Management Foundation (MGMT101)-Semester I

Management Foundation (MGMT101)-Semester I
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

1st Module Assessment

Question 1. principle of management puts emphasis on judicious application of penalties by the management.
Select one:
a. Division of work
b. Esprit de corps
c. Order
d. Discipline
Clear my choice
Question 2. Gang plank is related to
Select one:
a. communication.
b. incentives to workers.
c. supervision of workers.
d. motivation.
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which one of the following is not an importance of management?
Select one:
a. Disciplining employees
b. Integrating various interest groups
c. Developing society
d. Inculcating creativity
Clear my choice
Question 4. Top management is concerned with formulation of
Select one:
a. guidelines for supervisors.
b. long-term plans
c. None of these
d. short-term plans.
Clear my choice
Question 5. _
means one plan, one boss.
Select one:
a. Centralisation
b. Unity of command
c. Gang Plank
d. Unity of direction
Clear my choice
Question 6. denotes concentration of authority at the top level
Select one:
a. Delegation
b. Centralisation
c. Decentralisation
d. Coordination
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which one of the following is not a principle of scientific management?
Select one:
a. Development of personnel
b. Maximum, not restricted output
c. Harmony, not discord
d. Functional foremanship
Clear my choice
Question 8.
principle of management states that there should be a place for everything and everything should be in its place.
Select one:
a. Equity
b. Order
c. Esprit de corps
d. Discipline
Clear my choice
Question 9. In which category does management fall?
Select one:
a. Semi-profession
b. Well-established profession
c. Marginal profession
d. Emerging profession
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Select one:
a. Management is a goal-oriented process
b. Management is a dynamic process.
c. Management is a continuous process.
d. Management is a rigid process.
Clear my choice
Question 11. Unity of command is related to
Select one:
a. management and workers
b. planned actions.
c. cooperation among employees.
d. superiors and subordinates
Clear my choice
Question 12. Management principles differ from pure science principles because management principles are
Select one:
a. rigid.
b. vague.
c. situation-bound
d. easy to learn
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which title is given to an individual who is in charge of and coordinates the activities of a group of employees engaged in related activities within a unit of an organization?
Select one:
a. contractor
b. vender
c. manager
d. employee
Clear my choice
Question 14. Management is a
directed process as it aims at achieving specified goals.
Select one:
a. Continuously
b. Deliberately
c. Goal
d. Future
Clear my choice
Question 15. Coordination is required at levels of management in all management functions.
Select one:
a. few
b. all
c. only top
d. bottom
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which level of management is responsible for establishing a vision for the organization, developing broad plans and strategies, and directing subordinate managers?
Select one:
a. second level managers
b. executive managers
c. first level managers
d. middle managers
Clear my choice
Question 17. The element that aims at integrating group efforts to achieve group objectives is called _
.
Select one:
a. Cooperation
b. Directing
c. Coordination
d. Management

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. Which one of the following is a step of planning?

a. Analysis of environment
b. Analysis of employee behaviour
c. Analysis of employee morale
d. Analysis of organisation structure
Clear my choice
Question 2. Plans which prescribes chronological steps for performing activities is

a. Method
b. Rule
c. Procedure
d. Policy
Clear my choice
Question 3. __ is a feature of planning, which is also referred to as primacy of planning.

a. Primary function of management
b. Pervasive
c. Integrating
d. Continuous
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which one of the following is a single-use plan?

a. Method
b. Strategy
c. Rule
d. Budget
Clear my choice
Question 5. __ is a statement of expected results in numerical terms

a. Plan
b. Estimate
c. Budget
d. Forecast
Clear my choice
Question 6. Pervasiveness of planning usually indicates that planning

a. is a future-oriented activity
b. extends throughout the organisation.
c. is a top management function.
d. is the first element of management process.
Clear my choice
Question 7. Importance of planning lies in

a. Selecting the most appropriate plan
b. Identifying alternatives critically
c. Reducing uncertainty
d. Developing leadership
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which of the following is not true for forecasting?

a. Short range forecasts are less accurate than long range forecasts
b. The underlying casual system will remain same in the future
c. Forecast for group of items is accurate than individual item
d. Forecasts are rarely perfect
Clear my choice
Question 9. Objectives are decided by

a. Superior
b. None of the above
c. Subordinates
d. Mutual consultations of both superior and subordinates
Clear my choice
Question 10. __ is a comprehensive plan for achieving its objectives.

a. Method
b. Policy
c. Strategy
d. Rule
Clear my choice
The basic role of strategy is to provide
Select one:
a. direction for control.
b. direction for motivation.
c. setting procedures.
d. direction for action
Question 11. Choose the INCORRECT option

a. Planning Involves Decision Making
b. Planning is Futuristic
c. Planning is basically doing and not an intellectual activity of thinking
d. Planning is Continuous
Clear my choice
Question 12. The following is not true for Management by objectives (MBO)

a. Better management and improved communication
b. It forces the management to plan the activities in a systematic way
c. It acts an effective Performance appraisal tool
d. The superior evaluate the individual concerned
Clear my choice
Question 13. In which of the following forecasting technique, data obtained from past experience is analyzed?

a. Judgemental forecast
b. Associative model
c. Time series forecast
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following statements is false?

a. If a plan has worked before it will work again
b. Any plan needs to be translated into action or it becomes meaningless
c. Managers have a tendency to rely on previously tried and tested successful plans
d. he success of an enterprise is possible only when plans are properly drawn up and implemented
Clear my choice
Question 15. Decision-making is the case of __.
a. Organising
b. Planning
c. Staffing
d. Directing
Clear my choice
Question 16. Mangement objectives when it is being considered must have

a. Multiple objectives
b. Two objectives
c. Three objectives
d. Single objective
Clear my choice
Question 17. Long term objectives are aimed to be achieved

a. In more than 5 years
b. Within 2 years
c. In more than 3 years
d. Within one year

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. Formal organisation differ from informal organisation with respect to
a. Financial procedure
b. Structuring
c. Production process
d. Purchasing
Clear my choice
An advantage of functional structure is
Select one:
a. Flexibility
b. Easier employee learning
c. Responsibility for end results
d. Personalised attention
Question 2. involves giving authority and responsibility to subordinates.
a. Delegation
b. Decentralisation
c. Centralisation
d. Division of work
Clear my choice
Question 3. Organising process involves one of the following:
a. Prescribing disciplinary action
b. Grouping of activities
c. Determining objectives
d. Prescribing work schedule
Clear my choice
Question 4. Following is NOT an importance of organising:
a. Role clarity
b. Growth and expansion
c. Performance appraisal
d. Adaptation to change
Clear my choice
Question 5. Divisional structure leads to conflict in
a. resource allocation
b. motivation
c. marketing management
d. planning process
Clear my choice
Question 6.
is the organisational structure in which activities are grouped together on the basis of products.
a. Functional structure
b. Formal
c. Divisional structure
d. Informal
Clear my choice
Question 7. Organisation structure establishes relationships between
a. organisation and society
b. organisation and environment
c. people, work and resources
d. suppliers and customers
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which one of the following does not follow scalar chain?
a. Divisional structure
b. Informal organisation
c. Functional structure
d. Formal organisation
Clear my choice
Question 9. The number of subordinates who report directly to a manager is called that manager’s _
a. Range
b. Authority
c. Delegation
d. Span of control
Clear my choice
Question 10. _
is the process of grouping similar activities together and creating departments.
a. Division of work
b. Centralisation
c. Departmentalisation
d. Delegation
Clear my choice
Question 11. __
is the organisational structure in which no department is responsible for end results.

a. Formal
b. Functional structure
c. Informal
d. Divisional structure
Clear my choice
Question 12. The purpose of an organisational structure is NOT _

a. To formalise authority
b. To coordinate people and resources
c. To organise lines of communication
d. To limit workers’ rights
Clear my choice
Question 13. __ is the duty for job performance.

a. Accountability
b. Responsibility
c. Both (a) and ( C)
d. Authority
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which organisation structure is generally followed by big steel plants?

a. All of the above
b. Line organisation
c. Functional organisation
d. Line and staff organisation
Clear my choice
Question 15. A virtual organisation is __

a. An organisation that uses internet technologies to sell its products to the customers
b. An organisation that coordinates the workforce via video conferencing
c. An organisation that uses information and communications technologies (ICT’s) to coordinate activities without any physical boundaries between different functions
d. An organisation that manages their supply chain using digital technologies
Clear my choice
Question 16. In hospitals, the following type of departmentation is common

a. All of the above
b. By committee
c. By function
d. By geographical region
Clear my choice
Question 17. _ spans of management control create _ structures with many levels of management.

a. Narrow; tall
b. Wide; tall
c. Narrow; flat
d. Wide; unpredictable

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

4th Module Assessment
Question 1. The most relevant sources for recruiting managerial personnel is _

a. Casual callers
b. Employment exchange
c. Advertisement
d. Direct recruitment
Clear my choice
Question 2. For which group of persons is vestibule training relevant?

a. Top management
b. Middle management
c. Operatives
d. Supervisory management
Clear my choice
Question 3. Promotion is an _ source of recruitment.

a. poor
b. global
c. internal
d. External
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which type of learning is management development concerned with?

a. Multi-skill development
b. Manual skill development
c. Specific job skill development
d. Inventory development
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following can not be considered as importance of staffing?

a. Developing skills in employees
b. Efficient use of human resources
c. Suitable division of work among employees
d. Employee satisfaction
Clear my choice
Question 6. Preliminary _ is a step in the selection process.

a. sampling
b. interview
c. rejection
d. screening
Clear my choice
Question 7. __ is an internal source of recruitment

a. Personal contacts
b. Campus recruitment
c. Employee recommendations
d. Transfer
Clear my choice
Question 8. In staffing function, which combination of activities in a sequential order is correct?

a. Recruitment, training, selection, placement
b. Recruitment, selection, placement, training
c. Selection, training, recruitment, placement
d. Recruitment, selection, training, placement
Clear my choice
Question 9. __ is the process of increasing knowledge and skills.

a. Training
b. Development
c. Selection
d. Interview
Clear my choice
Question 10. __ is a process of learning and growth.

a. Development
b. Both (a) and (C )
c. Training
d. Recruitment
Clear my choice
In staffing function, which one of the following groups of managers is involved?
(a) Only top managers
(b) Only human resource managers
(c) Only middle managers
(d) All managers
Question 11. _ leads to optimum use of resources.

a. Staffing
b. Recruitment
c. Development
d. Training
Clear my choice
Question 12. Web publishing is a/an __ source of recruitment.

a. Both (b) and (c )
b. Campus
c. External
d. Internal
Clear my choice
Question 13. Time perspective in training is _

a. Long term
b. Medium or Long term
c. Short term
d. Medium term
Clear my choice
Question 14. __ is the “On the Job Training” method used to train electricians.

