Cost and Management Accounting for Decision Making (ACCT611)-Semester III

March 4, 2022March 4, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Cost and Management Accounting for Decision Making (ACCT611)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Salaries of staff in the administration and accounts department is an example of ……………….. Labour.

Direct

Indirect

Both

None

Question 2. Marginal cost is the aggregate of variable costs, i.e. prime cost plus …………… overhead.

Fixed

Direct

variable

Indirect

Question 3. ……………….. cost is the cost of all items involved in the production of a product or service.

Distribution

Assembling

Production

Indirect

Question 4. The feature of these costs is that the total costs remain …………… while per unit fixed cost is always variable.

Direct

Indirect

Varioable

Fixed

Question 5. Primary packaging cost is included in production cost whereas secondary packaging cost is ……………… cost.

Alliedd

Direct

distribution

indirect

Question 6. ………….. are the costs which are incurred in the past, i.e. in the past year, past month or even in the last week or yesterday.

Predetermined

Anticipated

Historical

Prospective

Question 7. ……….. costs are partly fixed and partly variable.

Variable

Fixed

Semi-Variable

All

Question 8. ……………… helps in better control of the costs and also helps considerably in decision making.

Marginal Costing

Costing

Labout Cost

Classification

Materials consumed, direct labour, sales commission, utilities, freight, packing, etc. are examples of …………….. Cost.

Question 9. Office salaries, printing and stationery, office telephone, office rent, office insurance are example of ……………… Cost.

Fixed

Variable

Administrative

All

Question 10. ……………. cost is the change in the aggregate costs due to change in the volume of output by one unit.

Fixed

Variable

Indirect

Marginal

Question 11. The elements of cost can be classified into …….…… categories.

Four

Five

Three

Two

Cost unit is a form of measurement of volume of …………… or service. Select one:

a. Trade

b. Production

c. Wholesale

d. All of the options

Question 12. ……………….. cost is the cost of wages of those workers who are readily identified or linked with a cost centre or cost object.

Direct Labour

Indirect Labour

Direct Material

Indirect Material

Question 13. ………………….. Cost is the cost of material of any nature used for the purpose of production of a product or a service.

Labour

Manufacturing

Material

Expenses

Question 14. Cost Centre may be of two types – personal and impersonal cost centers.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

In US and UK

Question 15. Classification of cost is the process of ……………… the components of cost under a common designation on the basis of similarities of nature, attributes or relations.

Select one:

Split Off

Grouping

Both of the above

None of the above

Question 16. 1. Selling costs are indirect costs related to selling of products or services

2. Include all indirect cost in sales management for the organization.

Both Statements are correct

First is correct

Second is correct

Both are incorrect

Question 17. Cost is a measurement, in monetary terms, of the amount of resources used for the purpose of production of goods or rendering services.

TRUE

FALSE

Can’t Say

Sometimes

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2nd Module Assessment

Cost of previous department is a part of ………….

Transferred-in costs

Transferred-out costs

FIFO costs

LIFO costs

Question 2. Third step in process costing system is to ……………

compute cost for each equivalent unit

summarize total costs

compute output in units

summarize flow of output.

Question 3. Second step in processing costing system is to …………..

summarize flow of output

compute output in units

compute cost for each equivalent unit

summarize total costs

Question 4. If beginning work in process equivalent units are 2500 units, work done in current period equivalent units are 3800 units and ending work in process equivalent units are 5000, then complete equivalent units in current period are ………….. Units.

1200

1300

1500

1800

Question 5. Which of the following businesses is likely to adopt a process costing system?

Printing Process

Academics

Sugar Refining

Construction

Question 6. In process costing system, the materials can be added in …………… department only.

First

Last

Middle

Any

Question 7. The fundamental principle of costing is that the good units should bear the amount of ……………………. loss.

Abnormal

Normal

Direct

Indirect

Question 8. If total incurred cost in a production process are ₹30000 and number of output units are 5000 units, then units cost will be ………… INR.

Question 9. Which of the following is not relevant to a process costing system?

Heterogeneous products

Repetitive production

High production volume

Low production flexibility

Question 10. In process costing system, when partially completed units are expressed in terms of fully completed units they are known as …………….. Units.

Completed

Equivalent

Unfinished

Transferred

Materials, labor and overhead costs are traced to processing departments rather than individual products or jobs. This statement is true for ………….. Costing system.

process

Question 11. Imputed Costs are hypothetical or notional costs, not involving cash outlay, computed only for the purpose of ……………..

Tax Filing

Accounting

Reporting

Decision making

Question 12. ………….. Costs are historical costs which are incurred i.e. ‘sunk’ in the past and are not relevant to the particular decision making problem being considered

Reporting

Sunk

Variable

Fixed

Question 13. …………… loss is a loss, which is inevitable in any process. Thus if the input is 100, the output may be 95 if the normal loss is anticipated as 5%.

Abnormal

Normal

Opportunity

Accounting

Question 14. ……………….. cost is generally used for determining the optimum time of replacement of an equipment or machine in consideration of maintenance cost of the existing one and its productive capacity.

Amendment

Changing

Replacement

Abnormal

Abnormal Cost is an unusual or a typical cost whose occurrence is usually irregular and …………….. and due to some abnormal situation of the production.

Regular b. Unexpected c. Expected d. Sure

Question 15. The process costing system is best suited for:

industries where different types of products are manufactured

industries where homogeneous products are manufactured on continuous basis

service industries only

All of the above

Question 16. Fifth step in process costing system is to ………………..

assign total cost to completed units

compute gross margin

allocate joint costs

allocate separable costs

Question 17. If the actual production units are more than the anticipated units after deducting the normal loss, the difference between the two is known as …………… gain.

Abnormal

Normal

Opportunity

Accounting

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3rd Module Assessment

All such expenses which are incurred for creating and enhancing the demands for the products are …………. Expenses.

Administrative

Production

Selling

Distribution

Question 2. Which of the following calculate the actual cost of product?

Cost estimation

Costing

Both (A) and (B)

None of the above

Question 3. The following is(are) the overhead cost(s):

TRUE

FALSE

In US Costing

In UK Costing

Question 4. Investment projects that are competing for scarce resources, where choosing one eliminates another, is called ___________.

Explicit

Mutually Inclusive

Mutually Exclusive

Implicit

Question 5. The cost which varies with the level of production is called …………….. Cost.

Moving

unstable

Variable

Fixed

Question 6. Prime cost = cost of direct labour + cost of direct material + direct expenses

TRUE

FALSE

Can’t Say

In US Costing

Question 7. The amount of work achievable, at standard efficiency levels, in one hour.

Standard Hour

Non-Standard Hour

Fixed Hour

Incremental Hour

Question 8. The cost data provide invaluable information for taking the following managerial decision(s):

To make or buy

To own or hire fixed asset

Determining the expansion or contraction policy

All of the above

Question 9. Cost accounting is a specialized branch of accounting which deals with _____________.

classification

Recording

Allocation and Directing

All Three

Question 10. Any materials that have no value is ………………….. .

Waste

Junk

Both

None

Those future costs which will be affected by a decision to be taken are ………….. Costs.

Relevant costs

Question 11. If contribution margin ratio is 0.3 then contribution margin percentage will be………….. %.

Select one:

0.03

Question 12. Contribution margin = ?

Sales – Fixed expenses

Sales – Selling expenses

Sales – Admin. Expenses

Sales – Variable expenses

Question 13. A contribution margin income statement is usually used by:

tax agencies and banks

customers and suppliers

creditors and investors

internal management

Question 14. The amount by which an item contributes towards covering fixed cost and providing for profit is known as:

Gross Profi

Gross Margin

Contribution Margin

Net Margin

Which of the following is a correct formula to calculate contribution margin ratio (CM ratio)?

a. Contribution margin/Sales

b. Contribution margin/Variable cost

c. Contribution margin/Fixed cost

d. Sales/Contribution margin

Question 15. At breakeven, profit = contribution + fixed costs. This equation is:

Correct

Incorrect

Sometimes Correct

Sometimes Incorrect

Question 16. An amount by which an item or head contributes towards covering fixed cost & providing for profit is commonly called as:

Net profit

gross margin

contribution margin

Gross margin

Question 17. Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis is a way to find out how …………… in variable and fixed costs affect a firm’s profit.

Addition

Substractions

Changes

fluctutations

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4th Module Assessment (23)

Cost or quantitative expression of objectives and a means of monitoring progress towards achievement of those objectives for a specific period is __________.

Abnormal

Absolute

Absorption

Budgeted

Question 2. Factory cost + administrative expenses is equal to …………….. Cost.

Selling

Trading

Manufacturing

Assembling

Question 3. The cost of testing and inspecting both the materials and finished products is ………………. Cost.

Marginal

Appraisal

Appreciation

Unit

Question 4. …………… activity is performed each time a product is produced.

Marginal

Unit

Fixed

Variable

Question 5. Those future costs which will be affected by a decision to be taken are ………….. Costs.

Relevant

Irrelevant

Incremental

Judgemental

Question 6. Cost or quantitative expression of objectives and a means of monitoring progress towards achievement of those objectives for a specific period:

Abnormal

Absolute

Absorption

Budgeted

Question 7. The amount of work achievable at standard efficiency levels in one hour is called _____________.

Standard Hour

Non-Standard Hour

Fixed Hour

Incremental Hour

Question 8. ………….. Cost is associated with an activity that would not be incurred if the activity were not performed.

Rejected

Accepted

Avoidable

Suspended

Question 9. ………………… records Provide the first evidence that a transaction or event has taken place.

Ledger

Journal

Primary

First

Question 10. It is the indirect cost pertaining to the administrativefunction which involves formulation of policies, directing the organisation andcontrolling the operations of an undertaking is …………. Cost.

Abnormal

Absolute

Absorption

Administratrive

Equality of cost is an important feature of …………… method.

Output

Unit

Specialised

Variable

Question 11. ………………….. costing is the method of costing adopted in concerns where there is a production of single product or a few grades of the same product differing only in size, shape or quality by continuous process of manufacture.

Output

Unit

Variable

Reliable

Question 12. Unit or output costing is that method of costing in which cost are ascertained per unit of a single product in a continuous manufacturing activity.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 13. …………… capacity refers to temporary idleness of available resources due to irregular interruptions.

Idle

Dubious

Real

Question 14. Unit method is also called the ……. costing.

Single

Double

Specialised

Management

Question 15. Cost of preparing drawings for the manufacture of a particular product is …………….

Net profit

gross margin

Indirect expense

Direct Expense

Question 16. The payment made to a ………………. is cost of direct labour.

Supervisor

Inspector

Machinist

Academician

Question 17. ………….. Cost is also known as overhead costs or on costs.

Direct

Indirect

Gross

Net

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5th Module Assessment

Investment projects that are competing for scarce resources, where choosing one eliminates another.

Select one:

Explicit

Mutually Inclusive

Mutually Exclusive

Implicit

Question 2. One which is not capable of being regulated by a manager within a defined boundary of responsibility, although it may be a cost incurred so that the responsibility may be exercised.

Controllable

Adjustable

Fixed

Non-controllable

Question 3. Income after making all permissible deductions is called ……………. income.

Net

Gross

Actual

Factual

Question 4. It can be increased or decreased at the discretion of the decision maker.

Appraisal

Appreciation

Unit

Discretionary

Question 5. Unstated and unrecorded cost is also called ………………. Cost.

Explicit

Implicit

Unit

Incremental

Question 6. The cost difference expected if one course of action is adopted instead of others is called ……. Cost.

Differential

Common

Unit

Motivated

Question 7. In the month of January, 300 labour hours were worked for a total cost of Rs 4800. The variable overhead expenditure variance was Rs 600 (A). Overheads are assumed to be related to direct labour hours of active working. What was the standard cost per labour hour?

Question 8. Cost of one more item, unit or customer is __________.

Appraisal

Appreciation

Unit

Incremental

Question 9. FIFO stands for First in ………… out.

First

Fast

Foremost

Feasible

Question 10. Combination of budgeted profit and loss account, cash flow statement and balance sheet, created from detailed budgets brought together within a finance plan is ………………. Budget.

Actual

Master

Real

Combined

Question 11. In activity based costing, costs are accumulated by …………….

Cost objects

Cost Pool

Cost benefi t analysis

None of the above

Question 12. ……………….. cost is the change in the aggregate costs due to change in the volume of output by one unit.

Relevant

Opportunity

Marginal

Differential

Question 13. …………… costing method is used in firms which work on the basis of job work.

Batch

Job

Operating

Contract

Question 14. This principle envisages that there should not be any intermediate stage like storekeeping.

ABC

JIT

FSNA

VED

Such a cost sheet is prepared prior to the actual commencement of the period of production.

a. Silver

b. Green

c. Blue

d. Estimated

Question 15. Tools like standard costing and target costing can be used effectively for cost control and cost …………

Enhancement

Maximisation

Reduction

Absorption

Question 16. Material purchased from supplier should directly go the assembly line, i.e. to the production department is an example of…………………

VED Analysis

LIFO

FIFO

JIT

Question 17. The storing cost can be saved to a great extent by using ……….. technique.

FASN

JIT

VED

HIFO

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Kaizen Costing emphasizes on small but continuous improvement. Targets once set at the beginning of the year or activities are updated continuously to reflect the improvement that has already been achieved and that are yet to be achieved. The suggestive changes which are required to be adopted Kaizen Costing concepts in MIL are as follows:

Standard Cost Control System to Cost Reduction System: Traditionally Standard Costing system assumes stability in the current manufacturing process and standards are set keeping the normal manufacturing process into account thus the whole effort is on to meet performance cost standard. On the other hand Kaizen Costing believes in continuous improvements in manufacturing processes and hence, the goal is to achieve cost reduction target. The first change required is the standard setting methodology i.e. from earlier Cost Control System to Cost Reduction System.

Reduction in the periodicity of setting Standards and Variance Analysis: Under the existing planning and control system followed by the MIL, standards are set semi-annually and based on these standards monthly variance reports are generated for analysis. But under Kaizen Costing system cost reduction targets are set for small periods say for a week or a month. So the period covered under a standard should be reduced from semi-annually to monthly and the current practice of generating variance reports may be continued or may be reduced to a week.

Participation of Executives or Workers in standard setting: Under the Kaizen Costing system participation of workers or executives who are actually involved in the manufacturing process are highly appreciated while setting standards. So the current system of setting budgets and standards by the Finance department with the mere consent of Board of Directors required to be changed.

What is the share of MIL in Indian Car Market in percentage?

Question 2. What emphasize on small but continuous improvement?

Costing

Kaizen Costing

MIL

Quality

Question 3. As per the case, MIL, standards are set as …………

Monthly

Half-Yearly

Annualy

Quarterly

Question 4. Kaizen Costing believes in ………………. improvements in manufacturing processes.

Initial

Last Minute

Continuous

Assembling

Question 5. According to Kaizen Costing System, participation of workers or executives who are actually involved in the manufacturing process are highly appreciated while setting ……………….

Factory

Establishment

Standards

Company

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Enterprise Planning Appraisal and Financing (ENTR701)-Semester III

March 4, 2022March 4, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Enterprise Planning Appraisal and Financing (ENTR701)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Banks normally don’t charge any rent on locker facility.

TRUE

FALSE

Can’t Say

Sometimes

Question 2. WTO agreement generally focuses on …………………. Trade.

Global

European

Asian

Question 3. …………….. is a way to know bank customers.

LFT

KFT

KYC

Memo

Question 4. ATM stands for …………….. Teller Machine.

Auto

Automatic

Acquired

American

Question 5. ICICI, HDFC, and Yes Bank are form of ………………… banks

Private

Public

Scheduled

All

Question 6. Treasury bills are used for ……………….. term requirments.

Intemediate

Short

Long

All

Question 7. The headquarter of State Bank of India is in ………………… .

Delhi

Mumbai

Chennai

Kolkatta

Question 8. IPO belongs to which market?

Primary

Secondary

Money Market

All

Question 9. Which is not the principle of lending? 1. Diversity, 2. Liquidity and 3. Safety.

Diversity

Liquidity

Safety

All are acceptable

Question 10. NEFT stands for National Electronic ……………..Transfer.

Finance

Forex

Fundamentals

Fund

Question 11. KYC means Know your ……………

Character

Customer

Certificate

Condition

Question 12. Companies should keep their savings with banks because

a) It is safe

b) Earns interest

c) Can be withdrawn anytime

d) All of above

a and b

a and c

b and c

Question 13. Which type of deposits earns higher interest rate?

Current account

Savings Account

Fixed Deposits

All of the above

Question 14. What is the validity period of a cheque?

4 months from date of issue

3 months from date of issue

1 month from date of issue

Unlimited

Loans from money lenders implies:

a) High rate of interest

b) No proper accounting

c) No transparency

d) All of above

a and c

a and b

b and c

Question 15. …………………. is the regulator of Indian Banking Industry.

SBI

HDFC

ICICI

RBI

Question 16. Which of the following is not a project management goal?

Keeping overall costs within budget

Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

Avoiding customer complaints

Question 17. Nabard, Exim and SIDBI are known as …………………… Banks.

Commerical

Loan

Development

Private

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2nd Module Assessment

DPR stands for ……………….. Project report.

Derailed

Dictated

Detailed

Descriptive

Question 2. The elapsed time from project start date to project finish date.

Turnover time

Completition Time

Duration

Start Time

Question 3. PERT stands for Program Evaluation and ………… Technique.

Repeat

Review

Right

Reporting

Question 4. A task or activity that precedes or comes before another task or activity.

Pre-task

Predecessor

Successor

Denominator

Question 5. Blue Print of a project signifies …………………… .

Tasks to complete

Timings to complete

Resources to complete

All of the given

Question 6. The planned dates for performing activities and the planned dates for meeting milestones.

Schedule

Program

Policy

Procedure

Question 7. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project’s objectives.

Risk

Uncertainty

None

Both

Question 8. Individuals and organizations who are involved in or may be affected by project activities.

Stakeholder

Shareholders

Owners

Residents

Question 9. Something that lies ready for use or that can be drawn upon for aid or to take care of a need.

Reverse

Review

Resource

Liability

Question 10. The act of revising the project’s scope, budget, schedule, or quality in order to reduce uncertainty of the project.

Reversing

Failing

Mitigation

Catching

……………… is a significant event in the project, usually completion of a major deliverable.

a. Project

b. Product

c. Profile

d. Milestone

For small projects, which method is used for calculation of project time?

a. PERT

b. CPM

c. Miles Chart

d. Bar Chart

Question 11. Which of the following is prepared first during estimate?

Schedule of rates

Rate analysis

Detailed cost analysis

Detailed Project

Question 12. Feasibility report contains sufficient detailed information.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 13. Preparation of DPR is a costly and ………………. Job.

Wasteful

Time taking

Boring

FALSE

Question 14. Before going to overseas technical collaborator the repertoire of established technology available within the country should be explored. It would be both cheaper and nationalistic!

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 15. The strength of the materials can be checked by …………..

Visual Inspection

Quality Control

By asking the manufacturer

By refering to various codes

Question 16. The roadway feature include the study of ………………

Accidental Design

Geometric Design

Route Allignment

Safety

Question 17. The first step in the checklist of DPR is ………..

Executive Summary

Roadway Details

General Details

Background

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3rd Module Assessment

Quality, Cost, ………….. (QCD), as used in lean manufacturing, measures a businesses activity and develops Key performance indicators. Select one: a. Date b. Diary c. Determination d. Delivery

………..…….. engineering is an interdisciplinary field of engineering that focuses on how complex engineering projects should be designed and managed.

Policy

Project

Program

Structured

Question 2. MBO stands for …………… Buyout.

Management

Markeing

Margin

Molecule

Question 3. ……………. are what is required to carry out a project’s tasks.

Resources

Product

Profile

Programme

Question 4. A person who takes on personal responsibility for the successful completion of a “visionary project” is a …………….. .

Insurer

Banker

Champion

Charger

Question 5. ………….. referes generally to a list of all planned expenses and revenues.

Budget

Budgetory Control

Budgeting

All

Question 6. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result is called a ……………… .

Program

Project

Product

Profile

Question 7. Wideband ………….. is a consensus-based estimation technique for estimating effort.

Deliphie

Delphi

Delhip

Dellpphi

Question 8. For “relevance,” such information as development plans of a partner country, background of project, needs of the beneficiary, project strategies, and the formulation of plans is needed.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes true

In Infra Projects only

Question 9. An imaginative arrangement of a set of ideas is called a …………….. .

Principle

Concept

Policy

Procedure

Question 10. ……………….. breakdown structure (PBS) in project management is an exhaustive, hierarchical tree structure of components that make up an item, arranged in whole-part relationship.

Project

Product

Profile

Programme

Question 11. A general list of planned expenses is called …………………. .

Auditing

Budget

Budgetory Control

Budgeting

NPV stands for …………… present value. Select one: a. National b. Net c. Nominal d. Null

Question 12. Good evaluation questions will make it ………….. to identify the necessary data and indicators in an evaluation study.

