B.Com 3 Semester Economic Theory & Applications

Economic Theory & Applications
Q1. Explain briefly the difference between a sharp and a fuzzy discontinuity design (you do not need to explain how estimation would proceed in each case; just describe the kind of situation that would give rise to a sharp RDD and a fuzzy one).
Q2. Given the model Yi= β0+ β1X1i+ β2X2i + β3X3i +ui, where you know that E[ui|X]=0, imagine that you estimate instead the “incomplete” model Yi= β0+ β1X1i +u*i. Under what conditions will the OLS estimator of β1 be inconsistent?
Q3. Could you test that the instruments (Z1i, Z2i y Z3i) are exogenous? If your answer is yes, how would you do it? If not, why?
Q4. How could you check whether the instruments are weak? Explain.
Q5. You want to estimate whether there is a relationship between gender and smoking at your university. You collect data for a random sample of 200 students and run a linear probability model, a probit model and a logit model, where the dependent variable is a binary indicator for whether an individual smokes, and the main explanatory variable is a dummy variable indicating males (you also include other controls such as age). Your estimated coefficients are 0.084 in the LMP, 0.688 in the probit model, and 0.389 in the logit model. In spite of these large differences, all three models yield similar estimates of the marginal effect of gender on the probability of smoking. How can this be?
Q6. What is meant by marginalisation and conditioning in the process of model reduction within the dynamic modelling tradition?
Q7. Define the term’s weak stationarity, Integrated of order one and uniform mixing. How would you asses the stationarity of a variable X.
Q8. When does non-stationary data not give rise to the problems of a spurious regression.

Case Study
In “The Power of Political Voice: Women’s Political Representation and Crime in India”, Lakshmi Iyer and her coauthors study the effect of political representation among under-represented social groups on crimes committed against members of the disadvantaged group. In particular, they study the impact of increased female representation in local governments on crimes against women in India.
Q1. Do you expect the “true” causal effect of interest to be positive, negative, or about zero? Why?
Q2. Suppose that they collected (observational) data across different Indian municipalities in a given year (say, 2005) on the fraction of women in the local council and the annual number of crimes against women (normalized by population). They could then run an OLS regression where crime would be the dependent variable and the fraction of women the main explanatory variable. Do you think a simple OLS regression with no additional regressors would answer the causal question of interest? Explain why such an OLS estimate would be biased, and in which direction you think the bias would go.
Q3. Describe one variable that should be included in the regression and explain why.
MCQ
1. A qualitative forecast
2. Which of the following is not a qualitative forecasting technique?
3. The first step in time-series analysis is to
4. Forecasts are referred to as naive if they
5. Time-series analysis is based on the assumption that
6. Which of the following is not one of the four types of variation that is estimated in time-series analysis?
7. The cyclical component of time-series data is usually estimated using
8. In time-series analysis, which source of variation can be estimated by the ratio-to-trend method?
9. If regression analysis is used to estimate the linear relationship between the natural logarithm of the variable to be forecast and time, then the slope estimate is equal to
10. The use of a smoothing technique is appropriate when
11. The greatest smoothing effect is obtained by using
12. The root-mean-square error is a measure of
13. Barometric methods are used to forecast
14. A leading indicator is a measure that usually
15. If 3 of the leading indicators move up, 2 move down, and the remaining 6 are constant, then the diffusion index is
16. A single-equation econometric model of the demand for a product is a ________ equation in which the quantity demanded of the product is an ________ variable.
17. A reduced form equation expresses
18. Trend projection is an example of which kind of forecasting?
19. Turning points in the level of economic activity can be forecast by using
20. Econometric forecasts require
21. Which of the following is an example of a capital input?
22. Which of the following is an example of an intermediate product?
23. Which of the following is an assumption associated with the definition of a production function?
24. The marginal product of labor is equal to
25. The average product of labor is equal to
26. The output elasticity of labor is
27. The point of inflection on the total product curve corresponds to the level of output where
28. The law of diminishing returns
29. Stage II of production begins at the point
30. The marginal revenue product of labor for a firm
31. An isoquant that is
32. The absolute value of the slope of a convex isoquant
33. The combination of inputs is optimal
34. An isocost line will be shifted further away from the origin
35. If isoquants are plotted on a graph with capital measured on the vertical axis and labor on the horizontal axis, then an increase in the wage rate will cause the isocost line
36. A line that connects all points where the marginal rate of technical substitution is equal to the ratio of input prices is called the
37. Suppose that three isoquants that represent 10, 20, and 30 units of output are plotted on a graph and a straight line is drawn from the origin through the isoquants. If the portion of the line between the isoquants that represent 10 and 20 units of output is longer than the portion of the line between the isoquants that represent 20 and 30 units of output, then the firm represented by these isoquants
38. If the output elasticities of all inputs used by a firm are summed together, then the total
39. Which of the following is not a characteristic of production technologies that can be described by the Cobb-Douglas production function?
40. If the marginal product of labor is 2, the marginal product of capital is 4, the wage rate is \$3, the rental price of capital is \$6, and the price of output is \$1.50, then the firm should

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Accounting for managers

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Accounting for managers
SECTION – A

Answer any five of the questions below.
1. For the following transactions in ABC Ltd, prepare Accounting Equation.
a. Started Business with Cash Rs 36,000
b. Purchased goods for cash Rs 18,000 and credit Rs 12,000
c. Paid Rent in advance Rs 300
d. Paid Salary Rs.300 and Salary outstanding is Rs 60.
e. Bought motorcycle for personal use Rs.3,000

2 . Prepare a Trial Balance of Mohan& Co. as on March 31 2003
Capital 9,20,000
Sundry creditors 1,88,520
Bills payable 69,300
Sales 12,18,500
Provision for doubtful debts 13,200
Interest (cr.) 3,400
Building 7,00,000
Machinery 1,20,000
Sundry debtors 1,56,000
Cash in hand 9,880
Cash at bank 1,45,340
Bills receivable 58,440
Purchases 8,55,220
Carriage outwards 12,910
Discount (dr.) 6200
Sales return 2850

3 .(a) Explain the nature ,uses and limitations of Financial Statements
(b) Prepare a Trading Account of Mr. Anil for the year ending 31st March, 2009
Rs.
Purchases 3, 00,000
Sales 5, 00,000
Stock (April 1, 2008) 40,000
Wages 30,000
Return Outwards 3.000
Return inward 2,500
Freight and clearing charges 5.000
Stock on 31st March, 2009 42,000

4 .Explain what is Bank Reconciliation statement? Draw a Proforma of a Bank Reconciliation statement with favorable balance as per cash book. Illustrate with the help of an example.

5 .Write Short notes on any three of the following.
a. Dual Aspect Concept
b. Cash book is Journal as well as Ledger. Explain
c. Accrued Income and Outstanding Expenses
d. Convention of Conservatism
e. Accounting Cycle

6 .B and C enter a joint venture to prepare a film for the Government. The Government agrees to pay Rs.1, 00,000.B contributes Rs.10, 000 and C contributes Rs. 15,000.These amounts are paid into a Joint Bank Account. Payments made out of the joint account were:
Purchase of equipment Rs.6000
Hire of equipment Rs.5, 000
Wages Rs.45, 000
Materials Rs.10, 000
Other expenses Rs.5, 000

B paid Rs.2, 000 as licensing fees. On completion, the film was found defective and Government made a deduction of Rs.10, 000.The equipment was taken over by C at a valuation of Rs.2, 000. Prepare P&L account in respect of the company.