a. Job rotation
b. Apprenticeship
c. Coaching
d. Web publishing
Clear my choice
_ is a limitation of internal source of recruitment. (a) Higher costs (b) Inbreeding (c) Lengthy process (d) Unreliability Question 15. Persons interested in enhancing their reputations and receiving recognition will respond to .

a. Awards
b. All of the above
c. Verbal praise
d. Treats
Clear my choice
Question 16. For higher management employees, __ are influenced by the size of a company, specific industry and the process of decision making.

a. All of the above
b. Promotions
c. Salaries
d. Bonuses
Clear my choice
Question 17. Horizontal job rotation refers to _

a. Lateral motivation
b. Lateral transfer
c. Lateral promotion
d. All of these

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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

5th Module Assessment

Question 1. Contingency theories of leadership is based upon __

a. None of the above
b. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers
c. That there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
d. That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations
Clear my choice
Question 2. Leadership is based on a superiors __

a. persuasive communication
b. accountability
c. responsibility
d. authority
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which one of the following is a step of controlling?

a. Assessing environment
b. Assessing personnel required
c. Taking corrective action
d. Taking disciplinary action
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which one of the following is not a feature of controlling?

a. Pervasive function
b. Continuous process
c. Action-oriented
d. Keeping employees busy
Clear my choice
Question 5. Directing takes place at _ levels of management.

a. Middle
b. All
c. Top
d. Lower
Clear my choice
Question 6. Need hierarchy theory of motivation was given by __

a. Taylor
b. Koontz
c. Fayol
d. Maslow
Clear my choice
Question 7. Motivation is not __

a. an easy process
b. related to satisfaction
c. a goal-directed behaviour
d. a complex process
Clear my choice
Question 8. An element of directing is __

a. Delegating authority
b. Communication
c. Designing control system
d. Designing organisation structure
Clear my choice
Question 9. Grapevine is a form of _

a. barrier to communication
b. formal communication
c. channel of communication
d. informal communication
Clear my choice
Question 10. Meeting all of Maslows (1970) needs should result in __

a. Loci on control
b. Unconditional positive regard
c. Self-efficacy
d. Self-actualisation
Clear my choice
Which one of the following is a semantic barrier?
Select one:
a. Lack of attention
b. Technical jargon
c. Status
d. Organisational policy
_ is the process of stimulating people to engage in a goal-directed behaviour Select one: a. Communication b. Motivation c. Directing d. None of these Question 11. Example of a non-financial incentive is __

a. Stock option
b. Retirement benefit
c. Perquisite
d. Recognition
Clear my choice
Question 12. _ aims at instructing, guiding and motivating people to achieve the desired results.

a. Organising
b. Motivation
c. Directing
d. Communication
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which one of the following is NOT an importance of controlling?

a. Better use of resources
b. Better coordination
c. Better grievance handling
d. Better planning
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following aspects appears in sociocultural approaches?

a. Relatedness
b. Participation in communities
c. Identity
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. Regarding leadership, which statement is FALSE?

a. Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an organisation
b. All of the above
c. Not every leader is a manager
d. When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined
Clear my choice
Question 16. _ motivation is associated with activities that are rewarding or satisfying in themselves

a. Trait motivation
b. Extrinsic motivation
c. State motivation
d. Intrinsic motivation
Clear my choice
Question 17. Social cognitive perspectives often hold which of the following to be important aspects of motivation?

a. Positive self-regard and hierarchy of needs
b. Schemas and prototypes
c. Operant and classical conditioning
d. Expectancy and value
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Assignment 2

Case Study: Bajaj Auto

It is believed that “tomorrow’s CEO must be today’s empowered manager”. This is reflected in the case of CEO of the two-wheeler brand Bajaj Auto – Mr. Rahul Bajaj, , wherein he delegated his responsibilities to a successor systematically. His two sons, Rajiv and Sanjiv were qualified enough to carry on the business. It was a bold decision on his part as he was used to taking charge of every critical area in the traditional family and managing the company. He had complete charge of production, finance, design changes, production systems and labour relations at the company, and personally oversaw all the operations for over two decades from1968 to 1990.

He never felt the need for delegation of authority and decentralisation of responsibilities. resulting which the company remained a fat, cost-callous, inflexible giant. Although there was rise in sales and increase in consumer demand, the company could not progress exponentially. The second line of executives were not groomed to manage day-to-day operations, nor they had required freedom to take even simple decisions independently.

Due to various additional responsibilities as the chairman of Indian Airlines, CII, AIAM, etc., he realized the need for creating a second line of command in his absence. To handle the onset of a recession and the advent of competition, the company quickly, combined delegation with succession planning. Both sons joined as apprentices initially, selected their respective areas and underwent training in those areas- Rajiv in manufacturing and Sanjiv in marketing.

Another cousin of Rahul Bajaj, Mathur was made the in charge of HR functions and began to represent Rahul in meetings. Responsibilities were delegated to Mathur slowly but steadily. Rahul Bajaj also started to distance himself from his followers, after his son Rajiv took charge of the Akrudi plant independently. As a result, the report card of the company became quite encouraging – with sales picking up in motor cycle as well as scooter segments.

Question1 : Span of management is sometimes also referred to as span of………………..or……………..
Select one:
a. Authority, Control
b. Supervision, authority or control
c. Delegation, authority
d. Operations, supervision
Clear my choice
Question 2. Decentralisation refers to the physical ……………… of facilities and the extent of ……………… of authority throughout an organisation.
Select one:
a. layout, dispersal
b. location, dispersal
c. layout, aggregation
d. location, aggregation
Clear my choice
Question 3. Centralisation is the opposite of ……………… and ……………… of authority
Select one:
a. dispersal, delegation
b. absorption, delegation
c. dispersal, holding
d. aggregation, control
Clear my choice
Question 4. is the assignment of authority and responsibility to another person (normally from a ) to carry out specific activities.
Select one:
a. Decentralization, subordinate to client
b. control, manager to a subordinate
c. Delegation, manager to a subordinate
d. Delegation, subordinate to manager
Clear my choice
Question 5. If the span of management is large, ………………levels would be needed in the organisation. If the organisation structure is…………… the span of control is very large at the lowest level
Select one:
a. higher, flat
b. more, flat
c. Fewer, Flat
d. fewer, tall
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AMITY (Assignment) BBA Semester 1

Product and Brand Management (MKTG711)-Semester III

Product and Brand Management (MKTG711)-Semester III
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

1st Module Assessment
Question 1. A _ is a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful consumer terms. Select one: a. product concept b. product idea c. product feature d. product image Clear my choice Question 2. means that services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before they are bought.
Select one:
a. Service heterogeneity
b. Service inseparability
c. Service perishability
d. Service intangibility
Clear my choice
Question 3. The concept holds that consumers will favor those products that offer the most quality, performance, or innovative features.
Select one:
a. product
b. marketing
c. production
d. selling
Clear my choice
Question 4. Effective _ is a practical, purposeful and positive approach of improving the company results. Select one: a. Product designing b. Product manufacture c. Product management d. Product differentiation: Clear my choice Question 5. A Company can expand its product line in which way? Select one: a. product mix b. line mixing c. internal marketing d. line filling Clear my choice Question 6. Which of the following statements about product-mix strategy is true? Select one: a. All of the different flavors of Jell-O gelatin would be an example of a product mix. b. A store that sells nothing but t-shirts has a broad product mix. c. Adding new products to a product mix can help a company’s competitive position. d. A retailer that carries books, toys, video games, and coffee would have a deeper product mix than a store that sells only cosmetics Clear my choice Question 7. Developers are focused on the technology and not the overall .
Select one:
a. service
b. Product
c. organization
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 8. Product mix
refers to the number of different product lines the company carries.
Select one:
a. width
b. depth
c. height
d. length
Clear my choice
Question 9. A
is a specific item that different organisations sell in the market to their consumers with the sole purpose of making profits.
Select one:
a. Market
b. Goods
c. Product
d. Things
Clear my choice
Question 10. Color and size of the product, brand and packaging are considered as . Select one: a. Chemical features of product b. Physical features of product c. Product designing d. Product manufacture Clear my choice is the process of distinguishing the differences of a product or offering from others.
Select one:
a. Product differentiation
b. Product designing
c. Product manufacture
d. Product management
Bread and milk are ___
.
Select one:
a. Specialty Products
b. Convenience products
c. Shopping products
d. Unsought products
Question 11. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called a(n) . Select one: a. idea b. demand c. product d. service Clear my choice Question 12. One of the key tasks of product managers is and to create consumer perceptions that the product is worth purchasing.
Select one:
a. To make products easily visible and available
b. To promote sales of products
c. To differentiate their products from those of competitors
d. To do marketing surveys
Clear my choice
Question 13. can be produced and marketed as a product.
Select one:
a. Information
b. Celebrities
c. Durable goods
d. Organizations
Clear my choice
Question 14. _ buys products and
uses products.
Select one:
a. consumer & customers
b. buyers & sellers
c. buyers & customers
d. customers & consumer
Clear my choice
Question 15. are consumer products and services with unique characteristics or brand identification for which a significant group of buyers are willing to make a special purchase effort.
Select one:
a. Industrial products
b. Shopping products
c. Unsought products
d. Specialty products
Clear my choice
Question 16. Adding new features to a product is advocated by . Select one: a. Product Approach b. Production Approach c. Marketing Approach d. Selling Approach Clear my choice Question 17. Companies selling mass consumer goods and services such as soft drinks, cosmetics, air travel, and athletic shoes and equipment spend a great deal of time trying to establish a superior brand image in markets called _
.
Select one:
a. business markets
b. global markets
c. consumer markets
d. nonprofit and governmental markets