Costly

Difficult

Linger on

Easy

Question 13. Qualitative analysis of causal relationships tries to explain the relationship between the project implementation and the changes in its beneficiaries.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 14. An evaluation study is usually limited in its budget and time, and therefore it is an effective and efficient way to conduct the study.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 15. The basic methodology of quantitative methods to examine causal relationships is “comparison.”

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 16. The assessment of a project’s performance in and after mid-term evaluation needs achievement criteria (or target values) in order to judge whether the objectives are ……………… or not.

Planned

Sacrificed

Achieved

All

Question 17. There are two steps in conducting the survey: 1) to choose people as the target group and another people as the non-target (control group) at random before implementing a project; and 2) compare their changes before and after the project.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

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4th Module Assessment

Which one is not the financial institute in India?

IDBI

IFCI

ICICI

AICTE

Which is not the feature of Venture Capital: Long term horizon 1. Lack of liquidity 2. High risk 3. High tech

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 3

All are the components.

Question 2. GDR stands for …………… Depository Receipts.

Green

Global

Gross

Grand

Question 3. A ………………. is a term used in the venture capital industry to describe a privately held startup company with a value of over $1 billion.

Millionaire

Billionaire

Unicorn

None

Question 4. A …………….. finances new companies.

Venture Capitalist

Businessman

Lender

Bank

Question 5. ADR belongs to which country?

USA

India

Australia

Question 6. Private equity is composed of funds and investors that directly invest in private companies, or that engage in buyouts of public companies, resulting in the delisting of public equity.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes Correct

Sometimes Incorrect

Question 7. Which one is not the mean of raising fund from market?

OFS

Equity Shares

Preference Shares

Insurance Policies

Question 8. He is a person who makes such investments, these include wealthy investors, investment banks, other financial institutions, other partnerships.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes Correct

Sometimes Incorrect

Question 9. Cost ……………. is defined as excess of actual cost over the budget.

Overrun

Over Charge

Over Priced

Over Budget

Question 10. Normally companies raise funds from ……………. market through equity shares route.

primary

secondary

tertiary

foreign

Question 11. Which American mechanical engineer and management consultant, developed the Gantt chart in the 1910s?

Henry Gantt

Henry Feyol

Henry Ford

Michael Henry

…………. is a condition where a task or milestone relies on other tasks to be completed (or started) before it can be performed. Select one: a. Performance b. Allotment c. Dependancy d. Allocation

Question 12. Due dilegence means to know the …………………. condition of the business firm.

Financial

Non-financial

Neither A nor B

Both A and B

Question 13. …………………. is the act of managing all aspects of a project, from team to tasks to tools.

Project Control

Project Management

Project Appraisal

None of the above

Question 14. In project management, an objective or milestone set by an individual or organization is called a …………. .

Goal

Performance

Milestone

Target

Question 15. ……………… market is the market in which a security is sold for the first time.

Primary

Seconday

Tettiary

Money

Question 16. Which is not a fund raising option?

IPO

Venture Capital

Private Equiry

Reverse Mortage

Question 17. Which is not a Exit route in funding options?

IPO

Trade Sale

Promoter Buyback

Bonus Issue

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5th Module Assessment

A graphical representation of a sequence of events.

Timeline

Time Clash

Time Boundry

Time Tag

Question 2. …………….. is the professional in charge of planning and executing a project and leading a project team.

Project Surveyor

Project Evaluator

Project Controller

Project Manager

Question 3. Six Sigma is a business management strategy, originally developed by …………

Panasonic

Samsung

Sony

Motorola

Question 4. …………….. is a method used to model projects that includes all tasks, time estimates, task dependencies, and final deliverables.

HIFO

LIFO

CPM

CAPM

Question 5. ……………. is part of a set of actions which accomplish a job, problem or assignment.

Task

project

Program

Policy

Question 6. …………….. is a statistics-based methodology that seeks to improve the quality of a process by measuring the defects or bugs present and getting it down as close to zero as possible.

Six Sigma

Three Sigma

Seven Sigma

Four Sigma

Question 7. A statistical tool used to visualize a project’s schedule, sequence of tasks, and even the critical path of tasks that must be completed on time in order for the project to meet its deadline.

PERT

CPM

Neither a nor b

Both a and b

Question 8. A ……………… is someone who consults another or gives professional services to another.

Consultant

Advisor

None

Both

Question 9. BCWS is short form of Budgeted Cost of Work ……………….

Surfed

Scattered

Sacrificed

Scheduled

ESP stands for Employee Stock …………… Select one: a. Profit b. Purchase c. Put option d. Perseverance

Question 10. An X-Y axis graph that shows the number of tasks that need to be completed (on the vertical axis) versus the time remaining (on the horizontal axis) is Burn …………… Chart.

Gnatt

Down

Cluster

Question 11. Advisers serve……………….. term positions that help businesses accomplish their overarching objectives so they can reach their strategic goals.

Short

Long

Intermediate

Question 12. Significant organizational change can be challenging. It often requires many levels of cooperation and may involve different independent entities within an organization.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes

Not applicable in India

Question 13. For growing businesses with specific and particularly complex challenges, procuring consulting services may be a ………… investment.

Dicy

Incorrect

Wise

Can’t Say

Question 14. Advisers typically work with clients on a long-term basis and assume leadership roles within a company, whereas consultants usually work on a short-term basis and address a very specific problem or an underlying constraint that’s affecting a company.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Not applicable in India

Is it right to say that changes usually fail for human reasons?

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

c. Sometimes

d. Not applicable in India

Question 15. ……………..insurance is defined as an insurance policy where the proposer as well as the premium payer is the employer.

Select one:

LIC

General Insurance

Keyman

Comprehensive Motor

Question 16. Change management is defined as the methods and manners in which a company describes and implements change within both its internal and external processes.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Never

Question 17. Anybody with specialized skills, whose loss can cause a financial strain to the company, is eligible for……………….. Insurance.

Life

General Insurance

Auto

Keyman

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Strengthning Infrastructure

In a move to consult for development of various infrastructure projects in the state, the Manipur government has signed aMemorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited Projects Ltd. (IPL), a subsidiary of Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL) on Wednesday.

Additional Chief Secretary (Planning) Mr. P Vaiphei represented the state while Deputy Chief Executive Officer Mr. Palash Shrivastava represented the IPL during the signing and exchanging of the MoU at the Cabinet Hall of Chief Minister’s Secretariat in Imphal. The state Chief Minister Mr. N Biren Singh along with Chief Secretary Dr, Rajesh Kumar, Additional Chief Secretaries Mr. MH Khan andMr. Letkhogin Haokip, Commissioner (Works) Mr. T Ranjit, Commissioner (Agriculture/IPR) Mr. M Joy, Managing Director IIFCL, Mr. PR Jaishankar and other high ranking officials of the State Government and IIFCL were also present in the day’s event. The ad also read – Mizoram Assembly speaker Lalrinliana Sailo tests positive for COVID-19.

IPL is a wholly owned subsidiary of Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL), a Government of India Enterprise. IIFCL, a premier infrastructure financing institution in India, promoted IPL in February 2012 as a dedicated project advisory company involved in the areas of project appraisal, syndication, transaction advisory, and infrastructure consultancy services.

The company caters to the demand for advisory services to projects across the spectrum of infrastructure sector including roads, highways, ports, airports, power including renewable, tourism, urban infrastructure like water supply and sewerage projects, solid waste management, etc. It will provide project advisory and institutional support to assist in development of various infrastructure projects in Manipur by undertaking project preparatory studies and advisory services related to infrastructure project development and resource mobilisation.

IIFCL is an enterprise of …………. .

Nepal

State Government

Government of India

Both state and Centre

Question 2. Which is not a part of Infrastructure development?

Road

Bridges

Airports

Flats

Question 3. IIFCL promoted IPL in which year?

2000

2019

2012

2021

Question 4. AS per the case, IIFCL The company caters to the demand for advisory services to projects across the spectrum of infrastructure sector including roads, highways, ports, airports, power including renewable.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Not Clear

Question 5. Who is PR Jaishankar ?

Commissioner

Project Manager

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E – Business and Trade (CSIT723)-Semester III

February 28, 2022February 28, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

E – Business and Trade (CSIT723)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Which is not the application area of e-commerce?

E-Learning

E-Banking

E-Auction

None of the above

Question 2. The ability to change the product to better fit the needs of the customer is called ______________.

customization

privacy

accessibility

personalization

Question 3. Which of the following is a measure of the percentage of purchasers who return to a website within a year?

loyalty

reach

recency

unique visitors

Question 4. Which of the following describes E‐commerce?

Doing business electronically

Doing business

Sale of goods

All of the above

Question 5. The most widely used encryption standard is ______________.

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Data Encryption Standard (DES)

Universal Encryption Standard (UES)

Optimal Encryption Standard (OES)

Question 6. The largest component of a website budget is ______________.

system maintenance

system development

content design and development

telecommunications

Question 7. The dimension of e-commerce that enables commerce across national boundaries is called ______________.

interactivity

richness

ubiquity

global reach

Question 8. E-commerce technologies have improved upon traditional commerce technologies in ______________.

richness

reach

both richness and reach

neither richness nor reach

Question 9. Promotion of products in e-commerce can be done by:

Social media

Online Ads

Blog

All of the above

Question 10. Which is a function of E‐commerce?

marketing

advertising

warehousing

All of the above

Which service encompasses all technologies used to transmit and process information on and across a network? Select one:

a. Interoperability

b. Scalability

c. Benchmarking

d. Web services

Question 11. E-business can be defined as:

the uninhibited flow of information and goods on the Web

the use of the Internet and the Web to transact business

digitally enabled transactions and processes within an organization

commercial transactions involving electronic goods

Question 12. Which of the following is the primary characteristic of an intranet?

People outside the organization can access it

People inside the organization can’t access it

People outside the organization can’t access it

None of the above

Question 13. Which of the following represents a limiting factor for the growth of e-commerce?

Persistent cultural attraction of physical markets and traditional shopping experiences

E-commerce lacks the convenience of other methods of transacting business

The potential audience for e-commerce is too low to support it as a widespread method of commerce

Inadequate selection of goods compared to physical marketplaces.

Question 14. Which of the following describes an ERP system?

ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments

ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate

ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organisations to store critical knowledge used to make the decisions that drive the organisation’s performance

All of the above

Identify the incorrect statement :

a. The internet has evolved into phenomenally successful e-commerce engine

b. e-business is synonymous with e-commerce

c. The e-commerce model B2C did not begin with billboard ware

d. The e-commerce model G2C began with billboard ware

Question 15. E-commerce is:

an organization using electronic media to purchase from to its suppliers

any electronically mediated communication between an organization and its stakeholders

t he use of electronic communications for all business processes

an organization using electronic media to sell direct to its customers

Question 16. Which of the following describes E-commerce?

Buying products from each other

Buying services from each other

Selling services from each other

All of the above

Question 17. _______________ is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platforms – intranets, extranets and the Internet – to conduct a company’s business.

E-commerce

E-marketing

E-procurement

E-business

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2nd Module Assessment

Which type of add appears on a web page?

Select one:

pop‐under ad

Pop‐up ad

Banner ad

Discount ad

Question 2. What is the process in which a buyer posts its interest in buying a certain quantity of items, and sellers compete for the business by submitting successively lower bids until there is only one seller left?

B2B marketplace

Intranet

Reverse auction

Internet

Question 3. Which of the following is part of the four main types for e‐commerce?

B2B

B2C

C2B

All of the above

Question 4. All of the following are major B2C business models except ______________.

content provider

industry consortium

transaction broker

service provider

Question 5. What is the percentage of customers who visit a website and actually buy something called?

Affiliate programs

Click‐through

Spam

Conversion rate

Question 6. This E-Commerce business model mainly focuses on selling products or services online.

Indirect Marketing

Marketplace

Online Direct Marketing

Brick & Mortar

Question 7. All of the following are types of social marketing except ______________.

affiliate marketing

blog advertising

social network advertising

game advertising

Question 8. Which segment do eBay, Amazon.com belong to?

B2Bs

B2Cs

C2Bs

C2Cs

Question 9. Which portal business model best describes Yahoo?

general purpose portal

affinity group based vertical market

focused content based vertical market

none of the above

Question 10. The basic element(s) of website is/are:

Home page

Web pages

Links and banners

All the above

Question 11. Which of the following describes paid content’s relation to free user-generated content?

Free content jeopardizes paid content

Paid content jeopardizes free content

Free content and paid content can both work in tandem cooperatively

Paid content is viable now but will not be in the future

Question 12. All of the following are challenges to online retail except ______________.

Consumer concerns about the security of transactions

Consumer concerns about the privacy of personal information given to Web sites

Delays in delivery of goods when compared to store shopping

Inability to change prices nearly instantly

Question 13. The two main types of Internet-based B2B commerce are:

Net marketplaces and private industrial networks

EDI and collaborative commerce

Net marketplaces and collaborative commerce

EDI and private industrial networks

Question 14. An example of a cost-saving benefit from creating an e-commerce web site is:

the ability to reach overseas markets without a sales presence.

more rapid response to customer enquiries.

tracking of number of customers using different parts of site.

all of the above

The online content revenue model in which free content drives offline revenues is called the ______________. Select one:

a. marketing model

b. advertising model

c. pay-per-view model

d. subscription model

Question 15. Which of the following portals are more specific, offering a great deal of information pertaining to a single area of interest?

Horizontal

Vertical

(a) and (b) both

None of above

Question 16. Click and mortar business are business that have:

only physical presence

both an online and an offline presence

neither online nor offline presence

None of above

Question 17. A buy-side supplier threat of e-commerce is:

Drives down cost of commoditized products

Reduction in customer loyalty

Increase in cost of supplies

None of above

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3rd Module Assessment

Which of the following can be used to help identify people in a crowd?

Select one:

Biochip

Implant chip

Facial recognition software

Vision chip

Question 2. Online journals where people post their reviews and thoughts on narrow topic are classified as ____________.

Business domain website

Corporate website

Blogs

Marketing website

Question 3. The use of smart card represents a form of:

password encryption

authorization

authentication

both b and c

Which of the following is the correct depiction of Digital Marketing?

Select one:

a.E-mail Marketing

b.Social Media Marketing

c.Web Marketing

d.all of the above

Question 4. ____________ is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platform-intranets, extranet and the internet to conduct a company’s business.

e- procurement

e-business

e-commerce

e-marketing

Question 5. EFT stands for ____________.

Electronic fund transmission

Electronic foreign transmission

Electronic feature transfer

Electronic feature transmit

Question 6. _____ is an approach to information management in which data are stored in a network of documents connected by links.

Hypertext

Linked text

Hyperdata

none

Question 7. Which of the following advantages is/are normally associated with B2B e‐commerce?

Shorter cycle times

Reduction in costs

Reaches wider audiences

All of the above

Question 8. The process of getting customers to pass along a company’s marketing message to friends, family, and colleagues is known as ______________.

affiliate marketing

permission marketing

blog marketing

viral marketing

Question 9. The limitations of e-marketing is ____________.

the inability to touch and feel

instant cash payment

touch and feel

immediate delivery

Question 10. Which of the following is the correct depiction of Digital Marketing?

E-mail Marketing

Social Media Marketing

Web Marketing

All of the above

_________is a unique address on the world wide web that provides the exact location of every data in the universal network.

Select one:

URL

http

www

none

Question 11. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the impact of technology?

Technology has caused buyer power to increase

Technology has lessened the entry barriers for many industries

Technology has increased the threat of substitute products and services

all of the above

Question 12. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of e-commerce to sellers?

e-commerce can help to reduce coSts

e-commerce is a powerful tool for customer relationship building

e-commerce increases the net cost per contact

e-commerce offers greater flexibility in meeting customer needs.

Question 13. Identify the incorrect statement:

The overall strategy drives the e-commerce data warehousing strategy.

Data warehousing in an e-commerce environment should be done in a classical manner.

E-commerce opens up an entirely new world of web servers.

E-commerce security threats can be grouped into three major categories.

Question 14. All of the following are potential benefits of B2B e-commerce except:

reduced amount of ‘first-mover’ advantages

decreased product cycle time

increased opportunities for collaborating with suppliers and distributors

increased production flexibility

Which of the following are the key characteristics of e-business?

I. Customer is king.

II. E-business leads to intermediation.

III. Entry barriers are low.

IV. Economies of scale.

Select one:

a. Both (I) and (II) above

b. Both (II) and (III) above

c. Both (III) and (IV) above

d. (I), (III) and (IV) above

Question 15. Which of the following is not a challenge of e-learning?

E-learning is not always designed by skilled educators.

Online learning increases social interaction among children.

All of above.

Question 16. Many e-tailers often offer lower prices to:

Generate brand awareness

Increase site traffic

Increase customer loyalty

All of above

Question 17. Which of the following is not true for online travel?

People can save time and money by booking their travel arrangements on the Web

There is a great deal of competition among travel Web sites; each offers better service, low fares and more features.

Customers now have the power to bypass a travel agent

None of above

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4th Module Assessment

The redirection of traffic from a legitimate site to an infringing site is called ______________.

cybersquatting

cyberpiracy

metatagging

keywording

Question 2. When hackers flood a website with useless traffic to overwhelm the network, it is called ______________.

phishing

pharming

a Denial of Service (DoS) attack

spoofing

Question 3. If you need to transfer money to another person via the internet, which of the following methods can you use?

financial cybermediary

electronic check

electronic bill presentment and payment

All of the above

Question 4. Which of the following is an Internet‐based company that makes it easy for one person to pay another over the Internet?

electronic check

electronic bill presentment and payment

conversion rates

financial cybermediary

Question 5. Which of the following is not related to security mechanism?

encryption

decryption

e‐cash

All of the above

Question 6. What is the name given to an interactive business providing a centralized market where many buyers and suppliers can come together for E‐commerce or commerce‐related activities?

Direct marketplace

B2B

B2C

Electronic marketplace

Question 7. Secure Sockets Layers does which of the following?

creates a secure, private connection to a web server

encrypts information

sends information over the internet

All of the above

Question 8. Which web server functionality allows it to verify usernames and passwords and process certificates and encryption information?

Processing of HTTP requests File Transfer Protocol

Data capture

Security services

Question 9. Which of the following is a useful security mechanism when considering business strategy and IT?

encryption

decryption

firewall

All of the above

Question 10. A security plan begins with a ______________.

security policy

implementation plan

security organization

risk assessment

The practice of forging a return address on an e‐mail so that the recipient is fooled into revealing private information is termed as ____________.

a. hacking b. cracking c. dumpster diving d. spoofing

Question 11. Which of the following statements about privacy is true?

It is a moral right to be left alone

Only corporations and government need to be concerned about it

It has only just recently become a concern

It is most easily obtained on the Internet

Question 12. Digital signature is a:

Digital id,send as an attachment to a web page/e‐mail/message

Is used for verifying the attachments send using web

Both a and b

None of these

Question 13. Public key encryption uses multiple keys. One key is used to encrypt data, while another is used to decrypt data. The key used to encrypt data is called the _____ key, while the key used to decrypt data is called the _____ key.

encryption, decryption

private, public

encryption, public

public, private

Question 14. Secure communication means:

Protect transmission of credit card number

Guarantee privacy of customer

Unauthorized access of payment details

All the above

A digital signature is required: i) to tie an electronic message to the sender’s identity ii) for non repudiation of communication by a sender iii) to prove that a message was sent by the sender in a Court of law. Iv) in all e-mail transactions Select one: a. i and ii b. i, ii and iii c. I, ii, iii and iv d. ii, iii and iv

Question 15. What is considered while creating a front page of the website or homepage?

References of other websites

Logos portraying the number of awards won by the web designer

A brief elaboration about the company

None of the above

Question 16. Micro-blogging can be defined as __________.

Mobile related blogs

Blogs posted by companies instead of an individual

Blogs encompassing limited individual posts, which are typically limited by character count.

None of the above

Question 17. Which of the following factors are responsible for leaving an impact on the Google PageRank?

The text depicting inbound links to a page of a website.

The subject matter of the site providing the inbound link to a page of a website.

The number of outbound links on the page that contains the inbound link to a page of a website.

A total number of inbound links to a website’s page.

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5th Module Assessment

Which concept suggests that different applications and computer systems should be able to communicate with one another?

Integration

Web services

Scalability

Interoperability

Question 2. What is a detailed process for recovering information or an IT system in the event of a catastrophic disaster such as fire or flood?

Disaster recovery plan

Hot site

Cold site

Disaster recovery cost curve

Question 3. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chip on which digital information can be stored?

Customer relationship management systems cards

E‐government identity cards

FEDI cards

Smart cards

Question 4. What floods a website with so many requests for service that it slows down or crashes?

Computer virus

Worm

Denial‐of‐service attack

None of the above

Question 5. A technique used to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, often by e‐mail, is called ____________.