7. Shakti International invited applications for 100,000 shares of Rs 10 each issued at a discount of 10% payable as follows:
Application Rs 4 per share
Allotment Rs 3
First call Re 1
Final call Balance amount

The company received applications for 140,000 shares and pro rata allotment was made for applications for 120,000 shares who had applied for 600 shares failed to pay amount due on allotment and his shares were forfeited after the first call. Subsequently after the final call, half of his shares were re-issued to K for Rs 11 per share. Journalize and prepare balance sheet in the books of Shakti International.

8. Anil sent on 1st July, 2006 to Rahul goods costing Rs.50,000 and spent Rs.1,000 on packing etc. On 3rd July 2006, Rahul received the goods and sent his acceptance to Anil for Rs.30,000 payable at 3 months. Rahul spent Rs.2,000 on freight and cartage,Rs 500 on godown rent and Rs.300 on insurance. On 31st December, 2006 he sent his Account Sales (along with the amount due to)Showing that 4/5 of the goods had been sold for Rs.55,000.Rahul is entitled to a commission of 10%.One of the customers turned insolvent and could not pay Rs.600 due from him. Show the necessary ledger accounts.

Section – B
Case study

X, Y and Z were partners in a firm sharing profits in the proportions of 1/2, 1/3 and 1/6 respectively. The Balance Sheet of the firm on 31st March 2001 was as follows:
Liabilities Amount Assets Amount
Trade creditors 15,000 Cash at bank 5,000
Employees provident fund 6,000 Debtors 40000
Reserve fund 18,000 Less: provision 2000 38,000
Capitals Stock 30,000
X 65,000 Investments 15,000
Y 30,000 Patents 10,000
Z 20,000 115000 Plant and machinery 50,000
Goodwill 6,000
1,54000 1,54,000

Z retired on the above date on the following terms:
a) Goodwill of the firm was valued at Rs. 30,000
b) Value of patents was to be reduced by 20% and that of plant & machinery to 90%.
c) Provision for doubtful debts was to be raised to 6 %.
d) Z took over the investments at a value of Rs.17,600.
e) Liability for workmen’s compensation to the extent of Rs. 375 is to be created.
f) Trade creditors to the extent of 2.5 % are not likely to claim their dues.
g) Amount due to Z is to be settled on the following basis:

50 % on retirement, 50 % of the balance to be paid in 2 equal half yearly installments carrying interest at 5 % p.a. and the balance by a Bill of Exchange (without interest) at 3 months.

The entire capital of the firm as newly constituted is fixed at Rs.100, 000 and the partners’ capital accounts are to be adjusted in the profit sharing ratio. Any excess is to be transferred to current account and any deficit is to be brought in cash

Questions:
Prepare Revaluation account, Partners’ Capital accounts and Balance Sheet of X & Y after Z’s retirement. Also prepare Z’s Loan account till it is fully paid.

Section – C

1. Which of the following would not be included on a balance sheet?
2. Remington provided the following information about its balance sheet:

Cash \$ 100
Accounts receivable 500
Stockholders’ equity 700
Accounts payable 200
Bank loans 1,000
Based on the information provided, how much are Remington’s liabilities?
3. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of financial accounting in a limited liability company?
4. Which of these items would be accounted for as an expense?
5. A company sells goods on credit valued at £25 000 to a customer. At what point in the sales cycle should this sale be recognized in the accounts?
6. Exe Ltd sells goods on credit to Wy Ltd for £3000. Which of the following accounting entries correctly records this transaction?
7. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental accounting equation?
8. A business has the following transactions recorded in its sales ledger for 2001: £000 Debtors at 1 January 2001 25 Sales in 2001 345 Receipts from debtors 318 Credit notes raised in 2001 23 Which is the correct figure for debtors at 31 December 2001?
9. The financial position of the business on a given date is reported on the
10. The net profit or loss for a particular period of time is reported on the
11. Which of the following statements is correct?
12. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to a trial balance?
13. The investment of cash into the business results in a/an
14. A business has the following items extracted from its trial balance:
£000
Opening stock 10
Purchases 25
Sales 40
Expenses 10
In addition, its closing stock is valued at £15 000.
What is the correct figure for the business gross profit?
15. The purchase of supplies for cash will result in a/an
16. Which of the following accounting concepts are being followed when a company operates a provision
17. The double entry required to write off a specific bad debt is:
18. Services rendered for cash will result in a/an
19. Cash is received from a client for office rental space.
20. Keeping the records of the business separate from the personal records of the owner of the business is said to be adherence to which accounting principle or concept?
21. Which of the following is a formal written promise to pay a definite sum of money on demand or at a fixed or determinable future date?
22. Using lower of cost or net realisable value for the purpose of inventory valuation is the implementatation of which of the following concepts?
23. The concept of separate entity is applicable to which of the following businesses?
24. The revenue recognition principle dictates that all types pf revenue should be recognised or recorded when
25. which of the following is the time span into which the total life of a business is divided for the purpose of preparing financial statements?
26. The allocation of owner’s private expenses to his/her business violates which of the following?
27. Showing purchased office equipments in financial equipments is applicability of ?
28. Peter Atli decided to pay himself a salary of \$3,000 per month for the work he performs for his business, a single proprietorship. Each time a cheque is recorded for \$3,000, which account should be increased?
29. Tally package is developed by
30. We can change the Company Information from
31. The shortcut key to quit from Tally is
32. The shortcut used to activate calculator is
33. What should be credited, if salary is paid to Sohail?
34. The personal telephone bill of Junior Sample was paid by issuing a cheque from the business chequing account. No business calls had been made from Junior’s personal phone. What account must be charged for this transaction?
35. Which of the following is/are the example/s of Intangible Asset?
36. Which of the following is a FIRST product of accounting cycle?
37. What will be debited, if Mohsin commenced business with cash?
38. Assets are divided in which of the following categories in balance sheet.
39. What will be debited, if business purchased Vehicle on cash?
40. Franchise rights, goodwill and patents are the examples of:

Or

1. Which of the following is the activity which finance people are involved?
Options
Investing decisions
Operation decisions
Promotion decisions
Marketing decisions
2. Refers to part of current assets that fluctuates directly with changes in sales level.
Options
Financing
Investment
Permanent assets
Temporary assets

3. Profit and Loss Account is–
Options
Real Account
Nominal Account
Personal Account
None of the above

4. According to the accounting profession, which of the following would be considered a cash-flow item from a “financing” activity?
Options
A cash outflow to the government for taxes.
A cash outflow to repurchase the firm’s own common stock.
A cash outflow to lenders as interest.
A cash outflow to purchase bonds issued by another company

5. Which of these items would be accounted for as an expense?
Options
Repayment of a bank loan.
Dividends to stockholders
The purchase of land.
Payment of the current period’s rent.