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of “Market Introduction Stage” in PLC?
Select one:
a. Demand has to be created
b. Costs are low
c. Makes no money at this stage
d. Slow sales volume to start
Clear my choice
Question 2. In stage of the product life cycle profits peak.
Select one:
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline
Clear my choice
Question 3. In _ stage of the product life cycle, advertising and promotion are aimed at retaining existing customers and persuading customers to switch from competitor products. Select one: a. Maturity b. Introduction c. Growth d. Saturation Clear my choice Question 4. In ____stage of the product life cycle sales are at its peak. Select one: a. Introduction b. Growth c. Decline d. Saturation Clear my choice Question 5. When a company retains the product but reduces marketing support costs it is in what stage of the PLC? Select one: a. decline b. maturity c. growth d. introduction Clear my choice Question 6. Price competition starts to occur in _____
phase of the product life cycle.
Select one:
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Saturation
d. Decline
Clear my choice
Question 7. In “Product Life Cycle” the stage that represents rapid growth of product sales is . Select one: a. Market introduction phase b. Growth phase: c. Saturation phase d. Mature phase Clear my choice Question 8. Which is the next stage after “Idea Generation” in “New Product Development Process”? Select one: a. Feature specification b. Testing c. Development d. Idea Screening Clear my choice Question 9. The marketing objective for the maturity stage of the PLC is to .
Select one:
a. maintain brand loyalty
b. stress differentiation
c. harvest
d. deletion
Clear my choice
Question 10. The product life cycle describes the stages a new product goes through in the .
Select one:
a. introduction phase
b. test market
c. product development
d. marketplace
Clear my choice
Question 11. What is the producer’s strategic objective at the startup and production stage of the product life cycle?
Select one:
a. cash flow and profit
b. profit
c. sales growth
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 12. Question mark products in the Boston Consulting Group matrix are usually in
stage of their product life cycle.
Select one:
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline
Clear my choice
Question 13. Developing a unique superior product with high quality, new features, and high value in use is _ in new product development strategy. Select one: a. New product development process b. Typical reasons for failure c. Success factors d. Product concept Clear my choice Question 14. With reference to the product life cycle management, the term technological risk refers to .
Select one:
a. lost sales related to deferring investments
b. lost sales related to making unprofitable investments
c. losses related to declining market share for companies that are not technological leaders
d. losses related to research and development costs
Clear my choice
Question 15. All of the following are accurate descriptions of new product ideas, except which one?
Select one:
a. New product development starts with idea generation.
b. Some companies use brainstorming exercises that expand people’s minds and generate new ideas around the client’s problem.
c. At the beginning of the process, carefully scrutinize each idea and throw far-fetched and impractical ones out the window.
d. Customers must be careful not to rely too heavily on customer input when developing new products.
Clear my choice
Question 16. Increased competition leads to price decrease, increasing public awareness, sales volume increase significantly are the characteristics of
in PLC.
Select one:
a. Mature stage
b. Decline stage
c. Growth stage
d. Market introduction stage
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is/are product life cycle extension strategies?
Select one:
a. Product development and unrelated diversification
b. Market development and product development
c. Market development
d. Product development
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. _ is as if ‘ making the brand come alive’. Select one: a. Brand Personality b. Brand Image c. Brand Audit d. Brand Value Clear my choice Question 2. A brand is defined as an _ asset.
Select one:
a. Liquid
b. Fixed
c. Current
d. Intangible
Clear my choice
Question 3.
helps make purchasing decisions easier.
Select one:
a. Brand
b. Branding
c. Brand Identity
d. Brand Essence
Clear my choice
Question 4. Nike has the distinctive “swoosh” logo, the “Just Do It” slogan, and the “Nike” name based on a mythological goddess. These items are called .
Select one:
a. brand identities
b. brand elements
c. Brand Communication
d. Brand Extension
Clear my choice
Question 5.
defines what the brand thinks about the consumer, as per the consumer.
Select one:
a. Brand attitude
b. Brand positioning
c. Brand relationship
d. Brand manage
Clear my choice
Question 6. It is used to identify the brand, to enhance brand awareness and to facilitate unique brand associations.
Select one:
a. Brand Elements
b. Brand Personality
c. Brand Positioning
d. Brand Marketing
Clear my choice
Question 7. ___
is the difference between what a brand promises to deliver in its communications and what it actually does.
Select one:
a. Brand Differentiation
b. Brand Gap
c. Brand Communication
d. Brand Extension
Clear my choice
Question 8. One of the jobs of marketers is _ and to create consumer perceptions that the product is worth purchasing.
Select one:
a. To make products easily visible and available
b. To promote sales of products
c. To differentiate their products from those of competitors
d. To do marketing surveys
Clear my choice
Question 9. is a measure of the attachment that a customer has to a brand. Select one: a. Brand Loyalty b. Brand Equity c. Brand Recall d. Image Clear my choice Question 10. may be tested in two forms: Aided recall & Unaided recall.
Select one:
a. Brand Recall
b. Brand Awareness
c. Relevance
d. Price
Clear my choice
Question 11. This is a scenario in which the customers have too limited a awareness of the brand.
Select one:
a. Under Positioning
b. Over Positioning
c. Confused Positioning
d. Double Positioning
Clear my choice
Question 12. 3 C’s of branding are
, consistency and constancy.
Select one:
a. Continuity
b. Coverage
c. Collaboration
d. Clarity
Clear my choice
Question 13. _ is the difference between what a brand promises to deliver in its communications and what it actually does.
Select one:
a. Brand Differentiation
b. Brand Gap
c. Brand Communication
d. Brand Extension
Clear my choice
Question 14. Careful brand management look for to build product or services related to the . Select one: a. target audience b. cost c. profit d. All of these Clear my choice Question 15. Which of the following is not an objective of Brand management? Select one: a. To Establish An Identity For The Product Or A Group Of Products. b. To Establish An Identity For The Product Or A Group Of Products. c. To Do Telly Calling And Acquire Sales d. To Acquire Place For The Product In Consumers’ Minds For High And Consistent Quality. Clear my choice Question 16. A clothing marketer is planning to launch an existing brand name into a new product category. Which brand development strategy should be implemented? Select one: a. line extension b. rebranding c. brand extension d. multibranding Clear my choice Question 17. Clearness regarding proportions of brands is clarity in .
Select one:
a. functions of brand
b. aspects of differentiation
c. both of given options
d. none of given options

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM
4th Module Assessment
Question 1. Branding makes _ comparisons difficult. Select one: a. people b. Price c. place d. All of these Clear my choice

Question 2. Brand feelings are customers’ emotional responses and __ with respect to the brand.
Select one:
a. Actions
b. Interaction
c. Reactions
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. Brand awareness consists of brand recognition and brand .
Select one:
a. Growth
b. Recall
c. Presence
d. Identity
Clear my choice
Question 4. Achieving the right brand identity means creating brand _
with customers.
Select one:
a. Salience
b. Resonance
c. Awareness
d. Loyalty
Clear my choice
Question 5. Brand _ is a customer’s personal opinion about a brand.
Select one:
a. Judgment
b. Image
c. Identity
d. Personality
Clear my choice
Question 6. Over a period of time, brands are built through marketing activities and
.
Select one:
a. Communications:
b. technology
c. services
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 7. A
is a graphic mark, emblem or symbol commonly used by commercial enterprises, organisations and even individuals to aid and promote instant public recognition.
Select one:
a. Logo
b. Slogan
c. Tag line
d. Symbols
Clear my choice
Question 8. Brand personality is a set of
characteristics associated with the brand.
Select one:
a. Human
b. Computer
c. Product
d. Artificial Intelligence
Clear my choice
Question 9. Creating and securing a brand name in the physical world requires extensive marketing . Select one: a. Research b. strategy c. effort d. media Clear my choice Question 10. Brand knowledge refers to brand __
.
Select one:
a. Awareness
b. Recall
c. Personality
d. Persona
Clear my choice
Question 11. In ancient Roman and Greek society, shopkeepers hung pictures above their shops of the products they sold. There was a high degree of illiteracy in those days, the pictorial representation did help the buyers. Each retailer then started developing symbols to represent his speciality. This concept is called . Select one: a. Brand Extension b. Brand Diversification c. Brand Equity d. Brand Evolution Clear my choice Question 12. In the purchase process, consumers seek values of the brand’s capability. They evaluate a brand perceptually against criteria such as reliability, feel-good factor, superiority to other competitive brands, etc. Hence, Brands are treated as in the consumers’ mind.
Select one:
a. perceptions
b. commitment
c. loyalty:
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. The strategic brand management process starts with understanding what the brand represents and how it is _
with respect to its competitors.
Select one:
a. Positioned
b. Targeted
c. Segmented
d. Promoted
Clear my choice
Question 14. A _ brand may be kept around despite dwindling sales because they still manage to hold on to a sufficient number of customers and maintain profitability with little or no marketing support. Select one: a. low-end entry level b. cash cow c. question mark d. low-end entry level Clear my choice Question 15. Many brick-and-click competitors became stronger contenders in the marketplace than the pure-click firms because they had a larger pool of resources to work with and .
Select one:
a. better prices
b. greater value
c. well-established brand names
d. one-on-one communications
Clear my choice
Question 16. Vehicles dealing with particular areas of interest, such as sports, hobbies or finance, are the ones most likely to have lifestyle and product – usage data in addition to _ profiles. Select one: a. media b. demographic c. audience d. brand Clear my choice Question 17. Dannon Yogurt offers several types of new yogurts, Fruit on the Bottom, Natural Flavours, and Fruit Blends to name a few. This is an example of a _.
Select one:
a. category extension
b. line extension
c. brand variant
d. sub-brand

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM
5th Module Assessment
Pick the odd one.
Select one:
a. HCL
b. Nestle
c. HUL
d. None of these
Question 1. _ is important for creating and sustaining brand equity. Select one: a. Strategic Brand Management Process b. Actions c. Interaction d. Reactions Clear my choice Question 2. majorly focuses on maintaining the Brand Equity.
Select one:
a. Sponsorship
b. Modifier
c. Brand Reinforcement
d. Branding
Clear my choice
Question 3. What is more important in brand equity?
Select one:
a. Quality
b. Quantity
c. Customer Perception
d. Customer Experience
Clear my choice
Question 4. often involves a specification of the appropriate core brand values and brand mantra.
Select one:
a. Brand Differentiation
b. Brand Gap
c. Brand Communication
d. Positioning
Clear my choice
Question 5. Out of the following which one is a type of brand audit?
Select one:
a. Brand inventory
b. Brand tracking
c. Brand recall
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 6.
is based on premises that a product can be branded in different ways depending on how many new and existing brand elements are used and how they are combined for any one product.
Select one:
a. Brand engagement
b. Brand Reinforcement
c. Brand hierarchy
d. Brand Differentiation
Clear my choice
Question 7. is the ability to identify a brand under different conditions. Select one: a. Brand Differentiation b. Brand Gap c. Brand Communication d. Brand awareness Clear my choice Question 8. Brand personality is seen as a valuable factor in increasing and brand attachment, in much the same way as people relate and bind to other people.
Select one:
a. Brand Differentiation
b. Brand engagement
c. Brand Communication
d. Brand awareness
Clear my choice
Question 9. Managing involves managing brand within the context of other brands. Select one: a. Brand equity b. people c. Price d. place Clear my choice Question 10. A brand in the memory is a node which is connected with other nodes signifying various associations. It is this network which refers to .
Select one:
a. Brand knowledge
b. Communications
c. technology
d. services
Clear my choice
Nivea, a strong European brand, has expanded its scope from a skin-cream brand to a skin-care and personal-care brand through carefully designed and implemented brand extensions. This is an example of . Select one: a. brand valuation b. brand reinforcement c. brand management d. brand enhancements Question 11. Under Keller’s Brand Equity Model For Building A Strong Brand “What do I think or feel about you?” means .
Select one:
a. Brand Identity
b. Brand Meaning
c. Brand Responses
d. Brand Relationships
Clear my choice
Question 12. A structured approach to assessing the sources and outcomes of brand equity and the manner in which marketing activities create brand value is called . Select one: a. the brand life cycle b. the brand value chain c. brand partitioning d. brand portfolio Clear my choice Question 13. ____
can be seen in the way the customer thinks, feels, perceives the product along with its price and market position.
Select one:
a. Brand Extension
b. Brand Diversification
c. Brand Equity
d. Brand Profit
Clear my choice
Question 14. Brand _ are a means to provide in-depth information and insights essential for setting long-term strategic direction for the brand.
Select one:
a. Audit
b. Edit
c. Recalling
d. Rejuvenating
Clear my choice
Question 15. Building brand equity through leveraging secondary brand associations is an __
approach.
Select one:
a. Direct
b. Special
c. Procured
d. Indirect
Clear my choice
Question 16. Brand Asset Valuator (BAV) provides _ measures of the brand quity of thousands brands across different categories.
Select one:
a. Comparative
b. Qualitative
c. Quantitative
d. Price
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
Select one:
a. Brand-essence serves as a metric to evaluate buyer’s marketing strategies.
b. Branding is a useless tool to differentiates the product and the producer
c. Brands give consumers a reason to share the opinions positively
d. Brand can be copied easily