Phishing

Carding

Brand spoofing

All of the above

Question 6. What is an internal organizational Internet that is guarded against outside access by a special security feature called a firewall (which can be software, hardware, or a combination of the two)?

Client/server network

Intranet

Extranet

Thin client

Question 7. What looks for people on the network who shouldn’t be there or who are acting suspiciously?

Encryption

Public key encryption

Intrusion‐detection software

Security‐auditing software

Question 8. What is the name for direct computer‐to‐computer transfer of transaction information contained in standard business documents?

internet commerce

e‐commerce

transaction information transfer

electronic data interchange

Question 9. Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click on an ad, and are taken to the site of the advertiser?

Affiliate programs

Click‐through

Spam

All of the above

Which of the following refers to creating products tailored to individual customers?

a. customization

b. aggregation c. Direct materials d. Reverse auction

Question 10. Cyber slacking consists of what activities?

Visiting “inappropriate” web sites

Visiting news sites

Chatting online with others about non‐work topics

All of the above

Question 11. Which of the following is/are not basic e-business model(s)?

I. B2B.

II. B2C.

III. C2C.

IV. C2B.

Only (II) above()

Only (IV) above()

(I) (II) and (III) above

Both (I) and (IV) above()

Question 12. Disadvantages of E-commerce in India are:

(i) internet access is not universally available

(ii) credit card payment security is not yet guaranteed

(iii) transactions are de-personalized and human contact is missing

(iv) cyber laws are not in place

i and ii

ii and iii

i, ii, iii

i, ii, iii, iv

E-business is:

Select one:

a.the use of electronic communications for all business processes

b.an organization using electronic media to purchase from to its suppliers

c.any electronically mediated communication between an organization and its stakeholders

d.all of the above

Question 13. Which is the most realistic relationship between these two concepts?

E-business is a subset of E-commerce

E-commerce is broadly equivalent to E-business

E-commerce is a subset of E-business

E-commerce has some overlap with E-business

Question 14. An example of benefits from creating an E-commerce website is:

more rapid response to customer enquiries

tracking of number of customers using different parts of site

lower paper costs needed for marketing and fewer staff needed in contact centre

All the above

Question 15. Which of the following statements accurately reflect the impact of technology?

technology has caused buyer power to increase

technology has lessened the entry barriers for many industries

technology has increased the threat of substitute products and services

all of the above

Question 16. Which of the following is true for Insurance Online?

Insurance is complicated; the Web offers instruction and helpful documentation.

Free quotes and calculators help consumers make informed decisions.

Lower rates are often found on the Web for insurance.

all of the above

Question 17. In what ways can site traffic help in assessing the market value?

Overall site traffic can be followed, and a general idea of marketing’s impact can be determined.

There is no association between the site traffic and marketing

Ads can send receivers to a specific landing page, which can be tracked

Product sales from the company website can be attributed directly to the marketing campaign

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Assignment 2

Case Study:

While ecommerce has been growing rapidly, it still only comprised a small percentage of overall retail sales. For example, in the U.S., on an adjusted basis, ecommerce accounted for 11.8% of all retail sales in the first quarter of 2020, according to the U.S. Census Bureau.

That was for Q1. Then in Q2, the number jumped to 16.1% – a 44.5% change from the same quarter a year ago. To put that number in perspective, Q2 2019 grew “only” 13.8% over Q2 2018.

What changed? The COVID-19 pandemic, of course. Even with ecommerce’s double-digit growth over the years, brick-and-mortar retail still had many advantages over ecommerce. Some products (like groceries) are hard to ship and easier and less expensive to buy in person. Brick-and-mortar retail has an experiential draw that ecommerce can’t match – from trying on a shirt to being wowed by an in-store (and Instagram-worthy) display. The ability to make a human connection and learn about a product or service.

Suddenly everything changed. That human connection became a detriment. And a no-touch version of goods and even services was preferable if not essential.

What of these softwares comes hidden in free downloadable software and tracks your online movements, mines the information stored on your computer, or uses your computer’s CPU and storage for some task you know nothing about?

Web log

Clickstream

Anonymous Web browsing service

None of the above

Question 2. What type of virus spreads itself, not just from file to file, but from computer to computer via e‐mail and other Internet traffic?

Computer virus

Worm

Denial‐of‐service attack

None of the above

Question 3. What is an electronic representation of cash?

Digital cash

Electronic cash

E‐cash

All of the above

Question 4. During E‐commerce transaction, we should ensure ____________.

Integrity

Security

Confidentiality

All the above

Question 5. Encryption prevents ____________ from viewing data that is transmitted over telecommunications channels.

snoopers

other prying seyes

hackers

All the above

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Management of Financial Service (EDL 307)-Semester III

February 26, 2022February 26, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Management of Financial Service (EDL 307)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

IPO stands for __________.

Select one:

Initial Preference Offering

Initial Private Offering

Initial Public Offering

Initial Price Organisation

Question 2. Financial services through the network of elements such as ________, serve the needs of individuals, institutions and Corporate.

Financial institutions

Financial markets

Financial instruments

All of these

Question 3. Merchant banks deal with funds raised through ____________ and capital market.

Financial Market

Money Market

Primary Market

Capital Market

Question 4. The term _______________ is defined as a central location for keeping securities on deposit.

Instrument

Institutions

Depository

None of these

Question 5. _________ encompasses all institutions dealing in fresh issues.

New issues Market

Secondary Market

Money Market

Capital Market

Question 6. Registration of brokers is made _______.

compulsory

optional

no need

none of these

Question 7. Functions of Finacial Services include:

Mobilization of Savings

Allocation of Funds

Specialized Services

All of these

Question 8. To regulate the securities market and to protect the investor’s interest ________ has been created by the Government of India.

RBI

SBI

SEBI

IRDA

Question 9. The objectives of SEBI include _______________.

To promote the development of the market

To protect the interests of inventors

To regulate the securities market

All of these

Question 10. The following one is a kind of fee based activity of a financial intermediary.

hire purchase financing

capital issue management

leasing

underwriting

__________ includes all activities involved in the transformation of savings into investment. Select one: a. Financial system b. Financial service c. Economic system d. Saving system

Question 11. In India Merchant banking along with management of public issues and loan syndication covering activities like:

Project counseling

Portfolio management

Investment counseling

All of these

Question 12. Role of Merchant Bankers____________.

Select one:

Mobilization of Funds

Innovation

All of these

Question 13. Book Building Process is managed by the_________.

Registrar

Book Runner

Lead Manager

Book Runner & Lead Manager

Question 14. The price of new issue is decided by the company along with its _______ .

Merchant Banker

SEBI

Stock Exchange

Banks

A prospectus which does not have details of either price or number of shares offer or the amount of issue is called: Select one:

a. Red herring prospectus

b. Statement in lieu of prospectus

c. Shelf prospectus

d. None of these

Question 15. Name the process by which a demand for the securities proposed to be issued by a body corporate is elicited.

Green Shoe Option

IPO

Book Building

FPO

Question 16. Post- Issue Managemnt activities include:

Analysis of Collection

Processing of Data

Issue of Refund Orders

All of these

Question 17. Lead Merchant Banker should advice the issuer to enter into ____________ with a particular intermediary for the purpose of issue management.

Select one:

Memorandum of Understanding

ROC

Agreement

Arrangement

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2nd Module Assessment

Which agency regulates and supervises NBFCs?

Select one:

Finance Ministry

SEBI

RBI

Respective state government

Question 2. The feature of a mutual fund, where it spreads the investment in varied stocks and sectors by pooling the funds of various investors, is called as ______________.

Diversification

Professional Management

Affordability

Profit

Question 3. For a company to register as a NBFC it should have a minimum net owned fund of _____.

Rs 25 lakh

Rs 1 crores

Rs 2 crores

Rs 5 crores

Question 4. NBFCs are required to accept public deposit for a maximum period of ___ months?

36 months

48 months

60 months

120 months

Question 5. _______________ ended fund are highly liquid.

Close Ended

Old

Open Ended

New

Question 6. Which of the following is not the part of organized sector of Indian Money Market?

Mutual Funds

Chit Funds

NBFCs

RBI

Question 7. Which of the following does not have any roles in regulation of NBFCs?

National Housing Bank

SIDBI

Reserve Bank of India

MCA

Question 8. What is an open-ended mutual fund?

It is the one that has an option to invest in any kind of security

It has units available for sale and repurchase at all times.

It has an upper limit on its NAV

It has a fixed fund size

Question 9. Mutual funds in India are permitted to invest in____________.

Securities

Securities & Gold

Securities other than Real Estate

Securities, Gold and Real Estate

Question 10. A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the _______.

RBI Act 1934

Companies Act, 2013

NBFC Act 1956

Government Securities Regulations, 1913

Units of _____________ must be listed on the stock exchange. Select one: a. Sector Funds b. Arbitrage Funds c. Close ended Funds d. Liquid Funds

Question 11. The value of one unit of investment in Mutual fund is called the _______________.

Net Asset Value

Issue value

Market Value

Gross Asset Value

Question 12. The seller can repossess the goods in case of default in payment .

Interest

Hire Charge

Payment

Credit

Question 13. Which of the following activity is not permissible for NBFC?

loans and advances

acquisition of shares

insurance business

construction of immovable property

Question 14. Which of the following is false about NBFC?

NBFC cannot accept demand deposits

NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself

deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs

NBFC cannot undertake insurance business

___________ schemes not exposed to sudden and large movements of funds. Select one: a. Fixed maturity plan b. Close-Ended Funds c. Open-Ended Funds d. Interval fund

Question 15. A non-banking institution that has a principal business of receiving deposits under any scheme or arrangement in one lump sum or in installments by way of contributions is known as:

Principal non-banking company

Residential non-banking company

Residuary non-banking company

Optional non-banking company

Question 16. ________ is a method of investing in mutual funds wherein an investor chooses a mutual fund scheme and invests a the fixed amount of his choice at fixed intervals.

Systematic Transfer Plan

Systematic Investment Plan

Systematic Innovative Plan

Systematic Withdrawal Plan

Question 17. ____________ is a facility provided by banks to investors in new fund offers (NFOs) of mutual funds.

ASBA

CASBA

MASBA

NASA

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3rd Module Assessment

Hire Purchase Act passed in the year_____. Select one: a. 1969 b. 1972 c. 1982 d. 1976

Consumer loans are granted for _____________ period.

Medium

Short

Long

Both Long & Medium

Question 2. Equipment leasing is _______________ financial service.

fund based

fee based

non-fund based

All of these

Question 3. In hire purchase depreciation can be claimed by the______.

Hirer

Vendor

Financiers

All of these

Question 4. _____________ is pooling of small savings.

Mutual fund

Credit rating

Insurance

Guarantee

Question 5. CIBIL stands for ______________.

Credit Information Bureau of India ltd

Central investment Board of India Ltd

Credit and Investment Bureau of India ltd

None of these

Question 6. _______________ is a method of renting assets.

Hire Purchase

Lease

Hedge Finance

Credit Rating

Question 7. In _______________ lease, leasing company assumes risk of obsolescence.

Financial lease

Operating lease

Leverage lease

Cross boarder lease

Question 8. The limitations of credit rating include ________.

Rating charges

Industry specific

Governance issues

All of these

Question 9. _______________ lease contracts are usually non cancellable.

Financial lease

Operating lease

Leverage lease

Cross boarder lease

Question 10. ___________ refers to the raising of finance by individuals for meeting their personal expenditure or for the acquisition of consumer durable goods.

Housing Finance

Consumer Finance

Business Finance

Local Finance

Question 11. ________ is an agreement under which a company or a firm acquires a right to make use of a capital asset like machinery, on payment of agreed fee called rental charges.

Hire Purchase

Leasing

Mutual Fund

Factoring X

Question 12. In India, banks are permitted to carry on hire purchase business:

Directly

Through its Departments

Through subsidiary

Any of the above

Question 13. Which of the following is/are types of consumer credit?

Revolving credit

Unsecured credit

Secured credit

All of these

Question 14. In ____________ leasing, the risk of obsolescence is assumed by the lessee.

Operating lease

Leverage lease

Financial lease

Sale and lease back

_______ is an ongoing credit arrangement.

a. Unsecured Credit

b. Fixed Credit

c. Cash loans

d. Revolving Credit

Question 15. Consumer Credit accelerates ____________.

Investments in the consumer durable industry

Balancing interest rate

Increasing investment awareness

Supply of goods

Question 16. The three C’s of Consumer Credit are:

Character, capital and charity

Character, capacity and charity

Character, capacity and capital

Capital, capacity and conciliate

Question 17. The features of hire purchase includes:

The possession of goods is given to the buyer immediately.

The ownership in the goods remains with the vendor till the last installment is paid.

The seller can repossess the goods in case of default in payment .

All of these

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4th Module Assessment

Venture Capitalists use staged financing:

to limit other investor’s return

to increase Venture Capitalist’s Ownership stake

to reducuce Venture Capitalist’s Risk Exposure

to increase probability the Portfolio Company succeeds

Question 2. A ____________ is a specialized firm that finances young, start-up companies.

Venture Capital Firm

Finance company

Small-Business finance company

capital-creation company

Question 3. The P/E firm takes the help of _______ for valuation & legal advice.

Agents

Brokers

Advisors

RBI

Question 4. _____________ act as an intermediary to link up the sources of ideas and the sources of fund.

Venture Capital

Merchant Banking

Leasing

None of these

Question 5. Financial services offered financing risk project to provide which of the Following?

Seed Capital

Venture Capital

Primary Fund

Secondary Fund

Question 6. The _____________ partner is also entitled to share in profits of the private equity funds investment .

Legal

General

Limited

Partnership

Question 7. _____________ nurturing means the continuous &ongoing investment of the VCF through representation in the board of the venture.

Hands on

Hands off

Hands holding

All of these

Question 8. Private Equity is regulated by ______.

IRDA

LIC

UTI

SEBI

Question 9. _____________ types of valuation method can be adopted by VCFs.

Question 10. Venture capital organized in _____________.

1995

1954

1952

1950

VCFs can be structured as an investment trust under the Indian act _____________.

Select one:

1883

1882

1884

1885

Question 11. The purpose of valuation is to assess the ____________ and viability of the venture & to divide of the percentage of the VCF ownership in the new venture.

Select one:

Feasibility

Profitability

Availability

None of these

Question 12. Which of the following is not the non-fund based activities?

Securitization

Merchant banking

Loan syndication

Venture capital

Question 13. ____________ is an interest free loan provided by VCFs without any predetermined repayment schedule.

Conventional loan

Income notes

Conditional loan

None of these.

Question 14. The venture capital process involves post investment Services is also called ____________.

Investment nurturing

Turn around financing

Seed money

All of these

In the ____________ method the entire earnings stream of the venture investment is considered.

a. Conventional Valuation Method

b. First Chicago Method

c. Revenue Multiplier Method

d. None of these.

The venture capital process involves post investment Services is also called ____________.

Select one:

Investment nurturing

Turn around financing

Seed money

All of these

Question 15. ____________ is used to estimate the value of venture capital investment.

Dual structuring

Revenue multiplier

First Chicago method

None of these

Question 16. Private equity is a ______ investment fund, as its Current market price cannot be easily determined and cannot be transferred for certain period of time.

Close ended

Open ended

Fund

Active

Question 17. In ____________ method the starting time & exit time of the venture investment is only considered.

Select one:

First Chicago method

Revenue multiplier method

Conventional valuation method

All of these

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5th Module Assessment

AI is intelligence demonstrated by ________. Select one:

a. Humans

b. Machines

c. Both of above

d. None of these

KYC means____________.

Select one:

Know Your Customer

Know Your Character

Know Your Card

Know Your Creditor

Question 2. What is a blockchain?

A client-server database existing on a limited number of nodes at the same time.

A centralized database that holds a subset of all transactions on all nodes.

A distributed database with a record of all transactions on the network.

A standalone database with history of all transactions on various nodes.

Question 3. ________refers to non alteration of data.

Confidentiality

Integrity

Privilege

None of these

Question 4. In Electronic cash payment____________.

a debit card payment system is used

a credit card payment system is used

a customer buys several electronic coins which are digitally signed

RSA cryptography is used in the transactions

Question 5. For providing transparency in accounting and reporting procedures of banks, _____________ are introduced in 1992

IRAC rules

BASEL norms

Capital Adequacy Norms

None of these

Question 6. Indian Bank Association(IBA) is __________technology

Infrastructure

Insurance

Banking

Centralise

Question 7. Paperless banking is known as_________.

RTGS

Internet Banking

EFT

Mobile Banking

Question 8. _______is one of the problem with e- banking.

Limited services

Security

Too many steps

Convenience

Question 9. DBMS stands for ___________.

Database Master System

Database Management Structure

Delivery Management System

Database Management System

Question 10. EFT stands for:

Electronic Fund Transmission

Electronic Fund Transfer

Electronic Feature Transfer

None of these

Identify the Risk factors which are associated with Electronic payment system. Select one:

a. Fraudulent use of Credit Cards

b. Sending Credit Card details over internet

c. Remote storage of Credit Card details

d. All of these

Question 11. What is E-Payment?

Electronic payment for buying and selling through the Internet

Payment of Online Software

Payment of Online Services

None of these

Question 12. ______ allows a user to execute financial transaction via the internet.

Location Banking

Mobile Banking

Home Banking

Online banking

Question 13. ____________ banking refers to the use of technology and communication systems in delivering banking products and services to customers.

Hi-tech banking

Virtual banking

Home banking.

Question 14. The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking, reasoning and learning is known as_________.

machine intelligence

human intelligence

artificial intelligence

virtual intelligence

Question 15. _______________allows to process the data which is stored in data warehouse.

Information Processing

Analytical Processing

Data Mart

Data Mining

Question 16. USP for Oracle Financial services software__________.

Seamless multichannel banking

Business agilitydesigned for modern

User Friendly, intuitive interface

Increased Flexibility and interoperability

Question 17. __________ is not a part of E-Banking components.

Strategic objectives for ebanking

Investment/ Brokerage services

Security and internal control requirements

Scope, scale and complexity of equipment, systems and activities

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Assignment 2

Case Study

XYZ Mutual Fund has been constituted as a trust on December 27, 2019 in accordance with the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882. The Deed of Trust has been registered under the Indian Registration Act, 1908. The Mutual Fund was registered with SEBI on January 18, 2020. They attribute their success thus far to their 3 founding principles: Outside-in view — Communicate with customers in their language to assist them in taking the right investment decision. Long-term wealth creation — Encourage investors to create a long-term investment strategy and play a critical role in their wealth management. Long-term relationship — Build relationships beyond finances XYZ Mutual Fund is a professionally managed investment fund that pools money from many investors to purchase securities. Within a short span of time it becomes very popular amongst various investors. It provides comprehensive suite of savings and investment products across asset classes, which provide income and wealth creation opportunities to large retail and institutional customer.

The single most important factor that drives XYZ Mutual Fund is its belief to give the investors the chance to profitably invest in the financial market, without constantly worrying about the market swings. To realize this belief, XYZ Mutual Fund has set up the infrastructure required to conduct all the fundamental research and back it up with effective analysis. Their strong emphasis on managing and controlling portfolio risk avoids chasing the latest “fads” and trends. ABC Ltd. has entrusted a sum of Rs. 10 Lakh as the initial contribution towards the corpus of the Mutual Fund. PQR limited looks after the operation and investment of Mutual Fund. PQR limited may undertake any other business activities including activities in the nature of management and advisory services to offshore funds, financial consultancy and exchange of research on commercial basis etc., subject to receipt of necessary regulatory approvals. In accordance with SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, activities of PQR Ltd. are reviewed by CID Ltd. The Board of Directors of the PQR Ltd. and CID Ltd. comprises eminent personalities with varied experience. It has launched its new scheme recently. This scheme mainly invest (appx. 85%) its funds in equity & equity related instruments of top 100 company in terms of full market capitalization. This scheme has 1,05,00,000 outstanding units. NAV published on February 18, 2020 is Rs. 15 per unit. On February 19, 2020, XYZ mutual fund has sold investments worth costing Rs. 2,50,00,000 at Z 2,75,00,000. On the same day, XYZ Mutual Fund purchased investments worth Rs. 1,50,00,000 whose market value at the end of day is Rs. 1,51,15,000. Market value of investment sold was Rs. 2,74,50,000 on February 18, 2020. Current Assets and Current Liability on February 18, 2020 was Rs. 85,00,000 and Rs. 10,00,000 respectively. Market Value of other investment as on February 19,2020 is increased by 1% as compared to February 18, 2020.

Que: Which is not the type of Mutual Fund on the basis of “Structure”?

Equity Schemes

Debt Schemes

Open Ended Fund

Both A & B

Question 2. What is Minimum Networth requirement of AMC as per SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996?

