Kim Sharma

Routing and Switching

June 8, 2022June 8, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Routing and Switching

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2nd Module Assessment

You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts and limit the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve this goal?

a. Managed hubs

b. Bridges

c. Switches

d. Switches configured with VLANs

VLANs enhance the network

a.Security

b.Speed

c.Bandwidth

d.Reliability

Question 2. Which command does the network administrator use to determine whether interVLAN communication is functioning?

a.show vlan

b.ping

c.ipconfig

d.show interfaces

Question 3. Match the command with the correct descriptions.

switchport mode trunk

a.Configures the port to negotiate a trunk

b.Configures the trunk to not send DTP packets

c.Configures the port as a permanent 802.1Q trunk

d.Disables trunk mode

Question 4. Which function enables an administrator to route multiple VLANs on a router?

a.IEEE 802.1X

b.HSRP

c.port channeld.

d.router on a stick

Question 5. What is the difference between an access port and a trunk port?

a.A trunk port belongs to a single VLAN; an access port provides access for multiple

VLANs between switches.

b.An access port can have a native VLAN, but a trunk port cannot.

c.An access port can have only one device attached.

d.Multiple VLANs traverse a trunk port, but an access port can belong to a single VLAN

Question 6. Which option to consider when configuring a trunk link between two switches?

a.The switchport nonegotiate command must be configured for trunks that use DTP.

b.Port security cannot be configured on the trunk interfaces.

c.Different encapsulation types can be configured on both ends of the trunk link

d.Trunk ports can be configured only on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.

Question 7. Switch S1 and Switch S2 are both configured with ports in the Faculty, Students, Management and Admin VLANs. Each VLAN contains 15 users. How many subnets are needed to address the VLANs?

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.6

Question 8. Which command make a port a trunk on VLAN.

a.Switch(config)# switchport mode trunk

b.Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

c.Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk on

d.Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk compatible-on

Question 9. When implementing router-on-a-stick, what is necessary for establishing communication between VLANs?

a.Multiple switch ports to connect to a single router interface

b.Native VLAN IP address that is configured on the router physical interface

c.All trunk ports configured in access mode

d.Router subinterfaces

Question 10. What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?

a.The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled.

b.All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers.

c.All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN.

d.Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.

Question 11. _________ are software-based virtual interfaces that are assigned to physical interfaces.

a.Subinterfacets

b.Legacy VLANs

c.Subinterfaces

d.Inter-VLANs

What command would be used to determine if all SVIs were “up and up” on a multilayer switch?

a.show vlans

b.show ip interface brief

c.show running-config

d.show interface switchport

Question 12. Legacy inter-VLAN routing requires routers to have.

a.Multiple Switches

b.Routed Ports

c.Switched Virtual Ports

d.Multiple Physical Interfaces

Question 13. What mechanism is used to achieve the separation between different VLANs as they cross a trunk link?

a.VLAN tagging using 802.1Q protocol

b.VLAN tagging using 802.1p protocol

c.VLAN multiplexing

d.VLAN set as a native VLAN

Question 14. Which option is invalid as inter-VLAN routing methods?

a.Traditional routing

b.Router-on-a-stick

c.Spanning-tree routing

d.Multilayer switch-based routing

Question 15. A network technician is configuring a router to support inter-VLAN routing. After entering interface G0/0 configuration mode, the network administrator attempts to enter the command encapsulation dot1q 10. The router refuses to accept this command. What could account for this failure?

a.Router port G0/0 is not physically connected to the switch

b.VLAN0001 has been renamed.

c.R1 interface G0/0 was configured for subinterface operation.282 Routing and Switching Essentials Companion Guide

d.This command can be configured only on router subinterfaces.

Question 16. How does the router-on-a-stick model for inter-VLAN routing differ from traditional routing?

The router-on-a-stick model uses multiple physical interfaces on the router, each configured with a different Layer 3 address.
The router-on-a-stick model uses a single physical interface on the router with only the no shutdown command issued.
The router-on-a-stick model uses subinterfaces on the router with only the no shutdown command issued on the physical interface.
The router-on-a-stick model uses subinterfaces on the switch with only the no shutdown command issued on the physical interface.

Question 17. A 24-port switch has been configured to support three VLANs named Sales, Marketing, and Finance. Each VLAN spans four ports on the switch. The network administrator has deleted the Marketing VLAN from the switch. Which statement describe the status of the ports associated with this VLAN?

a. The ports are inactive.

b. The ports are administratively disabled.

c. The ports will become trunks to carry data from all remaining VLANs.

d. The ports were released from the Marketing VLAN and automatically reassigned to

VLAN 1

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3rd Module Assessment

Which routing protocols does not support VLSM?

Select one:

RIPv2

IGRP

EIGRP

OSPF

Question 2. Which statement correctly describe the components of a router?

a.RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.

b.ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.

c.NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.

d.Flash contains boot system commands to identify the location of the IOS

Question 3. Which of the following is not a parameter used to calculate metric?

a.Hop count

b.Bandwidth

c.Delay

d.Administrative distance

Question 4. The output of the show ip route command contains the following entry:

S 10.2.0.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2.

What value is indicated by the 1 in the [1/0] portion of the output?

a.Metric

b.Number of hops

c.Administrative distance

d.Interface ID through which the network can be reached

Question 5. Which of the following commands would you use to display an administrative message when a person connects to a router?

a.banner message

b.banner motd

c.banner

d.banner display

Question 6. During the process of encapsulation, how does the PC determine if the packet is destined for a host on a remote network?

a.By performing the AND operation on the destination IP address and its own subnet mask

b.By checking the ARP cache for the destination host MAC address

c.By querying the DNS server for the information of the destination host

d.By sending a broadcast to the local LAN segment to see if there is any response

Question 7. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

a.View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

b.Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

c.Recall previously entered commands

d.Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

Question 8. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

a.It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.

b.It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.

c.It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.

d.It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

Question 9. What code is used in the routing table to identify routes learned through RIP?

a.C

b.D

c.R

d.K

Question 10. When a router learns that multiple paths are available to a destination network from the same routing protocol, which factor is considered by a router to choose the best path to forward a packet?

a. The lowest metric

b.The order of paths on the routing table

c.The fastest bandwidth of exiting interfaces

d.The reliability value of the neighboring routers

A network engineer is configuring a new router. The interfaces have been configured with IP addresses and activated, but no routing protocols or static routes have been configured yet. What routes are present in the routing table?

a. Default routes

b. Broadcast routes

c. Direct Connections

d. No routes

11. Your network is running EIGRP,OSPf,RIP and static routes. Which routing source will be the least preferred?

a.EIGRP

b.OSPF

c.RIP

d.Static

Question 12. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10011101?

a.159

b.157

c.185

d.187

Question 13. A network administrator has just entered new configurations in to Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?

a.Router1 # copy running-config flash

b.Router1# copy running-config startup-config

c.Router1 # copy startup-config running-config

d.Router1(config)# copy startup-config running-config

Question 14. Which statement is true regarding metrics used by routing protocols?

a.A metric is the quantitative value that a routing protocol uses to measure a given route

b.A metric is a cisco-proprietary means to convert distances to a standard unit

c.Metrics represent a composite value of the amount of packet loss occuring for all routing protocols

d.Metrics are used by the router to determine whether a packet has an error and should be reported

Question 15. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?

a.administrative distance of 0 and metric of 0

b.administrative distance of 0 and metric of 1

c.administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

d.administrative distance of 1 and metric of 1

Question 16. The network administrator configured the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial0/0/0 command on the router. How will this command appear in the routing table, assuming that the serial 0/0/0 interface is up?

a.D 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected,Serial 0/0/0

b.S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

c.S* 0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 192,168.2.2

d.C 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.2.2

Question 17. Which statement describe characteristics of load balancing?

a.Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.

b.Load balancing occurs when the same number of packets is sent over static and dynamic routes.

c.Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.

d.If multiple paths with different metrics to a destination exist, the router cannot support load balancing.

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4th Module Assessment

When using a classful class A IP address scheme , how many octects are used to designate the host portion of the address?

Question 2. What is a supernet ?

) the network for a default route

a summarization of classful addresses

a network that contains both private and public addresses

a set of discontigous networks that are controlled by an ISP

Question 3. What type of static route is created when the next-hop IP address and exit interface are specified?

Recursive static route

Fully specified static route

Directly connected static route

Floating static route

Question 4. You have a single network connected to your ISP. What type of routing would allow the internal clients to reach the internet?

RIP

Static route

Default route

OSPF

Question 5. Which statement describe static routes?

They are created in interface configuration mode.

They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.

They automatically become the default gateway of the router.

They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shut down

Question 6. Which statement is true concerning configuring static routes using next-hop addresses?

Routers cannot use more than one static route with a next-hop address.

When the router identifies that a packet is destined for a route associated with a nexthop address in the routing table, the router requires no further information and can immediately forward the packet.

Routers configured with the static route using a next-hop address must either have the exit interface listed in the route or have another route with the network of the next hop and an associated exit interface.

Routes associated with a next-hop address are more efficient than routes going to exit interfaces.

Question 7. You have been asked to create a subnet that supports 16 hosts. What subnet mask should you use?

a.255.255.255.252

b.255.255.255.248

c.255.255.255.240

d.255.255.255.224

Question 8. For the given classful network address, indicate the Class: “192.168.10.0”

a.Class A

b.Class B

c.Class C

d.Class D

Question 9. Which option shows a correctly configured IPv4 default static route?

a.ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

b.ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0

c.ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0/0/0

d.ip route 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 S0/0/0

Question 10. Which of the following is the best summary statement for the following range of networks: 192.168.24.0/24 – 192.168.31.0/24

a.192.168.24.0 255.255.240.0

b.192.168.24.0/28

c.192.168.24.0/21

d.192.168.0.0/27

What is the advantage of route summarization?

a.Ensures job security for network admins because of difficulty of configuration

b.Reduces routing update traffic overhead

c.Reduces the impact of discontiguous subnets

d.Identifies flapping interfaces

11. Which of the following is true statement about the following command: ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.24.1

a.The command creates a default route

b.Traffic for the 10.1.24.0 networks is forwarded to the 192.168.1.0 network

c.Traffic for the 192.168.1.0 networks is forwarded to the 10.1.24.0 network

d.The command is used when configuring distance vector routing protocols

Question 12. What characteristics of VLSM capable routing protocols enables the use of different subnet masks against a single address class within a system?

a.The capability to configure the protocol on a subnetted interface()

b.Compliance with RFC 1918 addressing()

c.The use of areas and autonomous systems

d.The inclusion of the subnet mask for each network advertised in routing updates

Question 13. Given the mask 255.255.254.0, how many usuable hosts per subnet does this create?

a.254

b.256

c.510

d.512

Question 14. Why would a summarized static route be configured on a router?

a.To reduce the number of public IP addresses required by an organization

b.To provide a better route than a particular routing protocol

c.To provide a default gateway for a router that connects to an ISP

d.To reduce the size of the routing table

Question 15. Which is a valid summary route for networks 192.168.8.0/22, 192.168.12.0/22, and 192.168.16.0/22?

a.192.168.0.0/18

b.192.168.0.0/19

c.192.168.0.0/20

d.192.168.8.0/21

Question 16. Which subnet mask would be used for a network that has a maximum of 300 devices?

a.255.255.254.0

b.255.255.255.0

c.255.255.252.0

d.255.255.248.0

Question 17. A network administrator enters the following command into Routerl: ip route 192.168.0. 0 255.255.255.0 S 0 / 1 / 0 . Routerl then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?

a.Drops the packet because the destination host is not listed in the routing table

b.Looks up the MAC address of the S 0 / 1 / 0 interface to determine the destination MAC address of the new frame

c.Performs a recursive lookup for the IP address of the S 0 / 1 / 0 interface before forwarding the packet

d.Encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the 384 Routing and Switching Essentials Companion Guide S 0 / 1 / 0 interface

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5th Module Assessment

What parameter defines what internal addresses are translated by NAT?

The access list

The address pool

The interface(s) that have the command ip nat inside applied

The interface(s) that have the command ip nat outside applied

Question 2. What is an advantage of OSPF compared to RIP?

Fast convergence

Less complexity

Less CPU processing

Low memory requirements

Question 3. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols?

Exterior routing protocols are used only by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by small ISPs.

Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used inside organizations.

Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing protocols are used to administer several domains.

Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

Question 4. Which statement is true concerning the advantage of a distance vector protocol?

Perodic updates speed convergence

Ease of implementation makes configuration simple

They work well in complex networks

Their convergence times are faster than link-state routing protocols

Question 5. A network technician issues the following commands when configuring a router: R1(config)# router ospf 11 R1(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 What does the number 11 represent?

The autonomous system number to which R1 belongs

The area number where R1 is located

The cost of the link to R1

The OSPF process ID on R1

Question 6. Router R1 is using the RIPv2 routing protocol and has discovered multiple unequal paths to reach a destination network. How will Router R1 determine which path is the best path to destination network?

Lowest Metric

Highest Metric

Lowest Administrative distance

Highest Administrative distance

Question 7. What will an OSPF router prefer to use first as a router ID?

Any IP address that is configured using the router-id command

A loopback interface that is configured with the highest IP address on the router

The highest active interface IP that is configured on the router

The highest active interface that participates in the routing process because of a specifically configured network statement

Question 8. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What is the additional uses of ACLs?

Specifying source addresses for authentication

Specifying internal hosts for NAT

Identifying traffic for QoS

Reorganizing traffic into VLANs

Question 9. What characteristics of link-state protocols compared to distance vector protocols?

They know of the network topology from the perspective of their neighbors.

They compute their own knowledge of the network topology.

They use hop counts to compute the network topology.

They flood the routing table periodically.

Question 10. Which algorithm is used by the OSPF routing process to construct the SPF tree on a router?

DUAL algorithm

Bellman-Ford algorithm

Dijkstra’s algorithm

Path vector protocol

What is the disadvantage of NAT?

a. End-to-end traceability is lost.

b. Uses too many legally registered addresses.

c. Decreases the number of connections that can be used to the public network.

d. Increased network costs

What reason would a network administrator have for using loopback interfaces when configuring OSPF?

Loopbacks are logical interfaces and do not go down.

Only loopback addresses can be used for an OSPF router id

Loopback interfaces are used to set the OSPF metric

OSPF error checking is enabled by loopback addresses

Question 12. The OSPF Hello timer has been set to 15 seconds on a router in a point-to-point network. By default, what is the dead interval on this router?

15 seconds

30 seconds

45 seconds

60 seconds

Question 13. What is the purpose of network command when RIP is being configured as the routing protocol?

It identifies the networks connected to the neighboring router

It restricts networks from being used for static routes

It identifies all the destination networks that the router is allowed to install in its routing table

It identifies the directly connected networks that will be included in the RIP routing updates.

Question 14. On a router running OSPF , what is the purpose of entering the bandwidth 56 command on a serial interface?

Changes the cost value

Functions only as a description

Changes the throughput of the interface to 56 Kbps

is necessary for the DUAL algorithm

Question 15. Given the following configuration , what is the OSPF router id of Router A?

RouterA (config)#interface serial 0/0/0

RouterA(config-if)# ip add 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.252

RouterA(config)#interface loopback 0

RouterA(config-if)#ip add 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.255

RouterA(config)#router ospf 1

RouterA(config-if)#network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

10.1.1.1

192.168.2.1

192.168.2.0

0.0.0.3

Question 16. After two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and formed an adjacency,what is the next thing to occur?

They will take turns broadcasting their entire routing table to each other

They will start sending link state packets to each other

They negotiate to determine which will be the root router of the OSPF domain

They will adjust their hello timers so that they don’t collide with each other

Question 17. Which statements is true about the DHCP server functions?

When a client requests an IP address, the DHCP server searches the binding table for an entry that matches the client’s MAC address. If an entry exists, the corresponding IP address for the entry is returned to the client.

Clients can be assigned an IP address from a predefined DHCP pool for a finite lease period.

DHCP services must be installed on a dedicated network server to define the pool of IP addresses available to the client.

The DHCP server can answer requests and assign IP addresses for a particular subnet only

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Assignment 2

Case Study:

“Answer the following questions on the basis of given output:

Router# debug ip rip

RIP: received update from 172.16.0.1 on FastEthernet0/0

172.17.0.0 in 1 hops

172.18.0.0 in 2 hops

172.19.0.0 in 16 hops ( inaccessible)

0.0.0.0 in 4 hops

RIP: sending update to 255.255.255.255 via FastEthernet 0/0 (172.16.0.2) 172.20.0.0, metric 1

RIP : sending update to 255.255.255.255 via Serial 0/0/0 (172.20.0.1) 172.17.0.0 in 2 hops

<output omitted>”

Question: What will happen to a packet destined for the 172.19.0.0 network?

It will be forwarded out the FastEthernet 0/0 interface

It will be forwarded out the Serial 0/0 interface

It will be dropped

It will be sent to the default route

Question 2. Which networks are directly attached to this router?

172.16.0.0

172.17.0.0

172.18.0.0

172.19.0.0

Question 3. Which command displays RIP routing updates?

show ip route

show protocols

debug ip rip

debug ip route

Question 4. Which routing protocols support VLSM?

RIPv1

RIPv2

IGRP

HSRP

Question 5. What is the Administrative distance value of RIP protocol?

100

120

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Introduction to Data Analytics

June 8, 2022June 8, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Introduction to Data Analytics

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1st Module Assessment

Data Analysis is a process of?

inspecting data

cleaning data

transforming data

All of the above

Question 2. Which of the following are Benefits of Big Data Processing?