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM
Assignment 2

Case Study:
The value of choosing brand elements strategically to build brand equity can be seen by considering the advantage of having chosen “Apple” as the name for a personal computer. Apple was a simple but well-known word that was distinctive in the product category-factors facilitating the development of brand awareness. The meaning of the name also gave the company a “friendly shine” and warm brand personality. Moreover, the name could be reinforced visually with a logo that could easily transfer across geographic and cultural boundaries. Finally, the name serve as a platform for sub-brands (e.g., as with the Macintosh), aiding the introduction of brand extensions. Thus, as the Apple example illustrates the judicious choice of a brand name can make an appreciable contribution to the creation of brand equity.
What would an idea brand element to be liked? Consider brand names-perhaps the most central of all brand element. Ideally, a brand name would be easily remembered, highly suggestive of both the product class and the particular benefits that served as the basis of this positioning, inherently fun or interesting. Rich with creative potential, transferable to a wide variety of product and geographic settings, enduring in meaning and relevant over time, and strongly protectable both legally and competitively.
Unfortunately, it is difficult to choose a brand name, or any brand element for that matter, that would satisfy all of these different criteria. As noted earlier, the more meaningful the brand name, the more likely is it
that the brand name will not be very transferable to other cultures due to translation problems. Moreover, brand names are generally less adaptable over time. Because it is virtually impossible to find one brand element that will satisfy all the choice criteria, multiple brand elements are typically employed.
A variety of brand elements can be chosen that inherently enhance brand awareness or facilitate the formation of strong, favorable, and unique brand associations.
Question 1. Certain factors should be considered before selecting a brand name. Which one is not one of these factors?
Select one:
a. Distinguish the product from competitive brands
b. Negative or offensive references should be included
c. Evoke positive mental image or Evoke positive emotional reaction
d. Memorable and easy to pronounce or Easy to say, spell and pronounce
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which option is not one of Benefits of Logos?
Select one:
a. Because of their visual nature, logos and symbols are often easily recognized and can be a valuable way to identify products.
b. Because logos are often abstract, without much product meaning, they can be relevant and appropriate in a range of product categories. For example, corporate brands often develop logos because their identity may be needed on a wide range of products.
c. Logos and symbols can be particularly important in services because of their intangible, abstract nature. For example, many insurance firms use symbols of strength security. (E.g., logo of Life Insurance Corporation).
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 3. Which option is not one of Benefits of Slogans?
Select one:
a. Slogans can be devised in a number of ways to help build brand equity. Some slogans help to build brand awareness by playing of the brand name in some way (Thumps up, Taste the Thunder, Mango Fruity, Fresh and Juicy etc.).
b. Other slogans build brand awareness even more explicitly by making strong links between the brand and the corresponding product category by combining both entities in the slogan (e.g., “If You’re Not Wearing Dockers. You’re Just Wearing Pants”).
c. Slogans can help to reduce the brand positioning and desired point of difference.
d. Slogans often closely tied to advertising campaigns and can be used as tag lines to summarize the descriptive or persuasive information conveyed in the advertisements.
Clear my choice
Question 4. Elements of a Good Logo are:
Select one:
a. It has a lasting value – trendy logos don’t hold up over time.
b. Appeals to your target market – if your target market is partial to blue then it doesn’t matter that you’re not.
c. Legible – This seems pretty obvious but many people use typefaces and images that can’t be printed or carried to a large sign. Your logo should clearly identify your company and it can’t do that if people don’t understand it.
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 5. Select the Tactics to Create a Strong Brand.
Select one:
a. Creating Visual Identity and Advertising
b. Brand Partnerships and Building Media Relations
c. Creating Community Relations and Sales Promotions/Events
d. All of these
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

Consumer Behaviour (MKTG604)-Semester III

Consumer Behaviour (MKTG604)-Semester III
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

1st Module Assessment
Question 1. Identify the Non-probability Sampling technique.
Select one:
a. Convenience Sampling
b. Judgement Sampling
c. Quota Sampling
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 2. Understanding of consumer needs and then developing a marketing mix to satisfy these needs is called as the .
Select one:
a. marketing concept
b. strategic plan
c. product influences
d. price influences
Clear my choice
Question 3.
is a branch which deals with the various stages a consumer goes through before purchasing products or services for end use.
Select one:
a. Consumer behavior
b. Consumer interest
c. Consumer attitude
d. Consumer perception
Clear my choice
Question 4. ABC Machinery Ltd. lays a great deal of emphasis on performance and features of their machines. This relates to the orientation.
Select one:
a. market
b. seller
c. product
d. process
Clear my choice
Question 5. ADF Garments rolled out different communication campaigns for north, south, east and west zones. They have done a market . Select one: a. segmentation b. survey c. analysis d. orientation Clear my choice Question 6. A sample design addresses which of the following questions: Select one: a. who is to be surveyed (sampling unit) b. how many to survey (sample size) c. how should the respondents be chosen (the sampling procedure) d. All of these Clear my choice Question 7. Amy bought an ice cream for Jason. In this case Amy is a
and Jason is a .
Select one:
a. buyer, User
b. User,buyer
c. User,sponsor
d. buyer, seller
Clear my choice
Question 8. Basic approaches to collect data in quantitative study are . Select one: a. Observation b. Experimentation c. Survey d. All of these Clear my choice Question 9. An individual who purchases goods and services from the market for their end use is called as .
Select one:
a. Customer
b. Purchaser
c. Creator
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. If you buy a chair for your office, you may be termed as a consumer.
Select one:
a. home
b. organizational
c. market
d. special
Clear my choice
is willingness of consumers to purchase products and services as per their taste, need and pocket.
Select one:
a. Consumer behavior
b. Consumer interest
c. Consumer attitude
d. Consumer perception
Question 11. The price of products and services often influence whether _, and, if so, which competitive offering is selected.
Select one:
a. Consumers will purchase them at all
b. Consumers see a need to buy
c. Consumers will decide to buy immediately
d. People would recommend the product
Clear my choice
Question 12. An economic circumstance that can greatly affect any product or brand choice is
.
Select one:
a. retirement
b. values
c. lifestyle
d. borrowing power
Clear my choice
Question 13. factors affect consumer behavior.
Select one:
a. Brand name, quality, newness, and complexity
b. Advertising, marketing, product, and price
c. Outlets, strategies, concept, and brand name
d. Quality, advertising, product positioning
Clear my choice
Question 14. In recent years
has become increasingly important for developing a marketing strategy.
Select one:
a. Change in consumers’ attitudes
b. Inflation of the dollar
c. The concept and the brand
d. Age groups, such as the teen market, baby boomers, and the mature market.
Clear my choice
can influence the consumers’ thoughts about products.
Select one:
a. Marketing and popularity
b. Advertising, sales promotions, salespeople, and publicity
c. Sales promotion, popularity, and marketing
d. Billboards
Question 15. If a company makes products and services for the purpose of reselling or renting them to others at a profit or for use in the production of other products and services, then the company is selling to the _.
Select one:
a. Business market
b. International market
c. Consumer market
d. Private sector market
Clear my choice
Question 16. Understanding of consumer buying behavior is not easy. The answers are often locked deep within the consumer’s head. The central question for marketers is .
Select one:
a. How much money is the consumer willing to spend?
b. How much does the consumer need the product being offered for sale?
c. How much does a discount or a coupon affect the purchase rate?
d. How do consumers respond to various marketing efforts the company might use?
Clear my choice
Question 17. The greatest barrier in effectively marketing to the Asian American market is considered to be
.
Select one:
a. Reluctance to grant credit to this group
b. Language and cultural traditions
c. The urban nature of their neighborhoods
d. Lack of a mass media that reaches this group

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM
2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. Brand name and logo of the company can also act as . Select one: a. products b. stimuli c. services d. None of these Clear my choice Question 2. is one of the most basic influences on an individual’s needs, wants, and behaviour.
Select one:
a. Brand
b. Culture
c. Product
d. Price
Clear my choice
Question 3. A strong internal stimulus that calls for action is .
Select one:
a. Drive
b. cue
c. response
d. perception
Clear my choice
Question 4.The selection of stimulus depends on an individual’s past experiences and his
.
Select one:
a. choices
b. wants
c. motives
d. requirement
Clear my choice
develops on the basis of wealth, skills and power.
Select one:
a. Economical classes
b. Purchasing communities
c. Competitors
d. Social classes
Question 5. _ refers to the activities which influence consumer behavior. Select one: a. Extrinsic Stimuli b. Intrinsic stimuli c. Marketing d. Advertising Clear my choice Question 6. refers to the information a consumer has stored in their memory about a product or service.
Select one:
a. Cognitive dissonance
b. Product knowledge
c. Product research
d. Marketing research
Clear my choice
Question 7.
describes the changes in an individual’s behavior arising from experience.
Select one:
a. Modeling
b. Motivation
c. Perception
d. Learning
Clear my choice
Question 8. Product and its components like packaging, label, features etc make _ stimuli. Select one: a. extrinsic () b. Intrinsic c. casual d. None of these Clear my choice Question 9. Product involvement refers to ___ or personal relevance of an item.
Select one:
a. A consumer’s perception of the importance
b. The need of the product
c. The price of the product
d. The amount of people who bought the product
Clear my choice
Question 10. The process by which people select, organize, and interpret information to form a meaningful picture of the world is .
Select one:
a. Readiness
b. Selectivity
c. Perception
d. Motivation
Clear my choice
Question 11. When a consumer describes a car as being the “most economical car on the market,” then this descriptor is .
Select one:
a. Rule
b. Attitude
c. Belief
d. Cue
Clear my choice
puts people into a frame of mind of liking or disliking things, of moving towards or away from them.
Select one:
a. A rule
b. An attitude
c. A belief
d. A cue
Question 12. When a consumer tells his friends “I like my car more than any other car on the road,” then the consumer has expressed a/an . Select one: a. Rule b. Attitude c. Belief d. Cue Clear my choice Question 13. _ refers to the information a consumer has stored in their memory about a product or service.
Select one:
a. Cognitive dissonance
b. Product knowledge
c. Product research
d. Marketing research
Clear my choice
Question 14. In consumer behaviour culture, social class, and reference group influences have been related to purchase and
.
Select one:
a. Economic situations
b. Situational influences
c. Consumption decisions
d. Physiological influences
Clear my choice
Question 15. One of the key tasks of the marketers is _ and to create consumer perceptions that the product is worth purchasing.
Select one:
a. To make products easily visible and available
b. To promote sales of products
c. To differentiate their products from those of competitors
d. To do marketing surveys
Clear my choice
Question 16. If the purchase is for a high-involvement product, consumers are likely to develop a high degree of _
so that they can be confident that the item they purchase is just right for them.
Select one:
a. Brand loyalty
b. Society
c. Product knowledge
d. References
Clear my choice
Question 17. People can form different perceptions of the same stimulus because of three perceptual processes. These processes are best described as being:
Select one:
a. Selective attention, selective distortion, and selective retention
b. Subliminal perception, selective remembrance, selective forgetting
c. Closure, modeling, and perceptual screening.
d. Needs distortion, wants analysis, and perceptual screening