Rs. 50 Million

Rs. 50 Billion

Rs. 50 Lakhs

Rs. 50 Crores

Question 3. Which Ratio measures excess return generated per unit of risk in the portfolio?

Sharpe Ratio

Treynor Ratio

Jensen’s Alpha

Sortino Ratio

Question 4. CAMEL stands for:

Capital, Assets, Management, Earning & Liquidity

Cost, Assets, Managers, Earning and Liquidity

Cost, Assurance, Managers, Earning & Liquidity

Cost, Assets, Management, Earning and Liquidity

Question 5. Liquid Fund invests in debt and money market securities with maturity:

Upto 1 day

Upto 10 days

Upto 91 days

Upto 100 days

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Recruitment Selection and Retention (HR703)-Semester III

February 23, 2022February 23, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Recruitment Selection and Retention (HR703)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

The term bottom-up approach is commonly associated with which of the following?

Select one:

normal group technique

Delphi technique

managerial judgment

work study technique

It is the process of ensuring that there are right number of qualified people in the right jobs for best results. It is known as ___________.

Recruitment

Human Resource Planning

Downsizing

Retrenchment

Question 2. Which of the following factor is an importance of the Human Resource Planning?

Creating highly talented personnel

International strategies

resistance to change and move

All of the options

Question 3. HR Planning is based on which of the following ?

Market condition

External Environment

Financial Condition

Organisational Plan

Question 4. Identify which of the following is the first step in determining supply?

auditing present employees

succession planning.

analysis of labour markets.

placing ads in newspapers.

Question 5. Human resource management emphasises on which of the following ?

Development of people

Punishment of people

Adoption of people

None of these

Question 6. In which of the following options, the HR manager attempts to ascertain the supply of and demand for various types of human resources?

Forecasting

Evaluation

Program implementation

Goal setting

Question 7. Human Resource Management is associated with the management of________.

Community members.

Organizational people

General people.

Financial resources

Question 8. Human Resource Management aims to maximize employees and organizational_________.

Economy

Efficiency

Effectiveness

Planning

Question 9. Which of the following is the basic purpose of human resource planning?

identify the human resource requirements

identify the human resource availability

match the HR requirements with the HR availability

All of the options

Question 10. Customers of an organization fall under which of the following categories?

Shareholders.

Partners.

Stakeholders

Staff.

Identify which of the following is a workforce factor that influences demand.

terminations

sales forecasts.

organizational design.

new ventures.

Question 11. Which of the following is the basis for human resource planning?

demand for employees.

strategic plans of the firm.

supply of employees.

the economy.

Question 12. _______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people required to meet future needs of the organisation.

Supply forecasting

Demand forecasting

Environmental forecasting

Ratio trend analysis

Question 13. Which of the following is the fastest forecasting technique?

Work study technique

Flow models

Ratio trend analysis

HR demand Forecast

Question 14. Identify the option that is not a forecasting technique to assess the human resource requirements of an organization.

trend analysis

ratio analysis

managerial judgment

replacement charts

Question 15. It is the process which first surveys experts, then it provides summaries of all opinion, then re-surveys until consensus emerges regarding the future of the organization. It is called as___________.

work study technique

normal group technique

managerial judgment

Delphi technique

Question 16. The forecasting technique which is based on the subjective views of the managers on the Human Resource requirements of an organization is known as_________.

normal group technique

Delphi technique

managerial judgment

work study technique

Question 17. Which of the following is NOT an advantage in performing human resource planning?

improving utilization of human resources

improving compensation

coordinating hiring needs

improving employment equity.

2nd Module Assessment

The final process of a job analysis is the preparation of two statements _________.

job observation and job description

job specification and job observation

job description and job specification

None of the options.

Question 2. Identify which of the following options is not a component of job design?

job enrichment

job outsourcing

job reengineering

job rotation

Question 3. Adding more responsibility, providing wider scope, greater sequencing and minimizing controls, all these reptresent which of the following?

Job enrichment

Job design

Job enlargement

Job expansion

Question 4. ______ is the systematic process of analyzing and evaluating jobs to determine their relative worth in an organization.

Job enrichment

Job evaluation

Job expansion

Job enlargement

Question 5. It is the process of bringing together different tasks to build a job. It is called as __________.

job evaluation

job design

job classification

job description

Question 6. Which of the following is also known by relative worth of a job?

Job evaluation

Job expansion

Job analysis

Job Change

Question 7. The System of moving employees from one job to another in a predetermined manner is called as ___________.

job rotation

work mapping

job reengineering

job design

Question 8. Which of the following is the system of ranking jobs in a firm on the basis of the relevant characteristics, duties, and responsibilities?

job evaluation

job design

job Specification

job description

Question 9. Job analysis is a process of gathering information about the ____________.

job holder

job

management

organization

Question 10. _________ helps to develop Job design.

Job analysis

Job rotation

Job enlargement

Job enrichment

Which of the following is an important objective of a job evaluation programme? Select one:

a. Establishment of sound wage differentials between jobs.

b. Maintenance of a consistent wage policy.

c. Installation of an effective means of wage control

d. All of the options

Question 11. Identify which of the following is a benefit of job analysis.

Laying the foundation for safety and health

Laying the foundation for performance appraisal

Laying the foundation for employee hiring

All of the Options

Question 12. Job Analysis is a process where _____________ are made about data collected on a job.

judgements

payments

decisions

All of the Options

Question 13. Which of the following is a Quantitative job evaluation method?

Ranking method

Point rating method

Factor comparison method

Only (b) and (c)

Question 14. A ______ is a written record of the duties, responsibilities and conditions of the job.

Job ranking

Job description

Job enrichment

Job enlargement

The basic purpose of Job Evaluation is to determine _______. Select one:

a. Worth of a job in relation to other jobs

b. Time duration of a job

c. Expenses incurred to make a job

d. Both B & C

Question 15. Job Description helps in which of the following?

the development of job specifications

providing orientation to new employees towards their basic responsibilities and duties.

developing performance standard

All of the options

Question 16. _________ helps to know, what kind of a person to recruit and for what qualities that person should be tested.

Job Description

Job specification

Job Design

All of the options

Question 17. Which of the following is a Qualitative job evaluation method?

Ranking

Grading

Point Rating

Both (a) and (b)

3rd Module Assessment

Identify which statement is correct: A. Recruitment and selection are different. B. Promotion is an internal source of recruitment.

Select one:

Both A & B are wrong

A is right, B is wrong

Both A & B are correct

A is wrong, B is right

Question 2. _______ relates to reassignment of an employee to a higher level job which involves greater responsibility or status or pay.

Transfer

Demotion

Cross functional transfer

Promotion

Question 3. Campus selection is a ________source of recruitment.

Fresh

Modern

Internal

External

Question 4. Identify which of the following is the purpose of recruitment?

Make sure that there is match between cost and benefit

Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing the number of visibly underqualified or over qualified job applicants.

Help the firm create more culturally diverse work – force

None of the options.

Question 5. The primary goal of recruitment and selection process is to_______.

meet the high labour turnover

hire the best individuals at optimum cost

ensure the availability of surplus in the case of sickness and absence

None of the options.

Question 6. Recruitment is viewed as a _______ process.

positive

negative

both positive and negative

partially negative

Question 7. Which of the following options is not concerned with staffing?

Recruitment

Selection

Training

Publicity

Question 8. The Best medium to reach to a large audeience in recruitment is _______.

Casual Applicants

Advertising

Employee Referrals

Employment Agencies.

Question 9. Which of the following is the least expensive method used for recruitments?

campus placements

employment exchanges

consultants

walk-ins, write-ins, and talk-ins

Question 10. It is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in an organization. It is termed as________.

Placement

Recruitment

Selection

Promotion

___ is related to hiring of relatives , which will be an inevitable component of recruitment programs in family owned firms. Select one: a. Leasing b. Nepotism c. Loyalty d. None of the options.

Which of the following options is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on internal recruitment in any organisation? Select one:

a. reduced job performance

b. high labour turnover

c. lack of motivation

d. internal resistance

Question 11. Which of the following options is the most important external factor that influences recruitments?

Sons of soil

work environment

Unemployment rate

Supply and demand

Question 12. While recruiting for non – managerial, supervisory and middle – management positions which external factor is of prime importance?

Political – Legal

Labour market

Unemployment rate

none of the options

Question 13. The process of developing an applicants’ pool for job openings in an organization is called as__________.

hiring

recruitment

selection

retention

Question 14. The solution to many so-called ‘people problems’ is often associated with improving the effectiveness of the recruitment process by which of the following?

Having a robust HR department to carry out the process

Outsourcing the HR department

Careful selection of the right people for the job

Devolving to line managers

Question 15. Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals and magazines are _______ methods of recruitment.

direct

indirect

third-party

internal

Question 16. Which of the following options is treated as an alternative to recruitment?

employee leasing

contractors

trade associations

Both A & B

Question 17. It provides a complete job related information -both positive and negative, to the applicants so that they can make right decisions before taking the job. It is known as _______.

Job Compatibility Questionnaire

Market survey

Realistic job preview

Job Design

4th Module Assessment

Which of the following is the correct order, which is followed in a typical selection process?

Test and/or interview, application form, reference check and physical examination

Application form, test and/or interview, reference check and physical examination

Reference check, application form, test and/or interview and physical examination

Physical examination, test and/or interview, application form and reference check

Question 2. Which of the following is Not an internal factor influencing recruitment ?

Size of organization

Recruiting policy

Image of organization

Labor market

Question 3. The interview is used as a method to determine __________.

The personality of the candidate.

The degree of fit between the applicant and the demands of the job.

His/her age.

Physical attributes.

Question 4. Selection is usually considered as a _______ process.

positive

negative

both positive and negative

partially negative

Question 5. It is known as a selection test which judges the emotional ability which will help to judge work in group. It is known as __________.

Personality test

Intelligence Test

Mental Ability Test

None of the above

Question 6. The purpose of an application blank is to gather information about which of the following?

company

candidate

competitors

questionnaire or interview schedule

Question 7. Poor quality of selection will lead to an extra cost on _______ and supervision.

Training

Recruitment

Work quality

None of the above

Question 8. It is______ defined as the area in the field of analytics that deals with people analysis and applying analytical process to the human capital within the organization to improve employee performance and improving employee retention.

Data analytics

HR analytics

Statistical Analysis

None of these

Question 9. ___________ is the determination of the job to which an accepted candidate is to be assigned. It is a matching of what the supervisor has reason to think he can do with the job demands.

Recruitment

Placement

Selection

Training

Question 10. “This test measure abilities like manual dexterity, motor ability and eye-hand co-ordination of candidates. This test is useful to select semi-skilled workers and workers for repetitive operations like packing and watch assembly.” This test is known as ______.

Psychomotor Test

Achievement Test

Intelligence Test

Work Sample Test

When a candidate is put to hardship during an interview, it is called as ____________.

a. patterned interview

b. in-depth interview

c. stress interview

d. preliminary interview

Which of the following options is not a process of selection process?

a. Testing

b. Checking references

c. Attitude formation

d. Medical examination

Question 11. It is the process of choosing the most suitable candidate for a job from among the available applicants . It is called as _____________.

Appraisal

Recruitment

Selection

Placement

Question 12. It is the test that measures whether an idividual has the capacity or latent ability to learn a given Job. It is known as _____________.

intelligence test

Aptitude test

General knowledge test

Psycho mator test

Question 13. Which of the following steps in Selection process is a crucial decision?

Physical Examination

Reference & Back ground check

Employment interview

Selection decision

Question 14. Which of the following selection method is the most used by organizations?

Interviews

Ability tests

References

A trial period

Question 15. Which of the following is an external factor influencing recruitment?

Labor market

Recruiting policy

Competition

Size of organization

Question 16. The process of selection of employees is usually influenced by which of the following?

rules and regulations

strategies and objectives

principles and programmes

none of the options

Question 17. This test measures a persons ability to classify things, identify relationships and derive analogies. It also measures several factors like logical reasoning, analytical skills and general knowledge.This test is known as _________.

Emotional tests

Intelligence test

Performance tests

Social tests

5th Module Assessment

_______________is/are some critical aspects of employee retention, in recognition for the employee contributions in organisation. Career development B. growth opportunities

Only A

Only B

Both A & B

None of the options.

Question 2. The ____________ in any organization plays a crucial role in employee retention.

HR Department

Accounts Department

Planning Department

Logistics Department

Question 3. _________ has become a critical aspect of modern human capital management programs.

Employee counseling

Employee retention

Employee turnover

Employee absentism

Question 4. In a business setting, the employer’s goal is usually to ____ employee turnover.

Increase

decrease

Moderate

accelerate

Question 5. _______ means efforts of business organizations to maintain a working environment that supports current staff in remaining with the company.

Employee counseling

Employee turnover

Employee Absenteeism

Employee retention

Question 6. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Employee Retention? A. It promotes groups amongst the old employees, which creates an insecure environment for new employees. B. Improper mixing of staff affects productivity and ensures the poor quality of work. C. Excessive liberty to staff to maintain workflow affects the quantity andnquality of both.

Only A

Only B & C

All A,B, C

Only A & B

Question 7. It is a measure to encourage employees to remain in the organization for a long period of time . It is Known as _________.

Employee counseling

Employee attrition

Employee retention

Employee compensation

Question 8. Which of the following is the main driver of retention? A. fair compensation B. feeling trusted and empowered

Select one:

Only A

Only B

Both A & B

none of the options.

Question 9. When the number of employee seperation during a specific period is divided by number of employees at midmonth , and is multiplied to 100 , it is used to calculate ________.

absenteeism rate

turnover rate

satisfaction rate

employment rate

Question 10. The exit interviews, the expenses of unemployment and legal fees of challenged seperations are known as _________.

training cost

hiring cost

seperation cost

Productivity cost

Question 11. The interviews taken in the organisations to ask about possible reasons leading to Job turnover are classified as _____.

transfer interviews

termination interviews

Exit interviews

employee firing interviews

Question 12. ” Employers that recognize the subtle signs that show an employee might leave have a better chance of identifying ways to retain that person.” This statement is ______.

Correct

Incorrect

Partially Correct

Can’t Say

Which of the following is correct in relation to Employee Retention? A. Employee retention is a high priority for leading HR organizations today. B. The most effective employee retention strategies reduce overall turnover and keep high performers on board. C. A thoughtful and comprehensive employee retention strategy reduces the high costs associated with replacing lost employees. Select one:

a. Only A

b. Only B

c. Only B & C

d. All A, B & C

Question 13. Which of the following can be a reason for high employee turnover? A. Work relationships B. Work-life balance C. Lack of opportunity D. Financial reasons

All A,B,C,D

Only B , C, D

Only B & C

Only A,B,C

Question 14. Which of the following is not a benefit of employee retention ?

Increased productivity

Experienced employees

Cost reduction

Increased Expenditures

Question 15. Which of the following factor affects employee retention? A. Work Relationships B. Compensation C. Transparent & fair reviews

Only A

Only A & B

Only B & C

All A,B & C

Question 16. Which of the following factors can tell that employees are ready to leave? A. Shift in attitude B. Lack of commitment C. Decreased initiative or

Only A & B

Only B

Only B & C

All A,B & C

Question 17. Employees remain at organizations for a variety of reasons, Identify these reasons. A. Meaningful work that leverages their skills and abilities B. Career development C. Growth opportunities.

Only A

Only A & B

Only B & C

All A,B & C

Assignment 2

Case Study

Recruitment” is the process of finding and hiring the best and most qualified candidate for a job opening, in a timely and cost-effective manner. It can also be defined as the “process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating and encouraging them to apply for jobs in an organization”.

It is one whole process, with a full life cycle, that begins with identification of the needs of the company with respect to the job, and ends with the introduction of the employee to the organization.

When we speak of the recruitment process, we immediately think of activities such as the analysis of the requirements of a specific job, attracting candidates to apply for that job, screening the applicants and selecting among them, hiring the chosen candidates to become new employees of the organization, and integrating them into the structure.

Obviously, the main reason why the recruitment process is implemented is to find the persons who are best qualified for the positions within the company, and who will help them towards attaining organizational goals. But there are other reasons why a recruitment process is important.Effective recruiting means that the person employed for the job is the best possible candidate for it, with all the required skills, talents and qualifications of the job. Efficient recruiting, on the other hand, means that the process has been carried out without incurring a lot of costs on the part of the organization. By following the process, there is a greater chance that the human resources department can get the best possible person for the job. Organizations may carry out their hiring processes their own way, but without a system or set guidelines in place for its conduct and implementation, there is a risk that the company may incur more expenses than necessary. The company will also end up wasting its resources if the wrong or unqualified person was actually hired. Not only will this create problems for the company in the long run, particularly in the attainment of its goals, but it would mean that the organization would also have wasted its resources in training an employee that is not right for the job after all.

Through recruitment, organizations make sure that the skill sets of the staff or manpower of the company remains aligned to its initiatives and goals.

In the event that they notice some positions do not really contribute to the advancement of the organization towards its goals, then it can take the proper action to correct this, probably through job redesign, restructuring of the workforce, or conduct of job enrichment programs.

FACTORS THAT INFLUENCE RECRUITMENT

Recruitment is affected by several factors. These factors play a big part on whether the recruitment process will be successful or not.

Size of the organization

A large organization is bound to have a higher demand for new employees. It is bound to look for more people, since the structure will require more manpower. On the other end of the spectrum, a small enterprise, like a new company just starting its operations, will require only a lean staff.

Comparing the two, it is clear that the smaller enterprise will have a simpler, more straightforward and shorter recruitment process, conducted by only one or two people. The larger organization, however, will have a lengthier and more complex recruitment process, one where several members of the organization will take part in.

Current employment conditions in the economy

Try comparing employment opportunities in a country with a developed economy with that of an underdeveloped one. An organization operating in an underdeveloped economy may have difficulty finding the candidates with the talents and skills it requires.

The availability of prospective talents is one huge issue with respect to the economy that an enterprise belongs to. The company will have to design and implement its recruitment process in a way that will address this issue.

Salary structure of the organization

Say one company is known to provide higher salaries and wages to its employees. Once it advertises its open position, candidates are likely to line up submitting their resumes. However, a company known to be quite stingy with its wages will have more difficulty recruiting top talents.

In addition, it may even have problems keeping or retaining its employees, since no employee would want to stay for a long time in a company that will not pay him enough for his services.

Working conditions within the organization

Maintaining employees’ job satisfaction is one way for organizations to keep its employees, and attract new ones.

Prospective candidates will first look for work in companies or organizations that are known to provide good working conditions and looks out for the health and well-being of their employees.

Growth rate of the organization

There are organizations that grow at a fast rate, which means that they will require new employees from time to time. However, there are also organizations that do not grow as much, or even at all. The only time that these organizations with low growth rates are likely to recruit new employees would be when the old ones retire or resign.

Before we fully launch into the recruitment process, let us address one question first: who conducts the recruitment process?

The answer is largely dependent on the size of the organization, as well as its culture and practices. Large companies have their own human resource departments, where they have in-house hiring managers. They may also acquire the services of third-party and independent human resource professionals and recruitment agencies.

Que: Which of the following is a factor that influences Recruitment?

Size of the organization

Working conditions within the organization

Salary structure of the organization

All of above

Question 2. ___________ is not an External Source of Recruitment.

Campus Selection

Internal Advertisement

Consultancy

Walk-in

Question 3. Promotion is a ______ source of recruitmnent

Suitable

Higher

Internal

External

Question 4. Identifying the _____candidates and ______ them to apply for job is called recruitment.

available, insisting

available, making

potential, attracting

potential, insisting

Question 5. A prerequisite for a successful and efficient recruitment programme is to have a(n) __________.

corporate policy

HR policy

Recruitment Policy

Health & safety Policy

IT Project Management (CSIT705)-Semester III

February 12, 2022February 12, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

IT Project Management (CSIT705)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

The person who ensures that systems are developed on time, within budget, and with acceptable quality is a __________.

project manager

systems designer

systems owner

systems builder

Question 2. A task of developing a technical blueprint and specifications for a solution that fulfills the business requirements is undertaken in the following phase of the system development process:

system design

system initiation

system implementation

feasibility analysis

Question 3. Which of the following is a feasibility analysis criterion?

technical feasibility

schedule feasibility

operational feasibility

All of the above

Question 4. Which of the following is a deliverable of the system implementation phase in a formal system development process?

technical hardware and software solution for the business problem

none of the above

business problem statement

statement of the system users’ business requirements

Question 5. Which of the following is the last phase of the Systems Construction phase?

Select one:

write and test new programs

prepare conversion plan

build and test networks

none of the above

Question 6. Which of the tests is a final system test performed by end users using real data over an extended period of time?

systems acceptance test

complete test

parallel test

none of the above

Question 7. Project Management ensures that:

system is developed at minimum cost

project’s risk is assessed

project’s feasibility is assessed

none of the above

Question 8. The scope statement should address all of the following issues EXCEPT:

project constraints

project assumptions

project exclusions

code of conduct for the team members working on the project

Question 9. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is defined as “the application of knowledge, __________, __________, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements”.