6. Which of the following would not be included on a balance sheet?
Options
Accounts receivable.
Accounts payable
Sales.
Cash.

7. The requirement that only transaction data capable of being expressed in terms of money be included in the accounting records relates to the —
Options
Cost principle
Monetary unit assumption
Economic entity assumption
Both a & b

8. Revenue is generally recognized at the point of sales .Which principle is applied herein–
Options
Consistency principle
Matching principle
Revenue recognition principle
Cost principle

9. Petty cash fund is–
Options
Used to pay relatively small amounts
Reimbursed when the amount of money in the fund is reduced to a predetermined minimum amount
Established by estimating the amount of cash needed for disbursement of relatively small amounts during a specified period
All of the above

10. Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial balance?
Options
Recording transactions in the wrong account.
Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records
Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry
Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited and the account credited.
11. Book Value is–
Options
The amount that is due at the maturity or due date of a note.
The process of transferring the cost of natural resources to an expense account.
The cost of a fixed asset minus accumulated depreciation on the asset
The estimated value of a fixed asset at the end of its useful life.

12. An examination of the sources and uses of funds is part of–
a forecasting technique
A funds flow analysis
a ratio analysis
calculations for preparing the balance sheet

13. Which of the following is not a cash outflow for the firm?
Depreciation.
Dividends
Interest payments
Taxes

14. What must be known or estimated in order to calculate depreciation?
The estimated useful life of the asset to the company
The acquisition cost of the asset.
The estimated residual value of the asset.
All of the above

15. Information that goes into ________ can be used to help prepare ________.
a forecast balance sheet; a forecast income statement
forecast financial statements; a cash budget
a cash budget; forecast financial statements
a forecast income statement; a cash budget

16. Which of the following terms best relates to natural resources?
Depreciation.
Depletion.
Amortization.
Accrual

17. A debit may signify–
An increase in an asset account
A decrease in an asset account
An increase in a liability account
An increase in the owner’s capital Account

18. When a partnership firm is to be dissolved, the following account is opened in the ledger–
Revaluation Account
Realisation Account
Profit and Loss Appropriation Account

19. Settlement of accounts on the dissolution of a partnership firm is governed by the following section of the Indian Partnership Act ,1932
2
49
48
10

20. A new partner brings in cash as his share of goodwill, this amount will be distributed among the old partners–
In the old profit sharing ratio
In the ratio of their capital
Equally
In the ratio of sacrifice of profit by them

21. In the absence of an agreement to the contrary, on drawings–

Options
No interest is to be charged
Interest @5% per annum is to be charged
Interest @6% per annum is to be charged
Interest @12% per annum is to be charged

22. For a charitable institution, subscriptions by its member constitute its—.

Options
Asset
Income
Expenditure
Liability

23. The most suitable method for providing depreciation on mines, oil wells and quarries–

Options
Straight line method
Depletion method
Annuity method
Machine hour rate method

24. In income and expenditure account, the excess of income over expenditure is called–

Options
Surplus
Deficit
Gross Profit
Net Profit

25. In consignment the risk of loss is borne by–

Options
The consignor only
The consignee only
The consignor as well as the consignee
Neither the consignor nor the consignee

26. Carriage Outward Account will appear on the–

Options
Debit side of the Trading Account
Debit side of the Profit and Loss Account
Credit side of the Trading Account
Credit side of the Profit and Loss Account

27. At the end of an accounting year, trade debtors total Rs.50, 000. Provisions for bad debts and discount on debtors are made @5% and @% respectively. Provisions on discount on debtors will be made for–

Options
Rs.1000
Rs.2,500
Rs.950
Rs.975

28. The primary record of a credit purchase of a fixed asset is made in–

Options
Cash Book
Sales Book
Purchases Book
Journal Proper

29. Which one of the following assets could be described as a current asset?

Options
Machinery to manufacture goods for resale
Stock of goods for resale
Buildings to house the machinery
Land on which the buildings stand

30. Which of the following equations properly represents a derivation of the fundamental accounting equation?

Options
Assets + Liabilities = Capital
Assets + Capital = Liabilities
Assets = Liabilities + Capital
Assets = Capital – Liabilities

31. If we take goods for own use we should —

Options
Debit Drawings Account: Credit Stock Account
Debit Purchases Account: Credit Drawings Account
Debit Sales Account: Credit Stock Account
Debit Drawings Account: Credit Purchases Account

32.Forfeited Shares Account is finally closed by the transfer of its balance to–

Options
General Reserve Account
Debenture Sinking Fund Account
Capital Reserve Account

33. Capital Expenditure is–

Options
The costs of running the business on a day-to-day
Money spent on selling fixed assets
The extra capital paid in by the proprietor

33. If it is required to maintain fixed capitals then the partners’ shares of profits must be–

Options
Credited to capital accounts
Debited to partners’ current accounts
Debited to capital accounts
Credited to partners’ current accounts

34. According to the money measurement concept, the following will be recorded in the books of accounts of the business–

Options
Health of the managing director of the company
Quality of the company’ goods
Value of plant and machinery
Dedicated and trusted employees

Sales made to Mahesh for cash should be debited to–

Options
Cash account
Mahesh account
Sales account
Purchase account

A bank reconciliation is prepared so that the difference in the under-mentioned balance is reconciled

Options
The difference in the balance of the bank and cash balances
The difference in the balance in the Pass Book in the beginning and at the end
The difference in the Pass Book and Cash Book balance
None of the above

In the absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, profits and losses are shared by the partners–

Options
In the ratio of their capitals
Equally
In the ratio of loans given by them to the partnership firm
None of the above

Under the Written down value method, the amount of depreciation goes on _______ from year to year

Options
Decreasing
Increasing
Fluctuating
None of the above

How will the purchase of an asset on credit affect the accounting equation?

Options
It will decrease the assets and decrease the capital
It will decrease the assets and decrease the liabilities
It will increase the assets and decrease another asset
It will increase the assets and increase the liabilities
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B. Com. Principles & Practices of Management

Q1. What are the different levels of planning? Give examples

Q2. Define 10 roles that managers perform in organizations.

Q3. Describe the functions of management and the type of management activity associated with each.

Q4. Distinguish between the Line and Staff Authority.

Q5. Write short notes on any three of the following

Departmentalization

MBO process

Span of control

Managerial skills

Centralization

Q6. The Manager of a Fast – food restaurant was overheard saying “I believe that money is the best of all possible motivators” Discuss putting forward your view point.

Q7. Explain the relationship between organization structure and communication flow within the organization.

Q8. What a kind of decision is a Manager generally required taking in organization context? Explain with examples which of these correspond to ‘programmed’ and ‘non- programmed’

Case Study

A case of busy manager

You are the founding entrepreneurs of Highland Tall Company, a fast growing digital software company that specializes in home- consumer electronics. Business has been booming. In just 2 years you have hired 50 new software programmers to help develop a new range of software products. These people are young and experienced but are highly skilled and used to putting in long hours to make there idea succeed. The growth of your company has been swift that you still operate informally. As top managers, you have been absorbed in your own work that you have paid little attention to the issue of controlling your own company. You have allowed your programmers to find solutions to problems as they go along. They have also been allowed to form their own work groups. Unfortunately, there are signs that problems are arising.