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM
3rd Module Assessment

Question 1. _ portrays the “whole person” interacting with his or her environment. Select one: a. Attitude b. Personality c. Lifestyle d. Self-concept Clear my choice Question 2. __ is a person’s pattern of living as expressed in their activities, interests, and opinions.
Select one:
a. role
b. status
c. position
d. lifestyle
Clear my choice
Question 3. A person’s unique psychological characteristics that lead to relatively consistent and lasting responses to their own environment is . Select one: a. Psychographics() b. Personality c. Demographics d. Lifestyle Clear my choice Question 4. The energizing force that activates behavior and provides purpose and direction to that behavior is known as .
Select one:
a. motivation
b. personality
c. emotion
d. perception
Clear my choice
Question 5. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, the lowest order of needs are . Select one: a. Self-actualization needs b. Social needs c. Safety needs d. Physiological needs Clear my choice Question 6. Synonym for motive can be _.
Select one:
a. omen
b. need
c. drive
d. cue
Clear my choice
Question 7. Consumers often choose and use brands that have a brand personality consistent with how they see themselve. This is known as .
Select one:
a. actual self-concept
b. ideal self-concept
c. others’ self-concept
d. prohibitive self-concept
Clear my choice
Question 8. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, the highest order of needs are .
Select one:
a. Self-actualization needs
b. Social needs
c. Safety needs
d. Physiological needs
Clear my choice
Question 9. The main tool used in motivational research is
.
Select one:
a. depth-interview
b. observation
c. focus study
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. A need that is sufficiently pressing to direct the person to seek satisfaction of the need is called . Select one: a. Motive b. want c. demand d. requirement Clear my choice _
reflects that people’s possessions contribute to and reflect their identities i.e. “we are what we have.”
Select one:
a. lifestyle concept
b. self-concept
c. personality concept
d. cognitive concept
Question 11. The theory of motivation which views people as responding to urges that are repressed but never fully under control was developed by
.
Select one:
a. Marshall
b. Kant
c. Freud
d. Maslow
Clear my choice
Question 12. Smoke detectors, preventive medicines, insurance, retirement investments, seat belts, burglar alarms, and sunscreen are all examples of products to satisfy consumers’ _ needs. Select one: a. safety b. self-actualization c. physiological d. belongingness Clear my choice Question 13. also includes a situation-specific component.
Select one:
a. personality
b. self-concept
c. involvement
d. demographics
Clear my choice
Question 14. Marketers who target consumers on the basis of their
believe that they can influence purchase behavior by appealing to people’s inner selves.
Select one:
a. core values
b. sophistication
c. money constrain
d. social class
Clear my choice
Many sub-cultural barriers are on a decline because of mass communication, mass transit, and a . Select one: a. Decline in the influence of religious values b. Decline in communal influences c. Strong awareness of brands in the market d. Strong awareness of pricing policies in the market. Question 15 Not yet answered Marked out of 4.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text When Ben was a high school student, he enjoyed rock music and regularly purchased hip clothing sported by his favorite rock band. However, five years later, when he became an accountant, his preference shifted toward formal clothing. Which of the following personal characteristics is likely to have had the most influence on Ben’s preferences during his high school days? Select one: a. education b. age c. income d. gender Clear my choice Question 16. “I’m comfortable being the greatest that ever was or will be. Be comfortable. Uncompromised. Start with your feet.” This ad shows a picture of Muhammad Ali, world famous boxer. In terms of Maslow’s hierarchy, this ad was designed to appeal to the consumer’s ________
.
Select one:
a. Psychological needs
b. Need for esteem
c. Safety needs
d. Self-actualization needs
Clear my choice
Question 17. Changes in consumer values can be recognized by many business firms for expanding their emphasis on _ products.
Select one:
a. Latest technology
b. Timesaving, convenience-oriented
c. Health related
d. Communication

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

4th Module Assessment

Question 1. Which of the following would be the best illustration of a subculture?
Select one:
a. a religion
b. a group of close friends
c. your university
d. a fraternity or sorority
Clear my choice
Question 2. is the definition of reference groups.
Select one:
a. Groups that an individual looks to when forming attitudes and opinions
b. Groups of people who have been referred to by someone they know
c. Groups of office colleagues
d. Chat groups on the internet
Clear my choice
Question 3. In large nations, the population is bound to lose a lot of its homogeneity resulting into
.
Select one:
a. Multilingual needs
b. Cultures
c. Subcultures
d. Product adaptation requirements
Clear my choice
Question 4. According to the buyer decision process suggested in the text, the first stage is . Select one: a. Awareness b. Information search c. Need recognition d. Demand formulation Clear my choice Question 5. _ is a person within a reference group who, because of special skills, knowledge, personality, or other characteristics, exerts influence on others.
Select one:
a. facilitator
b. referent actor
c. opinion leader
d. social role player
Clear my choice
Question 6. The stage in the buyer decision process in which the consumers are aroused to search for more information is called . Select one: a. Information search b. Evaluation of alternatives c. Search for needs d. Perceptual search Clear my choice Question 7.
consists of the activities people are expected to perform according to persons around them.
Select one:
a. behavior
b. attitude
c. role
d. status
Clear my choice
Question 8. Individuals and households who buy goods and services for personal consumption are . Select one: a. The target market b. A market segment c. The consumer market d. The ethnographic market. Clear my choice Question 9. Problem recognition is process.
Select one:
a. Continuous
b. one time
c. time consuming
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. For the marketing manager, social class offers some insights into consumer behavior and is potentially useful as a . Select one: a. Market research information b. Market segmentation variable c. Source of understanding competition’s strategy d. Source to predict future trends Clear my choice Question 11. As per the stimulus-response model of buyer behavior , the place where consumers process marketing stimuli prior to making purchase decision is called as _.
Select one:
a. Consumer’s value chain
b. Consumer’s cognitive schema
c. Consumer’s black box
d. Consumer’s thoughts-emotions network
Clear my choice
Question 12. (is) are transmitted through three basic organizations: the family, religious organizations, and educational institutions. In today’s society, educational institutions are playing an increasingly greater role in this regard.
Select one:
a. Consumer feedback
b. Marketing information systems
c. Market share estimates
d. Cultural values
Clear my choice
Question 13. Even though buying roles in the family keeps on changing constantly, the __
has traditionally been the main purchasing agent for the family.
Select one:
a. Wife
b. husband
c. teenage children
d. grandparent
Clear my choice
Question 14. Consumer purchases are influenced strongly by cultural, social, personal, and _ characteristics.
Select one:
a. Psychographic
b. Psychological
c. Psychometric
d. Supply and demand
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which of the following can be considered as the most valuable piece of information for determining the social class of your best friend’s parents?
Select one:
a. The number of years schooling that they had
b. Their ethnic backgrounds
c. Their combined annual income
d. Their occupations
Clear my choice
Question 16. In terms of the consumption decisions, middle class consumers prefer to
.
Select one:
a. Buy at a market that sells at a whole sale rates
b. Buy what is popular
c. Buy only the brands which sell at affordable prices
d. Analyze the market and select the best at the lowest prices
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the buyer decision process?
Select one:
a. need recognition
b. brand identification
c. information search
d. purchase decision
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

5th Module Assessment
Question 1. A field of computer science that uses statistical techniques to give computer systems the ability to ‘learn’ with data, without being explicitly programmed, is called . Select one: a. computational algorithms b. machine learning c. machine pedagogy d. All of these Clear my choice Question 2. Ambient communication: Select one: a. Uses the environment to display its marketing messages b. Facilitates the emergence of new platforms such as 3D technology c. Engages the consumer in private spaces d. Is only digital in nature Clear my choice Question 3. Mobile marketers are able to reach audiences: Select one: a. Using a ‘pull’ strategy b. Using a ‘push’ strategy c. In real time d. All of these Clear my choice Question 4. Which of the following is not a standard in online advertising? Select one: a. Dynamic banner b. Static banners c. Referrals links d. Signal Clear my choice Question 5. Social media complaints are: Select one: a. fake news on Facebook: b. consumer ‘rants’ on a Twitter thread c. the use of any social media platform with which to highlight a complaint about a product or service failure d. None of these Clear my choice Question 6. Mobile marketing has innovative ways to reach the consumer. Which of the following is not one of them? Select one: a. Mobile apps b. Mobile retail payments c. Yellow pages advertising d. Barcode calls-to-action Clear my choice Big Data is: Select one: a. reports written in an extremely large font size for the visually impaired. b. extremely large data sets that may be analysed computationally to reveal patterns, trends, and associations, especially relating to human behaviour and interactions c. all the information that is contained within the servers of Google d. None of these Question 7. Cyber security can be defined as: Select one: a. the CCTV systems installed to protect the locations of internet service providers b. a business simulation computer game called Prison Tycoon that puts the user in charge of a prison c. the protection of computer systems from theft of or damage to their hardware, software or electronic data, as well as from disruption or misdirection of the services they provide d. None of these Clear my choice Question 8. Paid advertising based on a per-click model is called .
Select one:
a. Sponsored search-engine advertising
b. Feedback
c. Source advertising
d. ICT indicators
Clear my choice
Question 9. Geo-pricing enables:
Select one:
a. companies to control different prices for different countries
b. retail companies to change their prices in accordance with changes in their local economy
c. e-commerce businesses to personalise prices and promotions based on a customer’s location
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. What is unique about social media marketing?
Select one:
a. Generates contacts quickly
b. Can combine game and other elements
c. Interactive communication
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Which of the following is not an example of demarketing activities aimed at consumers?
Select one:
a. Warning labels
b. Advertising restrictions
c. Higher taxes
d. All of these
Question 11. Consumer analysis should include . Select one: a. consumer trends and global consumer markets b. communication methods to reach target markets c. models to predict purchase and consumption patterns d. All of these Clear my choice Question 12. Consumer product manufacturers study consumer behavior to influence .
Select one:
a. brand choice
b. purchase
c. consumption
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following areas can be better understood by studying consumer behavior?
Select one:
a. Consumer preferences for different advertisements
b. Financial decisions
c. Voting in elections
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 14. “Only the customer can fire us all” implies that . Select one: a. consumers determine which firms survive and which fail. b. customers can be manipulated into buying goods and services. c. customers are concerned only when prices go higher. d. firms should not bother with research as the customer is fickle. Clear my choice Question 15. Whereas a
focuses on how an organization adapts to consumers, a _ extends this focus to how all organizations in a demand chain adapt to changing consumer lifestyles and behaviors. Select one: a. selling orientation; marketing orientation b. marketing orientation; comprehensive consumer orientation c. manufacturing orientation; selling orientation d. comprehensive consumer orientation; manufacturing orientation Clear my choice Question 16. As the mother of the groom, Mary was willing to wear the subdued-colored, tailored suit that the bride had selected for her for the wedding. Later the sales clerk showed her a red off-shoulder cocktail dress. The sales clerk kept telling Mary how great the dress looked on her and the price of the dress was substantially lower than the suit. Assuming Mary really likes her son’s fiancée and does not want to do anything to damage her relationship with him or his bride, Mary’s decision to buy the red dress was a result of __ influences.
Select one:
a. Economic
b. Marketing
c. Reference group
d. Cultural
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is a situation in which consumer behavior occurs?
Select one:
a. communications situation
b. purchase situation
c. usage situation
d. All of these