Select one:

skills, analysis

tools, analysis

analysis, theories

skills, tools

Question 10. DFD stands for:

Data Flow Diagram

Data File Diagram

Data Flow Document

None of the above

Question 11. Which of the following statements about achieving a common understanding of the project purpose is true?

A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement regarding a project’s purpose is often fatal to project execution.

Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.

The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding depend on the duration of the project.

Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common understanding usually involves informal discussions that last a few hours.

Question 12. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project deliverable have been accomplished by his project team. What is the next step for his project to proceed in order to verify the project scope by his project client?

Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.

Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.

Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the project.

Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables.

Question 13. After Ling finished drafting a new project charter, she sent a copy of the charter to all key project parties including the project sponsor, senior management and key stakeholders, and scheduled a kick-off meeting with them. What will be the most important goal for Ling to complete the project charter?

Select one:

Make a professional looking project charter to impress the key project parties.

Get confirmation from the key parties that they have read the charter.

Invite the key parties for a nice lunch to establish a friendly relationship.

Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.

Question 14. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited that he is assigned to be in charge of the most important project this year. After being chartered for the project, he analyzes the information in the project charter and the stakeholder register to:

decide how to draft a scope statement.

start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.

prepare for the template to monitor project progress.

estimate the entire project budget.

Question 15.Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle.

Arrange them in correct order:

1. Design,

2. Marketing,

3. Analysis and evaluation,

4. Inspection, testing and delivery

3-2-1-4

1-2-3-4

2-3-1-4

4-3-2-1

Question 16.Five dimensions that must be managed on a project are:

Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff

Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer

Question 17. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project evaluation process?

It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.

It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the project manager who is involved in the evaluation.

It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity profile of the project.

It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the chosen project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.

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2nd Module Assessment

Which of the following may generate a milestone list?

Define Activities

Sequence Activities

Estimate Activity Resources

Estimate Activity Durations

Question 2. Work breakdown structure (WBS) is a ______________ of the work with increasing detail in each layer.

layered description

step change

ballpark estimate

project execution plan

Question 3. Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents?

Define Activities

Sequence Activities

Estimate Activity Resources

Estimate Activity Durations

Question 4. A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of:

Finish-to-Start

Start-to-Finish

Start-to-Start

Finish-to-Finish

Question 5. Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following:

Project Manager who created the WBS

Project Team Members responsible for the work package

Project Officer

Project Stakeholder

Question 6. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?

The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.

Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase

The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.

All the above statements are correct.

Question 7. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project charter and scope , Select one:

completion

start-up

execution

evaluation

Question 8. Which of the following is typically a written document that defines what work will be accomplished by the end of the project?

Scope of work (SOW)

Project logic diagram

Milestone schedule

Ballpark estimate

Question 9. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in the project is included?

Create a contingency plan.

Create a risk management plan.

Create a WBS.

Create a statement of work.

Question 10. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?

Scope

Resources

Team

Budget

Question 11. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential risks for her new construction project M based on levels of probability and impact on the project, she identified a potential risk, regarding a schedule conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a short time period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M, Kathy wants to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she should document this type of risk. where should Kathy document this risk?

Watch list

Risk management plan

Project management plan

WBS

Question 12. The methods and regulation used to define goals, plan and monitor tasks and resources, identify and resolve issues, and control costs and budgets for a specific project is known as …

project management.

Process Management

Process

Activities

Question 13. Roberto is in charge of a new project to help Company A upgrade its old HR system to a cutting-edge, cross-platform system with the most recent mobile technologies. After his project team assessed the available system documentations, the team found the existing documentations too large and complicated to implement the system updates. Roberto advised his team to decompose the major project deliverables into more executable components. In this project process, Robert advised his team to do which of the following?

Document requirements

Create WBS

Define project scope

Verify project scope

Question 14. As a new project manager, Karen was worried about a statement from her client: “your project deliverable is in low quality with low grade”. how can you help Karen distinguish the differences between “quality” and “grade”?

Quality and grade represent the same thing.

Low quality can never be a problem, but low grade is.

Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case.

Low quality with high grade is always desirable to your client. e. High quality always represents high grade.

Question 15. Algorithmic cost estimation in different organisations may be different for the same application development, because:

Different organisations consider complexity factors differently

Different organisations may use different programming languages

Developers’ skills may vary

All of the above may be true

Question 16. Which of these are the characteristics of Project Mindset?

Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning

Time, Project management, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning

Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, capability, structured planning

Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, project planning

Question 17. The longer a fault exists in:

the more tedious its removal becomes

the more costly it is to detect and correct

the less likely it is to be properly corrected

All of the mentioned

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3rd Module Assessment

The PERT in project management means program evaluation and _____ technique.

resource

reconciliation

reconsideration

review

Question 2. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more information is known, the project team can develop a: Select one:

work breakdown structure

critical estimate

rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

scope of work

Question 3. Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of a project management?

Initiation

Planning

Execution

Closure

Question 4. What is the first step in project planning? Select one:

Establish the objectives and scope.

Determine the budget.

Select the team organizational model.

Determine project constraints.

Question 5. Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors to get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project Management is in progress.

Conduct Procurements

Plan Procurements

Control Procurements

Close Procurements

Question 6. During a new project planning process to sequence activities, the project manager, Nate, decides to use the precedence diagraming method to show the identified activity dependencies. Which of the following logical relationships is Nate’s least favorite choice? Select one:

Finish-to-start

Start-to-finish

Finish-to-finish

Start-to-start

Question 7. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met for the project to finish on time?

Critical path

Ballpark estimate

Pert diagram

Milestone schedule

Question 8. The process of Control Procurements falls under which process group

Planning

Closing

Monitoring and Control

Executing

Question 9. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made regarding whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________must be considered and weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success. Select one:

Select one:

completion, cost

closeout, resources

execution, performance

initiation, risk

Question 10. Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading computer store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?

Purchase Order

Cost plus Fee

Fixed cost

Time and Material

Question 11. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant internal and external stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all of them are covered in the stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to look at?

Project team activities

Scope statement

Project charter

Work packages

Question 12. Complete the following statement. In a weak matrix environment, the project manager, Eric, has to constantly make an effort to influence his project team and stakeholders to ensure project success. This is because:

Eric has a lot of authority.

Eric has no or little authority.

Eric is controlled by his functional managers.

there are no functional managers.

Question 13. As a project manager, Neel has a team member, Kate, who has not been performing well. Due to many repeated mistakes, she has significantly delayed the whole project progress. Neel tried to offer relevant trainings for Kate to improve her performance, and he was not able to see any progress in two months. However, Kate is a single mom with three kids, and she needs this job to support her family. Based on what you know about conflict management, in this situation, how should Neel proceed? Select one:

Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member.

Neel should help Kate find another job in the firm.

Neel should assign Kate more challenging tasks.

Neel should let Kate stay on the job and pick up her slack.

Question 14. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some uncontrolled process variations. Which of the following would be the appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?

Pareto diagram

PERT chart

Control chart

HR personnel chart

Question 15. Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?

I. Projects have defined objectives

II. Programs have a larger scope than projects

III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related

a.I only

b.II only

c.III only

d.II and III only

Question 16. Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?

Select one:

Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing

Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing

Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing

Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing

Question 17. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?

Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis represents the frequency of occurrence.

If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to it by flowcharting.

A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.

Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

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4th Module Assessment

Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track project costs?

Select one:

Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart

Organizational Breakdown Structure

Resource Breakdown Structure

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

Question 2. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation?

Poor change management

Poor requirements management

Poor quality control

All of the above

Question 3. A project has never happened before, and it will never happen again under the …………… conditions.

Same condition

Different condition

Various condition

None of the above

Question 4. A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can BEST describe the difference of $5,000?

Select one:

Cost Variance

Management Overhead

Management Contingency Reserve

Schedule Variance

Question 5. In resource allocation, the resources are allocated to a project in orderthat the ………………. are attained.

Goals

Objectives

Both a, b

None of the above

Question 6. In project planning, it explains ____________ that are needed to for the growth of product.

a series of actions

steps

both a, b

none of the above

Question 7. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.

cost-benefit analysis

implicit cost

cost of quality

variable cost

Question 8. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?

Schedule baseline

Cost performance baseline

Scope baseline

Plan baseline

Question 9. If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

Project is on budget and on schedule

Schedule Variance Index is 1

There is no schedule variance

There is no cost variance

Question 10. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of knowledge is known:

Rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

Scope of work estimate

Conceptual estimate

Line estimate

Question 11. As a project manager, John was finally relieved because a major project led by him was just announced a success. which of the following has likely happened in order to consider John’s project a success?

John’s project has met all of the stakeholders’ expectations.

The phase completion of John’s project has been approved.

John’s client has paid off the project.

John’s boss is happy.

Question 12. Which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget?

Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.

Reserves should not be included in the project budget.

Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.

Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Question 13. Effective project management focuses on the four P’s. What are those four P’s?

People, performance, payment, product

People, product, process, project

People, product, performance, project

All of the above

Question 14. As a project manager of Project Cool at the company, Samira is responsible for monitoring and controlling two project management processes: process A and process B. She recently noticed a high priority risk X has been imposed on her project process A in Project Cool. While she tried to control the risk X, she also noticed that a new potential risk Y will be added to process B. Which of the following best explains this situation?Select one:

If risk Y happens, then it is all Samira’s fault, because she did not do a good job of carefully monitoring the risks for Project Cool.

This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.

The potential risk might happen, but Samira can ignore risk Y, as risk X takes higher priority.

Samira is not experienced enough for handling risk management, so her boss will probably fire her.

Question 15. Choose the correct option according to given below statement.

Statement 1: Umbrella activities are independent of any one framework activity and occur throughout the process.

Statement 2: quality assurance, configuration management are umbrella activity.

Statement 3: quality assurance, configuration management are not umbrella activity.

Only statement 1 is correct.

Statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

Only statement 3 is correct.

Statement 1 and statement 3 are correct

Question 16. Which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget ?

Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.

Reserves should not be included in the project budget.

If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to determine your project budget.

Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.

Question 17. What is the most critical aspect in developing a project plan that meets project specifications within the timeframe and at the lowest costs?

Assessing risk management

Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use

Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction

Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

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5th Module Assessment

What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who works in a matrix environment in order to achieve project goals?

Leadership skill

Influencing

Conflict management skill

Time management

Question 2. Root Cause Analysis relates to:

Process Analysis

Quality Audits

Quality Control Measurements

Performance Measurements

Question 3. What is the first step in developing a risk management plan?

Analyze the risks.

Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.

Identify potential project risks.

Develop a risk mitigation plan.

Question 4. A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings. The QA team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example of:

Inspection

Statistical Sampling

Flowcharting

Control Charting

Question 5. Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management Plan that is useful in HR Planning process?

Risk Management activities

Quality Assurance activities

Activity Resource requirements

Budget Control activities

Question 6. Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?

Select one:

Defines what project team is responsible for each WBS component

Defines what project member is responsible for each activity

Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities

Defines all people associated with each activity

Question 7. As the project progresses into the execution phase:

risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.

the total risk on the project typically increases.

risks are identified with each major group of activities.

a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis.

Question 8. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to specialists and requires a cost-benefit analysis?

Lean accounting

Business process re-engineering

Kaizen

Six Sigma

Question 9. Process Analysis is a function of:

Performance Analysis

Quality Metrics

Process Improvement Plan

Quality Improvement Plan

Question 10. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact?

Identify Risks

Plan Risk responses

Perform Qualitative risk analysis

Perform Quantitative risk analysis

Question 11. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?

Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.

The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.

Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

Risks are identified with each major group of activities.

Question 12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to manage a task and then matching the team members with the right skills to do that work?

Benchmarking

Expediting

Procurement

Delegation

Question 13. Due to the rapid expansion of your company, your boss decides to establish a project management office (PMO) within the company and asks you to take the lead. As an the ideal PMO you can do which of the following?

Speed up a specific ongoing project.

Find opportunities for collaborative project management.

Reassign the resources that have been assigned to ongoing projects.

Reduce the assigned resources to existing projects.

Question 14. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following functions EXCEPT:

maintaining the organization’s project management policies and procedures.

supervising the project managers.

assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project managers.

monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like project scheduling and project cost analysis

Question 15. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?

Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.

The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.

Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

Risks are identified with each major group of activities.

Question 16. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global virtual teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by a local team member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of the culture of his home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How would you respond to this situation as a PMP?

Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global project.

Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.

Do nothing.

Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members for this global project equally.

Question 17. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency. Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in this scenario?

No project team ground rules were set up.

The current communications plan was very poorly designed.

The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.

There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more responsibilities.

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Global Green Books Publishing was started two years ago by two friends, Jim King and Brad

Mount, who met in college while studying in Philadelphia, USA. In the new business Jim

focused on editing, sales and marketing while Brad Mount did the electronic assembly and

publishing of books for Global Green Books. Their business was successful and profitable in the

first two years, largely due to contracts from two big businesses.

In their third year they got very busy thanks to their third major customer, a local college that

needed customized eBooks. They hired several part time employees to help them with their

publishing business.

But by the end of third year of operation, Global Green Books started experiencing critical

problems. They were:

 unable to leverage all the new employees effectively

 unable to deliver eBooks to their customers on schedule

 unable to provide quality texts—time and money was being spent fixing defects in their

products

 unable to control costs—their business was not profitable in the third year.

Global Green Books saw a significant rise in issues, a lot of unpleasant “surprises” were

cropping up; business was down as new resources were hired, also some of the projects were

poorly estimated. The local university was unhappy as their eBook products reached campus

late for use by professors and student. In some cases, the books were a week or two late. Since

the courses must start on schedule and students need their books at the beginning of their

courses, the new lucrative college customer was unhappy.

One of the new part-time employees hired by Jim and Brad, Samantha, had taken a project

management course at college. Samantha was excited about the discipline of project

management and had intentionally selected a job with Global Green Books Publishing as she

saw an opportunity to polish her project management skills.

One fine day, Jim invited Samantha, for a lunch meeting. He was aware that Samantha was

familiar with project management, and wanted to hear what she had to say about the problems

he and Brad were facing. Over lunch he questioned why their small business which had

operated and implemented projects so successfully over the first two years was being

challenged significantly now. He specifically listed the problems they were facing and asked for

input to solve them.

Samantha asked for more time to research all the issues but noted that Global Green Books,

while being innovative, completed projects without a roadmap or a project plan and lacked a

disciplined approach to project management. She noted that Jim and Brad did not use any

project software for scheduling and they did not use tools or techniques to estimate, budget or

to communicate with stakeholders. Finally, they had no processes in place to manage project

risks and quality.

Impressed with this and other conversations, Jim King asked Samantha if she would consider

joining them as a project associate or project manager on a full-time basis to help them

introduce project management practices and help them tide over their current crisis.

Samantha accepted the offer! She has several key skills—she is an excellent communicator

with very good interpersonal skills and detail-oriented. Within the first three months in her new

role as PM, she introduced formal project management processes, created a PM manual and

trained the employees to get the work done well.

Within nine months Samantha had fully turned things around. Due to proactive risk analysis and

risk response planning, surprises and issues reduced. Communication with stakeholders was

enhanced.

Brad and Jim noted that the company was delivering projects on schedule, the quality

processes worked—and customers were happy with the products!

What are the signs that a project is in trouble?

Select one:

The product scope is poorly defined.

Deadlines are unrealistic.

Changes are managed poorly.

All of the above.

Question 2. Resources refer to:

Manpower

Machinery

Materials

All of the above

Question 3. The project life cycle consists of:

Understanding the scope of the project

Objectives of the project

Formulation and planning various activities

All of the above

Question 4. Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager:

Budgeting and cost control

Allocating resources

Tracking project expenditure

All of the above

Question 5. Project performance consists of:

Time

Cost

Quality

All of the above

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Service Operation Management (HOSM715)-Semester III

February 10, 2022February 10, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Service Operation Management (HOSM715)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Which of the following statements do not represent the true characteristic of service?

Select one:

a. Perishablity

b. Heterogeneous

c. Customer Involvement

d. Tangiblity

Question 1. Which of the following service examples provide 100% intangible product?

Select one:

a. Consultancy

b. Insurance

c. Hotels

d. Airlines

Clear my choice

Question 2. Food courts, malls or super stores are economic activities that create ___________.

Select one:

a. Convenience

b. Product

c. Form

d. Psychological utility

Clear my choice

Question 3. Food delivery apps is an economic activity that is based on ___________and ______________.

Select one:

a. Convenience, Time

b. Customer, Money

c. Information, Food

d. Technology, Demand

Clear my choice

Question 4. In economic activities, service industry is categorised as ___________.

Select one:

a. Primary

b. Secondary

c. Tertiary

d. Allied

Clear my choice

Question 5. In economic activities, service industry is categorised as ___________.

Select one:

a. B2C

b. B2B

c. Welfare Services

d. Internal Services

Clear my choice

Question 6. As per the current statistics, ________________industry contributes maximum to the Indian Economy.

Select one:

a. manufacturing

b. agriculture

c. service

d. captial goods

Clear my choice

Question 7. Fire stations and government hospitals are examples of ___________.

Select one:

a. Welfare services

b. Public Services

c. NGO services

d. Social Services

Clear my choice

Question 8. Project companies offering turnkey operations are example of ___________.

Select one:

a. B2C

b. B2B

c. Public Services

d. Internal Services

Clear my choice

Question 9. OTT platforms like NETFLIX and AMAZON are economic activites that creates ___________.

Select one:

a. Form

b. Time

c. Product

d. Psychological utility

Clear my choice

Question 10. Which of the following is the correct example of a service product?

Select one:

a. Automobile manufacturing

b. Agriculture

c. textile

d. Banking

Clear my choice

Which of the following services provides the highest customisation?

Select one:

a. Transportation

b. Telecommunication

c. Doctor’s consultancy

d. Picture hall

Question 11. Movie shown in a picture hall is an example of:

Select one:

a. tangible action on a thing.

b. intangible action on people.

c. tangible action on people.

d. intangible action on a thing.

Clear my choice

Question 12. R & D department in an organisation is an example of __________.

Select one:

a. External Service

b. Implicit Service

c. Support service

d. Internal Service

Clear my choice

Question 13. In trade off from standardisation to customisation,

Select one:

a. the price of service tends to increase.

b. the price of service tends to decrease.

c. it will not have any change on pricing.

d. the quality of service will decrease.

Clear my choice

Question 14. Which of the following is not an example of support facility?

Select one:

a. Airplane in Airlines

b. School building

c. Insurance policy document

d. Service station set up

Clear my choice

Question 15. Goods transported by a transporter is an example of:

Select one:

a. Tangible action on a thing

b. Intangible action on a thing

c. Intangible action on a person

d. Indirect action on a thing

Clear my choice

Question 16. Service sector includes economic activities that result in _______________.

Select one:

a. tangible products

b. standardised products

c. intangible products

d. information

Clear my choice

Question 17. Which of the following is an example of implicit service?

Select one:

a. Food consumed by a guest in a fast food outlet

b. Pride to own a brand of a product

c. Insurance policy received by the client

d. Marketing research report of a consultant

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2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. Which of the following is not a technology generated service encounter?

Select one:

a. Self check-in Kiosks in hotels

b. Beverage vending machine

c. Call centre to book tickets for a theatre

d. Payment wallets apps

Clear my choice

Question 2. Which of the following is not a part of service delivery system?

Select one:

a. People

b. Legal regulations

c. Technology

d. Equipment and infrastructure

Clear my choice

Question 3. Activities performed by service providers not visible to customers are termed as ________________.

Select one:

a. on stage performance

b. hidden performance

c. support performance

d. backstage performance

Clear my choice

Question 4. Extending or augmenting an exisiting service design to make existing service more satisfying and effective is an example of ____________.

Select one:

a. Incremental Innovation

b. Radical Innovation

c. Invention

d. Subsequent Innovation

Clear my choice

Question 5. Room reservation process or cooking food in a room service kitchen are examples of ____________.

Select one:

a. support process

b. customer money

c. physical evidence

d. customer actions

Clear my choice

Question 6. Which of the following is not an advantage of outsourcing?

Select one:

a. It is economical.

b. Company can focus more on its core service operations.

c. It helps to reduce HR related issues.

d. It increases the quality of services.

Clear my choice

Question 7. Which of the following is the correct example off shoring of service process?

Select one:

a. Knowledge processing services for a US company is given to an Indian company.

b. Medical transcription process of UK’s Insurance company done by a Chinese organization.

c. Room reservation of a multinational hotel chain is done by a Global Reservation company using an app.

d. Customer complaint of an Australian Bank is handled by an Indian IT company.

Clear my choice

Question 8. Which of the following is a technology free service encounter?

