplha
b. beta
c. alpha + beta
d. alpha – beta
Clear my choice
Question 14. Power of test depend on all of these except:
Select one:
a. significance level
b. the reliability of the sample size
c. the effect size
d. population size
Clear my choice
Null Hypothesis is a statement that no difference exists between the parameter and statistic being compared.
Select one:
a. Never
b. Always
c. sometimes
d. occasionally
Question 15. 95% level of significance means there are 95 of 100 chances of acceptance and 5 % chances of error.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. May be
d. sometimes true
Clear my choice
Question 16. All of these are assumptions of ANOVA except:
Select one:
a. Normality of population
b. Homogenity
c. Randomness
d. Population size should be very small
Clear my choice
Question 17. F value is the ratio of:
Select one:
a. Mean square between and Mean square within
b. Mean square within and Mean square between
c. sum of square and degree of freedom
d. sum of square within and degree of freedom

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4th Module Assessment
If the same rank appears, it is impossible to calculate rank correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Question 1. Value of correlation greater than 1 is known as negative correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 2. Regression coefficient is independent of .
Select one:
a. Origin
b. Scale
c. Both origin and scale
d. Neither origin nor scale
Clear my choice
Question 3. If the value of one variable does not change with decrease in another variable, we call it no correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 4. If the value of one variable increases with increase in other variable, we call it negative correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 5. If the value of one variable increases with increase in other variable, we call it positive correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 6. If the value of one variable decreases with decrease in another variable, we call it negative correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 7. Value of “r ” equal to zero indicates negative correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 8. Value of “r “equal to zero indicates no correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 9. Value of “r “equal to zero indicates positive correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 10. Correlation helps us in understanding the relationship between two or more variables.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 11. If two variables oppose each other, then the correlation will be ____
.
Select one:
a. Positive Correlation
b. Zero Correlation
c. Perfect Correlation
d. Negative Correlation
Clear my choice
In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the:
Select one:
a. response or dependent variable
b. independent variable
c. intervening variable
d. is usually x
Question 12. The coefficient of determination for 16 is strong.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 13. The intercept in linear regression represents:
Select one:
a. the strength of the relationship between x and y
b. the expected x value when y is zero
c. the expected y value when x is zero
d. a population parameter
Clear my choice
Question 14. In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the explanatory variable (x) is:
Select one:
a. the correlation model
b. the regression model
c. used to compute the correlation coefficient
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. The value of the coefficient of correlation is:
Select one:
a. less than 1
b. greater than 1
c. between 0 to 1
d. between -1 to 1
Clear my choice
Question 16. The method of least squares finds the best fit line that the error between observed and estimated points on the line.
Select one:
a. Maximizes
b. Minimizes
c. Reduces to zero
d. Approaches to infinity
Clear my choice
Question 17. In correlation, both variables are always
.
Select one:
a. random
b. non-Random
c. same
d. never random
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5th Module Assessment
Question 1. You should always include terms such as ‘we’ and ‘our’ in reports to sound more friendly.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 2. Some general advice for preparing the written report includes all of these except:
Select one:
a. Make sure the report represents you and your work.
b. Do not organize the report by the stages of the research.
c. Do not write for your audience.
d. Do not discuss exploratory reports using statistics.
Clear my choice
Question 3. The findings section of the report is normally the largest section of the report and should be organized in a logical way.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 4. It is a good practice for the writer of the research report to assume that the reader has prior knowledge of the research problem.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 5. The basic purchase of the research report is to communicate the results, conclusions, and recommendations of the research project.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 6. The research methodology section of the report should include a specific discussion of the analysis process.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 7. The research methodology section of the research report should include a brief description of:
Select one:
a. The primary means of data collection
b. The type of instrument used to collect the information
c. A specific discussion of the analysis process
d. The primary means of data collection and a specific discussion of the analysis process
Clear my choice
Question 8. The researcher’s role is not only to just present the facts, but also to draw conclusions on the basis of the findings and to make recommendation on the basis of the conclusions.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 9. A graph is a method of presenting and arranging data that have been broken down by one or more systems of classification.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 10. The basic purpose of the research and the specific objectives agreed upon in the research proposal should be included in which section of the research report?
Select one:
a. title page
b. introduction
c. methodology
d. appendix
Clear my choice
Question 11. Which ONE of these phrases is best avoided in a report?
Select one:
a. Normal respondent
b. Frequently occurring
c. Typical behaviour
d. Average consumption
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which ONE of these is best avoided in a report?
Select one:
a. Idiomatic phrases
b. Political correctness
c. Conclusions
d. Transcribed fragments
Clear my choice
Question 13. The user of research information must be aware of the ways in which visual displays can be misleading. Which ONE of these is most likely to help the user?
Select one:
a. Including sample sizes
b. Removing data
c. Concealing data
d. Changing scales
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of these situations cannot be discovered to help preparation before a presentation?
Select one:
a. Room size
b. Reason for meeting
c. The mood of the meeting
d. Audience size
Clear my choice
The conclusions chapter is really just a summary of the whole report.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. False
c. sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Question 15. The report writer should always remember that people have expectations about what information they will find and where it will be. It is unusual for final reports to have a section with __.
Select one:
a. executive summary
b. method
c. appendices
d. research costs
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of these is a bad practice for a report?
Select one:
a. To state fieldwork dates and sample sizes
b. To have a contents page or another form of indexing
c. To include names of all respondents with contact details
d. To use a title that is short and to the point
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which section of a report is intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of the research question?
Select one:
a. Method
b. Results
c. Appendices
d. Objectives
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Assignment 2
Case study:
The ability to come up with a business idea can be transformed into a viable business where ideas supported by feasibility and a business plan can be sold to interested investors firms, and interested parties for a lump sum or a management contractor, are as agreed business ideas, if introduce at the right time, when demand for search service are a product introduced by the ideas is expected to surge, can lead to a very profitable business. Business ideas are always available through different sources; however, it is the application applied on this ideas, and timing makes all the difference in failure or successes. After discussing some good business ideas, Babu and Hari have decided that their best option is to open a small cafe. They believe that their background and experience in the hospitality industry will help them to succeed. Hari is keen to start up the business straight away and has already found what he thinks is a good location. However, Babu is not sure and want to spend more time researching the market before they commit to anything. Babu can see the benefit in being fully prepared before investing time and money into starting the business.