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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

Assignment 2

The influence of Reference Groups varies according to the nature of the product and/or service. Reference groups have varied influence on consumers depending upon the type of the product, whether a luxury or a necessity, and whether it used in public and viewed by others or whether it is used in private.Bearden and Etzel have examined the issue from two perspectives, viz., a) the decision to purchase the type of product; and b) the choice of the brand. They concluded that reference group influence varied by 1) the type of product; whether it is a luxury or a necessity; and 2) its visibility; whether it is used in public or private settings or environment.

According to Bearden and Etzel, reference group influence is strong both for the purchase decision as well as for the brand in case of public luxuries, like expensive carpets, paintings, antiques etc. The consumer does not possess a need for such products, but requires them for social approval and acceptance, and finds these purchases as crucial for avoidance of social embarrassment, and ridicule. Because of the lifestyle and the social class that a consumer belongs to, he is conscious towards the purchase of such products as well as the brands that he buys.

Thus, reference groups influence both the consumer’s need for the product in general as well as the choice of brand. On the other hand, when in case of products which are public necessities, like a car or a cell phone, reference group influence is weak with respect to the purchase decision, but strong with respect to the choice of the brand. The reference group does not affect the decision to make a purchase as the product is already regarded as one of necessity and will be purchase regardless of what the members of the reference group have to say; the only impact that a reference group can make is with respect to the brand.

Further Bearden and Etzel also conclude that reference group influence is weak both for the purchase decision as well as for the brand in case of private necessities, like towels, soaps and detergents etc. The consumer is aware of such necessities, and will purchase them irrespective of what the reference group has to say. Further, he would not be conscious of social approval and/or embarrassment as these products are not viewed publicly, and so the influence of reference groups with respect to the brand will also be low. Finally, in case of products which are private luxuries, like sauna baths, body massagers etc., reference groups influence is strong with respect to the purchase decision, but weak with respect to the choice of the brand. This is because the product is not used publicly and the brand purchased would not cause any social embarrassment.

The impact of reference groups depends on . Select one: a. visibility b. conspicuousness of product c. Both A and B d. None of these Clear my choice Question 2. Which of the following is true about Bearden and Etzel’s Model? Select one: a. Bearden and Etzel have examined the issue from two perspectives, viz., a) the decision to purchase the type of product; and b) the choice of the brand. b. Reference group influence varied by the type of product; whether it is a luxury or a necessity c. It is also influenced by the visibility; whether it is used in public or private settings or environment. d. All of these Clear my choice Question 3. Which of the following are commonly used reference group appeals? Select one: a. Celebrity appeals and executive appeals b. expert appeals and trade or spokes-character appeals c. common man appeals d. All of these Clear my choice Question 4. Based on the regularity of contact and the importance given to subsequent interaction, groups may be classified as and __.
Select one:
a. Primary and secondary
b. Primary and Tertiary
c. important and necessary
d. family and friends
Clear my choice
Question 5. Reference group appeals are useful for a marketer in the following ways:
Select one:
a. they provide information
b. increase consumer awareness and knowledge
c. they reduce perceived risk amongst consumers, with respect to market offerings.
d. All of these
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AMITY (Assignment) MBA 3 SEM

System Analysis and Design (CSIT755)-Semester II

System Analysis and Design (CSIT755)-Semester II
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1st Module Assessment
The document prepared after the design phase is
Select one:
a. System specification
b. Performance specification
c. Design specification
d. None of these
Question 1. The classification of System may be considered
Select one:
a. Open or closed
b. Physical or abstract
c. Man-made inoformation ystem
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 2. The approach used in top‐down analysis and design is
Select one:
a. to identify the top level functions by combining many smaller components into a single entity
b. to prepare flow charts after programming has been completed
c. to identify a top level function an d then create a hierarchy of lower‐level modules and components.
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. In system concepts, meaning of organization is
Select one:
a. Implies structure and order
b. Means that parts of the computer system depend on one the another
c. Refers to the holism of systems
d. defines that each component functions with other components of the system
Clear my choice
Question 4. System analysis defines
Select one:
a. collection of facts and information
b. identifying the problem
c. interpreting facts
d. all of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. SDLC stands for
Select one:
a. System Development Life Cycle
b. Structured Design Life Cycle
c. System Design Life Cycle
d. Structure development Life Cycle
Clear my choice
Question 6. The study of the system involves
Select one:
a. Study of existing system
b. identifying current deficiencies and set new goals
c. documenting the existing system
d. all of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. The characteristics of well designed system are
Select one:
a. Practical
b. Effective
c. Reliable
d. Allof the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. Problem analysis is done during
Select one:
a. System design phase
b. System analysis phase
c. Before system test
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 9. is contained by a system which is planned to reach a specific goal.
Select one:
a. Communication
b. interdependence
c. structure and behavior
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 10. In the Analysis phase, the development of the _
occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
Select one:
a. Documentation
b. Flowchart
c. Program specification
d. design
Clear my choice
Question 11. In organization’s process, ________should be the replica of the same. Select one: a. business, MIS b. financial , ERP c. financial, MIS d. business, ERP Clear my choice In business process, the transaction flow to ensure proper checks and approval are implemented is called: Select one: a. procedures b. workflow c. process flow d. process requirements Question 12. Analsis of the system specifies : Select one: a. What system should do b. how system should do c. (a) and (b) both d. None of these Clear my choice Question 13. Which of the following describes the central part of the ERP syetms? Select one: a. Information b. Employees c. Customers d. Database Clear my choice Question 14. The process automation components include: Select one: a. sensors b. controllers c. actuators d. all of the above Clear my choice Question 15. Which of the following practices used in SA/SD ? Select one: a. Gane and Sarson methodology b. DeMarco and Yourdon methodology c. Constantine and Yourdon methodology d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 16. ____ can be considered as latest and the most inclusive technique for solving computer problems.
Select one:
a. System Analysis
b. System data
c. System procedure
d. System record
Clear my choice
Question 17. In system dissatisfaction/failure, who are considered responsible for failure:
Select one:
a. Software companies
b. Software developer
c. Universities and colleges
d. All of the above

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2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. Requirement specification is carried out
Select one:
a. after requirements are determined
b. before requirements are determined
c. simultaneously with requirements determination
d. independent of requirements determination
Clear my choice
Question 2. The major goal of requirement determination phase of information system development is
Select one:
a. determine whether information is needed by an organization
b. determine what information is needed by an organization
c. determine how information needed by an organization can be provided
d. determine when information is to be given
Clear my choice
Question 3. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?
Select one:
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is not the primary objectives in the preliminary investigation of system development?
Select one:
a. Assess cost and benefit of alternative approces
b. Determining the size of the project
c. Preparing the SRS to cover all the system specifications
d. Report finding to the management with recomendation to accept or reject the proposal
Clear my choice
Question 5
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Question text
Requirment analysis does not study the diagram :
Select one:
a. Use Cases
b. Entity Relationship Diagram
c. State Transition Diagram
d. Activity Diagram
Clear my choice
Question 6
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Question text
It is necessary to consult the following while drawing up requirement specification
Select one:
a. only top managers
b. only top and middle management
c. only top, middle and operational managers
d. top, middle and operational managers and also all who will use the system
Clear my choice
Question 7
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Question text
In the system concepts, term Integration
Select one:
a. implies structure and order
b. refers to the manner in which each component functions with other components of the system.
c. means that parts of the computer system depend on one another.
d. refers to the holism of system
Clear my choice
Question 8
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Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
Select one:
a. Requirment analysis
b. Requirement elicitation
c. Requirement design
d. Requirement documentation
Clear my choice
Question 9
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Question text
and are the two major issues of Requirement Analysis.
Select one:
a. Performance, Design
b. Stakeholder, Developer
c. Functional, Non-Functional
d. None of the mentioned
Clear my choice
Question 10
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Question text
What is the goal of requiremenst analysis and specification of software development life cycle?
Select one:
a. understanding the customer requirements and organize them in informal document
b. analysing the cost development
c. determing scope of software
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 11
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Question text
The steps which are considered in SDLC framewok :
Select one:
a. requirement gathering
b. system analysis
c. software design
d. all of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12
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Question text
Requirements can be improved using :
Select one:
a. the waterfall model
b. prototyping model
c. the eolutionary model
d. the spiral model
Clear my choice
Question 13
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Question text
Software development life cycle’s first step is :
Select one:
a. system design
b. coding
c. system testing
d. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
Clear my choice
Question 14
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Question text
The limitation of RAD is :
Select one:
a. It requires highly skilled developers/designers.
b. It necessitates customer feedbacks.
c. It increases the component reusability.
d. Both (a) & ( c)
Clear my choice
Question 15
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Question text
“trial and error” method for identifying the way system will operate is
Select one:
a. systems development life cycle
b. prototyping
c. joint application design
d. custom development
Clear my choice
Question 16
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Question text
In which model the requirement implementation by category is considered?
Select one:
a. Evolutionary Development Model
b. Waterfall Model
c. Prototyping
d. Iterative Enhancement Model
Clear my choice
Question 17
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Question text
System development’s cross life cycle action is
Select one:
a. object modeling
b. prototyping
c. fact-finding
d. data modeling