Select one:

a. Customer complaining about a service to a call centre

b. Customer getting consultation from a doctor in his clinic

c. Cash withdrawl from a bank’s ATM

d. Customer sending money to his friend using NET banking

Clear my choice

Question 9. Concept of developing and offering a service that was not offered by anyone before, is termed as ___________.

Select one:

a. Radical Innovation

b. Incremental Innovation

c. Consequent Innovation

d. Innovation

Clear my choice

Question 10. Which of the following is not a factor that initiate innovation in services?

Select one:

a. Changing demography of market

b. Economical changes

c. Competition

d. Lack of competition in market

Clear my choice

Technology that helps to monitor the movement of service providers as in case of cabs, food delivery or product shipment is __________.

Select one:

a. GPS

b. GDS

c. ERP

d. DSS

Question 11. Technology that helps to integrate all the process of service system by providing real time information at all processes is known as ________.

Select one:

a. CRM

b. ERP

c. Intranet

d. CAD

Clear my choice

Question 12. Which of the following is not a benefit of off shoring a service process?

Select one:

a. It saves a lot of time for organisation.

b. It helps to cut cost of process.

c. It helps to reduce the HR required in the organisation.

d. It improves the quality of output.

Clear my choice

Question 13. ________ is a technology that maintains database and provide relevant information about specific consumer and their behaviour to a service provider.

Select one:

a. MIS

b. CRM

c. ERP

d. GPS

Clear my choice

Question 14. Document that presents entire service delivery process, highlighting all steps required to be performed by service provider and depicting physical evidence, onstage and off stage performance and support systems is known as ___________.

Select one:

a. Service Blue Print

b. Service Delivery Set up

c. Operation design

d. Service network

Clear my choice

Question 15. Production line approach will be most suitable for this service product:

Select one:

a. Hospitals

b. Project Consultants

c. Home loan & Insurance

d. Beauty parlour

Clear my choice

Question 16. Which of the following skills or traits is least important for a service provider coming in direct contact of the customer?

Select one:

a. Communication skills

b. Empathy

c. Technical Skills

d. Conceptual skills

Clear my choice

Question 17. Most important factor to select service facilty location is:

Select one:

a. Customer density and reach

b. Economic factor

c. Availablity of internet

d. Availablity of raw material

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3rd Module Assessment

Concept of Quality Function Deployment was developed by ________________.

Select one:

a.Professor Yoji Akao

b.Professor Deming

c.Mr Akino

d.Mr Crosby

Question 2. Which of the following is not a correct classification of cost of quality?

Select one:

a.prevention cost

b.sustainable cost

c.failure cost

d.appraisal cost

Question 3. An interaction of customer, directly or indirectly, with service provider (in person or otherwise) to experience the service provided by the company and percieve its quality is known as ________________.

Select one:

a.service scape

b.service encounter

c.customer experience

d.service experience

Customer delight in service will happen when:

Select one:

a.actual service is as per customer expectations.

b.actual service is greater than customer expectations.

c.actual service is lower than customer expectations.

d.actual service is not as per customer expectations.

Question 4. Which of the following is not a “moment of truth”?

Select one:

a.Receptionist registering a guest and assigning him a room

b.Captain of a restaurant taking orders from guest

c.Chef preparing cakes to be sold in coffee shop

d.Spa manager taking feed back from customer about the service provided

Question 5. SERVQUAL model was not developed by ________________.

Select one:

a.Mr Parsuraman

b.Mr Len Berry

c.Mr A Zeithaml

d.Mr Crosby

Question 6. Providing free discount voucher to a customer due to failure in providing right kind of service is a mechanism of ________________.

Select one:

a.service compensation

b.service encounter

c.service recovery

d.service scaping

Question 7. Which of the following is not a part of service triangle?

Select one:

a.service costs

b.service strategy

c. service systems

d.people

Question 8. Which one of the following is not a dimension of service quality?

Select one:

a.Reliablity

b.Responsibility

c.Tangibility

d.Empathy

Question 9. Identify the incorrect characteristic of a standardised service.

Select one:

a.Service provider has a little discretion.

b.Customisation of service is very limited.

c.Service processing is well timed and takes lesser time.

d.Customer can modify service as per their own requirement.

Question 10. Which of the following is not true for the quality of services?

Select one:

a.Quality of services are very easy to measure.

b.Measurement of service quality is difficult due to its intangiblity.

c.Quality is subjective in nature, every individual will percieve the quality of service differently.

d.All service providers cannot be homogenous in nature hence standards of service vary.

Question 11. Which of the following is not a technique to improve the service process and design?

Select one:

a.fish bone diagram

b.flow chart

c.house of quality

d.SPC charts

Any effort done by an organisation to recover failure of service is categorised as ______________.

Select one:

a.cost of prevention

b.cost of appraisal

c.cost of failure

d.cost of quality

Question 12. Which of the following is not a correct example of managerial element of service?

Select one:

a.Service encounters

b.Service quality

c.Information management

d.Facility layout

Question 13. A pizza delivery company promises to deliver a pizza in 30 minutes. Company can use a ___________ to know whether they are fulfilling the promise or not.

Select one:

a.PSDA Chart

b.SPC chart

c.Flow chart

d.Matrix diagram

Question 14. Value chain analysis is not used to:

Select one:

a.reduce timing of operation.

b.increase the performance of a process.

c.enhance the flow of information.

d.decrease the movement of a product.

Question 15. To bring homogeneity in service delivery, companies use __________________.

Select one:

a.Service blue prints

b.Standard operating procedure

c.Automation

d.Service measurement

Question 16. In case the services are entirely intangible, then the organisation can use suitable _____________ to create a positive image to enhance the percieved quality of service.

Select one:

a. physical evidences

b.service networks

c.technical skills

d.standardisation

Question 17. A company conducted a customer survey and found that there is decline in levels of customer satisfaction. To find out the real reason for the decline, company can use ____________.

Select one:

a. Network diagram

b.Poka Yoke system

c.Fish bone diagram

d.QFD diagram

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4th Module Assessment

Managing capacity in service is difficult due to its nature of ____________.

Select one:

a.hetrogeniety

b.perishablilty

c.intangiblity

d.homogeneity

Concept of maintaining customer database for facilitating better service delivery is known as:

Select one:

a.Customer relatioship management

b.Entreprise resource planning

c.Management information system

d.Decision support system

Question 2. Which of the following is the correct example of service inventory?

Select one:

a.Cars in a showroom

b.Tickets of drama theatre

c.Number of airconditioners in an electronic shop

d.Numbers of books in a book stall

Question 3. Demand management is very critical in service operation as:

Select one:

a.capacities can be changed easily.

b.capacities are fixed and cannot be changed quickly to respond.

c.intangiblity of service makes it difficult to fulfill demand.

d.the demand remains fixed throughout the period.

Question 4. Which of these is not a true arrival characteristic for customers arriving at a service line?

Select one:

a.Intensity of arrivals

b.Size of arrival population

c.Pattern of arrivals at the queing system

d.Behaviour of arrivals

Question 5. Which of the following is an incorrect queing model?

Select one:

a.Single channel queing model with Poisson arrivals and exponential service time

b.Mixed Queing Model

c.Random Channel Queing Model

d.Multiple Channel Queing Model

Question 6. Which of the following is not a short-term strategy to manage increased demand of service?

Select one:

a.Implementing automated systems

b.Hiring part time staff

c.Adding waiting lines in service systems

d.Implement premium pricing mechanism to turn away few customers

Question 7. Which of the following is an incorrect example of queing technique used in providing services to the waiting customers?

Select one:

a.First come first serve

b.Shortest processing time

c.Priority servicing

d.Random order servicing

Question 8. Which of the following will not have same input and output service inventories?

Select one:

Picture Hall

Amusement Park

Insurance Company

Restaurant

Question 9. Which of the following is not a quantitative method of demand forecasting?

Select one:

Time series analysis

Moving average method

Brain storming

Regression analysis

Question 10. Customer behaviour of moving from one queue to another in anticipation to receive service more quickly is termed as ___________.

Select one:

Balking

Reneging

Jockeying

Hopping

Which of the following is a not a work storage inventory based on information?

Select one:

a.Marketing research report by a consultant

b.Soup prepared in a restaurant

c.Legal documents for the insurance of a car

d.List of grocery items available in a super store

Question 11. Which of the following is not a factor to be considered while forecasting service demands by time series analysis?

Select one:

a.Secular Trend

b.Seasonal Trend

c.Systemic Trend

d.Random Trend

Question 12. Modifying capacity on a regular basis as per the changes in demand is known as ___________ strategy of capacity management.

Select one:

a.Level

b.Chase

c.Mix

d.Grand

Question 13. Level strategy of demand management is to produce:

Select one:

a.same levels of service without considering the demand changes.

b.different levels of services as per the changes in demand.

c.different levels of service as per demand forecast made by the manager.

d.different levels of services as per the market research.

Question 14. Which of the following is a correct example of outsourcing of process by a service provider?

Select one:

a.Centralised reservation system used by an organisation for its 15 hotels located all across India

b.TCS helping Indian Government in data management and verification for issue of passports

c.Online portal of Flipkart for ordering goods online

d.HR department of an airline company conducting recruitment and selection activities

Question 15. A cinema hall charges ” Premium Price” i.e., they charge exagerrated prices for tickets during weekends. The main objective is to:

Select one:

a.earn more profits during peak time.

b.to shift demand from lean time to peak time.

c.to reduce service demand during peak time.

d.to increase guest satisfaction.

Question 16. Concept of ” Happy Hours” in bars and restaurant is applied with the objective to:

Select one:

a.shift demand from peak time to lean time.

b.shift demand from lean time to peak time.

c.increase profit from operations.

d.use it as a sales promotion activity to improve brand image of company.

Question 17. Which of the following strategies is most suitable for a hotel to increase the demand of their services in lean seasons?

Select one:

a.Giving heavy discounts on the room rents

b.Advertising their product on electronic media

c.To give free food vouchers

d.To use online hotel portals to market their products

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5th Module Assessment

Simulation techniques cannot be used for:

Select one:

a.Designing a service

b.Forecasting a scenario

c.Preparing a 100% effective strategy

d.Prediction of a change in business or market

Question 2. Which of the following is not an objective of analysing big data by a service industry?

Select one:

a.To process payments done by customers

b.To find out market trend for their products

c.To forecast demand of services

d.To know customer perception and behaviour

Question 3. Which of the following is not an advantage of social media marketing for a service organisation?

Select one:

a.It is economical.

b.A company can reach larger number of audience in lesser time.

c.It stimulates word of mouth promotions.

d.Anyone can add content on social media.

Question 4. Which of these is not an example of GDS system?

Select one:

a.SPSS

b.Amadeus

c.Sabre

d.Apollo

Question 5. Identify the correct type of cloud.

Select one:

a.Public Cloud

b.Upper Cloud

c.Dark Cloud

d.White Cloud

Question 6. Self check-in and check-out Kiosks installed in a hotel’s front office is an example of _____________.

Select one:

a.Semi Automation

b.Full Automation

c.Robotics

d.AI

Question 7. It is not a service or benefit of cloud computing:

Select one:

a.It provides on-demand access to various applications and resources.

b.Data can be stored in servers maintained by service provider.

c.It helps to provide an access to information of other competitors.

d.It reduces time for processing and analysing data.

Question 8. GDS cannot be used for booking __________.

Select one:

a.Hotel Rooms

b.Cabs

c.Catering Services

d.Air Tickets

Question 9. Which of the following is not a cloud computing service?

Select one:

a.Saas

b.FaaS

c.PaaS

d.AIaaS

Question 10. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of robotics?

Select one:

a.A fully automated system, that can work without much human intervention

b.A semi automated system that integrate human effort with machine to perform task more effectively in an efficient way

c.A fully automatic system with mobile arms that can replicate similar actions as of humans

d.A mechanical system that does not require any external power to operate

Which of the following is not a company offering cloud service?

Select one:

a.Amazon Web Services

b.MS Azure

c.IBM Cloud services

d.IMS Clouds

Question 11. Technology in which machines can take multiple decisions without human intervention is known as ___________.

Select one:

a.AI

b.Mechanical technology

c.Robotics

d.Automated

Question 12. ICT technologies are the backbone of almost all service industries, here ICT stands for

Select one:

a.Internal Connect Technology

b.Internal Communication Technology

c.Industrial Communication Technology

d.Information and Communication Technology

Question 13. ORACLE and BAAN IV are the examples of _______________.

Select one:

a.ERP software

b.GDS software

c.Inventory Management Software

d.MRP software

Question 14. __________ is the most elaborate cloud computing service.

Select one:

a.SaaS

b.IaaS

c.PaaS

d.TssS

Question 15. To simplify complicated procedures, many applications allow you to create a script of commands that the application can run. This script is called ________.

Select one:

a.Micros

b.Macros

c.Encryption

d.Protocol

Question 16. UPC or barcode of a product does not provide:

Select one:

a.Details of product category

b.Manufacturer’s Detail

c.Use of product

d.Brand of product

Question 17. To manage and control service inventories these days, RFID technology is used. Here, RFID stands for:

Select one:

a.Radio Frequency Identification Docket

b.Rapid Frequency Identification Documentation

c.Radio Frequency Identification Documentation

d.Regulated Frequency Identification Documentation

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Assignment 2

Case Study:

Delta pizza house is a leading pizza house of the town, it was one of the most preferred brand and the first choice for the customers. One of the main reason is that it is pioneer in the market, the variety and taste of the pizzas offered are very good and option of dine in and home delivery was also provided. There were 12 outlets in the state and each offering similar services and quality of product. With passage of time new competitiors start to emerge in the market and also the customer base was increasing due to surge in population. Delta Pizza found that there was decline in sales, even when market size is increasing. Mr Raj, the founder of Delta Pizza was not very much happy with the trend and called a meeting of his senior managers of the company. Mr Jayant ( Sales Director), Mr Ansh (Operation Manager) & Ms Tanya (Marketing Manager) were called and asked to find out the reason for the negative trend and find out a solution for it. Mr Jayant told Mr Raj that there are now 5 different companies offering pizzas and their pricing and quality is alomost similar to what Delta is offering. Mr Ansh stated that the pizza made by Delta follows a standardised process and revise the recipes on regular basis as per market requirement. Delta is offering the best quality of product at reasonablly good price. Ansh suggested marketing team to market the Delta differently. Ms Tanya said that the we have conducted a market research and as per information collected, other competitiors are succeeding because of the following reasons:

1. Other competitiors are offereing delivery of pizza in a stipulated time of 30 minutes where Delta does not maintain any data for timing of home delivery.

2. Other companies are maintaining a database of the customers and using the data they are able to classify the market and offer products accordingly.

3. All these companies are marketing themselves on various social media platforms and also conduct activities to attract customers and also collect customer feedback through these networking sites. So if we wanted to compete better, Ms Tanya proposed that the company should focus on developing their service preposition, as the product offered by them is good enough. Competitiors are offereing better services in terms of time bound delivery, managing and analysing customer database to communicate with customers and offer them preferred services.

Competitors of Delta were delivering pizzas in guarenteed time and by this they were surpassing Delta, it shows they are able to produce ___________ and __________ for the customers.

Select one:

a.time, comfort

b.time, convenience

c.pizza, convenience

d.guarantee, convenience

Question 2. Every time, timely delivery of quality pizza will create:

Select one:

a.trust and reliablity in brand

b.more profit for company

c.more expenses for the company

d.more complex service systems

Question 3. Which of the following is not a benefit of CRM system?

Select one:

a.It can provide contact details of customers.

b.It can provide information about customer’s behaviour and prefences.

c.It can record customer feedback and complaints.

d.It can resolve customer complaints.

Question 4. Delta is offering a good quality pizza and are pioneer in the market but still they were not able to retain the market share, the main reason was:

Select one:

a.Delta was not focussing on quality of product.

b.Delta has not focussed on its service proposition.

c.Delta has not increased the prices of their products.

d.Delta has not invested in training of their employees.

Question 5. Which of the following quality attribute is not valid for the products like pizza?

Select one:

a.Convenience

b.Safety

c.Durability

d.Timeliness

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Compensation and Reward Management (HR712)-Semester III

January 28, 2022January 28, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Compensation and Reward Management (HR712)-Semester III

1st Module Assessment

Question 1. Compensation structure includes all of the following except ________.

Select one:

a. House Rent Allowance

b. Conveyance

c. Dearness Allowance

d. Performance Appraisal

Clear my choice

_________ is the process of evaluating the relative worth of the Job.

Select one:

a. Job Analysis

b. Job Evaluation

c. Performance Management

d. Employee Engagement

Question 2. _________ is a systematic approach to providing monetary value to employees in exchange for work performed.

Select one:

a. Compensation

b. Appreciation

c. Recognition

d. Training

Clear my choice

Question 3. Which of these is the bare wage that an employee is entitled to in his employment?

Select one:

a. Minimum Wage

b. Bonus Pay

c. Incentive

d. Performance Pay

Clear my choice

Question 4. In which of these wage systems, payment is given to employees on the basis of time spent on job?

Select one:

a. Piece Wage System

b. Direct wage System

c. Time rate System

d. Indirect wage System

Clear my choice

Question 5. Under the “Hay Guide” Method 3, the important factors are Accountability, Know How and ________.

Select one:

a. Comparisons

b. Creativity

c. Reasoning

d. Problem Solving

Clear my choice

Question 6. Quantative method of Job Evaluation is also called ____________.

Select one:

a. Non-Analytical

b. Analytical

c. Bargaining

d. Ranking

Clear my choice

Question 7. The primary objective of the compensation is ______.

Select one:

a. Training

b. Equity

c. Promotion

d. Development

Clear my choice

Question 8. According to _______ theory of wage, labors are paid according to their production in production.

Select one:

a. Subsistence

b. Marginal

c. Economical

d. Legal

Clear my choice

Question 9. Following factors play a major role in selecting wages except ________.

Select one:

a. Level of Education

b. Skill Set

c. Personal Hobbies

d. Labor market

Clear my choice

Question 10. Which of these wages is between the Living Wage and the Minimum Wage?

Select one:

a. Base Wage

b. DA

c. Fair Wage

d. Contingent Wage

Clear my choice

Question 11. In this method of job evaluation, job is break down in various identifiable criteria like skill, effort and points are assigned to this.

Select one:

a. Job Ranking Method

b. Job Grading Method

c. Factor Comparison

d. Point Rating method

Clear my choice

Question 12. In this system fixed DA is provided to employees according to their slabs

Select one:

a. Graduated Rate

b. Flat Rate

c. Price Index

d. Not Linked with Price Index

Clear my choice

Question 13. Compensation system according to pay model is designed to achieve ________

Select one:

a. Organizational Objective

b. Personal Objective

c. Strategic Ob jective

d. Departmental Objective

Clear my choice

Question 14. Component including in wage structure to meet the needs of cost of living is called _______.

Select one:

a. Conveyance Allowance

b. Dearness Allowance

c. House Rent Allowance

d. City compensatory Allowance

According to which theory “Wages should be given to employees, so thet they shold not starve in long run”?

Select one:

a. Modern theory

b. Economic Theory

c. Subsistence Theory

d. Equity Theory

Question 15. The first step in the process of Job Evaluation is ________.

Select one:

a. Selection of Benchmark Jobs

b. Selecting Method of Evaluation

c. Determining Job Ranking

d. Gathering basic Information about Job

Clear my choice

Question 16. _______ is the statutory body to decide the wages of different industry.

Select one:

a. Wage Board

b. Pay Commision

c. Minimum Wages Act

d. Payment Wages Act

Clear my choice

Question 17. _________ includes all the benfits and allowances.

Select one:

a. Gross Salary

b. Take Home Salary

c. CTC

d. Basic Salary

2nd Module Assessment

competitiveness means organization’s pay relative to its competitors.

External competitivenes

Question 1. To be eligible for gratuity the employee suppose to work regular for the period of ______ years.

Select one:

a. 5

b. 7

c. 10

d. 3

Clear my choice

Question 2. Which act states that remuneration should not be differentiated on the basis of male and female?

Select one:

a. Minimum Wages Act

b. Payment of Wages Act

c. Equal Remuneration Act

d. Gratuity Act

Clear my choice

Question 3. Which of these is a tripartite body with representative of employer and employee, presided over by Independent representative by government to decide the wages?

Select one:

a. Grievance Commision

b. Trade Union

c. Wage Board

d. Government of India

Clear my choice

Question 4. The employee’s contribution in Provident Fund (PF) is ________

Select one:

a. 13.10%

b. 15.60%

c. 12.00%

d. 18.00%

Clear my choice

Question 5. The sum total pay given to employees included all the benefits without deductions is called _______.

Select one:

a. Gross Pay

b. Net Pay

c. CTC

d. Takr Home Pay

Clear my choice

Question 6. Which administrative system is designed to work upon the salary of Government Employees?

Select one:

a. Wage Board

b. Pay Commision

c. Pay Progression

d. HR Department

Clear my choice

Question 7. One of the important role of wage board is to align the wages settlement with ___________policies of government.