Businesses can utilize outside intelligence while taking decisions

Improved customer service

Better operational efficiency

All of the above

Question 3. Which of the following is correct order of working?

questions->evaluation ->algorithms

evaluation->input data ->algorithms

questions->input data ->algorithms

all of the mentioned

Question 4.Data in ___________ bytes size is called Big Data

Tera

Giga

Peta

Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

March 7, 2022March 7, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Accounting Fundamentals (ACCT102)-Semester I

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1st Module Assessment

Which of the following is/are objective(s) of Accounting?

Select one:

Ascertainment of Results of above Transactions

All of the above

Providing Information to the Users for Rational Decision-making

Systematic Recording of Transactions

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Which of the following is/are function(s) of Accounting?

Select one:

All of the above

Forecasting

Measurement

Decision-making

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Which of the following statements gives the best definition of the objective of accounting?

Select one:

To record, categorise and summarise financial transactions.

To provide useful information to users

To calculate the amount of dividend to pay to shareholders.

To calculate the taxation due to the government.

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Business is an economic activity undertaken ___________________.

Select one:

None of the above

to maximize the wealth for the owners.

with the motive of earning profits and to maximize the wealth for the owners.

with the motive of earning profits

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Accounting is considered as a/an ___________ of the business.

Select one:

Art

Face

Language

None of the above

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The art of recording transactions in a set of books is referred to as __________.

Select one:

Auditing

Book Keeping

Writing

Accounting

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Question text

Which of the following is a basic assumption?

Select one:

None of the above

Matching concept

Conservatism concept

Historical cost concept

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“The process of identifying, measuring and communicating economic information to permit informed judgments and decisions by the users of accounting”. This definition was given by ____________________.

Select one:

None of the above

British Accounting Association

American Accounting Association

Indian Accounting Association

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Who issues International Financial Reporting Standards?

Select one:

The International Accounting Standards Board

The government

The stock exchange

The IFRS Advisory Committee

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What is the role of the IASB?

Select one:

Review defective accounts

Formulate international financial reporting standards

Control the accountancy profession

Oversee the standard setting and regulatory process

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The IASB Conceptual framework identifies user groups. Which of the following is not an information need for the ‘Investor’ group?

Select one:

Measuring performance, risk and return

Taking buy/sell decisions

Assessment of repayment ability of an entity

Taking decisions regarding holding investments

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Which of the following statements is/are true? 1 The IFRS Interpretations Committee is a forum for the IASB to consult with the outside world. 2 The IFRS Foundation produces IFRSs. The IFRS Foundation is overseen by the IASB. 3 One of the objectives of the IFRS Foundation is to bring about convergence of national accounting standards and IFRSs.

Select one:

3 only

1 and 3 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

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Which of the following is not an accounting convention?

Select one:

Accruals

Prudence

Depreciation

Consistency

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According to the IASB Conceptual framework which of the following is not an objective of financial statements?

Select one:

Enabling users to assess the performance of management to aid decision making()

Helping to assess the going concern status of a business

Providing information regarding the financial position of a business

Providing information regarding the performance of a business

The insistence of the concept of ________ would result in avoidance of window dressing the results by choosing the accounting method by convenience and thereby either inflating or understating net income.

Consistency

Matching

Dual aspect

Revenue Realisation

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In times of rising prices, the historical cost convention:

Select one:

overstates asset values and understates profi ts.

understates asset values and profits.

overstates asset values and profi ts.

understates asset values and overstates profi ts.

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Which of the following correctly defines ‘equity’ according to the IASB’s Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting?

Select one:

Equity is the residual interest in the assets of the entity after deducting all its liabilities.

Equity is a present obligation of the entity arising from past events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the entity of resources embodying economic benefit.

Equity is increases in economic benefits during the accounting period in the form of inflows or enhancements of assets or decreases of liabilities.

Equity is a resource controlled by an entity as a result of past events and from which future economic benefits are expected to flow to the entity.

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If, at the end of the financial year, a company makes a charge against the profits for stationery consumed but not yet invoiced, this adjustment is in accordance with the convention of:

Select one:

accruals.

materiality

objectivity

consistency

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2nd Module Assessment

Accounts related to assets or properties or possessions.

Select one:

Artificial Personal Account

Nominal Account

Personal Account

Real Account

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Accounts that normally have debit balances are:

Select one:

assets, liabilities, and dividends

assets, dividends, and expenses

assets, expenses, and share capital—ordinary

assets, expenses, and revenues

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Which of the following is a type of Voucher?

Select one:

Payment Voucher

Non-Cash or Transfer Voucher

All of the above

Receipt Voucher

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Posting:

Select one:

normally occurs before journalizing.

transfers ledger transaction data to the journal

transfers journal entries to ledger accounts

is an optional step in the recording process

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The purchase of supplies on account should result in:

Select one:

a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Supplies

a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts Receivable.

a debit to Supplies and a credit to Accounts Payable

a debit to Supplies Expense and a credit to Cash.

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Debits:

Select one:

decrease assets and increase liabilities

increase both assets and liabilities

increase assets and decrease liabilities

decrease both assets and liabilities

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A ledger:

Select one:

should show accounts in alphabetical order

is a book of original entry.

contains only asset and liability accounts.

is a collection of the entire group of accounts maintained by a company

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Imprest system is used in-

Select one:

Ledger

Petty cash book

Journal

Cash book

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The following account has a credit balance

Select one:

Purchase A/c

None of the above

Sundry Creditors A/c

Plant and Equipment A/c

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A revenue account:

Select one:

is decreased by credits

is increased by credits

has a normal balance of a debit

is increased by debits

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Which of the following statements about a journal is false?

Select one:

It discloses in one place the complete effect of a transaction.

It is not a book of original entry.

It helps to locate errors because the debit and credit amounts for each entry can be readily compared.

It provides a chronological record of transactions

Which of the following would be recorded in the sales day book? Select one: a. Trade discounts b. Credit notes received c. Sales invoices d. Discounts allowed

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In which book of prime entry will a business record debit notes in respect of goods which have been sent back to suppliers?

Select one:

The purchase day book

The sales returns day book

The purchase returns day book

The cash book

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Ram purchased a car INR. 10,000 paid INR. 3000 as cash and balance amount will be paid in three equal installments due to this __________________.

Select one:

Assets will increase by 7000 with corresponding increase in liability by 7000

Total assets increase by 10,000

Both (b) and (c)

Total liabilities increase by 3000

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From the following details estimate the capital as on 31.03.2017, Capital as on 01.04.2016 INR. 4,10,000. Drawings INR. 40,000, Profit during the year INR. 50,000

Select one:

4,50,000

4,20,000

4,10,000

4,00,000

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Before posting a payment of €5,000, the Accounts Payable of Senator Company had a normal balance of €16,000. The balance after posting this transaction was:

Select one:

€ 21,000

€ 11,000

€ 5,000

Cannot be determined

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At 30 November 20X5 Jenny had a bank loan of $8,500 and a balance of $678 in hand in her bank account. How should these amounts be recorded on Jenny’s opening trial balance at 1 December 20X5?

Select one:

Credit $7,822

Debit $8,500 and Credit $678

Credit $8,500 and Debit $678

Debit $7,822

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The trial balance of Clooney Corporation had accounts with the following normal balances: Cash $5,000, Service Revenue $85,000, Salaries and Wages Payable $4,000, Salaries and Wages Expense $40,000, Rent Expense $10,000, Share Capital— Ordinary $42,000, Dividends $15,000, and Equipment $61,000. In preparing a trial balance, the total in the debit column is: ………..

Select one:

$131,000

$216,000

$116,000

$91,000

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3rd Module Assessment

Gross profit is the difference between

Select one:

a.

Sales and operating expenses

b.

Sales and cost of goods sold

c.

None of the above

d.

Sales and non-operating expenses

The financial statements of an organisation are drafted using the ___________.

(a) Transactions

(b) Events

(c) Ledger balances

(d) None of the above.

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Among the financial statements, ___________ is/ are referred to as ‘period statement’.

Select one:

a.

Both (a) and (b)

b.

Trading Account.

c.

Balance Sheet

d.

Profit & Loss Account

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The financial statement that reflects information about the financial performance of an entity is referred to as the ___________.

Select one:

a.

Balance Sheet

b.

None of the above

c.

Cash Flow Statement

d.

Income Statement

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Current Liabilities means

Select one:

a.

Liabilities which are readable within 3 months

b.

Liabilities which are payable immediately

c.

Liabilities which are payable within 12 months

d.

Liabilities which payable after one accounting year

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A trial balance will have no balance, if ____

Select one:

a.

The purchase on credit basis is debited to purchases and credited to cash

b.

500 cash payment to creditors is debited to creditors for 50 and credited to cash as 500

c.

correct entry is posted twice

d.

None of the above

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Payment to a creditor

Select one:

a.

Only reduce an asset.

b.

Increase an asset, reduce a liability

c.

Only reduce a liability

d.

Reduce an asset, reduce a liability

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Which of the following is a position statement?

Select one:

a.

Profit and loss account

b.

Trial balance

c.

funds flow statement

d.

Balance sheet

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________ Account charges the COGS and other direct expenses and losses against the sales revenue to determine the gross operating result of the concern during a particular accounting period.

Select one:

a.

Receipts & Payments

b.

Income & Expenditure

c.

Profit & Loss

d.

Trading

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Assets are listed on the balance sheet in the order of their

Select one:

a.

balance.

b.

adjustments

c.

liquidity.

d.

purchase date.

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Balance sheet is prepared

Select one:

a.

At a particular date

b.

For the close of a period

c.

For showing performance of an organisation

d.

At the close of a day

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What does carriage inwards effect

Select one:

a.

Capital

b.

Drawing

c.

Purchases

d.

Sales

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Where is discount received disclosed?

Select one:

a.

Trial balance

b.

Trading account

c.

Profit and loss account

d.

Balance sheet

Which of the following is the correct formula for cost of sales?

Select one:

a.

Purchases – closing inventory + sales

b.

Opening inventory – purchases + closing inventory

c.

Opening inventory – closing inventory + purchases

d.

Opening inventory + closing inventory – purchases

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Carriage outwards is disclosed in

Select one:

a.

Balance sheet

b.

Trading account

c.

Trial balance

d.

Profit and loss account

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Where is carriage inwards disclosed?

Select one:

a.

Trial balance

b.

Trading account

c.

Profit and loss account

d.

Balance sheet

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Given that values of opening inventory, purchases and Cost of Goods Sold for a particular accounting period are INR. 1,00,000, INR. 9,30,000 and INR. 7,50,000, the closing inventory will be:

Select one:

a.

4,80,000

b.

8,20,000

c.

2,40,000

d.

2,80,000

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Prisha has not kept accurate accounting records during the financial year. She had opening inventory of $6,700 and purchased goods costing $84,000 during the year. At the year end she had $5,400 left in inventory. All sales are made at a mark up on cost of 20%. What is Prisha’s gross profit for the year?

Select one:

a.

$16,540

b.

$17,060

c.

$20,675

d.

$13,750

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If a company wants to earn a 25% profit on sales, what will be the profit mark up on the cost.

Select one:

a.

33.33%

b.

25%

c.

30%

d.

20%

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4th Module Assessment

Comparisons of data within a company are an example of the following comparative basis:

Select one:

Intracompany.

Industry averages.

Both intracompany and intercompany.

Intercompany.

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A measure useful in evaluating the effi ciency in managing inventories is:

Select one:

average days to sell inventory.

Both (a) and (b).

inventory turnover

return on shareholders’ equity.

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Which of the following is technique of financial statement analysis?

Select one:

All

Comparative statement

Trend analysis

Common‐size statement

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Free cash flow provides an indication of a company’s ability to:

Select one:

generate net income.

generate cash to pay dividends

generate cash to invest in new capital expenditures.

Both (b) and (c).

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In horizontal analysis, each item is expressed as a percentage of the:

Select one:

base year amount

equity amount

net income amount

total assets amount

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Which technique used for figures of two or more periods are placed side by side to facilitate easy and meaningful comparisons?

Select one:

Trend Analysis

Comparative statement

None

Common‐size statement

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Which of the following is the main objective of a financial statement?

Select one:

to know the earning capacity

to know the solvency

to know the debt capacity

All

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The term financial statement refers to…

Select one:

Cash flow and Fund Flow

Balance sheet

Income statement

All

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The process of comparing various financial factors of a company over a period of time is known as …

Select one:

Intra‐firm comparison

Inter‐firm comparison

Inter‐industry comparison

Ratio Analysis

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What is followed while preparing the financial statements?

Select one:

Accounting concepts

Accounting principles

Accounting conventions

All

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Which of the following items is reported on a statement of cash fl ows prepared by the direct method?

Select one:

Cash payments to suppliers

Increase in accounts receivable.

Depreciation expense.

Loss on disposal of building

Which of the following measures is an evaluation of a firm’s ability to pay current liabilities?

a. Return on assets.

b. Current ratio.

c. Both (a) and (b).

d. Acid-test ratio.

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The statement of cash flows classifies cash receipts and cash payments by these activities:

Select one:

investing, financing, and non-operating.

financing, operating, and non-operating.

operating and non-operating.

investing, financing, and operating.

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Which of the following is incorrect about the statement of cash flows?

Select one:

The statement shows the cash provided (used) for three categories of activity.

The operating section is the last section of the statement.

The indirect method may be used to report cash provided by operations.

The direct method may be used to report cash provided by operations.

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Which is an example of a cash flow from an operating activity?

Select one:

Payment of cash to reacquire shares.

None of the above.

Receipt of cash from the sale of ordinary shares

Payment of cash to lenders for interest

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Sammy Company reported net sales of £300,000, £330,000, and £360,000 in the years, 2012, 2013, and 2014, respectively. If 2012 is the base year, what is the trend percentage for 2014?

Select one:

130%

108%.

120%.

77%.

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Tiger Equipment Sales Co. had accounts receivable at the beginning and end of the year of $200,000 and $300,000, respectively. The net sales were $1,000,000. Determine the accounts receivable turnover and number of days’ sales in accounts receivable.

Select one:

3.3, 109

3.3, 91

4.0, 109

4.0, 91.25

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Horizon Company has the following current account information for a recent balance sheet: Cash $ 25,000;Temporary investments 25,000; Accounts receivable 125,000; Merchandise inventory 100,000; Accounts payable 75,000; Accrued expenses 25,000 What are the current and quick ratios?

Select one:

2.50, 1.50

1.75, 2.50

2.75, 1.75

2.75, 0.50

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5th Module Assessment

(24)

Which of the following statement is true in case of a Foreign Company?

Select one:

A Company incorporated in India and has place of business outside India

A Company incorporated outside India and has a place of business in India

None of the above

A Company incorporated in India and has a place of business in India.

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If expenses of liquidation of the vendor company are paid by the purchasing company then, in purchasing company’s book, the account debited is

Select one:

None of the above

Liquidation expense account.

Goodwill account

Vendor company account

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Debenture interest

Select one:

Accumulates in case of losses or inadequate profi ts

None of the above

Is payable before the payment of any dividend on shares

Is payable after the payment of preference dividend but before the payment of equity dividend ___.

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The Securities Premium amount may be utilized by a company for __________.

Select one:

Writing off any loss of revenue nature

Writing off any loss on sale of fi xed asset

None of the above

Writing off the expenses/discount on the issue of debentures

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The accumulated losses under scheme of internal reconstruction are written off against

Select one:

Capital Reduction account

None of the above

Shareholders’ account

Share Capital account

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When the object of reconstruction is usually to re-organise capital or to compound with creditors or to effect economies then such type of reconstruction is called

Select one:

Internal reconstruction without liquidation of the company

Internal reconstruction with liquidation

None of the above

External reconstruction

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The excess price received over the par value of shares, should be credited to __________.

Select one:

Securities premium account

Calls-in-advance account

Share capital account

None of the above

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In case of amalgamation, the entry for elimination of unrealized profit or loss on stock is made

Select one:

By the vendor company

None of the above

By the third party

By the purchasing company

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Amalgamation adjustment reserve is opened in the books of the amalgamating company to incorporate

Select one:

Assets of the amalgamating company

Non- Statutory reserves of the amalgamating company

Statutory reserves of the amalgamating company

None of the above

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Which of the following statement is not a feature of a Company?

Select one:

None of the above

Members have unlimited liability

Perpetual Existence

Separate legal entity

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Reconstruction is a process by which affairs of a company are reorganized by

Select one:

Both (a) and (b)

Revaluation of assets and Reassessment of liabilities.

Writing off the losses already suffered by reducing the paid up value of shares and/or varying the rights attached to different classes of shares.

None of the above

A process of reconstruction, which is carried out without liquidating the company and forming a new one is called

Select one:

None of the above

Internal reconstruction.

External reconstruction

Amalgamation

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When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited with ________ and the share forfeiture account is credited with __________.

Select one:

Paid-up capital of shares forfeited; Called up capital of shares forfeited

Called up capital of shares forfeited; Calls in arrear of shares forfeited

None of the above

Called up capital of shares forfeited; Amount received on shares forfeited

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Under the ‘pooling of interests’ method, the difference between the purchase consideration and share capital of the transferee company should be adjusted to

Select one:

Goodwill or capital reserve

Amalgamation adjustment account

None of the above

General reserve

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At the time of amalgamation, purchase consideration does not include

Select one:

None of the above

Preference shares issued by the transferee company to the preference shareholders of the transferor company

The sum which the transferee company will directly pay to the creditors of the transferor company

Payments made in the form of assets by the transferee company to the shareholders of the transferor company

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G Ltd. acquired assets worth INR. 7,50,000 from H Ltd. by issue of shares of INR. 100 at a premium of 25%. The number of shares to be issued by G Ltd. to settle the purchase consideration = ?