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Web Enabled Business Process (CSIT733)-Semester III

Web Enabled Business Process (CSIT733)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment
Question 1. Which of the following is not true for online travel?
Select one:
a. People can save time and money by booking their travel arrangements on the Web
b. There is a great deal of competition among travel websites; each offers better service, low fares and more features.
c. Customers now have the power to bypass a travel agent
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which segment do eBay, Amazon.com belong?
Select one:
a. B2Bs
b. B2Cs
c. C2Bs
d. C2Cs
Clear my choice
Question 3. All of the following are major B2C business models except __.
Select one:
a. content provider
b. industry consortium
c. transaction broker
d. service provider
Clear my choice
Question 4. Which of the following is part of the four main types for e‐commerce?
Select one:
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2B
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. _type of e-commerce has trade and transaction dealings between business establishments. Select one: a. Business To Customer b. Peer To Peer c. Business To Business d. Customer To Customer Clear my choice A buy-side supplier threat of e-commerce implies: Select one: a. reduction in cost of commoditized products b. Reduction in customer loyalty c. Increase in cost of supplies d. None of the above Question 6. Which of the following portals is more specific, offering a great deal of information pertaining to a single area of interest? Select one: a. Horizontal b. Vertical c. (a) and (b) both d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 7. _________ is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platforms – intranets, extranets and the Internet – to conduct a company’s business.
Select one:
a. E-commerce
b. E-marketing
c. E-procurement
d. E-business
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which of the following is a challenge for an e-learning company?
Select one:
a. E-learning is not always designed by skilled educators.
b. Online learning increases social interaction among children.
c. Copyright breach.
d. All of the above.
Clear my choice
Question 9. Click and mortar businesses are
Select one:
a. Businesses that have only physical presence
b. Businesses that have both an online and an offline presence
c. Businesses that have neither online nor offline presence
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which portal business model best describes Yahoo?
Select one:
a. general purpose portal
b. affinity group based vertical market
c. focused content based vertical market
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 11. Which of the following is the primary characteristic of an intranet?
Select one:
a. People outside the organization can access it
b. People inside the organization can’t access it
c. People outside the organization can’t access it
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. The two main types of Internet-based B2B commerce are______________.
Select one:
a. Net marketplaces and private industrial networks
b. EDI and collaborative commerce
c. Net marketplaces and collaborative commerce
d. EDI and private industrial networks
Clear my choice
Question 13. E-business can be defined as:
Select one:
a. the uninhibited flow of information and goods on the Web.
b. the use of the Internet and the Web to transact business.
c. digitally enabled transactions and processes within an organization.
d. commercial transactions involving electronic goods.
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of the following is/are not basic e-business model(s)?
I. B2B
II.B2C
III.C2C
IV. C2B
Select one:
a. Only (II) above
b. Only (IV) above()
c. (I) (II) and (III) above
d. Both (I) and (IV) above
Clear my choice
Identify the incorrect statement:
Select one:
a. The internet has evolved into phenomenally successful e-commerce engine.
b. E-business is synonymous with e-commerce.
c. The e-commerce model B2C did not begin with billboard ware.
d. The e-commerce model G2C began with billboard ware.
Question 15. All of the following are potential benefits of B2B e-commerce except __.
Select one:
a. reduced amount of ‘first-mover’ advantages
b. decreased product cycle time
c. increased opportunities for collaborating with suppliers and distributors
d. increased production flexibility
Clear my choice
Question 16. Disadvantages of e-Commerce in India are
(i) internet access is not universally available
(ii) Credit card payment security is not yet guaranteed
(iii) Transactions are de-personalized and human contact is missing
(iv) Cyber laws are not in place
Select one:
a. i and ii
b. ii and iii
c. i, ii, iii
d. i, ii, iii, iv
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following are the key characteristics of e-business?
I. Customer is king.
II. E-business leads to intermediation.
III. Entry barriers are low.
IV. Economies of scale.
Select one:
a. Both (I) and (II) above
b. Both (II) and (III) above
c. Both (III) and (IV) above
d. (I), (III) and (IV) above
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Environmental Science (OOBB 305)-Semester III

Environmental Science (OOBB 305)-Semester III
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Question 1. Plants are the _ of energy.
Select one:
a. Renewable source
b. Non -Renewable source
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
Clear my choice
Question 2.
, such as minerals and oil are those which will be exhausted in the future if we continue to extract these without a thought for subsequent generations
Select one:
a. Nonrenewable resources
b. Renewable resources
c. Either A or B
d. Both A and B
Clear my choice
Question 3. Environmental studies is a/an ___.
Select one:
a. Applied Science
b. Science
c. Social Science
d. Traditional Science
Clear my choice
Question 4. Under typical atmospheric conditions, water vapour is continuously generated by and removed by _ .
Select one:
a. Evaporation, Condensation
b. Condensation, Evaporation
c. Evaporation, distillation
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the following is a biodegradable waste?
Select one:
a. Plastics
b. Polythene
c. Glass
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 6. Nitrogen is the
amount of gas found in air.
Select one:
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Neutral
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 7. Our natural resources can be compared with money in a bank. If we use it rapidly, the capital will be reduced to zero. On the other hand, if we use only the interest, it can sustain us over the longer term. This is called __
.
Select one:
a. Development
b. Sustainable utilisation or development
c. Sustainable utilisation
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which day is Earth Day?
Select one:
a. 22nd April
b. 31st October
c. 12th July
d. 10th September
Clear my choice
Question 9. Environmental studies include –
Select one:
a. Biology, Geology, Chemistry, Physics, Engineering, Statistics, and Economics
b. Health, Anthropology, Sociology,Computers and Philosophy
c. Either A or B
d. Both A and B
Clear my choice
The greenhouse effect is the process by which radiation from a planet’s atmosphere___________ to a temperature above what it would be without this atmosphere.
Select one:
a. Warms the planet’s surface
b. Freeze the planets surface
c. Melt the planet surface
d. None of the above
Question 10. Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of rainfall
Select one:
a. Evaporation
b. Condensation
c. Both evaporation & condensation
d. Filtration
Clear my choice
Question 11. CPR Environmental Education Centre, Madras was established in ?
Select one:
a. 1988
b. 1980
c. 1987
d. 1989
Clear my choice
Question 12. CPR Environmental Education Centre, Madras attention focuses on –
Select one:
a. NGOs
b. Teachers
c. Women
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 13. Uttarkhand Seva Nidhi (UKSN), Almora, The Organisation is a Nodal Agency which supports NGOs in need of .
Select one:
a. Funds for their environment related activities
b. Betterment of natural resources
c. Decay of hazardous elements in the nature
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. What is the full form of BNHS ?
Select one:
a. Bombay Natural History Sector
b. Bombay Natural History Society
c. Bombay Nuclear History Sector
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
World Wide Fund for Nature was initiated in ?
Select one:
a. 1968
b. 1969
c. 1970
d. 1971
Question 15. Who wrote the ‘Origin of Species’, which brought to light the close relationship between habitats and species ?
Select one:
a. Salim Ali’
b. Ralph Emerson
c. Charles Darwin
d. Henry Thoreau
Clear my choice
Question 16. ____spoke of the dangers of commerce to our environment way back in the 1840s. Select one: a. John Muir b. Ralph Emerson c. Charles Darwin d. Henry Thoreau Clear my choice Question 17. __
is remembered as having saved the great ancient sequoia trees in California’a forests.
Select one:
a. Ralph Emerson
b. Henry Thoreau
c. Aldo Leopald
d. John Muir