Select one:

a. Emotional Well-Being

b. Demographic

c. Social-Psychological

d. Economic and Social

Clear my choice

Question 8. _______ is the process in which employee moves to higher pay level within a grade.

Select one:

a. Transfer

b. Recruitment

c. Pay Progression

d. Promotion

Clear my choice

Question 9. According to Payment of Wages Act, any organization having employees less than 1000 should give salary by ______ of next month.

Select one:

a. 1st

b. 7th

c. 10th

d. 5th

Clear my choice

Question 10. Occupation, Geography and _________ determine labor markets.

Select one:

a. Employee

b. Salary

c. Location

d. Competitors

Clear my choice

Question 11. Gratuity is calculated at _______ of Basic Pay.

Select one:

a. 8.70%

b. 5%

c. 3.50%

d. 4.81%

Clear my choice

Question 12. This allowance is paid to the employees for meeting the cost of renting a home.

Select one:

a. DA

b. HRA

c. Medical

d. CCA

Clear my choice

Question 13. The latest Pay Commision in India is ______.

Select one:

a. 7th

b. 5th

c. 6th

d. 2nd

Clear my choice

Question 14. Employees who have the basic salary of Rs _______ are eligible for PF.

Select one:

a. 10000

b. 20000

c. 15000

d. 25000

Clear my choice

To be eligible for ESIC, the employee’s Gross salary should be below Rs ___________.

Select one:

a. 15000

b. 21000

c. 10000

d. 12000

Question 15. Labor laws comes under the _________factors that influence pay.

Select one:

a. Internal

b. External

c. Cross sectional

d. Diagonal

Clear my choice

Question 16. Gratuity = Last Drawn Salary × 15/26 × ___________

Select one:

a. No of leaves every year

b. No. of Working days in month

c. No. of Years of Service

d. No. of Working days in a year

Clear my choice

Question 17. The first Wage board was set up in 1957 in _________.

Select one:

a. Bombay Mills

b. Cotton Textile Industry

c. Gujrat Textiles

d. Chattisgarh Paper Mills

3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. In which of these practices does an employee pay a fixed or percentage amount for coverage?

Select one:

a. Probationary Period

b. Co-Pay

c. Benefit Limitation

d. Cost reduction

Clear my choice

Question 2. _________ is one of the important factor that affects employee’s benefits.

Select one:

a. Performance

b. Ambition

c. Motivation

d. Recognition

Clear my choice

Question 3. Pension is the _________ benefit given to employees after retirement

Select one:

a. Non-Statutory

b. Variable Pay

c. Medical

d. Statutory

Clear my choice

Question 4. Fringe benefits helps in _______ employees

Select one:

a. Lay off

b. Motivating

c. Retrenchment

d. Training

Clear my choice

Question 5. Life Insurance comes under ________ benefits.

Select one:

a. Safety

b. Employment

c. Retierment

d. Health

Clear my choice

Question 6. Which one is an additional advantage an employee receives from its employer?

Select one:

a. Benefits

b. Salary

c. Advice

d. Directions

Clear my choice

Question 7. _________ allows employees to vary their arrival and departure time

Select one:

a. Benefits

b. ESOP’s

c. Flexible Work Schedules

d. Work from Home

Clear my choice

Question 8. ___________ means employee usually comes office semi-regularly.

Select one:

a. Flexitimings

b. Work from Home

c. Telecommuting

d. Remote Working

Clear my choice

Question 9. In which process do the employees get the right to purchase stocks of the company in lieu of benefits?

Select one:

a. ESOP

b. HRA

c. DA

d. Bonus

Clear my choice

Question 10. Following are the method of communicating benefit program to employees except______.

Select one:

a. Employee Handbook

b. Meeting with Employees

c. Intranet

d. Text Messages

Clear my choice

Question 11. One of the disadvantage of Flexible Work Schedule is _________.

Select one:

a. Difficult to Connect with Co-workers

b. Flexibility to employees

c. Good Work Life- Balance

d. High Employee Engagement

Clear my choice

Question 12. Following are the Statutory benefits given to employees except ___________.

Select one:

a. Social Security

b. Medical Leaves

c. Pension

d. Recognition

Clear my choice

Question 13. ESOP’s are __________ benefits given to employees

Select one:

a. Monetary

b. Bonus()

c. Non-Monetary

d. Cash

Clear my choice

Compensation is completely related to ________, whereas benefits is related to non-monetray (Money) benefits.

Select one:

a. Incentives

b. Perks

c. Performance

d. Money

Question 14. Three main issues in determining Benefit Programs are Communicating, Claim Processing and __________.

Select one:

a. Equity

b. Cost Containment

c. Relationship

d. Distribution

Clear my choice

Question 15. ________ act is responsible for employee’s social security schemes.

Select one:

a. Minimum Wages

b. Payment of Wages

c. Equal Remuneraton

d. Employee State Insurance

Clear my choice

Question 16. Key employee factor to determine the benefit process is _________.

Select one:

a. Equity

b. Distribution

c. Relevance

d. Relationship

Clear my choice

Question 17. There must be _____ year of gap in between granting of option and vesting of option in ESOP’s.

Select one:

a. 3

b. 1

c. 5

d. 7

4th Module Assessment

Question 1. CTC means ________.

Select one:

a. Care to Company

b. Cost to Care

c. Credit ot Company

d. Cost to Company

Clear my choice

Question 2. It is a financial compensation given above salary.

Select one:

a. Appreciation

b. Benefit

c. Bonus

d. Recognition

Clear my choice

Question 3. Individual Incentive Plans are based on 2 basis- Time Based Incentives and ________ based Incentives.

Select one:

a. Production

b. Rate

c. Development

d. Incement

Clear my choice

Question 4. In order to avoid ethical issues Pay for ________ should be followed

Select one:

a. Leaves

b. Variance

c. Performance

d. Time

Clear my choice

Question 5. __________ are the tools to detremine the median or average salary.

Select one:

a. Survey

b. Data collection

c. Salary Survey

d. Consolidated Salary

Clear my choice

Question 6. __________ is the compensation that employer give to the employee once the employment is over.

Select one:

a. Flexi Pay

b. Bonus Pay

c. Severance Pay

d. Digital Pay

Clear my choice

According to competency based pay, employee is paid according to the ___ and ______ they possess.

Select one:

a. Tome o Job and Salary

b. Knowledge and skills

c. Education and Degrees

d. Experience and Education

Question 7. Bonus should be paid at the minimum rate of ___ percent

Select one:

a. 5.36

b. 8.33

c. 12.55

d. 15.5

Clear my choice

Question 8. Basic salary of the employee should be based on __________

Select one:

a. Minimum Wages

b. Maximum Wages

c. Time System

d. Production System

Clear my choice

Question 9. In which of these wage systems is the incentive calculated on the collective production of group?

Select one:

a. Time Wage System

b. Piece Wage System

c. Individual Incentive Plan

d. Group Incentive Plans

Clear my choice

Question 10.

Net Salary is alo called _________

Select one:

a. Gross Salary

b. CTC

c. In House Salary

d. Take Home Salary

Clear my choice

Question 11. Gross Salary = Basic Salary + _________

Select one:

a. Taxes

b. Allowances

c. Deductions

d. CTC

Clear my choice

Question 12. _______ is one of the common ethical issue in compensation.

Select one:

a. Development

b. Efficiency

c. Time

d. Cost Cutting

Clear my choice

Question 13. If the worker completed the work before stipulated time, it is called _________.

Select one:

a. Halsey Premium Plan

b. Rowan Plan

c. Emerson Efficiency Plan

d. Beaudax Point Plan

Clear my choice

Question 14. Following are the elements of competency based pay except ________.

Select one:

a. Specific Skill requirement

b. Training of the Skills

c. Salary of Employee

d. Competency Testing

Clear my choice

Employees drawing the salary of Rs. ________ or less are eligible for bonus.

Select one:

a. 21000

b. 15000

c. 10000

d. 8000

Question 15. Bonus should be paid at the maximum rate of ____ percent.

Select one:

a. 15

b. 12

c. 25

d. 20

Clear my choice

Question 16. CTC = Gross Salary + ________

Select one:

a. Bonus

b. Benefits

c. Deductions

d. Tax

Clear my choice

Question 17. In Provident fund employee suppose to pay _____ percent.

Select one:

a. 12

b. 15

c. 21

d. 18

5th Module Assessment

Question 1. Metrics that calculate the total compensation spent on benefits is called ________

Select one:

a. Increased Rate Ratio

b. Benefit Spent Ratio

c. Base Salary Increase Rate

d. Total Compensation Ratio

Clear my choice

__ shows the progression in salary from one job level to another by comparing the two ranges’ midpoints.

Select one:

a. Reward Ratio

b. Salary Differential

c. Incentive Ratio

d. Benefit Ratio

Question 2. The first and the best practice in compensation planning is to design ________.

Select one:

a. System

b. Rewards

c. Salary

d. Company’s Pay Policy

Clear my choice

Question 3. Organizations utilizing latest compensation trends to build culture and _______

Select one:

a. Infrastructure

b. Technology

c. Brand Image

d. Employees

Clear my choice

Question 4. All are the uses of reward system in the organization except ________

Select one:

a. Increasing Employee commitment

b. Better Employee Retention

c. Job Satisfaction

d. Increased Absenteeism

Clear my choice

Question 5. Through use of Information Technology in Compensation one can take __________ decisions

Select one:

a. Strategic Compensation

b. Operational

c. Cross Functional

d. Managerial

Clear my choice

Question 6. One of the latest trend in compensation is_______.

Select one:

a. Base Salary

b. Pay for Performance

c. Average Pay

d. Time Based Pay

Clear my choice

Question 7. ______ is given on the basis of Job related knowledge, skills and Competencies.

Select one:

a. Time Focussed Pay

b. Person Focussed Pay

c. Piece Focussed Pay

d. Rewards Focussed pay

Clear my choice

Question 8. _________ shows the progression in salary from one job level to another by comparing the two ranges’ midpoints.

Select one:

a. Reward Ratio

b. Salary Differential

c. Incentive Ratio

d. Benefit Ratio

Clear my choice

Question 9. Following are the approaches of Global Compensation except _______.

Select one:

a. Home Country Approach

b. Headquarter Based Approach

c. Direct Link Approach

d. Host Country approach

Clear my choice

Question 10. Out of following, which one is the major components of International Pay system?

Select one:

a. Foreign Service Premium

b. Allowances

c. HRA

d. Base Salary

Clear my choice

Technology Enablers in compensation empowering employees to take decision related to their ____________ and benefits accordingly.

Select one:

a. Absenteeism

b. Decision

c. Retention

d. Performance

Question 11. Under which of these approaches, payment is given on the basis of company’s headquarter regardless of location?

Select one:

a. Home Based Approach

b. Host Based Approach

c. Headquarter Based Approach

d. Balance Sheet Approach

Clear my choice

Question 12. ________ are given towards the education fee of the expatriates.

Select one:

a. Cost of Living Allowance

b. Spouse Allowance

c. Home Service allowance

d. Education Allowance

Clear my choice

Question 13. Appreciation and recognition are called the _______ Rewards.

Select one:

a. Compulsory

b. Monetary

c. Intrinsic

d. Regular

Clear my choice

Question 14. Which of these metrics includes salaries, overtime pay, benefits, incentives, bonuses and everything paid to employees?

Select one:

a. Total Compensation Spend (TCS)Rate

b. Cost Per Hire

c. Annual benefit Spend Change

d. Benefit Spent Ratio

Clear my choice

Question 15. A ____________ alowance is included in expatriate employee’s pay in response to fluctuations in the economy, such as inflation or deflation.

Select one:

a. Foreign Service Allowance

b. Cost of Living

c. Education Assistance

d. Housing Assistance

Clear my choice

Question 16. ________ are measures that help to know the ratio of compensation spent against revenue.

Select one:

a. ROI

b. Compensation Metrics

c. Cost per Hire

d. Absenteeism Ratio

Clear my choice

Question 17. Which one is the component of Strategic Compensation wherein company’s keep secrets regarding the salary of employees?

Select one:

a. Skill Based Pay

b. Competence Based Pay

c. Pay Secrecy

d. Reward Management

Assignment 2

Case Study:

The employees of SVN pharmaceuticals were a worried lot. With the news that the company is going to be merged with ABC pharma, all of them were worried about what would happen to their jobs, and the other benefits as a result of the merger. There were all kinds of rumors regarding layoffs and reduction in pay and benefits. ABC pharma was a leading firm with operations spread across Asia and Europe. SVN pharmaceuticals had a strong hold in marketing and distribution in India, and so it was considered to be a merger of equals. Amid all the confusion, the CEO of SVN pharmaceuticals addressed the employees about the reason for the decision, and advantages to the firm if the merger is completed. He felt as a result of the merger, the firm would be able to explore various areas of research and development. The employees have only one question in their minds, what would be the impact of this merger on their jobs and their pay packages. To their relief CEO made it clear that a benefits team would be formed that would be representatives of both the companies. He requested the employees to be patient as it would take some time to clearly decide and bring in an effective benefit plan. As per CEOs statement a benefit team was formed.

The team was headed by the VP – HR of the merged company. He stated that since it was a merger of equals, they had to develop something that was the best for the new company, even if it were time – consuming. The team felt that the best way to go about it was to merge the best of both companies’ benefit plans or create a new benefit program that would reflect the culture the new company was trying to nurture. The head also stated that their aim was not just to design a new benefit plan, but also to make sure that all the employees were knowledgeable and comfortable about the changes in the benefit program. Before concluding the meeting, the VP – HR made it clear to the team that people were of paramount importance to them and if the benefits program did not help in retaining them, then the merger would serve no purpose.

SVN Pharmaceuticals is merging with ABC Pharma because __________________.

Select one:

a. It is a leading Firm spread across Asia and Europe.

b. It has strong hold in Marketing and Distribution in India.

c. It wants to lay off and reduce their employees.

d. The CEO wants to change the manpower.

Clear my choice

Question 2. As a result of merger, the firm would be able to explore the areas of _________.

Select one:

a. Talent Management

b. Performance Appraisal

c. Research & Development

d. Training & Development

Clear my choice

Question 3. As per CEO ________ will be formed to make the new benefit plan.

Select one:

a. VP-HR

b. Compensation Plan

c. New Strategies

d. Benefit Team

Clear my choice

Question 4. VP- HR clears that new benefit program should be focussing on _______ the employees.

Select one:

a. Motivating

b. Reducing

c. Retaining

d. Exhausting

Clear my choice

Question 5. The main concern of the case study is _____________.

Select one:

a. Merger

b. Benefit Program

c. Working Schedules

d. Reducing Manpower

Building Entrepreneurial Culture and Team (ENTR712)-Semester III

December 14, 2021December 14, 2021 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Building Entrepreneurial Culture and Team (ENTR712)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment
Question 1. is the best quality that help team members to share their information.
Select one:
a. Accuracy
b. Rigidity
c. Unfaithfulness
d. Trust
Clear my choice
Question 2. Harris and Moran have identified various cultural variables except .
Select one:
a. Hiring
b. Association
c. Kinship
d. Education
Clear my choice
Question 3. Corporate culture is deeply rooted in every aspect of its business and functions.
Select one:
a. FALSE
b. TRUE
c. Maybe true
d. Not at All
Clear my choice
Question 4. In which culture are norms and procedures of organization pre-defined?
Select one:
a. Task
b. Pragmatic
c. Normative
d. Descended
Clear my choice
Question 5. When the managers engage their employees to develop the organization culture, they follow SMART goals, wherein T stands for .
Select one:
a. Tight
b. Tough
c. Trial
d. Timely
Clear my choice
Question 6. culture develops when team in organization is assigned any specific projects or work.
Select one:
a. Person
b. Power
c. Task
d. Process
Clear my choice
Question 7. is the collection of values, expectations and practices that guides the behaviour of people in team.
Select one:
a. Learning
b. Motivation
c. Organization culture
d. Leadership
Clear my choice
Question 8. Culture employees by providing sense of identity.
Select one:
a. Unite
b. Depart
c. Divide
d. Compete
Clear my choice
Question 9. Company’s are the foundation of its culture.
Select one:
a. Infrastructure
b. Policies
c. Functions
d. Values
Clear my choice
Question 10. is the key quality in dynamic environment that help the employees of the organization to adopt changes.
Select one:
a. Productivity
b. Learning
c. Adventure
d. Resilience
Clear my choice
In order to keep the organizational culture alive, they should the candidates as per the requirement of organization.
Select one:
a. Empower
b. Manage
c. Select
d. Ignore
system is the system adopted by society to guide family relationships.
Select one:
a. Pragmatic
b. Organizational
c. Kinship
d. Task
Question 11. In order to help the employees adopt new culture, organization should perform .
Select one:
a. Prayers
b. Culture
c. Rituals
d. Socialization
Clear my choice
Question 12. When a company has culture, they allow their employees to take risk and creativity.
Select one:
a. Innovative
b. Restricted
c. Subtle
d. Vertical
Clear my choice
Question 13. is the dominant culture of any particular society.
Select one:
a. Micro
b. Macro
c. Vertical
d. Horizontal
Clear my choice
Question 14. This type of culture has clear stated leaders at top and defined chain of command.
Select one:
a. Clan
b. Hierarchy
c. Adhocracy
d. Horizontal
Clear my choice
Question 15. This type of culture is rooted in commonality and members see themselves as a part of big family.
Select one:
a. Adhocracy
b. Bureaucratic
c. Clan
d. Hierarchy
Clear my choice
Question 16. It refrers to the specialized sub-groups, that have their own language, ethos and rules.
Select one:
a. Legal Culture
b. Macro Culture
c. Assisted Culture
d. Micro Culture
Clear my choice
Question 17. In order to have cultural transformation, there should be defined .
Select one:
a. Core Values
b. Employees
c. Progress
d. Culture
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2nd Module Assessment
Attitudes are behaviours.
Select one:
a. Systematic
b. Detached
c. Learned
d. Frequent
Question 1. The of an entrepreneur is the essence of his success.
Select one:
a. Rigidity
b. Determinants
c. Personality
d. Self-confidence
Clear my choice
Question 2. Entrepreneurial mindset enables the empoyess to take healhy breaks to assess uncertainities.
Select one:
a. Not at All
b. Maybe
c. TRUE
d. FALSE
Clear my choice
Question 3. is the key to develop open communication culture in organization.
Select one:
a. Criticism
b. Creativity
c. Transparencey
d. Development
Clear my choice
Question 4. This function of attitude helps people to express their values:
Select one:
a. Value Expressive
b. Ego Defensive
c. Adaptive
d. Resilience
Clear my choice
Question 5. _ refers to the extent to which an individual identifies with his job.
Select one:
a. Job Enrichment
b. Job Involvement
c. Job Analysis
d. Job Evaluation
Clear my choice
Question 6. To inculcate the creativity and innovation in organization, one should ____.
Select one:
a. Encourage Ideas
b. Criticise Members
c. Develop Strictness
d. Maintain Discipline
Clear my choice
Question 7. is the way people respond towards people, objects or events.
Select one:
a. Culture
b. Attitude
c. Learning
d. Motivation
Clear my choice
Question 8. The three levels of entrepreneurial culture are Visible, Semi-visible and .
Select one:
a. Integrity
b. Invisible
c. Creative
d. Communication
Clear my choice
Question 9. Factors affecting attitude formation are family, reference group, social factor and _____.
Select one:
a. Rigidity
b. Culture
c. Communication
d. Personality Factor
Clear my choice
Question 10. is one of the prominent feature of entreprenurial mindset.
Select one:
a. High Productivity
b. Over achieving
c. Being Stangnant
d. Dealing with Uncertainities
Clear my choice
3 structural components of attitude are cognitive, affective and .
Select one:
a. Protective
b. Defensive
c. Cultural
d. Behavioural
Question 11. Four elements of organizational culture are openness, result and reward, learning organization and .
Select one:
a. Adversity
b. Communication
c. Adaptability
d. Resilence
Clear my choice
Question 12. Three job related attitude are- Job satisfaction, Job involvement and ___.
Select one:
a. Learning
b. Organization Behaviour
c. Motivation
d. Organizational Commitment
Clear my choice
Question 13. Attitude function that helps people protect their self-image is called .
Select one:
a. Ego- Defensive
b. Adaptive
c. Cultural
d. Team Building
Clear my choice
Question 14. To inculcate entrepreneurial attitude, one should work on all except .
Select one:
a. Demotivation
b. Positive Attitude
c. Creative Mindset
d. Persuasive Communication
Clear my choice
Question 15. In this level, the entrepreneurial mindset can be highlighted through attitude toward certain object or situation.
Select one:
a. Negligent
b. Visible
c. Semi-visible
d. Invisible
Clear my choice
Question 16. To develop the culture of open communication, one should lead __.
Select one:
a. With restrictions
b. By example
c. Being rigid
d. Through dictating
Clear my choice
Question 17. Following are the four functions of attitude except .
Select one:
a. Contradictory
b. Adaptive
c. Ego-Defensive
d. Knowledge
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Entrepreneurial Marketing (ENTR703)-Semester III

December 9, 2021March 3, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Entrepreneurial Marketing (ENTR703)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Question 1. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?