Select one:

8,550 shares

7,500 shares

6,000 shares

9,375 shares

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F Ltd. purchased Machinery from G Company for a book value of INR. 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10% debentures of INR. 100 each at a premium of 25%. The debenture account was credited with ______.

Select one:

5,00,000

4,00,000

3,20,000

4,20,000

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T Ltd. proposed to issue 6,000 equity shares of INR. 100 each at a premium of 40%. The minimum amount of application money to be collected per share as per the Companies Act, 2013

Select one:

INR. 10.00

INR. 6.00

INR. 7.00

INR. 5.00

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Assignment 2

Case Study

Use the following financial statement information as of the end of each year to answer following Questions.
	2014	2013
Inventory	$54,000	$48,000
Current assets	81,000	1,06,000
Total assets	3,82,000	3,26,000
Current liabilities	27,000	36,000
Total liabilities	1,02,000	88,000
Share capital—preference	40,000	40,000
Ordinary shareholders’ equity	2,40,000	1,98,000
Net sales	7,84,000	6,97,000
Cost of goods sold	3,06,000	2,77,000
Net income	1,34,000	90,000
Tax expense	22,000	18,000
Interest expense	12,000	12,000
Dividends paid to preference shareholders	4,000	4,000
Dividends paid to ordinary shareholders	15,000	10,000

Compute the times interest earned for 2014.

65.3 times

13.0 times

14.0 times.

11.2 times.

Question 2. Compute the days in inventory for 2014.

6 days.

64.4 days

24 days.

60.8 days.

Question 3. Compute the current ratio for 2014.

1.26:1.

3.0:1.

3.75:1.

.80:1.

Question 4. Compute the profi t margin for 2014.

18.10%

5.90%

37.9%.

17.1%.

Question 5. Compute the return on ordinary shareholders’ equity for 2014.

61.2%.

47.9%.

51.7%.

59.40%

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Cost and Management Accounting for Decision Making (ACCT611)-Semester III

March 4, 2022March 4, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Cost and Management Accounting for Decision Making (ACCT611)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Salaries of staff in the administration and accounts department is an example of ……………….. Labour.

Direct

Indirect

Both

None

Question 2. Marginal cost is the aggregate of variable costs, i.e. prime cost plus …………… overhead.

Fixed

Direct

variable

Indirect

Question 3. ……………….. cost is the cost of all items involved in the production of a product or service.

Distribution

Assembling

Production

Indirect

Question 4. The feature of these costs is that the total costs remain …………… while per unit fixed cost is always variable.

Direct

Indirect

Varioable

Fixed

Question 5. Primary packaging cost is included in production cost whereas secondary packaging cost is ……………… cost.

Alliedd

Direct

distribution

indirect

Question 6. ………….. are the costs which are incurred in the past, i.e. in the past year, past month or even in the last week or yesterday.

Predetermined

Anticipated

Historical

Prospective

Question 7. ……….. costs are partly fixed and partly variable.

Variable

Fixed

Semi-Variable

All

Question 8. ……………… helps in better control of the costs and also helps considerably in decision making.

Marginal Costing

Costing

Labout Cost

Classification

Materials consumed, direct labour, sales commission, utilities, freight, packing, etc. are examples of …………….. Cost.

Question 9. Office salaries, printing and stationery, office telephone, office rent, office insurance are example of ……………… Cost.

Fixed

Variable

Administrative

All

Question 10. ……………. cost is the change in the aggregate costs due to change in the volume of output by one unit.

Fixed

Variable

Indirect

Marginal

Question 11. The elements of cost can be classified into …….…… categories.

Four

Five

Three

Two

Cost unit is a form of measurement of volume of …………… or service. Select one:

a. Trade

b. Production

c. Wholesale

d. All of the options

Question 12. ……………….. cost is the cost of wages of those workers who are readily identified or linked with a cost centre or cost object.

Direct Labour

Indirect Labour

Direct Material

Indirect Material

Question 13. ………………….. Cost is the cost of material of any nature used for the purpose of production of a product or a service.

Labour

Manufacturing

Material

Expenses

Question 14. Cost Centre may be of two types – personal and impersonal cost centers.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

In US and UK

Question 15. Classification of cost is the process of ……………… the components of cost under a common designation on the basis of similarities of nature, attributes or relations.

Select one:

Split Off

Grouping

Both of the above

None of the above

Question 16. 1. Selling costs are indirect costs related to selling of products or services

2. Include all indirect cost in sales management for the organization.

Both Statements are correct

First is correct

Second is correct

Both are incorrect

Question 17. Cost is a measurement, in monetary terms, of the amount of resources used for the purpose of production of goods or rendering services.

TRUE

FALSE

Can’t Say

Sometimes

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2nd Module Assessment

Cost of previous department is a part of ………….

Transferred-in costs

Transferred-out costs

FIFO costs

LIFO costs

Question 2. Third step in process costing system is to ……………

compute cost for each equivalent unit

summarize total costs

compute output in units

summarize flow of output.

Question 3. Second step in processing costing system is to …………..

summarize flow of output

compute output in units

compute cost for each equivalent unit

summarize total costs

Question 4. If beginning work in process equivalent units are 2500 units, work done in current period equivalent units are 3800 units and ending work in process equivalent units are 5000, then complete equivalent units in current period are ………….. Units.

1200

1300

1500

1800

Question 5. Which of the following businesses is likely to adopt a process costing system?

Printing Process

Academics

Sugar Refining

Construction

Question 6. In process costing system, the materials can be added in …………… department only.

First

Last

Middle

Any

Question 7. The fundamental principle of costing is that the good units should bear the amount of ……………………. loss.

Abnormal

Normal

Direct

Indirect

Question 8. If total incurred cost in a production process are ₹30000 and number of output units are 5000 units, then units cost will be ………… INR.

Question 9. Which of the following is not relevant to a process costing system?

Heterogeneous products

Repetitive production

High production volume

Low production flexibility

Question 10. In process costing system, when partially completed units are expressed in terms of fully completed units they are known as …………….. Units.

Completed

Equivalent

Unfinished

Transferred

Materials, labor and overhead costs are traced to processing departments rather than individual products or jobs. This statement is true for ………….. Costing system.

process

Question 11. Imputed Costs are hypothetical or notional costs, not involving cash outlay, computed only for the purpose of ……………..

Tax Filing

Accounting

Reporting

Decision making

Question 12. ………….. Costs are historical costs which are incurred i.e. ‘sunk’ in the past and are not relevant to the particular decision making problem being considered

Reporting

Sunk

Variable

Fixed

Question 13. …………… loss is a loss, which is inevitable in any process. Thus if the input is 100, the output may be 95 if the normal loss is anticipated as 5%.

Abnormal

Normal

Opportunity

Accounting

Question 14. ……………….. cost is generally used for determining the optimum time of replacement of an equipment or machine in consideration of maintenance cost of the existing one and its productive capacity.

Amendment

Changing

Replacement

Abnormal

Abnormal Cost is an unusual or a typical cost whose occurrence is usually irregular and …………….. and due to some abnormal situation of the production.

Regular b. Unexpected c. Expected d. Sure

Question 15. The process costing system is best suited for:

industries where different types of products are manufactured

industries where homogeneous products are manufactured on continuous basis

service industries only

All of the above

Question 16. Fifth step in process costing system is to ………………..

assign total cost to completed units

compute gross margin

allocate joint costs

allocate separable costs

Question 17. If the actual production units are more than the anticipated units after deducting the normal loss, the difference between the two is known as …………… gain.

Abnormal

Normal

Opportunity

Accounting

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3rd Module Assessment

All such expenses which are incurred for creating and enhancing the demands for the products are …………. Expenses.

Administrative

Production

Selling

Distribution

Question 2. Which of the following calculate the actual cost of product?

Cost estimation

Costing

Both (A) and (B)

None of the above

Question 3. The following is(are) the overhead cost(s):

TRUE

FALSE

In US Costing

In UK Costing

Question 4. Investment projects that are competing for scarce resources, where choosing one eliminates another, is called ___________.

Explicit

Mutually Inclusive

Mutually Exclusive

Implicit

Question 5. The cost which varies with the level of production is called …………….. Cost.

Moving

unstable

Variable

Fixed

Question 6. Prime cost = cost of direct labour + cost of direct material + direct expenses

TRUE

FALSE

Can’t Say

In US Costing

Question 7. The amount of work achievable, at standard efficiency levels, in one hour.

Standard Hour

Non-Standard Hour

Fixed Hour

Incremental Hour

Question 8. The cost data provide invaluable information for taking the following managerial decision(s):

To make or buy

To own or hire fixed asset

Determining the expansion or contraction policy

All of the above

Question 9. Cost accounting is a specialized branch of accounting which deals with _____________.

classification

Recording

Allocation and Directing

All Three

Question 10. Any materials that have no value is ………………….. .

Waste

Junk

Both

None

Those future costs which will be affected by a decision to be taken are ………….. Costs.

Relevant costs

Question 11. If contribution margin ratio is 0.3 then contribution margin percentage will be………….. %.

Select one:

0.03

Question 12. Contribution margin = ?

Sales – Fixed expenses

Sales – Selling expenses

Sales – Admin. Expenses

Sales – Variable expenses

Question 13. A contribution margin income statement is usually used by:

tax agencies and banks

customers and suppliers

creditors and investors

internal management

Question 14. The amount by which an item contributes towards covering fixed cost and providing for profit is known as:

Gross Profi

Gross Margin

Contribution Margin

Net Margin

Which of the following is a correct formula to calculate contribution margin ratio (CM ratio)?

a. Contribution margin/Sales

b. Contribution margin/Variable cost

c. Contribution margin/Fixed cost

d. Sales/Contribution margin

Question 15. At breakeven, profit = contribution + fixed costs. This equation is:

Correct

Incorrect

Sometimes Correct

Sometimes Incorrect

Question 16. An amount by which an item or head contributes towards covering fixed cost & providing for profit is commonly called as:

Net profit

gross margin

contribution margin

Gross margin

Question 17. Cost-volume-profit (CVP) analysis is a way to find out how …………… in variable and fixed costs affect a firm’s profit.

Addition

Substractions

Changes

fluctutations

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4th Module Assessment (23)

Cost or quantitative expression of objectives and a means of monitoring progress towards achievement of those objectives for a specific period is __________.

Abnormal

Absolute

Absorption

Budgeted

Question 2. Factory cost + administrative expenses is equal to …………….. Cost.

Selling

Trading

Manufacturing

Assembling

Question 3. The cost of testing and inspecting both the materials and finished products is ………………. Cost.

Marginal

Appraisal

Appreciation

Unit

Question 4. …………… activity is performed each time a product is produced.

Marginal

Unit

Fixed

Variable

Question 5. Those future costs which will be affected by a decision to be taken are ………….. Costs.

Relevant

Irrelevant

Incremental

Judgemental

Question 6. Cost or quantitative expression of objectives and a means of monitoring progress towards achievement of those objectives for a specific period:

Abnormal

Absolute

Absorption

Budgeted

Question 7. The amount of work achievable at standard efficiency levels in one hour is called _____________.

Standard Hour

Non-Standard Hour

Fixed Hour

Incremental Hour

Question 8. ………….. Cost is associated with an activity that would not be incurred if the activity were not performed.

Rejected

Accepted

Avoidable

Suspended

Question 9. ………………… records Provide the first evidence that a transaction or event has taken place.

Ledger

Journal

Primary

First

Question 10. It is the indirect cost pertaining to the administrativefunction which involves formulation of policies, directing the organisation andcontrolling the operations of an undertaking is …………. Cost.

Abnormal

Absolute

Absorption

Administratrive

Equality of cost is an important feature of …………… method.

Output

Unit

Specialised

Variable

Question 11. ………………….. costing is the method of costing adopted in concerns where there is a production of single product or a few grades of the same product differing only in size, shape or quality by continuous process of manufacture.

Output

Unit

Variable

Reliable

Question 12. Unit or output costing is that method of costing in which cost are ascertained per unit of a single product in a continuous manufacturing activity.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 13. …………… capacity refers to temporary idleness of available resources due to irregular interruptions.

Idle

Dubious

Real

Question 14. Unit method is also called the ……. costing.

Single

Double

Specialised

Management

Question 15. Cost of preparing drawings for the manufacture of a particular product is …………….

Net profit

gross margin

Indirect expense

Direct Expense

Question 16. The payment made to a ………………. is cost of direct labour.

Supervisor

Inspector

Machinist

Academician

Question 17. ………….. Cost is also known as overhead costs or on costs.

Direct

Indirect

Gross

Net

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5th Module Assessment

Investment projects that are competing for scarce resources, where choosing one eliminates another.

Select one:

Explicit

Mutually Inclusive

Mutually Exclusive

Implicit

Question 2. One which is not capable of being regulated by a manager within a defined boundary of responsibility, although it may be a cost incurred so that the responsibility may be exercised.

Controllable

Adjustable

Fixed

Non-controllable

Question 3. Income after making all permissible deductions is called ……………. income.

Net

Gross

Actual

Factual

Question 4. It can be increased or decreased at the discretion of the decision maker.

Appraisal

Appreciation

Unit

Discretionary

Question 5. Unstated and unrecorded cost is also called ………………. Cost.

Explicit

Implicit

Unit

Incremental

Question 6. The cost difference expected if one course of action is adopted instead of others is called ……. Cost.

Differential

Common

Unit

Motivated

Question 7. In the month of January, 300 labour hours were worked for a total cost of Rs 4800. The variable overhead expenditure variance was Rs 600 (A). Overheads are assumed to be related to direct labour hours of active working. What was the standard cost per labour hour?

Question 8. Cost of one more item, unit or customer is __________.

Appraisal

Appreciation

Unit

Incremental

Question 9. FIFO stands for First in ………… out.

First

Fast

Foremost

Feasible

Question 10. Combination of budgeted profit and loss account, cash flow statement and balance sheet, created from detailed budgets brought together within a finance plan is ………………. Budget.

Actual

Master

Real

Combined

Question 11. In activity based costing, costs are accumulated by …………….

Cost objects

Cost Pool

Cost benefi t analysis

None of the above

Question 12. ……………….. cost is the change in the aggregate costs due to change in the volume of output by one unit.

Relevant

Opportunity

Marginal

Differential

Question 13. …………… costing method is used in firms which work on the basis of job work.

Batch

Job

Operating

Contract

Question 14. This principle envisages that there should not be any intermediate stage like storekeeping.

ABC

JIT

FSNA

VED

Such a cost sheet is prepared prior to the actual commencement of the period of production.

a. Silver

b. Green

c. Blue

d. Estimated

Question 15. Tools like standard costing and target costing can be used effectively for cost control and cost …………

Enhancement

Maximisation

Reduction

Absorption

Question 16. Material purchased from supplier should directly go the assembly line, i.e. to the production department is an example of…………………

VED Analysis

LIFO

FIFO

JIT

Question 17. The storing cost can be saved to a great extent by using ……….. technique.

FASN

JIT

VED

HIFO

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Kaizen Costing emphasizes on small but continuous improvement. Targets once set at the beginning of the year or activities are updated continuously to reflect the improvement that has already been achieved and that are yet to be achieved. The suggestive changes which are required to be adopted Kaizen Costing concepts in MIL are as follows:

Standard Cost Control System to Cost Reduction System: Traditionally Standard Costing system assumes stability in the current manufacturing process and standards are set keeping the normal manufacturing process into account thus the whole effort is on to meet performance cost standard. On the other hand Kaizen Costing believes in continuous improvements in manufacturing processes and hence, the goal is to achieve cost reduction target. The first change required is the standard setting methodology i.e. from earlier Cost Control System to Cost Reduction System.

Reduction in the periodicity of setting Standards and Variance Analysis: Under the existing planning and control system followed by the MIL, standards are set semi-annually and based on these standards monthly variance reports are generated for analysis. But under Kaizen Costing system cost reduction targets are set for small periods say for a week or a month. So the period covered under a standard should be reduced from semi-annually to monthly and the current practice of generating variance reports may be continued or may be reduced to a week.

Participation of Executives or Workers in standard setting: Under the Kaizen Costing system participation of workers or executives who are actually involved in the manufacturing process are highly appreciated while setting standards. So the current system of setting budgets and standards by the Finance department with the mere consent of Board of Directors required to be changed.

What is the share of MIL in Indian Car Market in percentage?

Question 2. What emphasize on small but continuous improvement?

Costing

Kaizen Costing

MIL

Quality

Question 3. As per the case, MIL, standards are set as …………

Monthly

Half-Yearly

Annualy

Quarterly

Question 4. Kaizen Costing believes in ………………. improvements in manufacturing processes.

Initial

Last Minute

Continuous

Assembling

Question 5. According to Kaizen Costing System, participation of workers or executives who are actually involved in the manufacturing process are highly appreciated while setting ……………….

Factory

Establishment

Standards

Company

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Enterprise Planning Appraisal and Financing (ENTR701)-Semester III

March 4, 2022March 4, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Enterprise Planning Appraisal and Financing (ENTR701)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Banks normally don’t charge any rent on locker facility.

TRUE

FALSE

Can’t Say

Sometimes

Question 2. WTO agreement generally focuses on …………………. Trade.