Question1. Before implementing a business plan it is a good idea to develop a business proposal and conduct the research to check the market potential.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Maybe
d. Mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 2. Through which data collection technique did Hari find out which was the good location?
Select one:
a. Primary source
b. Secondary source
c. Primary and secondary
d. Neither primary nor secondary source
Clear my choice
Question 3. The information related to what, where and when to execute the business plan is consided as ___.
Select one:
a. Descriptive study
b. Exploratory study
c. Explanatory study
d. Experimental study
Clear my choice
Question 4. Hari’s considering 1% level of significance means there are 1 out of 100 chances of committing type I error.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. May be
d. Sometimes true
Clear my choice
Question 5. The report prepared is NOT:
Select one:
a. Tangible evidence of a research project.
b. A research proposal.
c. Future secondary data.
d. A basis for decision making.
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Principles of Organizational Behaviour (HR208)-Semester III

Principles of Organizational Behaviour (HR208)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment
is related to the study of the culture and practises in different societies .
Select one:
a. Personality
b. Anthropology
c. Perception
d. Attitudes
Question 1. “Organisational behaviour integrates behavioural sciences. Many of its core concepts are borrowed from others fields and discipline like social psychology, sociology, and anthropology, etc.”. This statement is .
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partially Correct
d. Cant Say
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is the vital role played by OB ?
Select one:
a. Attaining Organizational Effectiveness
b. Sustaining Changes in Business Environment
c. Fulfilling Human Needs
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. Hawthorne Studies is related to which of the following stage of the organisational behaviour evolution?
Select one:
a. Organisational behaviour
b. Human relations movement
c. Scientific management
d. Industrial revolution
Clear my choice
Question 4. The Hawthorne experiment was conducted by_____