Employees have complained that good performance is going unrewarded and unrecognized. They have also expressed concern that you are either too busy or not willing to listen to their new ideas and act on them. A bad atmosphere seems to be developing and several talented employees have already left the company.

You realize that you have done a poor job in controlling and directing your employees and that you need to develop a proper process for all functions in order to encourage the employees to stay with the company and perform well.

Q1. Analyze the case and find out the different problems prevailing in the organization.

Q2. Based on the problems you have analyzed, what are the solution to them and as a manger how would you overcome these problems?

1. What is the planning horizon
2. In which organizational form are there dual or multiple lines of authority?
3. Frederick Taylor and Frank and Lillian Gilbreth were advocates of an approach to management involving the use of scientific method, known as
4. Authority, discipline, unity of command, and unity of direction are
5. Organization structure primarily refers to
6. Strategic planning as a broad concept consists of-
7. Some policies are imposed by external forces, such as
8. While guiding organization members in appropriate directions, a manager exhibits
9. Functional managers are responsible
10. Policies are sometimes defined as a(n)
11. Management is purposeful and what
12. In general, if a policy is not thought out and established
13. The problem-solving process begins with-
14. The job design would be LEAST formal in a
15. Which of the following is the determinant of organization structure?
16. Which role of manager that needs to resolve major and minor crisis that may occur unexpectedly?
17. Scalar chain refers to
18. Who is the person was well known for the “Hawthorne Studies”?
19. Which of the following is NOT a principle of management given by Taylor?
20. Which of the following is the determinant of organization structure
21. Which of the following is not an example of formal communication?
22. The receiver filters messages based on all but the following
23. In communications management, to assimilate through the mind or senses is the process of
24. Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except
25. All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT
26. The communication process must have a medium to convey information between two or more parties. The three common media are ________
27. Maslow and Herzberg are two examples of ___________ theories of motivation.
28. Equity theory of motivation focuses on
29. The decision-making model consists of four styles: directive, analytic, behavioral and_________
30. ______ is a communication that flows from a higher level to one or more lower levels in the organization.
31. ____ is an individual’s capacity to influence decisions.
32. ________ is not one of the eight steps in the decision making process.
33. Which of the following is not a basic function of the management process?
34. Which type of decision making is carried out by lower level management and deals with specific day-to-day processes
35. ______ is the process of getting results accomplished through others.
36. What is the term used to define the number of subordinates directly controlled by a manager
37. Which management theorist is responsible for the motivation-hygiene theory?
38. Which management concept suggests that low-importance decisions be handled by subordinates, so that managers can focus on high-importance decisions?
39. What is involved in communication process?
40. All of the following are the levels of communication EXCEPT-

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Amity B.com. 2 Sem ENGLISH

Q1. Explain with examples the Passive & Active voice and convert vice versa.

Q2. What is tense? Illustrate with examples

Q3. (a)Give definitions of Noun and Pronoun. Differentiate between them by giving 2 examples each.    (b) Define Adjective with examples. Give classification of adjectives.

Q4. (a) Give definition of Verb with 2 examples.    (b)  What is an Adverb? Classify adverbs with examples

Q5. What is Article? Illustrate with six examples in sentence form.

Q6. What is preposition? Elucidate with examples.

Q7. Define Conjunction. Differentiate with preposition and give examples in your support.

Q8. What are the salient features of Direct & Indirect speech? Explain with examples

Case Study

Supposing you have to make a payment of Rs 100, you can do so in rupee coins; but it would be cumbersome to pay in nickel or copper coins, because they are heavy to carry and also because t takes much time to count them. The government therefore permits you to make t in rupee notes. What are these rupee notes really? They are a kind of money; right the enough, although they are made of paper instead of metal coins you can use them in just the same way that you use ordinary money. The reason why they are made of paper and used in that, they save the trouble of carrying metal coins of course, paper lighter than metal and they also save using silver and other metals when they are scarce.

What make these mere pieces of paper bare the value of number of rupees that is printed upon them? Why should a piece of paper, with “100” printed on it be worth 20 times as much as a piece of paper with “5” printed on it and also worth a hundred times as much as a silver rupee coin ? The reason is that government guarantees that the piece of paper is worth the amount printed on and promises to pay the amount to anybody who wishes to exchange this paper for the rupee coins. Also, if you think about it you can easily realize that crores and crores more of rupees coins would have to be minted, if all paper money were abolished.

Perhaps you may ask, “Then why not have paper money only” why use silver, and nickel and copper at all? The answer is – Because the money mush as we already said be something so useful that everybody wants. Also because the metals are the best form of money and thirdly because it would be impossible to print just the right amount of paper money that would keep prices at their proper natural level. If any government prints too much paper money, then prices go up at once. The supply of money is increased and therefore its valued (in food, clothes, books, houses and everything else) goes down

You may think at first that is queer to talk of having too much paper money and that money is so nice and useful that you cannot have too much of it. But if you think that I am afraid that you are forgetting that money is only useful for what it will buy. So it is no good at all for having more money if there are no more things to buy with it. The more money there is, the higher will be prices of everything. The same thing happens with rupee- coins as with paper money. But it is not likely to happen for this reason; it is very easy to print a great deal of paper money but not at all easy to increase the amount of rupee-coins. Silver has to be dig out of mines and very difficult to get so the amount there is if it keeps very steady and changes very little .In fact that is one of the chief reasons why it was chosen to make coins of.

Q1. Why does the Government allow payment to be made in paper notes? What is more valuable, to have 100 rupee-coins in Silver or a Rs.100 note in paper?

Q2. If metal is so cumbersome why should we not have only paper money?

Q3. Why does the Government print only a certain number of paper notes, and not as many it likes arbitrarily?

1. He was here ______ 8 clock
2. I bought _______ horse,______ ox and ______ buffalo
3. Copper is _______ metal
4. A disease transmitted by air or water
5. William enjoys teaching
7. The principal said to the students ,”Don’t go in “
8. Krishnaji teaches us grammar
9. The tiger caught a deer
10. I haven’t seen her ______ 1980
11. A book that gives information on any branch of knowledge
12. The headmaster ______ to speak to you
14. The children found ______ egg in the nest.
15. I was annoyed ______ I kept quiet
16. Which is _______ largest river in India?
17. Promises should be kept
18. This is the house_____ Jack built
19. A person is everywhere
20. Sanskrit is _______ difficult language.
21. Can you sing as well as ______ ?
22. _________ his friends, his neighbors also participated in the function
23. He was charged _______ murder
24. An Exerienced person
25. She must weep _______ she will die
26. _______ take it ______ leave it
27. Who did this?
28. The science of vegetable life and plants
29. The moon shines brightly
30. Here are your shoes ; I ____ them
31. She _____ unconscious since 4 clock
32. Hurry up The programme
33. She jumped off the bus while it ___
34. Rama and _______ were present