Global

European

Asian

Question 3. …………….. is a way to know bank customers.

LFT

KFT

KYC

Memo

Question 4. ATM stands for …………….. Teller Machine.

Auto

Automatic

Acquired

American

Question 5. ICICI, HDFC, and Yes Bank are form of ………………… banks

Private

Public

Scheduled

All

Question 6. Treasury bills are used for ……………….. term requirments.

Intemediate

Short

Long

All

Question 7. The headquarter of State Bank of India is in ………………… .

Delhi

Mumbai

Chennai

Kolkatta

Question 8. IPO belongs to which market?

Primary

Secondary

Money Market

All

Question 9. Which is not the principle of lending? 1. Diversity, 2. Liquidity and 3. Safety.

Diversity

Liquidity

Safety

All are acceptable

Question 10. NEFT stands for National Electronic ……………..Transfer.

Finance

Forex

Fundamentals

Fund

Question 11. KYC means Know your ……………

Character

Customer

Certificate

Condition

Question 12. Companies should keep their savings with banks because

a) It is safe

b) Earns interest

c) Can be withdrawn anytime

d) All of above

a and b

a and c

b and c

Question 13. Which type of deposits earns higher interest rate?

Current account

Savings Account

Fixed Deposits

All of the above

Question 14. What is the validity period of a cheque?

4 months from date of issue

3 months from date of issue

1 month from date of issue

Unlimited

Loans from money lenders implies:

a) High rate of interest

b) No proper accounting

c) No transparency

d) All of above

a and c

a and b

b and c

Question 15. …………………. is the regulator of Indian Banking Industry.

SBI

HDFC

ICICI

RBI

Question 16. Which of the following is not a project management goal?

Keeping overall costs within budget

Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

Avoiding customer complaints

Question 17. Nabard, Exim and SIDBI are known as …………………… Banks.

Commerical

Loan

Development

Private

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2nd Module Assessment

DPR stands for ……………….. Project report.

Derailed

Dictated

Detailed

Descriptive

Question 2. The elapsed time from project start date to project finish date.

Turnover time

Completition Time

Duration

Start Time

Question 3. PERT stands for Program Evaluation and ………… Technique.

Repeat

Review

Right

Reporting

Question 4. A task or activity that precedes or comes before another task or activity.

Pre-task

Predecessor

Successor

Denominator

Question 5. Blue Print of a project signifies …………………… .

Tasks to complete

Timings to complete

Resources to complete

All of the given

Question 6. The planned dates for performing activities and the planned dates for meeting milestones.

Schedule

Program

Policy

Procedure

Question 7. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project’s objectives.

Risk

Uncertainty

None

Both

Question 8. Individuals and organizations who are involved in or may be affected by project activities.

Stakeholder

Shareholders

Owners

Residents

Question 9. Something that lies ready for use or that can be drawn upon for aid or to take care of a need.

Reverse

Review

Resource

Liability

Question 10. The act of revising the project’s scope, budget, schedule, or quality in order to reduce uncertainty of the project.

Reversing

Failing

Mitigation

Catching

……………… is a significant event in the project, usually completion of a major deliverable.

a. Project

b. Product

c. Profile

d. Milestone

For small projects, which method is used for calculation of project time?

a. PERT

b. CPM

c. Miles Chart

d. Bar Chart

Question 11. Which of the following is prepared first during estimate?

Schedule of rates

Rate analysis

Detailed cost analysis

Detailed Project

Question 12. Feasibility report contains sufficient detailed information.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 13. Preparation of DPR is a costly and ………………. Job.

Wasteful

Time taking

Boring

FALSE

Question 14. Before going to overseas technical collaborator the repertoire of established technology available within the country should be explored. It would be both cheaper and nationalistic!

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 15. The strength of the materials can be checked by …………..

Visual Inspection

Quality Control

By asking the manufacturer

By refering to various codes

Question 16. The roadway feature include the study of ………………

Accidental Design

Geometric Design

Route Allignment

Safety

Question 17. The first step in the checklist of DPR is ………..

Executive Summary

Roadway Details

General Details

Background

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3rd Module Assessment

Quality, Cost, ………….. (QCD), as used in lean manufacturing, measures a businesses activity and develops Key performance indicators. Select one: a. Date b. Diary c. Determination d. Delivery

………..…….. engineering is an interdisciplinary field of engineering that focuses on how complex engineering projects should be designed and managed.

Policy

Project

Program

Structured

Question 2. MBO stands for …………… Buyout.

Management

Markeing

Margin

Molecule

Question 3. ……………. are what is required to carry out a project’s tasks.

Resources

Product

Profile

Programme

Question 4. A person who takes on personal responsibility for the successful completion of a “visionary project” is a …………….. .

Insurer

Banker

Champion

Charger

Question 5. ………….. referes generally to a list of all planned expenses and revenues.

Budget

Budgetory Control

Budgeting

All

Question 6. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result is called a ……………… .

Program

Project

Product

Profile

Question 7. Wideband ………….. is a consensus-based estimation technique for estimating effort.

Deliphie

Delphi

Delhip

Dellpphi

Question 8. For “relevance,” such information as development plans of a partner country, background of project, needs of the beneficiary, project strategies, and the formulation of plans is needed.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes true

In Infra Projects only

Question 9. An imaginative arrangement of a set of ideas is called a …………….. .

Principle

Concept

Policy

Procedure

Question 10. ……………….. breakdown structure (PBS) in project management is an exhaustive, hierarchical tree structure of components that make up an item, arranged in whole-part relationship.

Project

Product

Profile

Programme

Question 11. A general list of planned expenses is called …………………. .

Auditing

Budget

Budgetory Control

Budgeting

NPV stands for …………… present value. Select one: a. National b. Net c. Nominal d. Null

Question 12. Good evaluation questions will make it ………….. to identify the necessary data and indicators in an evaluation study.

Costly

Difficult

Linger on

Easy

Question 13. Qualitative analysis of causal relationships tries to explain the relationship between the project implementation and the changes in its beneficiaries.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 14. An evaluation study is usually limited in its budget and time, and therefore it is an effective and efficient way to conduct the study.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 15. The basic methodology of quantitative methods to examine causal relationships is “comparison.”

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

Question 16. The assessment of a project’s performance in and after mid-term evaluation needs achievement criteria (or target values) in order to judge whether the objectives are ……………… or not.

Planned

Sacrificed

Achieved

All

Question 17. There are two steps in conducting the survey: 1) to choose people as the target group and another people as the non-target (control group) at random before implementing a project; and 2) compare their changes before and after the project.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes

Can’t Say

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4th Module Assessment

Which one is not the financial institute in India?

IDBI

IFCI

ICICI

AICTE

Which is not the feature of Venture Capital: Long term horizon 1. Lack of liquidity 2. High risk 3. High tech

1 and 2

1 and 3

2 and 3

All are the components.

Question 2. GDR stands for …………… Depository Receipts.

Green

Global

Gross

Grand

Question 3. A ………………. is a term used in the venture capital industry to describe a privately held startup company with a value of over $1 billion.

Millionaire

Billionaire

Unicorn

None

Question 4. A …………….. finances new companies.

Venture Capitalist

Businessman

Lender

Bank

Question 5. ADR belongs to which country?

USA

India

Australia

Question 6. Private equity is composed of funds and investors that directly invest in private companies, or that engage in buyouts of public companies, resulting in the delisting of public equity.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes Correct

Sometimes Incorrect

Question 7. Which one is not the mean of raising fund from market?

OFS

Equity Shares

Preference Shares

Insurance Policies

Question 8. He is a person who makes such investments, these include wealthy investors, investment banks, other financial institutions, other partnerships.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes Correct

Sometimes Incorrect

Question 9. Cost ……………. is defined as excess of actual cost over the budget.

Overrun

Over Charge

Over Priced

Over Budget

Question 10. Normally companies raise funds from ……………. market through equity shares route.

primary

secondary

tertiary

foreign

Question 11. Which American mechanical engineer and management consultant, developed the Gantt chart in the 1910s?

Henry Gantt

Henry Feyol

Henry Ford

Michael Henry

…………. is a condition where a task or milestone relies on other tasks to be completed (or started) before it can be performed. Select one: a. Performance b. Allotment c. Dependancy d. Allocation

Question 12. Due dilegence means to know the …………………. condition of the business firm.

Financial

Non-financial

Neither A nor B

Both A and B

Question 13. …………………. is the act of managing all aspects of a project, from team to tasks to tools.

Project Control

Project Management

Project Appraisal

None of the above

Question 14. In project management, an objective or milestone set by an individual or organization is called a …………. .

Goal

Performance

Milestone

Target

Question 15. ……………… market is the market in which a security is sold for the first time.

Primary

Seconday

Tettiary

Money

Question 16. Which is not a fund raising option?

IPO

Venture Capital

Private Equiry

Reverse Mortage

Question 17. Which is not a Exit route in funding options?

IPO

Trade Sale

Promoter Buyback

Bonus Issue

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5th Module Assessment

A graphical representation of a sequence of events.

Timeline

Time Clash

Time Boundry

Time Tag

Question 2. …………….. is the professional in charge of planning and executing a project and leading a project team.

Project Surveyor

Project Evaluator

Project Controller

Project Manager

Question 3. Six Sigma is a business management strategy, originally developed by …………

Panasonic

Samsung

Sony

Motorola

Question 4. …………….. is a method used to model projects that includes all tasks, time estimates, task dependencies, and final deliverables.

HIFO

LIFO

CPM

CAPM

Question 5. ……………. is part of a set of actions which accomplish a job, problem or assignment.

Task

project

Program

Policy

Question 6. …………….. is a statistics-based methodology that seeks to improve the quality of a process by measuring the defects or bugs present and getting it down as close to zero as possible.

Six Sigma

Three Sigma

Seven Sigma

Four Sigma

Question 7. A statistical tool used to visualize a project’s schedule, sequence of tasks, and even the critical path of tasks that must be completed on time in order for the project to meet its deadline.

PERT

CPM

Neither a nor b

Both a and b

Question 8. A ……………… is someone who consults another or gives professional services to another.

Consultant

Advisor

None

Both

Question 9. BCWS is short form of Budgeted Cost of Work ……………….

Surfed

Scattered

Sacrificed

Scheduled

ESP stands for Employee Stock …………… Select one: a. Profit b. Purchase c. Put option d. Perseverance

Question 10. An X-Y axis graph that shows the number of tasks that need to be completed (on the vertical axis) versus the time remaining (on the horizontal axis) is Burn …………… Chart.

Gnatt

Down

Cluster

Question 11. Advisers serve……………….. term positions that help businesses accomplish their overarching objectives so they can reach their strategic goals.

Short

Long

Intermediate

Question 12. Significant organizational change can be challenging. It often requires many levels of cooperation and may involve different independent entities within an organization.

FALSE

TRUE

Sometimes

Not applicable in India

Question 13. For growing businesses with specific and particularly complex challenges, procuring consulting services may be a ………… investment.

Dicy

Incorrect

Wise

Can’t Say

Question 14. Advisers typically work with clients on a long-term basis and assume leadership roles within a company, whereas consultants usually work on a short-term basis and address a very specific problem or an underlying constraint that’s affecting a company.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Not applicable in India

Is it right to say that changes usually fail for human reasons?

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

c. Sometimes

d. Not applicable in India

Question 15. ……………..insurance is defined as an insurance policy where the proposer as well as the premium payer is the employer.

Select one:

LIC

General Insurance

Keyman

Comprehensive Motor

Question 16. Change management is defined as the methods and manners in which a company describes and implements change within both its internal and external processes.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Never

Question 17. Anybody with specialized skills, whose loss can cause a financial strain to the company, is eligible for……………….. Insurance.

Life

General Insurance

Auto

Keyman

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

Strengthning Infrastructure

In a move to consult for development of various infrastructure projects in the state, the Manipur government has signed aMemorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited Projects Ltd. (IPL), a subsidiary of Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL) on Wednesday.

Additional Chief Secretary (Planning) Mr. P Vaiphei represented the state while Deputy Chief Executive Officer Mr. Palash Shrivastava represented the IPL during the signing and exchanging of the MoU at the Cabinet Hall of Chief Minister’s Secretariat in Imphal. The state Chief Minister Mr. N Biren Singh along with Chief Secretary Dr, Rajesh Kumar, Additional Chief Secretaries Mr. MH Khan andMr. Letkhogin Haokip, Commissioner (Works) Mr. T Ranjit, Commissioner (Agriculture/IPR) Mr. M Joy, Managing Director IIFCL, Mr. PR Jaishankar and other high ranking officials of the State Government and IIFCL were also present in the day’s event. The ad also read – Mizoram Assembly speaker Lalrinliana Sailo tests positive for COVID-19.

IPL is a wholly owned subsidiary of Indian Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL), a Government of India Enterprise. IIFCL, a premier infrastructure financing institution in India, promoted IPL in February 2012 as a dedicated project advisory company involved in the areas of project appraisal, syndication, transaction advisory, and infrastructure consultancy services.

The company caters to the demand for advisory services to projects across the spectrum of infrastructure sector including roads, highways, ports, airports, power including renewable, tourism, urban infrastructure like water supply and sewerage projects, solid waste management, etc. It will provide project advisory and institutional support to assist in development of various infrastructure projects in Manipur by undertaking project preparatory studies and advisory services related to infrastructure project development and resource mobilisation.

IIFCL is an enterprise of …………. .

Nepal

State Government

Government of India

Both state and Centre

Question 2. Which is not a part of Infrastructure development?

Road

Bridges

Airports

Flats

Question 3. IIFCL promoted IPL in which year?

2000

2019

2012

2021

Question 4. AS per the case, IIFCL The company caters to the demand for advisory services to projects across the spectrum of infrastructure sector including roads, highways, ports, airports, power including renewable.

TRUE

FALSE

Sometimes

Not Clear

Question 5. Who is PR Jaishankar ?

Commissioner

Project Manager

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E – Business and Trade (CSIT723)-Semester III

February 28, 2022February 28, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

E – Business and Trade (CSIT723)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

Which is not the application area of e-commerce?

E-Learning

E-Banking

E-Auction

None of the above

Question 2. The ability to change the product to better fit the needs of the customer is called ______________.

customization

privacy

accessibility

personalization

Question 3. Which of the following is a measure of the percentage of purchasers who return to a website within a year?

loyalty

reach

recency

unique visitors

Question 4. Which of the following describes E‐commerce?

Doing business electronically

Doing business

Sale of goods

All of the above

Question 5. The most widely used encryption standard is ______________.

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Data Encryption Standard (DES)

Universal Encryption Standard (UES)

Optimal Encryption Standard (OES)

Question 6. The largest component of a website budget is ______________.

system maintenance

system development

content design and development

telecommunications

Question 7. The dimension of e-commerce that enables commerce across national boundaries is called ______________.

interactivity

richness

ubiquity

global reach

Question 8. E-commerce technologies have improved upon traditional commerce technologies in ______________.

richness

reach

both richness and reach

neither richness nor reach

Question 9. Promotion of products in e-commerce can be done by:

Social media

Online Ads

Blog

All of the above

Question 10. Which is a function of E‐commerce?

marketing

advertising

warehousing

All of the above

Which service encompasses all technologies used to transmit and process information on and across a network? Select one:

a. Interoperability

b. Scalability

c. Benchmarking

d. Web services

Question 11. E-business can be defined as:

the uninhibited flow of information and goods on the Web

the use of the Internet and the Web to transact business

digitally enabled transactions and processes within an organization

commercial transactions involving electronic goods

Question 12. Which of the following is the primary characteristic of an intranet?

People outside the organization can access it

People inside the organization can’t access it

People outside the organization can’t access it

None of the above

Question 13. Which of the following represents a limiting factor for the growth of e-commerce?

Persistent cultural attraction of physical markets and traditional shopping experiences

E-commerce lacks the convenience of other methods of transacting business

The potential audience for e-commerce is too low to support it as a widespread method of commerce

Inadequate selection of goods compared to physical marketplaces.

Question 14. Which of the following describes an ERP system?

ERP systems provide a foundation for collaboration between departments

ERP systems enable people in different business areas to communicate

ERP systems have been widely adopted in large organisations to store critical knowledge used to make the decisions that drive the organisation’s performance

All of the above

Identify the incorrect statement :

a. The internet has evolved into phenomenally successful e-commerce engine

b. e-business is synonymous with e-commerce

c. The e-commerce model B2C did not begin with billboard ware

d. The e-commerce model G2C began with billboard ware

Question 15. E-commerce is:

an organization using electronic media to purchase from to its suppliers

any electronically mediated communication between an organization and its stakeholders

t he use of electronic communications for all business processes

an organization using electronic media to sell direct to its customers

Question 16. Which of the following describes E-commerce?

Buying products from each other

Buying services from each other

Selling services from each other

All of the above

Question 17. _______________ is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platforms – intranets, extranets and the Internet – to conduct a company’s business.

E-commerce

E-marketing

E-procurement

E-business

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2nd Module Assessment

Which type of add appears on a web page?

Select one:

pop‐under ad

Pop‐up ad

Banner ad

Discount ad

Question 2. What is the process in which a buyer posts its interest in buying a certain quantity of items, and sellers compete for the business by submitting successively lower bids until there is only one seller left?

B2B marketplace

Intranet

Reverse auction

Internet

Question 3. Which of the following is part of the four main types for e‐commerce?

B2B

B2C

C2B

All of the above

Question 4. All of the following are major B2C business models except ______________.

content provider

industry consortium

transaction broker

service provider

Question 5. What is the percentage of customers who visit a website and actually buy something called?