Select one:
a. Elton Mayo
b. F.W.Taylor
c. Henry Fayol
d. William Gilbreth
Clear my choice
Question 5. Scope of Organizational Behaviour does not include which of the following ?
Select one:
a. Leadership
b. Perception
c. Job Design
d. Technology
Clear my choice
Question 6. The basis of _ model is – leadership with a managerial orientation of support. The employees in turn are oriented towards job performance and participation. Select one: a. Custodial b. Autocratic c. Supportive d. Collegial Clear my choice Question 7. The field of organisational behaviour is primarily concerned with __.
Select one:
a. The behaviour of individual and groups.
b. How resources are effectively managed.
c. Control processes and interactions between organisations, external context.
d. Both a and c.
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which of the following is not correct for organisational behaviour?
Select one:
a. Organisational behaviour is a disciplinary approach
b. Organisational behaviour helps in analysis of behaviour
c. Organisational behaviour is goal-oriented
d. Organisational behaviour is an integral part of management
Clear my choice
Question 9. is the study of human behavior in organizational settings, the interface between human behavior and the organization, and the organization itself.
Select one:
a. Organisational Change
b. Organizational Behavior
c. Organisational Effectiveness
d. Organisational Culture
Clear my choice
Question 10. Organisational behaviour is______
.
Select one:
a. A science
b. An art
c. A science as well as an art
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Which of the following is the vital role played by OB ?
Select one:
a. Attaining Organizational Effectiveness
b. Sustaining Changes in Business Environment
c. Fulfilling Human Needs
d. All of these

Which of the following is a principle on which Organisational behaviour is based ?
A. Nature of the people.
B. Nature of the organisation.
Select one:
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Both A & B
d. None of these
Question 11. The basis of this model is power with a managerial orientation of authority. The employees in turn are oriented towards obedience and dependence on the boss.This model is known as _ Model . Select one: a. Custodial b. Autocratic c. Supportive d. Collegial Clear my choice Question 12. __ is recognised as The Father of “Human relations”.
Select one:
a. Elton Mayo
b. F.W.Taylor
c. Henry Fayol
d. William Gilbreth
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following is a feature of Organisational Behaviour ?
A. A Separate Field of Study and not a Discipline Only.
B. An Interdisciplinary Approach.
C. Applied Science.
D. A Humanistic and Optimistic Approach.
Select one:
a. All A,B, C & D
b. Both A & B
c. Only B
d. Both C& D
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following can be a challenge for Organizational Behaviour ?
Select one:
a. Employee expectation
b. Workforce diversity
c. Globalization
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following is Not a Key Force that Affects Organizational Behavior ?
Select one:
a. People.
b. Structure.
c. Technology.
d. Expenditure
Clear my choice
Question 16. Some of OB’s challenges and opportunities include all of the following except__________.
Select one:
a. reinforcing the importance of traditional methods of management
b. offering specific insights to improve interpersonal and people skills
c. helping us learn to cope in a continuous changing world
d. facilitating the improvement of quality and employee productivity
Clear my choice
Question 17. OB can be studied at various levels within an organization, and each level has a unique set of roles, responsibilities, and goals. Which of the following is not a Level to be studied in OB ?
Select one:
a. Individual Level
b. Group Level
c. Organizational Level
d. National Level

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Essentials of Production and Operations Management (POM204)-Semester III

Essentials of Production and Operations Management (POM204)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

is the process by which raw materials and other inputs are converted into finished goods.
Select one:
a. Inventory
b. Logistics
c. Production
d. Supply chain
Question 1. Inputs in a production system includes _
.
Select one:
a. organization, output
b. process, procedure
c. system, supply
d. men, materials
Clear my choice
Question 2. Production system model is comprised of .
Select one:
a. Production system
b. Conversion sub system
c. Control sub system
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which among the following is a correct statement?
Select one:
a. Operation Management is a subset of Production Management
b. Production Management is a subset of Operations Management.
c. Both Production Management and Operations Management are same
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 4.
is the process by which raw materials and other inputs are converted into finished goods.
Select one:
a. Inventory
b. Logistics
c. Production
d. Supply chain
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which is not a M of Operations Management?
Select one:
a. Man
b. Machine
c. Material
d. Mission
Clear my choice
Question 6. _, operating and control decisions are the three categories of decisions made by operations managers.
Select one:
a. Planning
b. Strategic
c. Inventory
d. Logistical
Clear my choice
Question 7. A production system model consists of . Select one: a. Inputs & Outputs b. Conversion sub system c. Control Sub System d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 8. are required to make a series of decisions in the production function.
Select one:
a. Personnel managers
b. Marketing managers
c. HR managers
d. Operation managers
Clear my choice
Question 9. __is to convert a set of inputs into a set of desired outputs. Select one: a. Production system b. Conversion sub system c. Inventory sub system d. Control sub system Clear my choice Question 10. Shop floor planning and control is a/an
.
Select one:
a. Strategic decision
b. Operating decision
c. Control decision
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Production management refers to the application of management principles to the _ in a factory. Select one: a. Production function b. Inventory function c. Marketing function d. Supply chain function Question 11. Production management and operations management can be differentiated based on of finished goods and/or services.
Select one:
a. Inseparabilities
b. Ubiquities
c. Tangibilities
d. Perishabilities
Clear my choice
Question 12. _
is responsible for all the activities related to production of goods and services
Select one:
a. Production executive
b. Production workers
c. Production personnel
d. Production manager
Clear my choice
Question 13. ___
is the process in which resources or inputs are converted into more useful products.
Select one:
a. Inventory management
b. Materials management
c. Operations management
d. Logistics management
Clear my choice
Question 14. is one of the objectives of Production Management.
Select one:
a. right person
b. right cost
c. right quantity
d. continuous process
Clear my choice
Manufacturing operations or processes convert inputs into outputs Select one: a. Tangible b. Intangible c. Inseparable d. Perishable Question 15. Materials should be made available at right quantity, right place, right price and at right ___
.
Select one:
a. size
b. time
c. forecast
d. features
Clear my choice
Question 16. is one of the most important factors required for production activities.
Select one:
a. Money
b. Man power
c. Time
d. Customer
Clear my choice
Question 17. Production manager must have __
on wastages.
Select one:
a. notice
b. choice
c. control
d. plan