There isn’t much difference between you and ___

1. Dogs bark
2. The boys are playing in the garden
3. He sat ______ her and son
4. Students should have easy ____________ book
5. He acknowledged _________ a mistake

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Amity B. Com. 3 Sem Financial Management

Amity B. Com. 3 Sem Financial Management

Q1. Discuss the nature and scope of Business Economics
Q3. What is the Opportunity Cost? How can it be calculated? What are the precautions to be kept in view while using the Opportunity Cost?
Q4. Draw individual and market demand schedules. Discuss the difficulties in preparing a market demand schedule.
Q5. Write short notes on:
a) Demand forecasting
b) Consumer Surplus
c) Marginal Utility
d) Gross price elasticity of demand
e) Complementary goods
Q6. Explain the law of Variable proportions. Which is the bet stage of production?
Q7. Explain Least Cost Combination of the factors.
Q8. Distinguish between Average and Marginal Cost and show by examples and diagrams that marginal cost is less than average cost if average cost is falling and marginal cost is more than average cost is rising.

Case Detail :
Read the case study given below and answer the questions given at the end.

Case Study
Two Wheeler Industries in India
The two wheeler category is steadily moving from a discretionary purchase to an essential purchase, especially among the burgeoning Indian middle-class households. Better quality and durability, higher fuel efficiency, new age styling, and features in conjunction with a slew of new product launches and greater finance availability have been the primary drivers of sales in the past years. India secures second-largest position in two wheeler production. Apart from the discussed facts, inadequacy and poor quality of public transport system in India have pushed the demand of two wheelers. In India, the two-wheeler industry is highly diversified in terms of presenting a versatile product line. Two-wheeler manufacturers produce different economic models for general public as well as some specific models to cater the different needs of high-income group. Two-wheelers contain scooters, mopeds, and motorcycles. Few years ago the market was dominated by scooter segment, but scenario changed in 1998-1999 when motorcycles took the edge and never looked back. Nowadays, Indian two-wheeler industry is dominated by the motorcycle segment. Hero Honda, Bajaj, TVS Motors, Kinetic Motors, and LML are some of the main players in the Indian two-wheeler industry.
Demand of two-wheelers is increasing day-by-day. In the year 1990-1991, the demand for the two-wheelers was 1.82 million units that grew to 3.83 million units in the year 2000-2001. The projected demand for the two-wheelers in the year 2014-2015 is estimated to reach 16 million units. This is no doubt a rosy picture for the growth of Indian two-wheeler industry. Table1 and Table2 present market segmentation and product variation of two-wheelers in India, respectively.
Table 1: Market segmentation for the two-wheeler industry in four regions of the country
Market segmentation
Segment Share (%)
North 32
East 9
West 27
South 32

Table 2: Product wise market share for the two-wheeler industry in India
Product Variation
Type Share (%)
Motorcycles 66
Scooters 22
Mopeds 11
Q1. Make a comprehensive analysis on two-wheeler demand in India.

1.Average product is defined as
2.To manufacture a PC, you require a keyboard and a monitor. If you measure keyboard on the X-axis and monitor on the Y-axis, the shape of the Isoquant will be—
3.When average product is highest?
4.The intersection of marginal product curve and average product curve characterizes the point of—
5.The average total cost will be minimum at a point where-
6.Which of the following curves is called envelope curve
7.Average fixed cost
8.Which of the following cost curves is also called planning curve?
9.Economic profit is
10.The intersection of the marginal cost curve and the average cost curve characterizes the point of—
11.Which of the following costs remain constant as the output increases?
12.Increasing marginal costs with increase of output implies
13.Which of the following cost curves is not ‘U’ shaped?
14.What would be the shape of the total cost curve when a manufacturing unit is experiencing economies of scale
15.In perfect competition, a firm maximizing its profit will set its output at that level where-
16.It is advisable for a firm operating under perfect competition to shut down in the short run when the price of the product falls below the—
17.Which of the following is not a feature of perfect competition?
18.In the long run, a perfectly competitive firm earns only normal profits because of
19.The doctrine of invisible-hand applies to economies in which all the markets are-
20.The horizontal demand curve for a firm is one of the characteristic features of-
21.A perfectly competitive firm can increase its sales revenue by
22.If a perfectly competitive industry is an increasing cost industry, the demand curve faced by a firm will be-
23.A perfectly competitive firm earns abnormal profits when its
24.Which of the following is not a source of market imperfection?
25.Which of the following is not a barrier to entry?
26.The maximum profit condition for a monopoly firm is—
27.Market inefficiencies can come from—
28.A monopolist who faces a negatively sloped demand curve operates in the region where the elasticity of demand is-
29.An entrepreneur in order to maximize the profits, without affecting the price, should produce an output where-
30.Macroeconomics is concerned with-
31.Real GNP increases
32.Personal income includes all of the following except
33.NDP does not include-
34.National income is
35.The difference between personal disposable income and personal income is—
36.The net factor income earned within the domestic territory of a country must be equal to –
37.The ratio of the change in equilibrium output to the change in autonomous spending that causes change in output is called-
38.When planned saving is greater than planned investment
39.An autonomous increase in investment—
40.What happens to the demand for coffee, when the price of tea increases ?

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Q1. At a meeting of a company, only 15 shareholders were present. 9 voted for a special resolution and 2 against and 4 did not vote at all. No poll was demanded and the chairman declared the resolution to be carried. Is this a valid resolution? Give reasons. Explain different kinds of Meetings and resolutions of a company?
Q2.A company altered the objects clause of its Memorandum of Association according to the procedure laid down by law, i.e. by passing a special resolution. A copy of the resolution was filled with the Registrar 4 months after the passing of the resolution. Can the Registrar register the alteration? Give reasons. When and how MOA may be altered?
Q3. Joseph promises to his wife Eva to give her pocket money of Rs 1,000 per month. After 6 months, he stops making the payment. Can Eva claim damages from Joseph? Give reasons in the light of essentials of a valid contract.
Q4. “No seller can give to the buyer a better title to the goods than he himself has”. Comment on the statement and also discuss the exceptions to this rule as per the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.
Q5. Write short notes on any three of the following.
(a) “A stranger to the consideration can enforce the contract”. Explain the exceptions in the following.
i Supervening Impossibility
ii Novation
(b)Anticipatory breach of Contract
(c) A private company has only 2 shareholders who are also the directors with equal rights of management and voting power. The company has made large profits, but there is a complete deadlock in the management of the company. One of the shareholders applied for the winding up of the company. Decide at what moment does a winding up by the court commence?
(d) What is a ‘Prospectus’? Is it obligatory for a company to file a prospectus or a statement in lieu of prospectus with the Registrar of Companies?
(e) What is meant by the rule of ‘Caveat Emptor’ and what are its exceptions?