Affiliate programs

Click‐through

Spam

Conversion rate

Question 6. This E-Commerce business model mainly focuses on selling products or services online.

Indirect Marketing

Marketplace

Online Direct Marketing

Brick & Mortar

Question 7. All of the following are types of social marketing except ______________.

affiliate marketing

blog advertising

social network advertising

game advertising

Question 8. Which segment do eBay, Amazon.com belong to?

B2Bs

B2Cs

C2Bs

C2Cs

Question 9. Which portal business model best describes Yahoo?

general purpose portal

affinity group based vertical market

focused content based vertical market

none of the above

Question 10. The basic element(s) of website is/are:

Home page

Web pages

Links and banners

All the above

Question 11. Which of the following describes paid content’s relation to free user-generated content?

Free content jeopardizes paid content

Paid content jeopardizes free content

Free content and paid content can both work in tandem cooperatively

Paid content is viable now but will not be in the future

Question 12. All of the following are challenges to online retail except ______________.

Consumer concerns about the security of transactions

Consumer concerns about the privacy of personal information given to Web sites

Delays in delivery of goods when compared to store shopping

Inability to change prices nearly instantly

Question 13. The two main types of Internet-based B2B commerce are:

Net marketplaces and private industrial networks

EDI and collaborative commerce

Net marketplaces and collaborative commerce

EDI and private industrial networks

Question 14. An example of a cost-saving benefit from creating an e-commerce web site is:

the ability to reach overseas markets without a sales presence.

more rapid response to customer enquiries.

tracking of number of customers using different parts of site.

all of the above

The online content revenue model in which free content drives offline revenues is called the ______________. Select one:

a. marketing model

b. advertising model

c. pay-per-view model

d. subscription model

Question 15. Which of the following portals are more specific, offering a great deal of information pertaining to a single area of interest?

Horizontal

Vertical

(a) and (b) both

None of above

Question 16. Click and mortar business are business that have:

only physical presence

both an online and an offline presence

neither online nor offline presence

None of above

Question 17. A buy-side supplier threat of e-commerce is:

Drives down cost of commoditized products

Reduction in customer loyalty

Increase in cost of supplies

None of above

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3rd Module Assessment

Which of the following can be used to help identify people in a crowd?

Select one:

Biochip

Implant chip

Facial recognition software

Vision chip

Question 2. Online journals where people post their reviews and thoughts on narrow topic are classified as ____________.

Business domain website

Corporate website

Blogs

Marketing website

Question 3. The use of smart card represents a form of:

password encryption

authorization

authentication

both b and c

Which of the following is the correct depiction of Digital Marketing?

Select one:

a.E-mail Marketing

b.Social Media Marketing

c.Web Marketing

d.all of the above

Question 4. ____________ is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platform-intranets, extranet and the internet to conduct a company’s business.

e- procurement

e-business

e-commerce

e-marketing

Question 5. EFT stands for ____________.

Electronic fund transmission

Electronic foreign transmission

Electronic feature transfer

Electronic feature transmit

Question 6. _____ is an approach to information management in which data are stored in a network of documents connected by links.

Hypertext

Linked text

Hyperdata

none

Question 7. Which of the following advantages is/are normally associated with B2B e‐commerce?

Shorter cycle times

Reduction in costs

Reaches wider audiences

All of the above

Question 8. The process of getting customers to pass along a company’s marketing message to friends, family, and colleagues is known as ______________.

affiliate marketing

permission marketing

blog marketing

viral marketing

Question 9. The limitations of e-marketing is ____________.

the inability to touch and feel

instant cash payment

touch and feel

immediate delivery

Question 10. Which of the following is the correct depiction of Digital Marketing?

E-mail Marketing

Social Media Marketing

Web Marketing

All of the above

_________is a unique address on the world wide web that provides the exact location of every data in the universal network.

Select one:

URL

http

www

none

Question 11. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the impact of technology?

Technology has caused buyer power to increase

Technology has lessened the entry barriers for many industries

Technology has increased the threat of substitute products and services

all of the above

Question 12. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of e-commerce to sellers?

e-commerce can help to reduce coSts

e-commerce is a powerful tool for customer relationship building

e-commerce increases the net cost per contact

e-commerce offers greater flexibility in meeting customer needs.

Question 13. Identify the incorrect statement:

The overall strategy drives the e-commerce data warehousing strategy.

Data warehousing in an e-commerce environment should be done in a classical manner.

E-commerce opens up an entirely new world of web servers.

E-commerce security threats can be grouped into three major categories.

Question 14. All of the following are potential benefits of B2B e-commerce except:

reduced amount of ‘first-mover’ advantages

decreased product cycle time

increased opportunities for collaborating with suppliers and distributors

increased production flexibility

Which of the following are the key characteristics of e-business?

I. Customer is king.

II. E-business leads to intermediation.

III. Entry barriers are low.

IV. Economies of scale.

Select one:

a. Both (I) and (II) above

b. Both (II) and (III) above

c. Both (III) and (IV) above

d. (I), (III) and (IV) above

Question 15. Which of the following is not a challenge of e-learning?

E-learning is not always designed by skilled educators.

Online learning increases social interaction among children.

All of above.

Question 16. Many e-tailers often offer lower prices to:

Generate brand awareness

Increase site traffic

Increase customer loyalty

All of above

Question 17. Which of the following is not true for online travel?

People can save time and money by booking their travel arrangements on the Web

There is a great deal of competition among travel Web sites; each offers better service, low fares and more features.

Customers now have the power to bypass a travel agent

None of above

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4th Module Assessment

The redirection of traffic from a legitimate site to an infringing site is called ______________.

cybersquatting

cyberpiracy

metatagging

keywording

Question 2. When hackers flood a website with useless traffic to overwhelm the network, it is called ______________.

phishing

pharming

a Denial of Service (DoS) attack

spoofing

Question 3. If you need to transfer money to another person via the internet, which of the following methods can you use?

financial cybermediary

electronic check

electronic bill presentment and payment

All of the above

Question 4. Which of the following is an Internet‐based company that makes it easy for one person to pay another over the Internet?

electronic check

electronic bill presentment and payment

conversion rates

financial cybermediary

Question 5. Which of the following is not related to security mechanism?

encryption

decryption

e‐cash

All of the above

Question 6. What is the name given to an interactive business providing a centralized market where many buyers and suppliers can come together for E‐commerce or commerce‐related activities?

Direct marketplace

B2B

B2C

Electronic marketplace

Question 7. Secure Sockets Layers does which of the following?

creates a secure, private connection to a web server

encrypts information

sends information over the internet

All of the above

Question 8. Which web server functionality allows it to verify usernames and passwords and process certificates and encryption information?

Processing of HTTP requests File Transfer Protocol

Data capture

Security services

Question 9. Which of the following is a useful security mechanism when considering business strategy and IT?

encryption

decryption

firewall

All of the above

Question 10. A security plan begins with a ______________.

security policy

implementation plan

security organization

risk assessment

The practice of forging a return address on an e‐mail so that the recipient is fooled into revealing private information is termed as ____________.

a. hacking b. cracking c. dumpster diving d. spoofing

Question 11. Which of the following statements about privacy is true?

It is a moral right to be left alone

Only corporations and government need to be concerned about it

It has only just recently become a concern

It is most easily obtained on the Internet

Question 12. Digital signature is a:

Digital id,send as an attachment to a web page/e‐mail/message

Is used for verifying the attachments send using web

Both a and b

None of these

Question 13. Public key encryption uses multiple keys. One key is used to encrypt data, while another is used to decrypt data. The key used to encrypt data is called the _____ key, while the key used to decrypt data is called the _____ key.

encryption, decryption

private, public

encryption, public

public, private

Question 14. Secure communication means:

Protect transmission of credit card number

Guarantee privacy of customer

Unauthorized access of payment details

All the above

A digital signature is required: i) to tie an electronic message to the sender’s identity ii) for non repudiation of communication by a sender iii) to prove that a message was sent by the sender in a Court of law. Iv) in all e-mail transactions Select one: a. i and ii b. i, ii and iii c. I, ii, iii and iv d. ii, iii and iv

Question 15. What is considered while creating a front page of the website or homepage?

References of other websites

Logos portraying the number of awards won by the web designer

A brief elaboration about the company

None of the above

Question 16. Micro-blogging can be defined as __________.

Mobile related blogs

Blogs posted by companies instead of an individual

Blogs encompassing limited individual posts, which are typically limited by character count.

None of the above

Question 17. Which of the following factors are responsible for leaving an impact on the Google PageRank?

The text depicting inbound links to a page of a website.

The subject matter of the site providing the inbound link to a page of a website.

The number of outbound links on the page that contains the inbound link to a page of a website.

A total number of inbound links to a website’s page.

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5th Module Assessment

Which concept suggests that different applications and computer systems should be able to communicate with one another?

Integration

Web services

Scalability

Interoperability

Question 2. What is a detailed process for recovering information or an IT system in the event of a catastrophic disaster such as fire or flood?

Disaster recovery plan

Hot site

Cold site

Disaster recovery cost curve

Question 3. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chip on which digital information can be stored?

Customer relationship management systems cards

E‐government identity cards

FEDI cards

Smart cards

Question 4. What floods a website with so many requests for service that it slows down or crashes?

Computer virus

Worm

Denial‐of‐service attack

None of the above

Question 5. A technique used to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, often by e‐mail, is called ____________.

Phishing

Carding

Brand spoofing

All of the above

Question 6. What is an internal organizational Internet that is guarded against outside access by a special security feature called a firewall (which can be software, hardware, or a combination of the two)?

Client/server network

Intranet

Extranet

Thin client

Question 7. What looks for people on the network who shouldn’t be there or who are acting suspiciously?

Encryption

Public key encryption

Intrusion‐detection software

Security‐auditing software

Question 8. What is the name for direct computer‐to‐computer transfer of transaction information contained in standard business documents?

internet commerce

e‐commerce

transaction information transfer

electronic data interchange

Question 9. Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click on an ad, and are taken to the site of the advertiser?

Affiliate programs

Click‐through

Spam

All of the above

Which of the following refers to creating products tailored to individual customers?

a. customization

b. aggregation c. Direct materials d. Reverse auction

Question 10. Cyber slacking consists of what activities?

Visiting “inappropriate” web sites

Visiting news sites

Chatting online with others about non‐work topics

All of the above

Question 11. Which of the following is/are not basic e-business model(s)?

I. B2B.

II. B2C.

III. C2C.

IV. C2B.

Only (II) above()

Only (IV) above()

(I) (II) and (III) above

Both (I) and (IV) above()

Question 12. Disadvantages of E-commerce in India are:

(i) internet access is not universally available

(ii) credit card payment security is not yet guaranteed

(iii) transactions are de-personalized and human contact is missing

(iv) cyber laws are not in place

i and ii

ii and iii

i, ii, iii

i, ii, iii, iv

E-business is:

Select one:

a.the use of electronic communications for all business processes

b.an organization using electronic media to purchase from to its suppliers

c.any electronically mediated communication between an organization and its stakeholders

d.all of the above

Question 13. Which is the most realistic relationship between these two concepts?

E-business is a subset of E-commerce

E-commerce is broadly equivalent to E-business

E-commerce is a subset of E-business

E-commerce has some overlap with E-business

Question 14. An example of benefits from creating an E-commerce website is:

more rapid response to customer enquiries

tracking of number of customers using different parts of site

lower paper costs needed for marketing and fewer staff needed in contact centre

All the above

Question 15. Which of the following statements accurately reflect the impact of technology?

technology has caused buyer power to increase

technology has lessened the entry barriers for many industries

technology has increased the threat of substitute products and services

all of the above

Question 16. Which of the following is true for Insurance Online?

Insurance is complicated; the Web offers instruction and helpful documentation.

Free quotes and calculators help consumers make informed decisions.

Lower rates are often found on the Web for insurance.

all of the above

Question 17. In what ways can site traffic help in assessing the market value?

Overall site traffic can be followed, and a general idea of marketing’s impact can be determined.

There is no association between the site traffic and marketing

Ads can send receivers to a specific landing page, which can be tracked

Product sales from the company website can be attributed directly to the marketing campaign

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Assignment 2

Case Study:

While ecommerce has been growing rapidly, it still only comprised a small percentage of overall retail sales. For example, in the U.S., on an adjusted basis, ecommerce accounted for 11.8% of all retail sales in the first quarter of 2020, according to the U.S. Census Bureau.

That was for Q1. Then in Q2, the number jumped to 16.1% – a 44.5% change from the same quarter a year ago. To put that number in perspective, Q2 2019 grew “only” 13.8% over Q2 2018.

What changed? The COVID-19 pandemic, of course. Even with ecommerce’s double-digit growth over the years, brick-and-mortar retail still had many advantages over ecommerce. Some products (like groceries) are hard to ship and easier and less expensive to buy in person. Brick-and-mortar retail has an experiential draw that ecommerce can’t match – from trying on a shirt to being wowed by an in-store (and Instagram-worthy) display. The ability to make a human connection and learn about a product or service.

Suddenly everything changed. That human connection became a detriment. And a no-touch version of goods and even services was preferable if not essential.

What of these softwares comes hidden in free downloadable software and tracks your online movements, mines the information stored on your computer, or uses your computer’s CPU and storage for some task you know nothing about?

Web log

Clickstream

Anonymous Web browsing service

None of the above

Question 2. What type of virus spreads itself, not just from file to file, but from computer to computer via e‐mail and other Internet traffic?

Computer virus

Worm

Denial‐of‐service attack

None of the above

Question 3. What is an electronic representation of cash?

Digital cash

Electronic cash

E‐cash

All of the above

Question 4. During E‐commerce transaction, we should ensure ____________.

Integrity

Security

Confidentiality

All the above

Question 5. Encryption prevents ____________ from viewing data that is transmitted over telecommunications channels.

snoopers

other prying seyes

hackers

All the above

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Management of Financial Service (EDL 307)-Semester III

February 26, 2022February 26, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Management of Financial Service (EDL 307)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

IPO stands for __________.

Select one:

Initial Preference Offering

Initial Private Offering

Initial Public Offering

Initial Price Organisation

Question 2. Financial services through the network of elements such as ________, serve the needs of individuals, institutions and Corporate.

Financial institutions

Financial markets

Financial instruments

All of these

Question 3. Merchant banks deal with funds raised through ____________ and capital market.

Financial Market

Money Market

Primary Market

Capital Market

Question 4. The term _______________ is defined as a central location for keeping securities on deposit.

Instrument

Institutions

Depository

None of these

Question 5. _________ encompasses all institutions dealing in fresh issues.

New issues Market

Secondary Market

Money Market

Capital Market

Question 6. Registration of brokers is made _______.

compulsory

optional

no need

none of these

Question 7. Functions of Finacial Services include:

Mobilization of Savings

Allocation of Funds

Specialized Services

All of these

Question 8. To regulate the securities market and to protect the investor’s interest ________ has been created by the Government of India.

RBI

SBI

SEBI

IRDA

Question 9. The objectives of SEBI include _______________.

To promote the development of the market

To protect the interests of inventors

To regulate the securities market

All of these

Question 10. The following one is a kind of fee based activity of a financial intermediary.

hire purchase financing

capital issue management

leasing

underwriting

__________ includes all activities involved in the transformation of savings into investment. Select one: a. Financial system b. Financial service c. Economic system d. Saving system

Question 11. In India Merchant banking along with management of public issues and loan syndication covering activities like:

Project counseling

Portfolio management

Investment counseling

All of these

Question 12. Role of Merchant Bankers____________.

Select one:

Mobilization of Funds

Innovation

All of these

Question 13. Book Building Process is managed by the_________.

Registrar

Book Runner

Lead Manager

Book Runner & Lead Manager

Question 14. The price of new issue is decided by the company along with its _______ .

Merchant Banker

SEBI

Stock Exchange

Banks

A prospectus which does not have details of either price or number of shares offer or the amount of issue is called: Select one:

a. Red herring prospectus

b. Statement in lieu of prospectus

c. Shelf prospectus

d. None of these

Question 15. Name the process by which a demand for the securities proposed to be issued by a body corporate is elicited.

Green Shoe Option

IPO

Book Building

FPO

Question 16. Post- Issue Managemnt activities include:

Analysis of Collection

Processing of Data

Issue of Refund Orders

All of these

Question 17. Lead Merchant Banker should advice the issuer to enter into ____________ with a particular intermediary for the purpose of issue management.

Select one:

Memorandum of Understanding

ROC

Agreement

Arrangement

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2nd Module Assessment

Which agency regulates and supervises NBFCs?

Select one:

Finance Ministry

SEBI

RBI

Respective state government

Question 2. The feature of a mutual fund, where it spreads the investment in varied stocks and sectors by pooling the funds of various investors, is called as ______________.

Diversification

Professional Management

Affordability

Profit

Question 3. For a company to register as a NBFC it should have a minimum net owned fund of _____.

Rs 25 lakh

Rs 1 crores

Rs 2 crores

Rs 5 crores

Question 4. NBFCs are required to accept public deposit for a maximum period of ___ months?

36 months

48 months

60 months

120 months

Question 5. _______________ ended fund are highly liquid.

Close Ended

Old

Open Ended

New

Question 6. Which of the following is not the part of organized sector of Indian Money Market?

Mutual Funds

Chit Funds

NBFCs

RBI

Question 7. Which of the following does not have any roles in regulation of NBFCs?