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2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. Which among the followng is not a qualitative technique of forcasting?
Select one:
a. Naive Approach
b. sales force composite
c. exponential smoothing
d. Trend Projection
Clear my choice
Question 2. The greatest smoothing effect is obtained by using:
Select one:
a. a moving average based on a small number of periods.
b. exponential smoothing with a small weight value.
c. the root-mean-square error.
d. the barometric method.
Clear my choice
Question 3. Quantitative forecasting techniques include:
Select one:
a. Delphi method.
b. manager opinions.
c. exponential smoothing.
d. consumer surveys
Clear my choice
Question 4. Trend projection is an example of which kind of forecasting?
Select one:
a. Qualitative
b. Time-series
c. Barometric
d. Econometric
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which among the followng is a qualitative technique of forcasting?
Select one:
a. Naive Approach
b. Delphi method
c. exponential smoothing
d. Trend Projection
Clear my choice
Question 6. Forcasting done for a duration of 3 or more years is known as .
Select one:
a. Short range forecast
b. Medium Range Forecast
c. Long range Forecast
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Judgment methods are LEAST likely to be indicated in which of the following situations?
Select one:
a. A new product is being introduced.
b. Short-term forecasts are made for a product with stable demand.
c. The Delphi method is necessary.
d. The underlying product technology is in transition.
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which among the followng is not a qualitative technique of forcasting
Select one:
a. Naive Approach
b. Jury Opinion
c. consumer Market Survey
d. Trend Projection
Clear my choice
Question 9. Long term is the correct time horizon for which of the following decisions?
Select one:
a. Facility location
b. Inventory management
c. Staff planning
d. Master production planning
Clear my choice
Question 10. The forecasting time horizon that would typically be easiest to predict for would be the _____
.
Select one:
a. medium-range
b. long-range
c. short-range
d. intermediate range
Clear my choice
Which among the followng is a quantitative technique of forcasting?
Select one:
a. Naive Approach
b. exponential smoothing
c. Trend Projection
d. All of the above
A qualitative forecast:
Select one:
a. predicts the quality of a new product.
b. predicts the direction, but not the magnitude, of change in a variable.
c. is a forecast that is classified on a numerical scale from 1 (poor quality) to 10 (perfect quality).
d. is a forecast that is based on econometric methods.
Question 11. Which of the following is not a qualitative forecasting technique?
Select one:
a. Surveys of consumer expenditure plans
b. Perspectives of foreign advisory councils
c. Consumer intention polling
d. Time-series analysis
Clear my choice
Question 12. In a straight line equation Y = a + bX; b is the .
Select one:
a. Y-intercept
b. Slope
c. X-intercept
d. Trend
Clear my choice
Question 13. If regression analysis is used to estimate the linear relationship between the natural logarithm of the variable to be forecast and time, then the slope estimate is equal to
.
Select one:
a. the linear trend.
b. the natural logarithm of the rate of growth.
c. the natural logarithm of one plus the rate of growth.
d. the natural logarithm of the square root of the rate of growth.
Clear my choice
Question 14. The use of a smoothing technique is appropriate when .
Select one:
a. random behavior is the primary source of variation.
b. seasonality is present.
c. data exhibits a strong trend.
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the followng is a quantitative technique of forcasting?
Select one:
a. Naive Approach
b. Jury Opinion
c. consumer Market Survey
d. Linear Regression
Clear my choice
Question 16. Smoothing constant is indicated with the symbol
.
Select one:
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gama
d. None of the given option
Clear my choice
Question 17. Forcasting done for a duration of 3 month or less is known as _.
Select one:
a. Short range forecast
b. Medium Range Forecast
c. Long range Forecaste
d. None of the given option