Q6. Every Holder in due course is a holder, but every holder may not be a holder in due course. Explain the term ‘Holder’ and ‘Holder in due course’ under the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881.
Q7. Explain the different types of Crossing of Cheque under the provisions of Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881. What are the penalties prescribed in the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 in case of dishonor of a cheque?
Q8. (i). State with reasons whether the following statement is correct or Incorrect:
(a) “Continuing guarantee is revoked by the death of the surety”.
(b) “A principal is liable for frauds of his agent”.
(ii). Explain the various modes of creation of Agency? Write note on agency be estoppel and holding out.

Case Detail :
Read the case study given below and answer the s given at the end

Case Study
Bailor & Bailee

Sudarshan bails a certain quantity of “First Grade” petrol, to be stored safely till the end of March 2011. Raghman, without the consent of Sudarshan mixes the first grade petrol with his own “Second Grade” petrol on 1st April, 2011, when Sudarshan asked Raghman for his first grade petrol Raghman tells him to take the bailed quantity of petrol out of the mixed petrol. Sudarshan refused to take the mixed petrol and instead claims the prices of the “First Grade” petrol, which is higher than “Second Grade”. Raghman refuses to compensate Sudarshan for the above on the ground of impossibility of performance.
Q1. Whether Raghman is liable to compensate Sudarshan for the loss?
Q2. Can Raghman be held liable for bearing the expenses which might be incurred for the separation of the two kinds of goods? If it was not petrol but the goods which is capable of being separated?
Q3. With regard to the provisions of the act explain the duties of bailor and bailee.

1 Annual – general Meeting is required to be held
2 An acceptance is complete and effective only when it has been
3 Name of a company can be changed by passing a special resolution and with the approval of
4 Which of the following is a mode of discharge of contract-
5 Limited liability means liability of its—
6 In a contract of sale, property means-
7 The goods which are yet to be acquired by the seller, are called-
8 A contract becomes voidable if it has been caused by—
9: If the goods have perished, the contract of sale of such specific goods, will become—
10: Articles can be altered by—
11 A contract entered into between the parties by words is called—
12 Acceptance of an offer is complete as against the offeror as soon as–
13 If a company fails to pay its debts suit can be filed against the—
14 A contract with a minor is—
15 Who is liable for the supply of necessaries to a minor–
16 A prospectus is issued—
17. When, before the contract becomes due for performance, the promisor declares his intention of not performing his promise, it is called—
19 The damages which arise in the usual course of things happening from the breach of contract, are called—
20 When a person is employed to represent another in dealings with third person, it is a contract of—
21. Which of the following is not an essential element of a contract of sale—
22 In return for a new television, Raju agrees to give his old television valued at Rs. 3,000 and an amount of cash worth Rs. 5,000 to Ganesh. This is a-
23 Which of the following rights is held by an unpaid seller—
24 Which of the following is not a remedy for breach of contract—
25 A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss is called—
26 Surety’s liability is—
27 Crossed cheques payable to bearer are negotiated by—
28 In a contract of sale, which of the following is treated as implied condition—
29 Consideration must move at the desire of—
30 Which of the following does not relate to ‘termination of agency by operation of law’–
31 Which of the following sentence is a valid promissory note—
32 A stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract, is called a—
33 A person who receives a negotiable instrument for consideration, before maturity, and in good faith, is called—
34 A director must vacate his office if he fails to obtain qualification shares within—
35 Which of the following rights are available to a finder of goods–
36 A director must vacate his office if he fails to obtain qualification shares within—
37 A private company has at least—
38 A cheque payable to order may be negotiated—
39 Which of the following endorsements is invalid—
40 When a cheque bears across its face an addition of the words “&” between two parallel transverse lines, it is called—

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Amity B. Com. 4 Sem Management Accounting

Amity B. Com. 4 Sem Management Accounting
Q1. Explain position of Management Accounting in the organization?
Q2. Explain analysis of Financial Statements along with its objectives?
Q3. Elaborate any 3 types of liquidity ratio?
Q4. Write short note on any three of the following.
a) Difference between cash and fund.
b) Flexible Budgets and Master Budgets
c) Concept of Capital of Capital Budgeting
d) Advantages and Limitations of Budgetary Control
e) Short-term Financial Ratios and Long-term Financial Ratios
Q5. What is Fund Flow Statement and how funds flow analysis is usefull for management?
Q6. Why its importance to Establishing a system of Budgetary Control?
Q7. Explain different methods of Ranking Investment proposals?
Q8. Define DUPONT Control Chart?

Comparing Ratios with Industry

Following information are available for SRK Co. along with various ratios relevant to the particular industry which it belongs.

Balance Sheet As at 31.03.2014
Liabilities Amount Assets Amounts
Equity Share Capital 2,400,000.00 Fixed Assests 1,210,000.00
10% Debenture 460,000.00 Cash 440,000.00
Sundry Creditors 330,000.00 Sundry Debtors 550,000.00
Bills Payable 440,000.00 Stocks 1,650,000.00
Other Current Liabilities 220,000.00
3,850,000.00 3,850,000.00

Statement of Profitability for the year ending 31.03.2014
Particulars Rs. Rs.
Sales 5,500,000.00
Less: Cost of Good Sold:
Material 2090000
Wages 1320000

Gross Profit 1,441,000.00
Less: Selling and Distribution Cost 550000
Earning before Interest and Taxes 277,000.00
Less: Interest Charges 46,000.00
Earning before Taxes 231,000.00
Less: Tax @50% 115,500.00
Net Profit(PAT) 115,500.00
Industry Norms
Current Assets/Current liabilities 2.5
sales/Debtors 8.0
Sales/Stocks 9.0
Sales/Total Assets 2.0
Net Profit/Sales 3.5%
Net Profit/Total Assets 7.0%
Net Profit/ Net Worth 10.5%
Total Debt/Total Assets 60.0%

Q1. Find out the relevant ratios relating to SRK Co
Q3. Compare its ratios with industry Norms.

1.Managerial accounting does not include
2.Managerial accounting information is generally used by
3.What helps in ascertaining costs beforehand
4.The scope of cost accounting include
5.Which one is not the limitation of the Management Accounting.
6.Which of the following is not a technique of Financial Statement
7.Which of the following ratio indicates the short-term liquidity of a business?
8.Which of the following is true when a debtor pays his dues?
9.An income statement reports a business’s financial___
10.The sections of Income Statements are
11.Accounting Ratios are important tools used by
12.DU PONT Analysis deals with:
13.SRK Ltd. has a Current Ratio of 3: 2 and Net Current Assets of Rs. 5,00,000.What are the current assets.
14.Debt to Total Assets Ratio can be enhanced by
15.Which of the following statements is correct?
16.Capital Budgeting is a part of
17.Capital Budgeting deals with
18.Which of the following is not used in Capital Budgeting?
19.Capital Budgeting Decisions are
20.A sound Capital Budgeting technique is based on
21.Cash Budget does not include
22.Which of the following is not true of cash budget?
23.Budgetary control involves all but one of the following:
24.Under responsibility accounting, the evaluation of a manager’s performance is based on matters that the manager
25.Responsibility centers include
26.Which of the following is NOT a cash outflow for the firm
27.Which of the following would be considered a use of funds
28.For a profitable firm, total sources of funds will always total uses of funds
29.Which of the following would be included in a cash budget?
30.Uses of funds include a
31.Which of the following is not an advantage of Budgets
32.The Process of Budgetary control includes
33.Which of the following is not the advantage of Budgetary control
34.Which of the following is problem in budgeting
35.The investment in total current assets is known as
36.An accounting system wherein the operations are broken down into cost centers controllable by a foreman, sales manager, or supervisor, is known as
37.The basic difference between a static budget and a flexible budget is that
38.Important factors consider for sales budget are
39.The Real Cashflows must be discounted to get the present value at a rate equal to
40.Risk in Capital budgeting is same as