National Housing Bank

SIDBI

Reserve Bank of India

MCA

Question 8. What is an open-ended mutual fund?

It is the one that has an option to invest in any kind of security

It has units available for sale and repurchase at all times.

It has an upper limit on its NAV

It has a fixed fund size

Question 9. Mutual funds in India are permitted to invest in____________.

Securities

Securities & Gold

Securities other than Real Estate

Securities, Gold and Real Estate

Question 10. A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the _______.

RBI Act 1934

Companies Act, 2013

NBFC Act 1956

Government Securities Regulations, 1913

Units of _____________ must be listed on the stock exchange. Select one: a. Sector Funds b. Arbitrage Funds c. Close ended Funds d. Liquid Funds

Question 11. The value of one unit of investment in Mutual fund is called the _______________.

Net Asset Value

Issue value

Market Value

Gross Asset Value

Question 12. The seller can repossess the goods in case of default in payment .

Interest

Hire Charge

Payment

Credit

Question 13. Which of the following activity is not permissible for NBFC?

loans and advances

acquisition of shares

insurance business

construction of immovable property

Question 14. Which of the following is false about NBFC?

NBFC cannot accept demand deposits

NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself

deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs

NBFC cannot undertake insurance business

___________ schemes not exposed to sudden and large movements of funds. Select one: a. Fixed maturity plan b. Close-Ended Funds c. Open-Ended Funds d. Interval fund

Question 15. A non-banking institution that has a principal business of receiving deposits under any scheme or arrangement in one lump sum or in installments by way of contributions is known as:

Principal non-banking company

Residential non-banking company

Residuary non-banking company

Optional non-banking company

Question 16. ________ is a method of investing in mutual funds wherein an investor chooses a mutual fund scheme and invests a the fixed amount of his choice at fixed intervals.

Systematic Transfer Plan

Systematic Investment Plan

Systematic Innovative Plan

Systematic Withdrawal Plan

Question 17. ____________ is a facility provided by banks to investors in new fund offers (NFOs) of mutual funds.

ASBA

CASBA

MASBA

NASA

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3rd Module Assessment

Hire Purchase Act passed in the year_____. Select one: a. 1969 b. 1972 c. 1982 d. 1976

Consumer loans are granted for _____________ period.

Medium

Short

Long

Both Long & Medium

Question 2. Equipment leasing is _______________ financial service.

fund based

fee based

non-fund based

All of these

Question 3. In hire purchase depreciation can be claimed by the______.

Hirer

Vendor

Financiers

All of these

Question 4. _____________ is pooling of small savings.

Mutual fund

Credit rating

Insurance

Guarantee

Question 5. CIBIL stands for ______________.

Credit Information Bureau of India ltd

Central investment Board of India Ltd

Credit and Investment Bureau of India ltd

None of these

Question 6. _______________ is a method of renting assets.

Hire Purchase

Lease

Hedge Finance

Credit Rating

Question 7. In _______________ lease, leasing company assumes risk of obsolescence.

Financial lease

Operating lease

Leverage lease

Cross boarder lease

Question 8. The limitations of credit rating include ________.

Rating charges

Industry specific

Governance issues

All of these

Question 9. _______________ lease contracts are usually non cancellable.

Financial lease

Operating lease

Leverage lease

Cross boarder lease

Question 10. ___________ refers to the raising of finance by individuals for meeting their personal expenditure or for the acquisition of consumer durable goods.

Housing Finance

Consumer Finance

Business Finance

Local Finance

Question 11. ________ is an agreement under which a company or a firm acquires a right to make use of a capital asset like machinery, on payment of agreed fee called rental charges.

Hire Purchase

Leasing

Mutual Fund

Factoring X

Question 12. In India, banks are permitted to carry on hire purchase business:

Directly

Through its Departments

Through subsidiary

Any of the above

Question 13. Which of the following is/are types of consumer credit?

Revolving credit

Unsecured credit

Secured credit

All of these

Question 14. In ____________ leasing, the risk of obsolescence is assumed by the lessee.

Operating lease

Leverage lease

Financial lease

Sale and lease back

_______ is an ongoing credit arrangement.

a. Unsecured Credit

b. Fixed Credit

c. Cash loans

d. Revolving Credit

Question 15. Consumer Credit accelerates ____________.

Investments in the consumer durable industry

Balancing interest rate

Increasing investment awareness

Supply of goods

Question 16. The three C’s of Consumer Credit are:

Character, capital and charity

Character, capacity and charity

Character, capacity and capital

Capital, capacity and conciliate

Question 17. The features of hire purchase includes:

The possession of goods is given to the buyer immediately.

The ownership in the goods remains with the vendor till the last installment is paid.

The seller can repossess the goods in case of default in payment .

All of these

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4th Module Assessment

Venture Capitalists use staged financing:

to limit other investor’s return

to increase Venture Capitalist’s Ownership stake

to reducuce Venture Capitalist’s Risk Exposure

to increase probability the Portfolio Company succeeds

Question 2. A ____________ is a specialized firm that finances young, start-up companies.

Venture Capital Firm

Finance company

Small-Business finance company

capital-creation company

Question 3. The P/E firm takes the help of _______ for valuation & legal advice.

Agents

Brokers

Advisors

RBI

Question 4. _____________ act as an intermediary to link up the sources of ideas and the sources of fund.

Venture Capital

Merchant Banking

Leasing

None of these

Question 5. Financial services offered financing risk project to provide which of the Following?

Seed Capital

Venture Capital

Primary Fund

Secondary Fund

Question 6. The _____________ partner is also entitled to share in profits of the private equity funds investment .

Legal

General

Limited

Partnership

Question 7. _____________ nurturing means the continuous &ongoing investment of the VCF through representation in the board of the venture.

Hands on

Hands off

Hands holding

All of these

Question 8. Private Equity is regulated by ______.

IRDA

LIC

UTI

SEBI

Question 9. _____________ types of valuation method can be adopted by VCFs.

Question 10. Venture capital organized in _____________.

1995

1954

1952

1950

VCFs can be structured as an investment trust under the Indian act _____________.

Select one:

1883

1882

1884

1885

Question 11. The purpose of valuation is to assess the ____________ and viability of the venture & to divide of the percentage of the VCF ownership in the new venture.

Select one:

Feasibility

Profitability

Availability

None of these

Question 12. Which of the following is not the non-fund based activities?

Securitization

Merchant banking

Loan syndication

Venture capital

Question 13. ____________ is an interest free loan provided by VCFs without any predetermined repayment schedule.

Conventional loan

Income notes

Conditional loan

None of these.

Question 14. The venture capital process involves post investment Services is also called ____________.

Investment nurturing

Turn around financing

Seed money

All of these

In the ____________ method the entire earnings stream of the venture investment is considered.

a. Conventional Valuation Method

b. First Chicago Method

c. Revenue Multiplier Method

d. None of these.

The venture capital process involves post investment Services is also called ____________.

Select one:

Investment nurturing

Turn around financing

Seed money

All of these

Question 15. ____________ is used to estimate the value of venture capital investment.

Dual structuring

Revenue multiplier

First Chicago method

None of these

Question 16. Private equity is a ______ investment fund, as its Current market price cannot be easily determined and cannot be transferred for certain period of time.

Close ended

Open ended

Fund

Active

Question 17. In ____________ method the starting time & exit time of the venture investment is only considered.

Select one:

First Chicago method

Revenue multiplier method

Conventional valuation method

All of these

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5th Module Assessment

AI is intelligence demonstrated by ________. Select one:

a. Humans

b. Machines

c. Both of above

d. None of these

KYC means____________.

Select one:

Know Your Customer

Know Your Character

Know Your Card

Know Your Creditor

Question 2. What is a blockchain?

A client-server database existing on a limited number of nodes at the same time.

A centralized database that holds a subset of all transactions on all nodes.

A distributed database with a record of all transactions on the network.

A standalone database with history of all transactions on various nodes.

Question 3. ________refers to non alteration of data.

Confidentiality

Integrity

Privilege

None of these

Question 4. In Electronic cash payment____________.

a debit card payment system is used

a credit card payment system is used

a customer buys several electronic coins which are digitally signed

RSA cryptography is used in the transactions

Question 5. For providing transparency in accounting and reporting procedures of banks, _____________ are introduced in 1992

IRAC rules

BASEL norms

Capital Adequacy Norms

None of these

Question 6. Indian Bank Association(IBA) is __________technology

Infrastructure

Insurance

Banking

Centralise

Question 7. Paperless banking is known as_________.

RTGS

Internet Banking

EFT

Mobile Banking

Question 8. _______is one of the problem with e- banking.

Limited services

Security

Too many steps

Convenience

Question 9. DBMS stands for ___________.

Database Master System

Database Management Structure

Delivery Management System

Database Management System

Question 10. EFT stands for:

Electronic Fund Transmission

Electronic Fund Transfer

Electronic Feature Transfer

None of these

Identify the Risk factors which are associated with Electronic payment system. Select one:

a. Fraudulent use of Credit Cards

b. Sending Credit Card details over internet

c. Remote storage of Credit Card details

d. All of these

Question 11. What is E-Payment?

Electronic payment for buying and selling through the Internet

Payment of Online Software

Payment of Online Services

None of these

Question 12. ______ allows a user to execute financial transaction via the internet.

Location Banking

Mobile Banking

Home Banking

Online banking

Question 13. ____________ banking refers to the use of technology and communication systems in delivering banking products and services to customers.

Hi-tech banking

Virtual banking

Home banking.

Question 14. The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking, reasoning and learning is known as_________.

machine intelligence

human intelligence

artificial intelligence

virtual intelligence

Question 15. _______________allows to process the data which is stored in data warehouse.

Information Processing

Analytical Processing

Data Mart

Data Mining

Question 16. USP for Oracle Financial services software__________.

Seamless multichannel banking

Business agilitydesigned for modern

User Friendly, intuitive interface

Increased Flexibility and interoperability

Question 17. __________ is not a part of E-Banking components.

Strategic objectives for ebanking

Investment/ Brokerage services

Security and internal control requirements

Scope, scale and complexity of equipment, systems and activities

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Assignment 2

Case Study

XYZ Mutual Fund has been constituted as a trust on December 27, 2019 in accordance with the provisions of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882. The Deed of Trust has been registered under the Indian Registration Act, 1908. The Mutual Fund was registered with SEBI on January 18, 2020. They attribute their success thus far to their 3 founding principles: Outside-in view — Communicate with customers in their language to assist them in taking the right investment decision. Long-term wealth creation — Encourage investors to create a long-term investment strategy and play a critical role in their wealth management. Long-term relationship — Build relationships beyond finances XYZ Mutual Fund is a professionally managed investment fund that pools money from many investors to purchase securities. Within a short span of time it becomes very popular amongst various investors. It provides comprehensive suite of savings and investment products across asset classes, which provide income and wealth creation opportunities to large retail and institutional customer.

The single most important factor that drives XYZ Mutual Fund is its belief to give the investors the chance to profitably invest in the financial market, without constantly worrying about the market swings. To realize this belief, XYZ Mutual Fund has set up the infrastructure required to conduct all the fundamental research and back it up with effective analysis. Their strong emphasis on managing and controlling portfolio risk avoids chasing the latest “fads” and trends. ABC Ltd. has entrusted a sum of Rs. 10 Lakh as the initial contribution towards the corpus of the Mutual Fund. PQR limited looks after the operation and investment of Mutual Fund. PQR limited may undertake any other business activities including activities in the nature of management and advisory services to offshore funds, financial consultancy and exchange of research on commercial basis etc., subject to receipt of necessary regulatory approvals. In accordance with SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996, activities of PQR Ltd. are reviewed by CID Ltd. The Board of Directors of the PQR Ltd. and CID Ltd. comprises eminent personalities with varied experience. It has launched its new scheme recently. This scheme mainly invest (appx. 85%) its funds in equity & equity related instruments of top 100 company in terms of full market capitalization. This scheme has 1,05,00,000 outstanding units. NAV published on February 18, 2020 is Rs. 15 per unit. On February 19, 2020, XYZ mutual fund has sold investments worth costing Rs. 2,50,00,000 at Z 2,75,00,000. On the same day, XYZ Mutual Fund purchased investments worth Rs. 1,50,00,000 whose market value at the end of day is Rs. 1,51,15,000. Market value of investment sold was Rs. 2,74,50,000 on February 18, 2020. Current Assets and Current Liability on February 18, 2020 was Rs. 85,00,000 and Rs. 10,00,000 respectively. Market Value of other investment as on February 19,2020 is increased by 1% as compared to February 18, 2020.

Que: Which is not the type of Mutual Fund on the basis of “Structure”?

Equity Schemes

Debt Schemes

Open Ended Fund

Both A & B

Question 2. What is Minimum Networth requirement of AMC as per SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996?

Rs. 50 Million

Rs. 50 Billion

Rs. 50 Lakhs

Rs. 50 Crores

Question 3. Which Ratio measures excess return generated per unit of risk in the portfolio?

Sharpe Ratio

Treynor Ratio

Jensen’s Alpha

Sortino Ratio

Question 4. CAMEL stands for:

Capital, Assets, Management, Earning & Liquidity

Cost, Assets, Managers, Earning and Liquidity

Cost, Assurance, Managers, Earning & Liquidity

Cost, Assets, Management, Earning and Liquidity

Question 5. Liquid Fund invests in debt and money market securities with maturity:

Upto 1 day

Upto 10 days

Upto 91 days

Upto 100 days

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Recruitment Selection and Retention (HR703)-Semester III

February 23, 2022February 23, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Recruitment Selection and Retention (HR703)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

The term bottom-up approach is commonly associated with which of the following?

Select one:

normal group technique

Delphi technique

managerial judgment

work study technique

It is the process of ensuring that there are right number of qualified people in the right jobs for best results. It is known as ___________.

Recruitment

Human Resource Planning

Downsizing

Retrenchment

Question 2. Which of the following factor is an importance of the Human Resource Planning?

Creating highly talented personnel

International strategies

resistance to change and move

All of the options

Question 3. HR Planning is based on which of the following ?

Market condition

External Environment

Financial Condition

Organisational Plan

Question 4. Identify which of the following is the first step in determining supply?

auditing present employees

succession planning.

analysis of labour markets.

placing ads in newspapers.

Question 5. Human resource management emphasises on which of the following ?

Development of people

Punishment of people

Adoption of people

None of these

Question 6. In which of the following options, the HR manager attempts to ascertain the supply of and demand for various types of human resources?

Forecasting

Evaluation

Program implementation

Goal setting

Question 7. Human Resource Management is associated with the management of________.

Community members.

Organizational people

General people.

Financial resources

Question 8. Human Resource Management aims to maximize employees and organizational_________.

Economy

Efficiency

Effectiveness

Planning

Question 9. Which of the following is the basic purpose of human resource planning?

identify the human resource requirements

identify the human resource availability

match the HR requirements with the HR availability

All of the options

Question 10. Customers of an organization fall under which of the following categories?

Shareholders.

Partners.

Stakeholders

Staff.

Identify which of the following is a workforce factor that influences demand.

terminations

sales forecasts.

organizational design.

new ventures.

Question 11. Which of the following is the basis for human resource planning?

demand for employees.

strategic plans of the firm.

supply of employees.

the economy.

Question 12. _______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people required to meet future needs of the organisation.

Supply forecasting

Demand forecasting

Environmental forecasting

Ratio trend analysis

Question 13. Which of the following is the fastest forecasting technique?

Work study technique

Flow models

Ratio trend analysis

HR demand Forecast

Question 14. Identify the option that is not a forecasting technique to assess the human resource requirements of an organization.

trend analysis

ratio analysis

managerial judgment

replacement charts

Question 15. It is the process which first surveys experts, then it provides summaries of all opinion, then re-surveys until consensus emerges regarding the future of the organization. It is called as___________.

work study technique

normal group technique

managerial judgment

Delphi technique

Question 16. The forecasting technique which is based on the subjective views of the managers on the Human Resource requirements of an organization is known as_________.

normal group technique

Delphi technique

managerial judgment

work study technique

Question 17. Which of the following is NOT an advantage in performing human resource planning?

improving utilization of human resources

improving compensation

coordinating hiring needs

improving employment equity.

2nd Module Assessment

The final process of a job analysis is the preparation of two statements _________.

job observation and job description

job specification and job observation

job description and job specification

None of the options.

Question 2. Identify which of the following options is not a component of job design?

job enrichment

job outsourcing

job reengineering

job rotation

Question 3. Adding more responsibility, providing wider scope, greater sequencing and minimizing controls, all these reptresent which of the following?

Job enrichment

Job design

Job enlargement

Job expansion

Question 4. ______ is the systematic process of analyzing and evaluating jobs to determine their relative worth in an organization.

Job enrichment

Job evaluation

Job expansion

Job enlargement

Question 5. It is the process of bringing together different tasks to build a job. It is called as __________.

job evaluation

job design

job classification

job description

Question 6. Which of the following is also known by relative worth of a job?

Job evaluation

Job expansion

Job analysis

Job Change

Question 7. The System of moving employees from one job to another in a predetermined manner is called as ___________.

job rotation

work mapping

job reengineering

job design

Question 8. Which of the following is the system of ranking jobs in a firm on the basis of the relevant characteristics, duties, and responsibilities?

job evaluation

job design

job Specification

job description

Question 9. Job analysis is a process of gathering information about the ____________.

job holder

job

management

organization

Question 10. _________ helps to develop Job design.