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3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. _ refers to the arrangement of machinery, equipment and other industrial facilities.
Select one:
a. plant lining
b. plant location
c. facility location.
d. plant layout
Clear my choice
Question 2. Aircraft assembly is an example of
.
Select one:
a. Product layout
b. Process Layout
c. Cellular layout
d. Fixed Position layout
Clear my choice
Question 3. The objective of good layout is to . Select one: a. reduce production. b. reduce wastages c. reduce productivity. d. reduce labour Clear my choice Question 4. Choose the odd one. Select one: a. Tailoring Shop b. Cookies Production c. Aircraft assembly d. Sugar production Clear my choice Question 5. Which of these is not a factor of location decision? Select one: a. Climate b. Culture c. Asset d. Proximity to Customers Clear my choice Question 6. “Batch-production” occurs when many _ items are produced together.
Select one:
a. different
b. similar
c. varied
d. specified
Clear my choice
Question 7. Tailoring Shop is an example of
Select one:
a. Batch Production System
b. Job Shop Production System
c. Process Production System
d. Project Production System
Clear my choice
Question 8. Group Technology is also Known as
.
Select one:
a. Product layout
b. Process Layout
c. Cellular layout
d. Fixed Position layout
Clear my choice
Question 9. The advantage of locating a plant in urban (city) region is the:
Select one:
a. availability of land.
b. disposal of waste is easy.
c. cost of operation is low.
d. large markets for finished products.
Clear my choice
Question 10. Cellular manufacturing is an approach whereby production can be done in
Select one:
a. Small batches
b. Medium batches
c. Size of the batch does not make any impact in production
d. None of given options
Clear my choice
Which among the following layouts is related with ship construction?
Select one:
a. Fixed position layout
b. Cellular layout
c. Product Layout
d. Process Layout
Product layout is also called as layout.
Select one:
a. process
b. product
c. line
d. matrix
Question 11. Fixed position layout is adopted when:
Select one:
a. Products are of different variety
b. Product is very heavy involving assembly of large number of parts
c. Products are in large numbers
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. _
layout is also called as functional layout.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Product
c. Line
d. Matrix
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which kind of labour force is required in case of Jobbing Production?
Select one:
a. Highly Skilled
b. Semi skilled
c. Unskilled
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. Grouping together of like machines in one department is done in
layout.
Select one:
a. process
b. product
c. line
d. matrix
Clear my choice
Question 15. __ layout is suitable for non-repetitive or standard type of production.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Product
c. Line
d. Matrix
Clear my choice
Question 16. Plant _ is the process which helps in determining where the plant should be located, for maximum operating economy and effectiveness.
Select one:
a. layout
b. design
c. location
d. arrangement
Clear my choice
Question 17. In
type of layout, machineries are arranged according to the sequence of operations.
Select one:
a. process
b. product
c. line
d. matrix