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Amity B. Com. 4 Sem Auditing

Amity B. Com. 4 Sem Auditing
Q1. Differentiate between auditing and accountancy.
Q2. Write the preliminary steps before commencing a Company Audit.
Q3. Define basic principle of governing audit.
Q4. What is continuous audit and what are the precautions should be taken to avoid the disadvantages of continuous audit?
Q5. Write short note on any three of the following.
a) Internal check
b) Verification and valuation of asset and liabilities
c) Sundry Creditors
d) Impairment of asset
e) Audit planning
Q6. Write types of audit.
Q7. Discuss the advantages of internal audit and also its limitations.

Case Detail :

An XYZ Real Estate Ltd. is a company offering estate agency services to the public through a network of branches all over the country. The board consists of six people, a part-time chairman, a chief executive, two other full time executives and two representatives of the owners. The company is jointly owned by a foreign bank and the City Property Group. The company has an internal audit department consisting of Sanjeev is a young chartered accountant and Rajeev who is an accounting expert. They have also a secretary, Ritwika. They report their activities monthly in detail to the audit committees of the foreign bank and the City Property Group.

Q1. What work would the internal audit department do?
Q2. In what ways may the external auditors place reliance on their work?
Q3. Draw up a checklist, which the external auditor could use to assess the internal auditors as potentially being capable of producing work on which the external auditors may rely.

1. The main object of an audit is ___
2. The title of AAS2 issued by Council of ICAI is ___
3. Both auditing and accounting are concerned with financial statements. Which of the following:
4. Audit of banks is an example of –
5. Concurrent audit is a part of
6. In India, balance sheet audit is synonymous to
7. Audit in depth is synonymous for
8. Balance sheet audit includes verification of_
9. Which of the following affects audit effectiveness?
10. Which of the following Auditing Assurance Standard deals with Audit Planning
11. Audit programme is prepared by
12. The auditor’s permanent working paper file should not normally, include
13. For what minimum period should audit working papers be retained by audit firm?
14. Which of the following is not true with regard to verification of assets?
15. Which of the following statements is not true ?
16. Which of the following is not a proper third party to hold investments on behalf of the client?
17. Which of the following would give the assurance that debtors mentioned on the date of balance sheet actually exist?
18. Which of the following is not an inherent limitation of internal control system?
19. An auditor should study and evaluate internal controls to
20. XYZ Ltd. Conducts quarterly review of operations. It discovers that unrest in a south east Asian country may affect the supply of raw materials to it the next quarter. This is an example of :
21. The definition of auditing states that the auditor
22. Various types of quality audits are:
23. When the auditor is an employee of the organization being audited (auditee), the audit is classified as an …….. quality audit.
24. The most comprehensive type of audit is the ……… system audit, which examines suitability and effectiveness of the system as a whole.
25. Each of the three parties involved in an audit ……………………. plays a role that contributes to its success.
26. An audit is usually conducted in three steps:
(1) A pre-examination or opening meeting with the auditee marks the beginning of the process.
(2) involves a suitability audit of the documented procedures against the selected reference standard.
(3) the auditor examines in depth the implementation of the quality system.
27. The audit final report should include, at a minimum, the following:
(choose the one NOT required)
1. Type of audit conducted
2. Characteristics of audit
3. Identification of involved parties: auditor, auditee, and third party
4. Audit team members
5. Critical nonconformities and other observations
6. Audit standards and reference documents used
7. Determination of proper corrective action(s)
8. Duration of audit
28. The time required and costs involved in an external audit are much higher as compared to internal audits.
29. Audit is a fact-finding process that compares actual results with ………………….
30. The ……… is also expected to provide the resources needed and select staff members to accompany the auditors.
31. For the benefit of the organisation, quality auditing should only report non-conformances and corrective actions, but should not highlight areas of good practice.
32. How many principles are listed in AAS1 which govern auditor’s professional obligation?
33. An auditor assesses control risk because it
34. The most difficult type of misstatement to detect fraud is based on:
35. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the required documentation in working papers of fraud risk assessment undertaken by the auditor?
36. Which of the following is the most appropriate potential reaction of the auditor to his assessment that the risk of material misstatement due to fraud is high in relation to existence of inventory?
37. Which of the following is not likely to be a fraud risk factor relating to management’s characteristics
38. The term ‘scope of an audit’ refers to the audit procedures deemed necessary in the circumstances:
39. Bookkeeping as a support mechanism for the determination of ______, or as a decision support system for achieving ______, was basically unknown in ancient cultures like the Mesopotamian, Egyptian, Greek or Roman.
40. Which of the following is not a benefit of international auditing standards?

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Amity B. Com. 2 Sem Environment Management

Amity B. Com 2nd Sem ASODL Environment Management

Q1. Explain what is industrial ecology? How can you implement the concept of industrial ecology in any organization?
Q2. How can environmental management help achieve sustainable growth?
Q3. How TQM can help in achieving targets of environmental management?
Q4. Write a note on Global Environmental Problems, and what should be the role of an individual in solving them?
Q5. What do you understand by Carbon Credits? How carbon credits can help companies increase their earnings?
Q6. What are the major issues discussed under Kyoto Protocol? What are the various mechanisms under Kyoto Protocol and which among these is of use to developing countries and how?
Q7. What do you understand by air pollution, what are the major causes of air pollution in India? Explain the initiatives taken by Indian Government in this regard for controlling the air pollution in cities?
Q8. Write short note on any three of the following.
a. Basic principles of ISO 14000.
b. Role of Environmental Audit.
c. Sustainable Development
d. Environmental Laws in India
e. Fly Ash Utilization in thermal power stations

Case Study
Read the case study given below and answer the questions given at the end.
Case Study
Economy & Ecology
The hills of Ranikhet situated in the state of Utranchal a part of Kumaun hills, have a scenic beauty and support many of the species of flora and fauna, the small rivulets and springs create a splendid environment. The forests also have some of the exotic species of flowers and a range of medicinal plants. The local community lives a simple life dependent on the tourism and the forests for the medicinal plants and other minor forest products. The biodiversity of Ranikhet is well protected from the external influences and the anthropocentric activities.
The new government plans to encourage tourism sector and related infrastructure growth aimed at economic and industrial development of the area through promoting Ranikhet as tourist destination and licensing industrial establishments in Ranikhet. Government is proposing to set up star hotels and travel agencies and granting licenses to manufacturing companies to establish their plants in Ranikhet with the special tax subsidies for period of 5 years. According to the preliminary estimates it is hoped to achieve approximately 27% increase in the earning through creating employment opportunities and improving the local economic standards. Government has invited various large organizations to participate in the projects, and everyone is looking with great expectations.
Q1. What are the implications of such projects on the ecosystem of the Ranikhet?
Q2. Do you think EIA is necessary? If yes how will you conduct the EIA for the above projects
Q3. (a) How can you use tourism to uplift the local community without disturbing the ecology of the place.
(b) Setting up of manufacturing plants to bring development is right strategy? Comment.