Job analysis

Job rotation

Job enlargement

Job enrichment

Which of the following is an important objective of a job evaluation programme? Select one:

a. Establishment of sound wage differentials between jobs.

b. Maintenance of a consistent wage policy.

c. Installation of an effective means of wage control

d. All of the options

Question 11. Identify which of the following is a benefit of job analysis.

Laying the foundation for safety and health

Laying the foundation for performance appraisal

Laying the foundation for employee hiring

All of the Options

Question 12. Job Analysis is a process where _____________ are made about data collected on a job.

judgements

payments

decisions

All of the Options

Question 13. Which of the following is a Quantitative job evaluation method?

Ranking method

Point rating method

Factor comparison method

Only (b) and (c)

Question 14. A ______ is a written record of the duties, responsibilities and conditions of the job.

Job ranking

Job description

Job enrichment

Job enlargement

The basic purpose of Job Evaluation is to determine _______. Select one:

a. Worth of a job in relation to other jobs

b. Time duration of a job

c. Expenses incurred to make a job

d. Both B & C

Question 15. Job Description helps in which of the following?

the development of job specifications

providing orientation to new employees towards their basic responsibilities and duties.

developing performance standard

All of the options

Question 16. _________ helps to know, what kind of a person to recruit and for what qualities that person should be tested.

Job Description

Job specification

Job Design

All of the options

Question 17. Which of the following is a Qualitative job evaluation method?

Ranking

Grading

Point Rating

Both (a) and (b)

3rd Module Assessment

Identify which statement is correct: A. Recruitment and selection are different. B. Promotion is an internal source of recruitment.

Select one:

Both A & B are wrong

A is right, B is wrong

Both A & B are correct

A is wrong, B is right

Question 2. _______ relates to reassignment of an employee to a higher level job which involves greater responsibility or status or pay.

Transfer

Demotion

Cross functional transfer

Promotion

Question 3. Campus selection is a ________source of recruitment.

Fresh

Modern

Internal

External

Question 4. Identify which of the following is the purpose of recruitment?

Make sure that there is match between cost and benefit

Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing the number of visibly underqualified or over qualified job applicants.

Help the firm create more culturally diverse work – force

None of the options.

Question 5. The primary goal of recruitment and selection process is to_______.

meet the high labour turnover

hire the best individuals at optimum cost

ensure the availability of surplus in the case of sickness and absence

None of the options.

Question 6. Recruitment is viewed as a _______ process.

positive

negative

both positive and negative

partially negative

Question 7. Which of the following options is not concerned with staffing?

Recruitment

Selection

Training

Publicity

Question 8. The Best medium to reach to a large audeience in recruitment is _______.

Casual Applicants

Advertising

Employee Referrals

Employment Agencies.

Question 9. Which of the following is the least expensive method used for recruitments?

campus placements

employment exchanges

consultants

walk-ins, write-ins, and talk-ins

Question 10. It is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in an organization. It is termed as________.

Placement

Recruitment

Selection

Promotion

___ is related to hiring of relatives , which will be an inevitable component of recruitment programs in family owned firms. Select one: a. Leasing b. Nepotism c. Loyalty d. None of the options.

Which of the following options is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on internal recruitment in any organisation? Select one:

a. reduced job performance

b. high labour turnover

c. lack of motivation

d. internal resistance

Question 11. Which of the following options is the most important external factor that influences recruitments?

Sons of soil

work environment

Unemployment rate

Supply and demand

Question 12. While recruiting for non – managerial, supervisory and middle – management positions which external factor is of prime importance?

Political – Legal

Labour market

Unemployment rate

none of the options

Question 13. The process of developing an applicants’ pool for job openings in an organization is called as__________.

hiring

recruitment

selection

retention

Question 14. The solution to many so-called ‘people problems’ is often associated with improving the effectiveness of the recruitment process by which of the following?

Having a robust HR department to carry out the process

Outsourcing the HR department

Careful selection of the right people for the job

Devolving to line managers

Question 15. Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals and magazines are _______ methods of recruitment.

direct

indirect

third-party

internal

Question 16. Which of the following options is treated as an alternative to recruitment?

employee leasing

contractors

trade associations

Both A & B

Question 17. It provides a complete job related information -both positive and negative, to the applicants so that they can make right decisions before taking the job. It is known as _______.

Job Compatibility Questionnaire

Market survey

Realistic job preview

Job Design

4th Module Assessment

Which of the following is the correct order, which is followed in a typical selection process?

Test and/or interview, application form, reference check and physical examination

Application form, test and/or interview, reference check and physical examination

Reference check, application form, test and/or interview and physical examination

Physical examination, test and/or interview, application form and reference check

Question 2. Which of the following is Not an internal factor influencing recruitment ?

Size of organization

Recruiting policy

Image of organization

Labor market

Question 3. The interview is used as a method to determine __________.

The personality of the candidate.

The degree of fit between the applicant and the demands of the job.

His/her age.

Physical attributes.

Question 4. Selection is usually considered as a _______ process.

positive

negative

both positive and negative

partially negative

Question 5. It is known as a selection test which judges the emotional ability which will help to judge work in group. It is known as __________.

Personality test

Intelligence Test

Mental Ability Test

None of the above

Question 6. The purpose of an application blank is to gather information about which of the following?

company

candidate

competitors

questionnaire or interview schedule

Question 7. Poor quality of selection will lead to an extra cost on _______ and supervision.

Training

Recruitment

Work quality

None of the above

Question 8. It is______ defined as the area in the field of analytics that deals with people analysis and applying analytical process to the human capital within the organization to improve employee performance and improving employee retention.

Data analytics

HR analytics

Statistical Analysis

None of these

Question 9. ___________ is the determination of the job to which an accepted candidate is to be assigned. It is a matching of what the supervisor has reason to think he can do with the job demands.

Recruitment

Placement

Selection

Training

Question 10. “This test measure abilities like manual dexterity, motor ability and eye-hand co-ordination of candidates. This test is useful to select semi-skilled workers and workers for repetitive operations like packing and watch assembly.” This test is known as ______.

Psychomotor Test

Achievement Test

Intelligence Test

Work Sample Test

When a candidate is put to hardship during an interview, it is called as ____________.

a. patterned interview

b. in-depth interview

c. stress interview

d. preliminary interview

Which of the following options is not a process of selection process?

a. Testing

b. Checking references

c. Attitude formation

d. Medical examination

Question 11. It is the process of choosing the most suitable candidate for a job from among the available applicants . It is called as _____________.

Appraisal

Recruitment

Selection

Placement

Question 12. It is the test that measures whether an idividual has the capacity or latent ability to learn a given Job. It is known as _____________.

intelligence test

Aptitude test

General knowledge test

Psycho mator test

Question 13. Which of the following steps in Selection process is a crucial decision?

Physical Examination

Reference & Back ground check

Employment interview

Selection decision

Question 14. Which of the following selection method is the most used by organizations?

Interviews

Ability tests

References

A trial period

Question 15. Which of the following is an external factor influencing recruitment?

Labor market

Recruiting policy

Competition

Size of organization

Question 16. The process of selection of employees is usually influenced by which of the following?

rules and regulations

strategies and objectives

principles and programmes

none of the options

Question 17. This test measures a persons ability to classify things, identify relationships and derive analogies. It also measures several factors like logical reasoning, analytical skills and general knowledge.This test is known as _________.

Emotional tests

Intelligence test

Performance tests

Social tests

5th Module Assessment

_______________is/are some critical aspects of employee retention, in recognition for the employee contributions in organisation. Career development B. growth opportunities

Only A

Only B

Both A & B

None of the options.

Question 2. The ____________ in any organization plays a crucial role in employee retention.

HR Department

Accounts Department

Planning Department

Logistics Department

Question 3. _________ has become a critical aspect of modern human capital management programs.

Employee counseling

Employee retention

Employee turnover

Employee absentism

Question 4. In a business setting, the employer’s goal is usually to ____ employee turnover.

Increase

decrease

Moderate

accelerate

Question 5. _______ means efforts of business organizations to maintain a working environment that supports current staff in remaining with the company.

Employee counseling

Employee turnover

Employee Absenteeism

Employee retention

Question 6. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Employee Retention? A. It promotes groups amongst the old employees, which creates an insecure environment for new employees. B. Improper mixing of staff affects productivity and ensures the poor quality of work. C. Excessive liberty to staff to maintain workflow affects the quantity andnquality of both.

Only A

Only B & C

All A,B, C

Only A & B

Question 7. It is a measure to encourage employees to remain in the organization for a long period of time . It is Known as _________.

Employee counseling

Employee attrition

Employee retention

Employee compensation

Question 8. Which of the following is the main driver of retention? A. fair compensation B. feeling trusted and empowered

Select one:

Only A

Only B

Both A & B

none of the options.

Question 9. When the number of employee seperation during a specific period is divided by number of employees at midmonth , and is multiplied to 100 , it is used to calculate ________.

absenteeism rate

turnover rate

satisfaction rate

employment rate

Question 10. The exit interviews, the expenses of unemployment and legal fees of challenged seperations are known as _________.

training cost

hiring cost

seperation cost

Productivity cost

Question 11. The interviews taken in the organisations to ask about possible reasons leading to Job turnover are classified as _____.

transfer interviews

termination interviews

Exit interviews

employee firing interviews

Question 12. ” Employers that recognize the subtle signs that show an employee might leave have a better chance of identifying ways to retain that person.” This statement is ______.

Correct

Incorrect

Partially Correct

Can’t Say

Which of the following is correct in relation to Employee Retention? A. Employee retention is a high priority for leading HR organizations today. B. The most effective employee retention strategies reduce overall turnover and keep high performers on board. C. A thoughtful and comprehensive employee retention strategy reduces the high costs associated with replacing lost employees. Select one:

a. Only A

b. Only B

c. Only B & C

d. All A, B & C

Question 13. Which of the following can be a reason for high employee turnover? A. Work relationships B. Work-life balance C. Lack of opportunity D. Financial reasons

All A,B,C,D

Only B , C, D

Only B & C

Only A,B,C

Question 14. Which of the following is not a benefit of employee retention ?

Increased productivity

Experienced employees

Cost reduction

Increased Expenditures

Question 15. Which of the following factor affects employee retention? A. Work Relationships B. Compensation C. Transparent & fair reviews

Only A

Only A & B

Only B & C

All A,B & C

Question 16. Which of the following factors can tell that employees are ready to leave? A. Shift in attitude B. Lack of commitment C. Decreased initiative or

Only A & B

Only B

Only B & C

All A,B & C

Question 17. Employees remain at organizations for a variety of reasons, Identify these reasons. A. Meaningful work that leverages their skills and abilities B. Career development C. Growth opportunities.

Only A

Only A & B

Only B & C

All A,B & C

Assignment 2

Case Study

Recruitment” is the process of finding and hiring the best and most qualified candidate for a job opening, in a timely and cost-effective manner. It can also be defined as the “process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating and encouraging them to apply for jobs in an organization”.

It is one whole process, with a full life cycle, that begins with identification of the needs of the company with respect to the job, and ends with the introduction of the employee to the organization.

When we speak of the recruitment process, we immediately think of activities such as the analysis of the requirements of a specific job, attracting candidates to apply for that job, screening the applicants and selecting among them, hiring the chosen candidates to become new employees of the organization, and integrating them into the structure.

Obviously, the main reason why the recruitment process is implemented is to find the persons who are best qualified for the positions within the company, and who will help them towards attaining organizational goals. But there are other reasons why a recruitment process is important.Effective recruiting means that the person employed for the job is the best possible candidate for it, with all the required skills, talents and qualifications of the job. Efficient recruiting, on the other hand, means that the process has been carried out without incurring a lot of costs on the part of the organization. By following the process, there is a greater chance that the human resources department can get the best possible person for the job. Organizations may carry out their hiring processes their own way, but without a system or set guidelines in place for its conduct and implementation, there is a risk that the company may incur more expenses than necessary. The company will also end up wasting its resources if the wrong or unqualified person was actually hired. Not only will this create problems for the company in the long run, particularly in the attainment of its goals, but it would mean that the organization would also have wasted its resources in training an employee that is not right for the job after all.

Through recruitment, organizations make sure that the skill sets of the staff or manpower of the company remains aligned to its initiatives and goals.

In the event that they notice some positions do not really contribute to the advancement of the organization towards its goals, then it can take the proper action to correct this, probably through job redesign, restructuring of the workforce, or conduct of job enrichment programs.

FACTORS THAT INFLUENCE RECRUITMENT

Recruitment is affected by several factors. These factors play a big part on whether the recruitment process will be successful or not.

Size of the organization

A large organization is bound to have a higher demand for new employees. It is bound to look for more people, since the structure will require more manpower. On the other end of the spectrum, a small enterprise, like a new company just starting its operations, will require only a lean staff.

Comparing the two, it is clear that the smaller enterprise will have a simpler, more straightforward and shorter recruitment process, conducted by only one or two people. The larger organization, however, will have a lengthier and more complex recruitment process, one where several members of the organization will take part in.

Current employment conditions in the economy

Try comparing employment opportunities in a country with a developed economy with that of an underdeveloped one. An organization operating in an underdeveloped economy may have difficulty finding the candidates with the talents and skills it requires.

The availability of prospective talents is one huge issue with respect to the economy that an enterprise belongs to. The company will have to design and implement its recruitment process in a way that will address this issue.

Salary structure of the organization

Say one company is known to provide higher salaries and wages to its employees. Once it advertises its open position, candidates are likely to line up submitting their resumes. However, a company known to be quite stingy with its wages will have more difficulty recruiting top talents.

In addition, it may even have problems keeping or retaining its employees, since no employee would want to stay for a long time in a company that will not pay him enough for his services.

Working conditions within the organization

Maintaining employees’ job satisfaction is one way for organizations to keep its employees, and attract new ones.

Prospective candidates will first look for work in companies or organizations that are known to provide good working conditions and looks out for the health and well-being of their employees.

Growth rate of the organization

There are organizations that grow at a fast rate, which means that they will require new employees from time to time. However, there are also organizations that do not grow as much, or even at all. The only time that these organizations with low growth rates are likely to recruit new employees would be when the old ones retire or resign.

Before we fully launch into the recruitment process, let us address one question first: who conducts the recruitment process?

The answer is largely dependent on the size of the organization, as well as its culture and practices. Large companies have their own human resource departments, where they have in-house hiring managers. They may also acquire the services of third-party and independent human resource professionals and recruitment agencies.

Que: Which of the following is a factor that influences Recruitment?

Size of the organization

Working conditions within the organization

Salary structure of the organization

All of above

Question 2. ___________ is not an External Source of Recruitment.

Campus Selection

Internal Advertisement

Consultancy

Walk-in

Question 3. Promotion is a ______ source of recruitmnent

Suitable

Higher

Internal

External

Question 4. Identifying the _____candidates and ______ them to apply for job is called recruitment.

available, insisting

available, making

potential, attracting

potential, insisting

Question 5. A prerequisite for a successful and efficient recruitment programme is to have a(n) __________.

corporate policy

HR policy

Recruitment Policy

Health & safety Policy

Unix Linux Programming (CSIT803)-Semester III

February 17, 2022February 17, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Unix Linux Programming (CSIT803)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

______ is the innermost layer in UNIX System architecture.

Hardware

Kernel

Shell

None of these

Question 2. For each new device attached to the computer there is a _______ associated with it.

device driver

MAC address

IP address

None of these

Question 3. The ___________ is simply a program that reads in the commands you type and converts them into a form more readily understood by the UNIX system.

Kernel

shell

Hardware

None of these

Question 4. Linux operating system evolved from a kernel created by ______.

Power mode

sleep mode

hibernate mode

Both B and C

Question 5. The lowest level of any Operating system is its _________.

Processes

Kernel

Programs

None of these

Question 6. An ________ is often distributed with tools for programs to display and manage a graphical user interface.

operating system

Graphical System

Device Driver

None of these

Question 7. State whether True or False: Operating System and Application Software are same.

TRUE

FALSE

May be True

None of these

Question 8. _______ are files that contain a list of commands you want to run.

Scripts

Commands

CLI

None of these

Question 9. Which of these is an Operating System?

Unix

DOS

Windows

All of these

Question 10. The UNIX family consists of ______ components.

two

One

three

four

A _____ is a specially written program which understands the operation of the device it interfaces to.

driver

Device

Application()

None of these

Question 11. Operating systems did not exist in their modern and more complex forms until the early _________.

Select one:

1940

1950

1960

1970

Question 12. Broadly we can classify users into _______ and _______ categories.

Super user and Layman User()

Programmer and Non Programmer

Root and non-root user

All of these()

Question 13. UNIX uses ______ scheduling to support its multi-user and time-sharing feature.

FIFO

SJF

Round-Robin

All of these

Question 14. Development of the GNU operating system was initiated by ________.

Dennis Ritchie

Richard Stallman

John Hallman

None of these

Question 15. _______ are used to monitor computer performance, debug problems, or maintain parts of the system.

System Tools

Device Driver

Kernel

None of these

Question 16. During initialization, shell reads the _____ and ____ files.

/init and p file

/pro and p file

/etc/profile and profile

Both A and C

Question 17. The current version of the standard Shell and Utilities volume of IEEE Std 1003.1-2001 is also known as _________.

POSTFIX

PREFIX

POSIX

None of these

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2nd Module Assessment

POSIX shell provides job control facilities like bg or fg.

TRUE

FALSE

May be True

May be False

Question 2. A process is an instance of _______ program.

waiting

executing

terminated

halted

Question 3. Process is a program in ________ state.

initializing

dead

execution

None of these

Question 4. Each process is identified by a unique integer called ______

PID

PPID

TID

PTID

Question 5. What is a job?

group of tasks

group of commands

group of processes

group of signals

Question 6. Programs and process are synonymous.