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4th Module Assessment

Question 1. Utilisation is measured by :
Select one:
a. Effective capacity / Design capacity
b. Actual output / Design capacity
c. Actual output / Effective capacity
d. Design capacity / Actual output
Clear my choice
Question 2. The feasibility of the proposed master schedule is assessed using the:
Select one:
a. aggregate plan
b. material plan.
c. rough-cut capacity plan.
d. available-to-promise inventory.
Clear my choice
Question 3. In aggregate planning, planners avoid focusing on individual products or services because:
Select one:
a. capacity can almost always be allocated to different products or services.
b. customers whose demand can’t be satisfied out of existing inventory can always be satisfied with other products or back orders.
c. costs for individual products or services are almost impossible to calculate.
d. focusing on a group of similar products or services tends to be more accurate.
Clear my choice
Question 4. refers to the capacity usage measurement.
Select one:
a. Capacity
b. Run hour
c. Efficiency
d. Utilization
Clear my choice
Question 5. Output measures of capacity are preferred for:
Select one:
a. High-volume processes
b. High customization
c. Flexible flow processes
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. In the service sector, aggregate planning for the production of high-volume intangible output is directed toward
Select one:
a. finding the size of the workforce to be employed
b. planning for human resource requirements and managing demand.
c. attempting to manage demand to keep equipment and employees working.
d. smoothing the production rate.
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is NOT a capacity option of aggregate planning?
Select one:
a. varying production rates through overtime or idle time
b. back ordering during high-demand periods
c. changing inventory levels
d. subcontracting
Clear my choice
Question 8. The time horizon for an aggregate plan is typically:
Select one:
a. 3 to 18 months
b. 24 to 60 months
c. 0 to 3 months
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 9. The aggregate planning strategy that is most likely to impact adversely upon the productivity of manufacturing workers is:
Select one:
a. Layoff of workers
b. Building anticipation inventory
c. Hiring of temporary workers
d. Use of overtime
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which one of these is not related to the master scheduling process?
Select one:
a. yield management
b. rough-cut capacity planning
c. time fences
d. available-to-promise
Clear my choice
The operations area input to the aggregate plan includes:
Select one:
a. Product design changes
b. Workforce capacities
c. Demand forecasts
d. Cost data
Which of the following functions of the production planning and controlling is related to the time table of activities?
Select one:
a. Routing
b. Scheduling
c. Dispatching
d. Expediting
Question 11. The push–pull boundary located at the beginning of a supply chain is known as:
Select one:
a. assemble-to-order (ATO) supply chain
b. make-to-stock (MTS) supply chain.
c. make-to-order (MTO) supply chain.
d. build-to-order (BTO) supply chain
Clear my choice
Question 12. Capacity decisions have a direct influence on performance of production system in respect of
.
Select one:
a. Delivery performance
b. Quality control
c. Plant size
d. Manpower
Clear my choice
Question 13. Scheduling shows:
Select one:
a. Total cost of production
b. Total material cost
c. Which resource should do which job and when
d. The flow line of materials
Clear my choice
Question 14. Scheduling deals with:
Select one:
a. Number of jobs to be done on a machine
b. Number of machine tools used to do a job
c. Different materials used in the product
d. Fixing up starting and finishing times of each operation in doing a job
Clear my choice
Question 15. Aggregate planning solves problems involving:
Select one:
a. aggregate decisions or stock keeping unit (SKU) level decisions.
b. stock keeping unit (SKU) level decisions rather than aggregate decisions.
c. aggregate decisions rather than stock keeping unit (SKU) level decisions.
d. aggregate decisions and stock keeping unit (SKU) level decisions.
Clear my choice
Question 16. Aggregate planning, to be effective, requires inputs from:
Select one:
a. throughout the supply chain.
b. all customers.
c. all departments
d. all suppliers.
Clear my choice
Question 17. What information does a master production schedule provide that an aggregate plan does not?
Select one:
a. Revenue information for the planning period
b. Specific product family production information
c. Expense information for the planning period
d. A specific machine schedule for each order