Select one:

a. Straight rebuy purchase

b. Selayed purchase

c. New-task purchase

d. Modified rebuy purchase

Clear my choice

Question 2. Entrepreneurship is useful to the organization because of:

Select one:

a. Development of managerial capabilities

b. Creation of organization

c. Improving standard of living & economic development

d. All of these

Clear my choice

Question 3. The definition of entrepreneurship holds the promise of __________.

Select one:

a. Financial difficulties and hardship

b. Limited expansion

c. Growth, unlimited expansion and long-term financial gain

d. Growth, expansion and long term financial gain

Clear my choice

Question 4. SBA stands for:

Select one:

a. Small business accountants

b. Small business administration

c. Small business adequacy

d. Small business advisors

Clear my choice

Question 5. Which one of the following is the next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process?

Select one:

a. Idea Stage

b. Product Planning Stage

c. Product Development Stage

d. Test Marketing Stage

Clear my choice

Question 6. Which of the following shows the process of creating something new?

Select one:

a. Business model

b. Modeling

c. Creative flexibility

d. Innovation

Clear my choice

Question 7. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase a good product will sell itself is characteristic of the _______ period.

Select one:

a. Prodcution

b. Sales

c. Marketing

d. Relationship

Clear my choice

Question 8. Which one of the following is an important source of idea generation due to their familiarity with the needs of market?

Select one:

a. Existing products and services

b. Distribution channels

c. Federal government

d. Consumers

Clear my choice

Question 9. What is the process by which individuals pursue opportunities without regard to resources they currently control?

Select one:

a. Startup management

b. Entrepreneurship

c. Financial analysis

d. Feasibility Planning

Clear my choice

Question 10. A market with which of the following characteristics would generally be less competitive?

Select one:

a. High barrier to entry

b. Lots of potential substitutes exist

c. Strong bargaining power among buyers

d. Strong bargaining power among suppliers

Clear my choice

Entrepreneurial companies are different from small business companies in that they __________.

Select one:

a. Are innovative and growth driven

b. Are not creating jobs for themselves but are wealth driven

c. Create wealth that is sustainable for future generation to come

d. All of the above

Importance of Entrepreneurship includes:

Select one:

a. Economic & dynamic activity

b. Innovation & Profit potential

c. Risk bearing

d. All of these

Question 11. A basic survivalist is __________.

Select one:

a. This person operates as an entrepreneur to survive for the first three months after setting up a business.

b. This person operates as an entrepreneur to survive until he or she obtains an entrepreneurial opportunity

c. This person operates as an entrepreneur to survive until he or she obtains a formal-sector job or entrepreneurial opportunity

d. This person operates as a small business manager until he or she obtains a formal-sector job or entrepreneurial opportunity.

Clear my choice

Question 12. The process of Entrepreneurship is divided into two parts and they are:

Select one:

a. Idea Generation and Feasibility study

b. Innovation generation and Distribution Channel

c. Creativity and Development

d. Profit and Economic Development

Clear my choice

Question 13. Having more than 50% ownership position that provides the entrepreneur with managerial control is called:

Select one:

a. Joint venture

b. Majority interest

c. Horizontal merger

d. Diversified activity merger

Clear my choice

Question 14. Which one of the following gives suggestions for new product and also help to market new products?

Select one:

a. Existing products and services

b. Federal government

c. Distribution Channels

d. Consumers

Clear my choice

Question 15. Which one of the following is the process of entrepreneurs developing new products that over time make current products obsolete?

Select one:

a. New business model

b. Anatomization

c. Creative destruction

d. None of the given options

Clear my choice

Question 16. What is the profit plan of the organization?

Select one:

a. Finnacial Budget

b. Marketing Budget

c. Operating Budget

d. Production Budget

Clear my choice

Question 17. Which of the following is used by entrepreneurs to acquire experience in an international market before making a major commitment?

Select one:

a. Merger

b. Minority Interest

c. Joint venture

d. Majority interest

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2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. In terms of goods and services, the function of marketing is to _________ demand.

Select one:

a. Plan

b. create

c. price

d. promote

Clear my choice

Question 2. The buying process starts when the buyer recognizes a _________.

Select one:

a. Product

b. An advertiement for the product

c. A Salesperson form the previous visit

d. Problem or need

Clear my choice

Question 3. Causal research is used to ________

Select one:

a. Describe marketing problems or situations

b. Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms of research

c. Find information at the outset in an unstructured way

d. Test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships

Clear my choice

Question 4. Branding is concerned with ____________ component of four P‘s.

Select one:

a. Promotion

b. Place

c. Product

d. Price

Clear my choice

Question 5. During which step of the marketing segmentation, targeting, and positioning process does the firm develop a marketing mix for each segment?

Select one:

a. market segmentation

b. market targeting

c. market positioning

d. The firm does not go through the “development” during any of the above steps.

Clear my choice

Question 6. The ________ concept holds that consumers and businesses, if left alone, will ordinarily not buy enough of the organization’s products.

Select one:

a. Production

b. Selling

c. Marketing

d. Holistic marketing

Clear my choice

Question 7. Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost than the others?

Select one:

a. Primary

b. Survey research

c. Experimental research

d. Secondary

Clear my choice

Question 8. The real value of a company’s marketing research and information system lies in the _____.

Select one:

a. Amount of data it generates

b. Quality of customer insights it provides

c. Marketing information system it follows

d. Efficiency with which it completes studies

Clear my choice

Question 9. Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information that people are unwilling or unable to provide?

Select one:

a. Focus groups

b. Personal interviews

c. Observational research

d. Questionnaires

Clear my choice

Question 10. Secondary data are ________.

Select one:

a. Collected mostly via surveys

b. Expensive to obtain

c. Never purchased from outside suppliers

d. Not always very usable

Clear my choice

Narrowly focused markets that are defined by some special interest are termed as _______________.

Select one:

a. Target Markets

b. Mass Markets

c. Niche Markets

d. Undifferentiated Markets

Question 11. Which form of marketing research is flexible, allows for explanation of difficult questions, and lends itself to showing products and advertisements?

Select one:

a. Personal interviewing

b. Ethnographic research

c. Observational research

d. Online interviewing

Clear my choice

Question 12. The product that exceeds customers‘ expectations due to value addition is _____________.

Select one:

a. Basic Product

b. Expected Product

c. Augmented product

d. Core product

Clear my choice

Question 13. Survey research, though used to obtain many kinds of information in a variety of situations, is best suited for gathering ________ information.

Select one:

a. Attitudinal

b. Personal

c. Descriptive

d. Exploratory

Clear my choice

Question 14. Which of the following is not a criterion for successful market segmentation?

Select one:

a. there must be difference among consumers

b. Each segment must be located within a geographical area

c. There must be consumer similarities within each segment identified

d. a segment must be large enough to cover costs

Clear my choice

A consumer goods marketer produces multiple brands of shampoo that are positioned for consumers with dyed hair, dandruff, oily hair or dry hair. This strategy illustrates:

Select one:

a. Undifferentiated marketing

b. Differentiated marketing

c. Concentrated marketing

d. Mass marketing

Question 15. A firm is abusing segmentation when it:

Select one:

a. becomes too efficient

b. Becomes short run oriented rather than long run oriented

c. Is consumer oriented

d. Is generating too much profit

Clear my choice

Question 16. When a company strives to appeal to multiple well defined market segments with a strategy tailored to each segment, it is applying:

Select one:

a. Undifferentiated marketing

b. Differentiated marketing

c. Concentrated Marketing

d. The majority fallacy

Clear my choice

Question 17. What is the first step in the marketing research process?

Select one:

a. Developing a marketing information system

b. Developing the research plan for collecting information

c. Defining the problem and research objectives

d. Implementing the research plan

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3rd Module Assessment

Makers of televisions, cameras, tires, furniture, and major appliances normally use which of the following distribution channel forms?

a. direct marketing channel

b. indirect marketing channel

c. horizontal channel

d. synthetic channel

Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:

They earn a handsome profit from new business

hey are familiar with the needs of the market

They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss

They have well-developed sales force

Question 2. From the economic system’s point of view, the role of marketing intermediaries is to transform:

raw products into finished products.

consumer needs into producer needs.

consumer needs and wants into product desires

Assortments of products made by producers into the assortments wanted by consumers

Question 3. What is the full form of CIS?

Channel information source

Channel induced system

Channel information system

Channel incorporated system

Question 4. Who sells to the customers?

Semi wholesalers

Wholesalers

Retailer

Distributor

Question 5. ________ markets include a wide variety of profit and nonprofit organizations, such as hospitals, government agencies, and schools, which provide goods and services for the benefit of society.

Consumer

Business-to-Business

Reseller

Institutional

Question 6. Which of the following is NOT considered a type of reseller?

Wholesaler

Retailer

Manufacturer

Distributor

Question 7. When a company distributes its products through a channel structure that includes one or more resellers, this is known as ________.

Indirect marketing

Direct marketing

multi-level marketing

integrated marketing

Question 8. The benefits of marketing channels are __________.

Time saving

Cost saving

All the given options

Financial support given

Question 9. When the manufacturer establishes two or more channels catering to the same market, then …………… occurs.

Horizontal channel conflict

Multi channel conflict

Vertical channel conflict

None of the above

Question 10. Avon, Amway, and Tupperware use which of the following forms of channel distribution?

direct marketing channel

Indirect marketing channel

Fashion channel

Forward channel

Question 11. A cluster of complementary goods and services across diverse set of industries is called as _____________

Select one:

Market Place

Meta Market

Market Space

Resource Market

Question 12. What is the full form of VMS?

Velocity moving system

Vertical marketing system

Vertical moving system

None of the options

Question 13. ________ markets are made up of members of the distribution chain.

Consumer

Business-Business(industrial)

Channel

Institutional

Which of the following is an example of the external natural environment for a manufacturer of metal lawn furniture?

longer than usual distribution channel due to a rail strike

Consumer trend toward treating gardens like another room

Flood at the manufacturer’s main warehouse

Inflationary pricing by competitors

Question 14. Which of the following is considered a “key player” in the marketing industry?

Marketer

Supplier or vendors

Distributors or retailers

All the given options

Question 15. A distribution channel moves goods and services from producers to consumers. It overcomes the major time, place, and ______________ gaps that separate goods and services from those who would use them.

Possession

Profit

Image

Psychological

Question 16. Which of the following factors is the most important in forcing U.S companies to focus on new product development and increased productivity?

Entrepreneurship

Hyper competition

Governmental laws

Organisational Culture

Question 17. Through their contacts, experience, specialization, and scale of operation, ______________ usually offer the firm more than it can achieve on its own.

Manufacturers

Producers

Direct Marketers

intermediaries

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4th Module Assessment

It is popularly known as free form of promotion. Select one:

a. Advertisement

b. Publicity

c. Marketing

d. Personal Selling

Direct mail advertising sends messages through_______

Mail

Audio

Video

None of these

Question 2. The plan that show time, date and frequency of an advertisement is __________.

Media Plan

Media Time

Main Schedule

Media Space

Question 3. Promotion mix includes Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Advertising and _________________ .

Marketing

Sales

Publicity

None of the these

Question 4. The process of purchasing space in a media is__________ .

Media Scheduling

Media Buying

Media Purchasing

Media Spacing

Question 5. The specific carrier within a medium is called __________.

Media Bus

Media Van

Public Transport

Media Vehicle

Question 6. Which among the following is an example of Trade promotion?

Samples

Coupons

Push Money

None of these

Question 7. Copy testng is also known as __________.

Copy writing

Pre Testing

Concurrent Testing

Preveiw

Question 8. Which among the following is not a mechanical test?

Consumer dairy test

Psychogalvanometer

Camera test

Techistoscope

Question 9. A brand is a _______.

Term

Name

Sign

Combination of all the given options

Question 10. It is popularly known as free form of promotion.

Publicity

Marketing

Personal Selling

Point of Purchase Ads are also known as____________

a. Built-in Advertising

b. In-Store Advertising

c. Green Advertising

d. Stock Advertising

Question 11. Which of the following is more of personal medium of advertisement?

Broadcast Media

Internet Advertisement

Direct Mail Advertising

Print Media

Question 12. A series of actions that media planners take to attain the media objectives:

Media Strategy

Media Policy

Media Option

Media Function

Question 13. Creating image of product in the minds of target group is called____________

Select one:

Marketing

Positioning

Branding

Popularising

Question 14. Adding new features to a product is advocated by which of the approaches?

Product Approach

Production Approach

Marketing Approach

Selling Approach

Question 15. If a company gives false message to the customers, it is known as_________

Subliminal ads

Obscene ads

Deception

None of the given options

Question 16. Series of advertisement messages that share a single idea or theme is________________ .

Advertisement Campaign

Advertisement Group

Advertisement Cluster

Advertisement Series

Question 17. An organization with a______ orientation assumes that customers will resist purchasing Products not deemed essential. The job of marketers is to overcome this resistance through personal selling and advertising

Select one:

Production

Marketing

Relationship

Sales

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5th Module Assessment

Cannibalism is related with ___________.

Product development

Promotional activities

Product life cycle

Product extension

Question 2.Product-marketing strategies involves _______.

Product mix

Maketing Mix

Promition Mix

Promotion mix and Marketing mix

Question 3. The first step in process of developing new-product must be:

Idea Generation

Idea Screening

Concept Development and testing

Business Analysis

Question 4. The new-product development process consists of detailed steps and number of steps are :

Five Steps

Six Steps

Seven Steps

Eight Steps

Question 5. _____ is the systematic search for new-product ideas.

Idea screening

Concept development and testing

Idea generation

Marketing strategy development

Question 6. Which skill of CMO provides extensive market operation and information?

Creativity

Popularity

Analytical ability

Intuitive sense

Question 7. Major sources of new product ideas include _____.

internal sources, using company R&D

creative approaches, using both “method and madness” approaches

watching and listening to customers

all of the above are sources of new product ideas

Question 8. Goals or objectives convert the organization____________ into tangible action.

Vision

Aim

Commitment

Mission

Question 9. Which factor should not consider for adopting market penetration?

Market growth

Increase market share

competitive reaction

Promotional activities

Question 10. Business does not include:

Particular needs of customers to be served

Group of customers wishing to be served

Selling products and services only

Ways of satisfying customer needs

The usual source for new products is_____. Select one:

a. Marketing Research

b. R&D

c. Accidental Discoveries

d. A variety of source including customers, competitors, serendipity and formal processes

Question 11. The following are all major stages of a product life cycle except_____.

Sales decline

Market Introduction

Market Maturity

Market Growth

Question 12. Distinctive competency describes an organization’s __________.

Strengths

Weakness

Opportunities

Threats

Question 13. Which one is not part of strategic marketing perspective?

The types of customer it wishes to serve

Product producing or service delivery enterprise.

The particular needs that it wishes to satisfy

Technology by which organization will satisfy customer needs

Question 14. All of the following are accurate descriptions of ways companies are anxious to learn how to improve the odds of new-product success, except which one?

Find out what successful new products have in common.

Companies have to learn to understand their own consumers.

To learn lessons from new product failures.

Do not overly rely on product innovation when you can succeed by copying others.

All of the following are accurate descriptions of reasons why new products fail, except which one?

a. The actual product was not designed as well as it should have been.

b. The new product was priced too high.

c. The new product was advertised poorly.

d. Although the market size was correctly estimated, the product idea itself was not good.

Question 15. All of the following are different ways a firm can obtain new products, except which one?

Select one:

By acquiring a whole new company

A firm can obtain a new product through patents

A firm can obtain a new product by licensing someone else’s new product

A firm can obtain a new product by using the R&D department of other firms in the same industry.

Question 16. _____ is the development of original products, product improvements, product modifications, and new brands through the firm’s own R&D efforts.

Idea generation

Concept testing

Test marketing

New product development

Question 17. Which stage of the product lifecycle is marked by falling costs and rising revenues?

Select one:

Introduction Stage

Growth Stage

c002E

Maturity Stage

Saturation Stage

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

N.R.NARAYANA MURTHY: AN EXEMPLARY RISK-TAKER Nagavara Ramarao Narayana Murthy, popularly known as N.R.Narayana Murthy Chairman of Infosys Technologies Ltd. Comes from middle class background. He is son of a teacher, a member of a large family of eight children (Three brothers and five sisters). Like an ordinary middle –class boy ,he studied well and qualified for the prestigious IIY. He could not afford it and therefore, went to NIE, Mysore- a local college for a degree in electrical engineering. Murthy completed his post graduation in electrical engineering at IIT Kanpur in 1969 and took up a job. The only thing is, he did seemingly the very same things, but obviously differently. He always took risks. Following are the exemplary instances of his risk- taking decisions. First, Murthy pursued a career in computer science when there were not too many jobs in this field. The Indian industry / business were very much into mortar – bricks business and had just about started appreciating the role of computers. Second, next risk he undertook was to turn down attractive offers from large companies such as Telco, HMT, ECIL, and Air India; instead, he joined as a system programmer at IIM Ahmedabad. IIMA was at that time in the process of installing a Hawlett –Packard minicomputer and was foregoing ahead to become the second business school after Stanford to have a time sharing operating system. The thrill of such a pioneering job, thus, gave him a great lea/rning opportunity and was the main reason that Murthy joined the team at IIAM under J.G.Krishnaya, Professor of information systems. Murthy received a salary of Rs.800/- a month .he says,”It was the best decision of my life. There were many 20-hour work days but I loved being a pioneer of working at the cutting edge of computer technology those days.”

Third , a chance came from Sesa, a french software company, to build an operating system to handle air cargo at the Charless de Gaulle airport in Paris. What is worth nothing here is that at around the same time, murthy also had received Scholarships to purse a Ph.D. In the USA and Israel. But, Murthy did not take these soft options. He instead, went to Paries, Which also meant mastering another language French. After the successful execution of this project, murthy came back to Pune in 1974 to join his mentor professor J.G krishnanyya who was setting up the systems research institute (SRI, a non-profit organization). Having worked for some time

in SRI, Murthy became somewhat frustrated with the work at SRI (getting the usual bureaucratic treatment of seldom implementing the sincere suggestions).

Then, he took up a job in Patni Computer Systems (PCS), a Mumbai-based Company.

At PCS, he was head of the software group and it was here that he met some of the would-be founder –parents of Infosys. He did his usual, unusual, quit the job and started his Software service firm along with his partners. This was the firm which was to become the giant that Infosys today. Out of his six founderspartners, there were rookies-PCS was the first job of Nandan Nilekani,S.Gopi Krishnan and Ashok Arora.Only k.Dinesh (NGEF,Bangalore),N.S.Ragavan (union Carbide),and S.D shibhulal (BEST,Mumbai) had some prior experience elsewhere. Not that these Murthy + sis had any money. They all were middle class back grounds and pooled in Rs. 10,000 capital borrowed from their betterhalfs.In. In this way, Infosys Consultants was born in July 1981 in one bedroom of two-bedroom apartment in Pune. Fourth, the risk-full incidents surrounding the life of this unusual ‘middle class’ businessman do not end here. The first ten years after 1981 were quite tough for Murthy and His team. Murthy recounts,” It took us one year to get a telephone; it took two years to get a licence to import a computer;……. Stupidity was the order of the day then.” His wife Sudha had to go and live with her parents for a year. Murthy stuck it out through thick and thin. In 1990, his parents thought of selling the company. But murthy differed and even offered to buy his parents

out. Murthy always took risks and it always seems to have paid off.

After reading the case, select the entrepreneurial competency highlighted in the case.

Innovative

Risk-bearing

Philanthrophist

All the given options

Question 2. N R Narayan Murthy completed his higher studies from which institute?

IIT Kanpur

IIT Delhi

NIT Kanpur

None of the given options

Question 3. What is the meaning of brick and mortor business?

Web based businesses which are run on e-portals

Taditional street-side business that offers products and services to its customers face-to-face in an office or store that the business owns or rents

Business organization conducts busienss over a computer-mediated network

None of the given options

Question 4. N R Narayan Murthy took up the opportunity that came from French software firm Sesa, and turned down th eoffer to pursue PhD from ISA and Israel because :

He did not want to take up the soft option of pursuing PhD on scholarship from USA and Israel.

He wanted to utilise the opportunity of visiting France and also master another language, i.e. French.

He was a risk bearing persobality who always wanted to go the hard way.

All the given options

Question 5. Which one/all are the job options availed by N R Narayan Murthy?

Worked at SRI, a non-profit organization, at Pune in 1974

He took up a job at Autodesk India in the year 1975.

Worked at Birlasoft as a software engineer after completing his electrical engineering

All the given options

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