TRUE

FALSE

May be Ture

All of these

Question 7. Which command will push the current foreground job to the background?

ctrl-Z

kill

Question 8. Which command is used to list the status of jobs?

JOBS

jobs

Question 9. A process is said to be ____ when it starts its execution.

born

die

waiting

terminated

Which of the following commands is used to suspend a job?

ctrl-Z

ctrl-Q

Question 10. When a process has completed its execution, it is called ______

born

terminated

waiting

exit

Question 11. Which data structure is used to store information about a process?

process control block (pcb)

array

queue

program control block

Question 12 . Two types of processes existing in the system are _____________.

Super and non-super processes

high level and low level processes

kernel and user processes

None of these

Question 13. Process table and process control block store same attributes of a process. State whether it is True or False.

TRUE

FALSE

May be True

May be False

Question 14. ____ command will bring the background jobs to the foreground.

ctrl-Z

kill

Ready state processes are scheduled by ______.

Select one:

Shell

Hardware()

kernel

None of these()

Question 15. Some attributes of every process are maintained by the kernel in memory in a separate structure, called the ______

pcb

task control block

process table

task table

Question 16. _________is the state of process when it completes its task.

Dead

Zombie

Final

Both A and B

Question 17. The command bg %2 is valid. State whether it is True or False.

a) True

b) False

May be True

None of These

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3rd Module Assessment

In how many categories are the commands of UNIX operating system classified?

Select one:

Many

Question 2. Which command is used for displaying date and calendar in UNIX?

date and cal

DATE and CAL

date and calendar

dt and cl

Question 3. Permissions of a file are represented by which of the following characters?

r, w, x

e, w, x

x, w, e

e, x, w

Question 4. Echo command is used for _________.

displaying errors

displaying operating system details

displaying diagnostic messages

displaying date and time

Question 5. Shell provides us with an interface to the operating system.

True

False

May be True

None of these

Question 6. Which of these commands is used for searching a pattern in one or more file(s)?

paste

grep

Question 7. How many types of permissions a file has in UNIX?

Question 8. The prompt issued by the shell is called ______.

prompt

command translator

command prompt

command executor

Question 9. Multiple arguments as filenames can be specified in cat command.

True

False

May be True

May be False

Question 10. Sometimes it is not possible to copy a file.

True

False

May be True

None of these

Question 11. What is the output of who command?

a) display information about users who are currently logged in.

b) display file hierarchy

c) display administrator information

Question 12. What is the default symbol for command prompt in Bourne shell?

a) $

b) %

c) #

d) @

Question 13. How can we specify more than one command in the command line at the same time?

a) using ;

b) using >

c) using ==

d) not possible

Question 14. Which of the following is not an option of cp command?

minus z

minus i

minus R

minus u

Question 15. If there are special characters in a pattern, then we’ve to enclose them in __________.

a) single quotes

b) double quotes

c) without any quotes

d) all quotes

Question 16. If we create a file using cat command with the same filename which already exists in the current directory, then:

a) existing file is deleted

b) new file will be created separately

c) existing file will be overwritten

d) an error will be produced

Question 17. What are meta-characters?

a) special characters having predefined meaning to the shell

b) special symbols

c) shell symbols

d) command symbols

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4th Module Assessment

How many types of modes are used by vi editor?

Question 2. Which command is used for comparing two files?

cmp

comp

diff

comm

Question 3. Which stream is connected to the display?

standard input

standard output

standard error

error

Question 4. We can delete multiple files using a single rm command. State whether it is True or False.

True

False

May be True

May be False

Which option is used by vi editor to open a file in read mode only?

a. -r

b. -R

c. -d

d. -f

Question 5. Which command is used to change the permission of a file?

chmod

chown

chgrp

Question 6. The command wc < sample.txt will count data from the file sample.txt. State whether it is True or False.

True

False

May be True

May be False

Question 7. Which editor is used by the UNIX system to edit files?

notepad

word

notepad++

Question 8. Redirection is a process of switching of the standard stream of data. State whether True or False.

True

False

May be true

May be False

Question 9. What is the exit status of cmp command if both the files are identical?

undefined

Question 10. What does the following command do: $vi file001

open file named file001

edit file named file001

delete a file named file001

open the file if it exists, else creates a new file

Which symbol is used for taking input from standard input?

a) &

b) %

c) –

d) $

Question 11. Which of the following characters specify the user and group category?

a) ‘u’ and ‘g’

b) ‘g’ and ‘o’

c) ‘us’ and ‘gr’

d) ‘u’ and ‘o’

Question 12. How can we skip some initial bytes from both the files to be compared?

a) using -b option

b) using -n option

c) using -l option

d) using -i option

Question 13. $ cp -f copies forcefully. State whether it is True or False.

a) True

b) False

May be True

May be False

Question 14. dw command ________

a) deletes one line

b) deletes one word

c) deletes one character

d) deletes one sentence

Question 15. Which option is used with cat command for displaying non-printable characters?

a) -v

b) -n

c) -x

d) -a

Question 16. Which option is used with cmp command to limit the number of bytes to be compared?

a) -n

b) -l

c) -f

d) -b

Question 17. The expression used with chmod command to change permissions in a relative manner contains _______ components.

a) 5

b) 2

c) 4

d) 3

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5th Module Assessment

Which of the following commands is known as stream editor?

a. sed

b. gnu

c. grep

d. tr

To remove users from the system we use userdel. State whether it is True or False.

True

False

Partially True

Partially False

Question 2. Which command shuts down and reboot the system?

shutdown -g2

shutdown -y -g0 -i6

shutdown -g2 -g0

shutdown -g2 i6

Question 3. Mounting a file system attaches that file system to a ________.

Assignment 2

Case Study:

XYZ Corporation ltd. setup a Linux operating system for its organization. The Linux open source operating system, or Linux OS, is a freely distributable, cross-platform operating system based on UNIX.

The Linux consist of a kernel and some system programs. The kernel is the heart of the operating system which provides a set of tools that are used by system calls. It is responsible for all major activities of this operating system. It consists of various modules and it interacts directly with the underlying hardware. Kernel provides the required abstraction to hide low level hardware details to system or application programs.The defining component of Linux is the Linux kernel, released on 5 October 1991 by Linus Torvalds. Linux provides a special interpreter program known as Shell which can be used to execute commands of the operating system. Linux Operating System has primarily three components.

1. Kernel – Kernel is the core part of Linux. Installed components of a Linux system include the following:

1. A bootloader is a program that loads the Linux kernel into the computer’s main memory, by being executed by the computer when it is turned on and after the firmware initialization is performed.

2. An init program is the first process launched by the Linux kernel, and is at the root of the process tree.

3. Software libraries contain code that can be used by running processes. The most commonly used software library on Linux systems, the GNU C Library (glibc), C standard library and Widget toolkits.

4. User interface programs such as command shells or windowing environments.

5. System Utility – System Utility programs are responsible to do specialized, individual level tasks.

Based on the case study answer the following:

Question: ____ is the heart of Operating System.

Kernel

Shell

Input/Output

All of these

Question 2. Linux OS is developed by _____.

Linus Torvalds

Dennis Ritchie

John Brown

None of these

Question 3. What is a shell?

It is a program to exceute Operating System commands.

It is a program to provide the permissions.

It is a program under execution.

All of these

Question 4. A/An _____ program is the first process launched by the Linux kernel.

start

stop

init

run

Question 5. _____ programs are responsible to do specialized, individual level tasks.

Adminstrative

System Utility

User

All of these

Advanced Web Technologies (CSIT762)-Semester III

February 17, 2022February 18, 2022 Kim Sharma Leave a comment

Advanced Web Technologies (CSIT762)-Semester III

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1st Module Assessment

A line can be drawn horizontally using__________.

horizontal ruler

new line

vertical ruler

new paragraph

Select the corect order of tags as occur in a HTML page.

Select one:

HTML, Body, Title, Head

HTML, Head, Title, Body

Head, Title, HTML, body

Question 2. To insert rows in a table , the combination of tags used are___________.

None of the above

Question 3. Which tag is used for making the heading font largest?

Question 4. A empty line can be left in the document using ___________.

<b>

<i>

<br>

<i>

Question 5. The correct syntax of inserting an image in HTML document is ___________.

Question 6. Correct way of creating a hyperlink is ___________________.

<a link = “www.javatpoint.com”> javaTpoint.com </a>

<a> www.javatpoint.com <javaTpoint.com /a>

<a href = “www.javatpoint.com”> javaTpoint.com </a>

Question 7. <li> in a HTML document stands for________.

list interface

list integer

list item

list iterator

Question 8. A group of Frames is called as _________________.

Index

Frameset

CollectionFrame

list

Question 9. HTML expands to _________ .

HyperText Markup Language

HighText Machine Language

HyperText and links Markup Language

None of these

Question 10. Which tag is used to create a submit button?

Question 11. Numbered list is created using ____________.

Question 12. To decorate the web page with motion text in a web page we use ______ tag.

<br>

<hr>

None of these

<b> tag and ______tag makes the text bold.

Select one:

<fat>

<black>

<emp>

Question 13. Comments in HTML use _______ tag.

<!– Comment — >

<! Comment!>

<!-Comment””>

Question 14. Choose from the options the tags which does not have matching end tag associated with it?

<p>

<br>

<b>

<u>

Question 15. _____ is address used which only includes the name of the image.

Relative Address

Absolute Address

URL Address

None of these

Question 16. Font-size attribute can take value ranging form:

1-10

1-7

1-8

1-9

Question 17. In a browser if there is no support for Frames then ______ tag is used to give alternate text.

None of these

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2nd Module Assessment

Java script is run by _____.

server

client

local machine

remote machine

Question 2. The font-size is altered in CSS by _______.

p { font-size:2em;}

p { font:2em;}

p { font-se:2pm;}

p { font-:2mm;}

Question 3. CSS Rule consist of ____ parts.

Question 4. CSS can be integrated in ____ number of ways.

Question 5. The correct syntax to specify the font family is _____

p {font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif;

{p: font-fami: “Times New Roman”, Times.serif;}

{ font-fam: “Times New Roman”: Times:serif}

None of these

Question 6. CSS is used to_____.

Define style for your web page

Define the design for your webpage

Define the layout for your webpage

All of these

Question 7. Javascript and Java both are same_____.

TRUE

FALSE

May be

None ofthse

Question 8. CSS expands to form ___.

Cascade style sheets

Cascading style sheets

Color and style sheets

None of the above

Question 9. Syntax to create an alert box is:____.________

alertBox(“Hello”)

alert(“Hello”)

alrt(“Hello”)

All of these

Question 10. An event handler can be think of as ___________

interface

clsss

function

variable

Question 11. To decortae the HTML page using external CSS____ tag is used.

<style>

<src>

<link>

<css>

To provide style to a particular element we use _________ Selector.

Class

text

name

Question 12. To fix text which revolves over the image in CSS we use _____.

wrap

float

push

align

Question 13. Comments in CSS is given by ______.

//comment//

/* comment*/

<!comment…..>

None of these

Question 14. To decorate the image by giving it a red color dot style border we use _____.

border-color

border-style

border-decoration

border-line

Question 15. If we want to show only the bordered vacant cell ____ tag is used.

empty-cell

void-cell

noncontent-cell

blank-cell

Question 16. The fixed value of the position attribute in CSS is __.

fixed

relative

absolute

inherit

Question 17. When we create a hyperlink in HTML document, it comes as underlined. __ is used to get rid of the underlining.

a {text: no-underline;}

a {text-style: no-underline;}

a {text-decoration:none;}

a {text-decoration: no-underline;}

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3rd Module Assessment

Use of DTD in XHTML is done to check the XHTML syntax.

TRUE

FALSE

May be

Can’t say

Question 2. To accomodate three frame frames in a window three frame tags must be used nested under frameset tag.

TRUE

FALSE

May be

Can’t say

Question 3. Frames are a means of showing more than one page together in a window

TRUE

FALSE

May be

Can’t say

Question 4. Following the rules of XHTML and XML, beginning tags must be accompanied with end tag

TRUE

FALSE

May be

Can’t say

Question 5. To insert a table in XHTML, the correct tag used is:

None of these

Question 6. Tick the correct XHTML tag?

<P></p>

</P><P>

<p></p>

<P></P>

Question 7. While creating the hyperlinks, an absolute address must include an Internet protocol.

TRUE

FALSE

May be

Can’t say

Question 8. To insert an image in XHTML, the correct tag is

None of the above

Question 9. XHTMLis a case sensitive language

TRUE

FALSE

May be

Can’t say

Question 10. XHTML expands to _________

Xtension Hyper text Mark up language

Xtensible Hyper text mark up language

Xtensible Hyper Table Mark Up Language

None of these

DTD in XHTML can be defined by_________.

Select one:

Transitional DTD

Strict DTD

Frameset DTD

All of these

Question 11. Correct syntax to create 3 frames in XHTML is __________.

None of these

Question 12. Version of XHTML document is mentioned by __________.

<meta>

<base>

<link>

<!DOCTYPE>

Question 13. XHTML document following all the rules mentioned in DTD is known as ______________.

Verification

Validation

Type Checking

Semantic Check

Question 14. <!DOCTYPE> has an _________required attribute.

xhtml()

xmlns

xmln

xcds

Question 15. Self-close identification sheme is used for_______.

HTML

XHTML

SGML

All the above

Question 16. XHTML is more formal and stricter version of HTML. i.e.

It has properly nested elemnts

All elements must be closed

All elements are lowercase

All of these

Question 17. In XHTML, form is created with reset button using _____tag.

<reset>

None of the above

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5th Module Assessment

To inserta new record into Database, we use the ___________ query.

“INSERT INTO <Tablename> (firstname lastname, email) VALUES(‘Nisha’, ‘Ahuja’, ‘nahuja@amity.com’)

“INSERT INTO VALUES(‘Nisha’, ‘Ahuja’, ‘nahuja@amity.com’)

“INSERT IN <Tablename> (firstname, lastname, email) VALUES(‘Nisha’, ‘Ahuja’, ‘nahuja@amity.com’)

All of these

Question 2. _______function open the file in a particular mode.

readfile()

fopen()

fread()

None of these

Question 3. _______ is used to connect to MySql server.

mysql()

mysqlconnect()

mysqli()

None of these

Question 4. ________ function checks the end of file has come.

feof()

feod()

feoD()

None of these

Question 5. File handling involves opening and manipulating a file for various operations.

TRUE

FALSE

May be

Can’t say

Question 6. _______function is used to read one line from the file.

fread()

fgets()

fputs()

None of these

Question 7. A session in PHP begins with _____________.

session_start()

session_begin()

session=True

All of these

Question 8. A cookie is a small file often used to associate a particular user.

TRUE

FALSE

May be

Can’t say

Question 9. ________ function is used for writing in the file.

fwrite()

fright()

freadandwrite()

None of these

Question 10. The __________function returns the number of bytes read.

readline()

readfile()

read()

None of these

Question 11. error() returns the error in the database connection. But if there is no error during the database connection, what will it returns?

No error

Empty String

Which file you need to configure to allow for file uploads?

php.cnf

php.ini

php.stg

None of these

Question 12. To read a file into a string the use of _____function is made.

fread()

fget()

file_get_contents()

None of these

Question 13. All session related values are present in __________.

SESSION variable

$SESSION variable

$_SESSION variable

None of these

Question 14. rmdir() in PHP works to _____________.

remove the directory

remove the empty direcory

removing all the existing diectories

All of these

Question 15. The second argument of fopen() during file handling is_____.

permission valu

mode of operation

blank

None of the above

Question 16. ______ is similar to fsockopen().

pfsockopen()

open()

fopen()

None of these

Question 17. _____ function is used to create a file if it is not found and also set the last updation time.

unlink()

stat()

touch()

symlink() w

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Assignment 2

CASE STUDY

A firm ABC pvt ltd has a special men’s, women’s and kid’s wear online web presence in India. They have started a new firm with employee base of just 5 employees. One is employed as CSS Designerr, Other one is Java Developer, Rest are Content Manager, Software Tester and Web-site designer. They offer men’s fine clothing with a unique blend of global fashion and innovative design comfort for the upcoming trends. They also bring together a widest range of linen fashion under one roof with exquisite luxury at affordable price. They want to show their online presence by creating a web and mobile application. The company want light weight web site to be created so that they can showcase their products in a attractive manner. Apart from that, focusing on seasons like Diwali sale & promotions, client required relevant additional support for their website’s performance. They also required their website to be implemented with SSL to support for payment gateway process. So, they want Clear and easy to understanding of GST information, Displaying seasonal offers to increasing the purchase

Google AdWords support and Re-marketing to increase the order conversion

Which technology is used to provide a attractive web site design?

HTML

Java Script

CSS

All of these

Question 2. In the paragraph, CSS stands for ___________.

Cascading Style sheets

Comment Style Sheet

Cascad Style sheet

None of these

Question 3. How can SQL be used during Diwali season?

To authenticate the user for secure payment by interfacing with the Database

To provide information about the user for secure payment

To update the database credit, debit transactions

All of these

Question 4. How can Javascript developer helps in making Website?

To validate the login details of customer at client side

To validate the login details of customer at server side

To verify the other details filled by the User during purchase

No of these

Question 5. Which technology is used to create the web site plain text content?

HTML

SGML

CSS

None of these

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