1. Place where an organism lives under natural condition—
2. Communities and population living together and interacting with physical and chemical elements of their environment—
3. The transfer of food and nutrition from its sources through a series of organism by way of eating and being eaten away is known as-
4. Industrial ecology-
5. Rain water harvesting is a technique to—
6. Carbon foot printing is-
7. One carbon credit is—
8. Global warming is-
9. Ozone gas is-
10. Green house effect is-
11. The Kyoto Protocol was signed—
12. EIA involves—
13. Paul Erlich equation for environmental impact, I = PxAxT where I = impact on environment and P, A and T stands for-
14. Non conventional resources of energy are—C Sources of energy which can be used again and again without getting exhausted like water energy, solar energy, wind energy etc.
15. The benefits of Environment Assessment are—
16. EMS Environment Management System can be defined as-
17. The problem arising due to construction of Dam or Reservoir is-
18. Basel convention deals with—
19. The Montreal Protocol was signed—
20. ISO 14000 deals with—
21. To facilitate participation of developing nations in Kyoto Protocol the concept of Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) was adopted which is—
22. Landfill is a place where—
23. Incineration is a process—
24. The two major causes of air pollution in India are—
25. Recycling of material has following benefits—
26. Minamata disease is caused by the pollution of—
27. Carbon dioxide, Methane, Chlorofluorocarbons and Nitrous Oxide represent the group:
28. Biogas is fuel generated by—
29. The harmful effect of UV rays entering earth’s atmosphere due to ozone depletion—
30. The characteristics of any ecological system is—
31. The objective of Earth Summit 1992 held in Rio de Janeiro was—
32. Agenda 21 is the document signed—
33. The major reason of environmental problems is related to population growth, the major reasons for population growth are—
34. Environmental Accounting is a process which involves—
35. Total quality management can help the company achieving its environmental targets by–
36. Environmental protection industry is the industry—
37. Photosynthesis is process—
38. The maximum store of potable water is locked in—
39. Organic agricultural products are those products—
40. Hazardous waste coming from hospital and other health service industry is known as—

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Amity B.com. 2 Sem Computer Application in Business

Amity B.com. 2 Sem Computer Application in Business

Q1. What do you understand by generations of computers? To which generation the personal computers fall? Describe the characteristics and capability of personal computers.
Q2. Explain the concept behind Batch processing and transaction processing system.
Q3. What do you understand by interactive input devices? Discuss a situation where they are used appropriately.
Q4. What are the major categories of application software? Discuss each category in details.
Q5. Write short notes on any three of the following.
a. DBMS
b. Transaction Processing systems & Management Processing Systems
c. DNS
d. Operating System
e. Ethernet
Q6. What is computer network? What do you understand by network topology? Describe three network topologies with appropriate examples.
Q7. What are the various security threats that computer organizations are facing today and why providing security is necessary? What is the advantage of using fire wall?
Q8. What do understand by electronic data interchange along with its advantage and disadvantage? Also discuss the components of EDI system.

Case study:

Case Study

Banking industry now a day’s depends heavily on automation of its operations that not only automates its functioning but at the same time provides enough intelligent information for quick and effective decision making. The total branch automation system covers all retail banking functions performed in a branch both in front office and also in back office. Its powerful management information system enables senior management to take timely strategic decisions in most dynamic market environment.
XYZ is a nationalized bank with more than 1000 branches with focus on information technology Tyra Information System has obtained the Total Branch Automation tender competing with number of companies at the RFI stage and also against established players at RFP stage. The system has been implemented at 300 branches. It runs on UNIX WARE business edition operating system and standard Oracle RDBMS It supports following modules and functions.
Modules.
• Demand Liabilities( Savings, Current, Flexi Deposits)
• Time Liabilities( Term Deposit, Daily Deposits)
• Fund based advances( Cash Credits, Overdrafts, Loans, Bill Discounting)
• Non Fund Based Advances( Bank Guarantee, Letter of Credit)
• Customer Services(Issue of Cheque Books, Cheque stock maintenance, Stop Payments, Standing Instructions, Lockers, Tax Collection, Pension)
• Remittances( Demand Drafts, Pay Orders, Mail Transfers, Telegraphic Transfers)
• Online Transactions Processing( Cash ,Transfer, Clearing)
• Signature & Photograph maintenance & retrieval
• Nonperforming Assets
• Share Accounting
• Branch General Ledger Accounting
Interfaces
• ATM interface
• Tele banking/IVRS Interface
• Mobile Banking Interface
• Remote Banking/Information Kiosk Interface
• Any Branch Banking

Q1. Highlight the advantages and limitations of computer applications in Indian Banking Industry

1. Computers are also known by the name:
2. Cache Memory is:
3. What provides an interface between Hardware and user
4. RAM is known by:
5. 1 Byte equals to:
6. Computers carrying operation on data which can vary continuously and are measurable such as time, lengths, weights etc
7. A group of conducting wires or lines over which electrical signals corresponding to data and instructions are transmitted is
8. Which of the following is not a Programming Language
9. A database structures that treats files as tables is
10. Which of the following is a language
11. A processing system wherein data is gathered for a time and collected into a group before they are entered into the computer system
12. Which of the following is not property of DBMS
13. The facility which defines the conceptual scheme and also gives some details about how to implement this scheme in the physical devices is called
14. Users who interact with the system by writing database application like computer aided design system are called
15. Groups of specially wrapped and insulated wire lines that are able to transmit data at high rates
16. Which of the following is not a type of computer network
17. Which of the following is a DBMS
18. Web Browser is a
19. Which of the following is not a device used in LAN
20. Which of the following is not a domain name
21. To install multimedia facility into a computer, one does not essentially need
22. Malicious programs that damages your computer is called
23. What is the name of the screen symbol that shows the placement of the next character
24. Which of the following is not an impact device
25. Which of the following file formats is used for art work
26. A system which involves the digitization of telephone network so that voice, data, text, music etc. can be provided to end users from single end-user terminals
27. The two kinds of main memory are
28. Data Elements of related type are grouped into
29. A command that lets you change one or more fields in a record is
30. Which of the following is not a search engine
31. The floppy discs comes in two sizes they are
32. Which of the following topology is least affected by addition or removal of a node
33. A host on the internet finds another host by its
34. Which of the following browser is not free
35. Which of the following is not the main component of EDI system
36. Which of the following is essentially not a pre-requisite of E-commerce
37. What is the method of safeguard used for the safeguarding highly confidential information such as Corporate data or credit card information is being transmitted across the Internet
38. What is the full form of HTML
39. URL stands for
40. Multimedia S/W used for video editing is

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