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5th Module

Question 1. Processes that operate with six sigma quality over the short term are assumed to produce long-term defect levels below ______________defects per million opportunities. Select one: a. 2.4 b. 3.4 c. 4.4 d. 5.4 Clear my choice Question 2. Inventory classified on the basis of annual consumption value is known as _______.
Select one:
a. ABC Analysis
b. HML Analysis
c. VED Analysis
d. SOS Analysis
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which of the folloing is a step in systematic cleaning of 5S?
Select one:
a. Identify points to check for performance
b. Determine acceptable performance.
c. Mark equipment and controls with visual indicators
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 4. _ is a management approach for long term success through customer satisfaction.
Select one:
a. TQM
b. ISO9001
c. six-sigma
d. quality-circle
Clear my choice
Question 5. While setting quality objectives,
needs to be considered.
Select one:
a. Material quality
b. Customer
c. Market demand
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. . Which of the folloing is a step in standardising of 5S?
Select one:
a. Establish a routine check sheet for each work area
b. Establish and document standard methods across similar work areas.
c. Document any new standard methods for doing the work.
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the folloing is a step in sustaining of 5S?
Select one:
a. Determine the 5S level of achievement – the overall grade.
b. Perform worker-led routine 5S checks using the 5S check list
c. Conduct scheduled, routine checks by team leads or supervisors or by people from outside of the workgroup
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which of the following is not a Dimension of Quality?
Select one:
a. Reliability
b. Features
c. Durability
d. Design
Clear my choice
Question 9. Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on
.
Select one:
a. Employee
b. Customer
c. Employee and Customer
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which of the folloing is a step in simplifying process of 5S?
Select one:
a. Determine a location for each item based on frequency of use and proper safety zone
b. Develop shadowboards and label items – a home for everything.
c. Determine how to replenish supplies
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 11. Six-Sigma can help many _ to design better products with less wastage and at a minimum possible cost.
Select one:
a. companies
b. retailers
c. engineers
d. customers
Clear my choice
Question 12.
is one of the benefits of Six Sigma.
Select one:
a. Down-top approach
b. Top-down approach
c. Left-right approach
d. Top-level approach
Clear my choice
Question 13. JIT stands for Just-in _.
Select one:
a. time
b. term
c. test
d. today
Clear my choice
Question 14. Kaizen is a term.
Select one:
a. Greek
b. Latin
c. Japanese
d. Korean
Clear my choice
Question 15. _
concept is used to measure the company’s quality.
Select one:
a. Production system
b. Sales forecast
c. Six sigma
d. ISO 9001
Clear my choice
Question 16. In manufacturing a product, cost can be kept within control through_________ reduction.
Select one:
a. profit
b. loss
c. wastage
d. time
Clear my choice
Question 17. Better _ of the product improves consumers satisfaction, this enhances the goodwill of the organization.
Select one:
a. quantity
b. quality
c. shape
d. variations
Clear my choice
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Assignment 2
Case Study:
The stadium used by Manchester City Football Club was originally designed to be the central arena for the Manchester bid to host the 1996 Olympics. When the games were awarded to Atlanta, the City of Manchester refocused their efforts on the Commonwealth Games bid for 2002, which they won.
The stadium was originally planned as an 80,000 seat arena for the Olympics. This was revised down to a 60,000 capacity stadium for the Commonwealth Games. However, the Council’s main concern was that the stadium should have a sustainable future so the plan was revised down again to accommodate a future for the stadium as the new ground for Manchester City football club to replace their Main Road Stadium in Moss Side. The revised plan meant that the capacity for the Games in 2002 was 38,000 which then rose to 48,000 in 2003 when it was handed over to Manchester City football club. Construction of the stadium took 3,000 workers just over 2 years to complete and was handed over to the organisers four months ahead of the games. The Commonwealth Games was a spectacular success both for British athletes and the City of Manchester. However, there was no sentiment shown when the bulldozers moved in just hours after the closing ceremony. The track was removed, a third tier of seating was added and the central pitch was lowered. The conversion costs of £30 million were met by the football club.
This plan was not without criticism, as there were many calls by leading athletes for a large athletics stadium to be kept. However, the stadium from both Sydney and Atlanta Olympics became rugby and baseball grounds respectively. The Manchester Stadium has also been used as a concert venue and has a capacity for 60,000 fans, one of Europe’s largest open air concert venues.
In 2010, an application was granted to expand the capacity to 60,000 for football fans. In 2002 the Manchester Commonwealth stadium had two tiers of seating, but after the stadium’s conversion to a football ground, it had three tiers of seating. There are 2,000 parking spaces at the stadium itself with a further 8,000 spaces provided locally, there are 2 train stations within a half hour walk of the ground and for concerts and special events a bus service is set up. The stadium is used twice weekly during the football season, hosts conferences, major sporting events and even weddings.
Question 1. The original capacity for the Commonwealth Games stadium was reduced from 60,000 to 38,000 in year 2002.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. can’t say
d. Mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 2. Construction of the stadium took 3,000 workers just over 2 years to complete and was handed over to the organisers four months ahead of the games.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. can’t say
d. Mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 3. Application was granted to expand the capacity of Manchester Stadium to 60,000 for football fans in the year 2010.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. can’t say
d. Mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 4. The stadium from both Sydney and Atlanta Olympics became baseball and rugby grounds respectively.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. can’t say
d. Mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 5. The stadium is used twice weekly during the football season, hosts conferences, major sporting events and even weddings.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. can’t say
d. Mostly false

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