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2nd Module Assessment

Question 1. _ named so because they receive a lot of rain.
Select one:
a. Tropical Deciduous Forests
b. Tropical Thorn forests
c. The tropical rain forest
d. Swamp Forests
Clear my choice
Question 2. Coal and Petroleum is the __
natural energy resource?
Select one:
a. Renewable exhaustible
b. Non Renewable exhaustible
c. Maximum energy resource
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. ____ is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic autotrophy to organic substances.
Select one:
a. Primary productivity
b. Secondary productivity
c. Tertiary productivity
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 4. The forest type mainly depends on –
Select one:
a. Climate and Soil
b. Deciduous
c. Xerophytes
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. _ of forest depends on plants and animals form communities that are specific to each forest type.
Select one:
a. Biotic type
b. Abiotic type
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. _______
which is the largest dam in Tamil Nadu located across Cauvery river.
Select one:
a. Mettur dam
b. Adavinainarkovil Dam
c. Amaravathi Dam
d. Aliyar Reservoir
Clear my choice
Question 7. The Bishnoi tribe in Rajasthan is known to have protected their _______ for several generations.
Select one:
a. Khejdi trees
b. The Adivasi Bhatra tribe
c. The Munda tribe
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 8. _____highest percentage is covered by forests. Select one: a. Arunachal Pradesh b. Madhya Pradesh c. Mizoram d. Nagaland Clear my choice Question 9. South Africa has lost a large area of natural habitat in the last four decades, due to- Select one: a. Deforestation b. Vast development c. Overpopulation d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 10. _____ is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem.
Select one:
a. Biogeochemical cycle
b. Substance turnover
c. Phosphorous cycle
d. Cycling of substances
Clear my choice
Question 11. A Jatropha Curcas plant can be used for ?
Select one:
a. Bio Fuel
b. Medicinal
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. __ land that is not good for cultivation anymore
Select one:
a. Derelict
b. Catchmand
c. Arable
d. Reclaimable
Clear my choice
Question 13. Tsunamis can result from _______.
Select one:
a. large volumes of water being displaced.
b. an oceanic plate colliding into a continental plate
c. violent seafloor movement associated with earthquakes.
d. an explosive volcanic eruption causing an earthquake in a continental plate.
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which Land can be used for farming ?
Select one:
a. Catchmand
b. Arable
c. Reclaimable
d. Derelict
Clear my choice
Question 15. Components of a GIS is/are-
Select one:
a. An input system that allows for the collection of data
b. Computer hardware and software systems
c. Output system that generates hard copy
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 16. The first computerised GIS began its life in 1964 as a project of the Rehabilitation and Development Agency Programme under the__________________.
Select one:
a. Government of India
b. Government of Canada
c. Government of China
d. Government of US
Clear my choice
Question 17. can be defined as the collection of data about an object from a distance or collection of data remotely.
Select one:
a. Remote sensing
b. Geographical Information System
c. Satellite
d. None of the above
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3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. Wildlife Act was introduced in the____year.
Select one:
a. 1972
b. 1978
c. 1988
d. 1998
Clear my choice
Question 2. One of the following is air pollution?
Select one:
a. Species
b. Lichens
c. Algae
d. Bryophytes
Clear my choice
Question 3. _ is a problem not associated with population growth. Select one: a. Food and energy storages b. Environmental pollution c. Increased resource consumption d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 4. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year: Select one: a. 1986 b. 1974 c. 1994 d. 1975 Clear my choice Question 5. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was : Select one: a. Water Act b. Air Act c. Environmental Act d. Noise Pollution Rule Clear my choice Question 6. Which of the following environmental law allows private rights to use a resource that is, groundwater, by viewing it as an attachment to the land? Select one: a. Easement Act b. Indian Fisheries Act c. Factories Act d. All of the above Clear my choice Question 7. The Water Act contains: Select one: a. 4 Chapters b. 5 Chapters c. 6 Chapters d. 7 Chapters Clear my choice Question 8. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in: Select one: a. 1981 b. 1987 c. 1982 d. 2000 Clear my choice Question 9. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year: Select one: a. 1986 b. 1974 c. 1980 d. 1972 Clear my choice Question 10. The Forest (Conservation) Act extends to the whole of India except: Select one: a. Uttar Pardesh b. Karnataka c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Haryana Clear my choice Question 11. Coniferous forests requires ___
.
Select one:
a. High temperature
b. Low temperature
c. Moderate temperature
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. The diversions channels of the western Himalaya is known as _.
Select one:
a. Guls or Kuls
b. Khadins
c. Phalodi
d. Johads
Clear my choice
Question 13. _______is the first state in India which has made roof top rain water harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the state. Select one: a. Kerala b. Assam c. Tamil Nadu d. Goa Clear my choice ____________are the organisms that have animal like traits. Select one: a. Agaporomorphus colberti b. Zooplanktons c. Caligula d. None of the above Question 14. ________
components of an ecosystem which are inorganic constituents, organism and energy input forms environmental system.
Select one:
a. The three functional
b. The two functional
c. The four functional
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. Krishna Raja Sagara is a dam built on river Kaveri,The total surface area of the dam is approximately _____.
Select one:
a. 126 km2
b. 127 km2
c. 128 km2
d. 129 km2
Clear my choice
Question 16. Thorn forests are found in the _ of India.
Select one:
a. Semi-arid regions
b. Himalayan regions
c. Desert regions
d. Northeast regions
Clear my choice
Question 17. Evergreen forests look green throughout the year due to high rainfall. The trees ____
to form a continuous canopy.
Select one:
a. Because of less rainfall
b. Because of snowfall
c. Because of less temperature
d. Overlap with each other
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4th Module Assessment
Question 1. What is the hazardous pollutant released from inductive coils?
Select one:
a. Arsenic
b. Barium
c. Cobalt
d. Copper
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following element/s is/are cause of e-waste?
Select one:
a. Lead
b. Cadmium
c. Beryllium, or Brominates flame retardants
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. What is the hazardous pollutant released from LED’s?
Select one:
a. Arsenic
b. Barium
c. Cobalt
d. Cadmium
Clear my choice
Question 4. What are the types of e-Waste ?
Select one:
a. Large household appliances
b. IT and telecommunications equipment
c. Electrical and electronic tools
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. Which of the hazardous pollutant occurs in plastic?
Select one:
a. Lithium
b. PCBs
c. Lead
d. Copper
Clear my choice
Question 6. Nickel is released from _ Select one: a. Display b. Calculator c. Alloy d. Transformers Clear my choice Question 7. What is the hazardous pollutant released from circuit boards? Select one: a. Arsenic b. Barium c. Lead d. Copper Clear my choice Question 8. What is the hazardous pollutant released from telephones? Select one: a. Lithium b. Barium c. Lead d. Copper Clear my choice Question 9. Which of the following element make e-waste hazardous in nature? Select one: a. Lead b. Glass c. Plastic d. Iron Clear my choice Question 10. Plasma Pyrolys is a new generation, which integrates the_____ properties of plasma with the pyrolysis process
Select one:
a. Thermo-chemical
b. Thermo -electrical
c. Both of the above
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
______ defined the term biodiversity hot spots?
Select one:
a. Norman Myers
b. Aziz Ab’Saber
c. Warder Clyde Allee
d. Charles Christopher Adams
Question 11. Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlife conflict?
Select one:
a. Increase in the forest area
b. Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
c. Damage to human property
d. Destruction of habitat
Clear my choice
Question 12. ____ is called for the natural habitats under in-situ conservation?
Select one:
a. Protected areas
b. Exploited areas
c. Depleted areas
d. Unprotected areas
Clear my choice
Question 13. ______ help to scare off destructive nocturnal wildlife.
Select one:
a. Half motion sensor
b. Half strobe light
c. Strobe lights
d. Flashlight
Clear my choice
Question 14. The aggradational Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the _______ which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.
Select one:
a. Ganga and the Brahmaputra
b. Ganga and Vaishali
c. Vaishali and Brahmaputra
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 15. ______ links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.
Select one:
a. The Biligiriranga hills
b. Ananthagiri hills
c. Coonoor hills
d. Munnar hills
Clear my choice
Question 16. _______is not the biodiversity hotspot region? Select one: a. Antarctica b. Mesoamerica c. Madrean pine-oak woodlands d. California Floristic Province Clear my choice Question 17. ____________ is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone.
Select one:
a. Animals conflict
b. Desertification
c. Rural development
d. Organic farming
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5th Module Assessment

Question 1. ___________, the date was shifted to commemorate the adoption of the Convention on May 22, 1992 at the Rio Earth
Select one:
a. On December 20, 2000
b. On November 20, 2000
c. On December 20, 2001
d. On November20, 2000
Clear my choice
Question 2. Where we can find more number of brown palm civet animals in Tiger reserve?
Select one:
a. Kalakkad Mundanthurai tiger reserve
b. Jim Corbett tiger reserve
c. Sunderban tiger reserve
d. Periyar tiger reserve
Clear my choice
Question 3. _____ is a beautiful species of tarantula which is found only in a small area of less than 100 square kilometers of Andhra Pradesh in India. Despite its venomous nature, the tarantula is one of the costliest pets in the exotic pet trade.
Select one:
a. Cobalt blue tarantula
b. Pink toe tarantula
c. Chilean rose tarantula
d. Gooty tarantula
Clear my choice
Question 4. __ zone of peninsular India is by far the most extensive zone, covering India’s finest forest.
Select one:
a. Deccan Plateau
b. Semi-Arid
c. Desert
d. Himalayas
Clear my choice
Question 5. _______ on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
Select one:
a. The Nagoya Protocol
b. Th Kyoto Protocol
c. Earth Protocol
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 6. Himalayas are divided into how many ranges ?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Clear my choice
Question 7. is one of the ways for conservation of biodiversity.
Select one:
a. Overexploitation
b. Removal of exotic species
c. Increase in the pollution level in the ecosystem
d. Converting forest land into agricultural land in rapid way
Clear my choice
Question 8. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 to implement India’s
Select one:
a. Biological Diversity Act (2003)
b. Biological Diversity Act (2002)
c. Biological Diversity Act (2001)
d. Biological Diversity Act (2000)
Clear my choice
Question 9. ___
consists with its sparse vegetation and it has the richest wild sheep and goat community in the world.
Select one:
a. The Himalayan ranges immediately north of the Great Himalayan range
b. The Himalayan ranges immediately south of the Great Himalayan range
c. The Himalayan ranges immediately west of the Great Himalayan range
d. The Trans Himalayan region
Clear my choice
The fan-throated lizard is a species of agamid lizard which is found in _____.
Select one:
a. Northern India
b. Western India
c. Southern India
d. Eastern India
Question 10. _____ is considered as the national animal of two major countries India and Bangladesh.
Select one:
a. Komodo dragon
b. Baird’s tapir
c. Fennec fox
d. Bengal tiger
Clear my choice
Question 11. The aggradational Great Plains cover about 72.4mha area with the _______ which forms the main drainage axes in the major portion.
Select one:
a. Ganga and the Brahmaputra
b. Ganga and Vaishali
c. Vaishali and Brahmaputra
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 12. ____ is called for the natural habitats under in-situ conservation?
Select one:
a. Protected areas
b. Exploited areas
c. Depleted areas
d. Unprotected areas
Clear my choice
Question 13. _______ defined the term biodiversity hot spots?
Select one:
a. Norman Myers
b. Aziz Ab’Saber
c. Warder Clyde Allee
d. Charles Christopher Adams
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which one of the following is not the outcome of man-wildlife conflict?
Select one:
a. Increase in the forest area
b. Injury and loss of life of humans and wildlife
c. Damage to human property
d. Destruction of habitat
Clear my choice
Question 15. _______is not the biodiversity hotspot region? Select one: a. Antarctica b. Mesoamerica c. Madrean pine-oak woodlands d. California Floristic Province Clear my choice Question 16. ____________ links the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats.
Select one:
a. The Biligiriranga hills
b. Ananthagiri hills
c. Coonoor hills
d. Munnar hills
Clear my choice
Question 17. ______ is one of the major ecological problems facing by the semi-arid zone.
Select one:
a. Animals conflict
b. Desertification
c. Rural development
d. Organic farming
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Assignment 2

Case Study (Centres of Biodiversity)

The mountain ecosystem is globally important as a centre of biological diversity.

The greatest diversity of vascular plant species occurs in mountains: Costa Rica, the

tropical eastern Andes, the Atlantic forest of Brazil, the eastern Himalaya-Yunnan

region, northern Borneo and Papua New Guinea. Other important centres are found in

arid subtropical mountains. Many of these areas with the greatest biological diversity

are designated as national reserves or other types of protected area. Mountains also

have a wide variety of animals like the bears, large cats, sheep, etc

The is exclusively found in South African fynbos vegetation.
Select one:
a. Orange-breasted sunbird
b. Ruby-cheeked sunbird
c. Fraser’s sunbird
d. Grey-headed sunbird
Clear my choice
Question 2. Clinotarsus curtipes is endemic to the _
.
Select one:
a. California
b. South Africa
c. Great Basin
d. Western Ghats of India
Clear my choice
Question 3. Amphipsalta zelandica, a species endemic to _.
Select one:
a. New Zealand
b. California
c. Great Basin
d. South Africa
Clear my choice
Question 4. __
is the modern concept of conservation.
Select one:
a. Bird Sanctuary
b. Biosphere reserve
c. National Park
d. None of the above
Clear my choice
Question 5. MAB means ?
Select one:
a. Mammal & biological Programme
b. Man & biosphere Programme
c. Mammal & biosphere Programme
d. None of the above
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Financial Management (OOBB 402)-Semester IV

Financial Management (OOBB 402)-Semester IV
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  1. Explain why debt is usually considered the cheapest source of financing available?

2 . Differenciate between financial and business risks?

3 . Discuss the different approaches of financing of working capital requirements?

4 . Describe any two methods of incorporating risk in capital budgeting decisions?

5 . Explain the merits of using market value weights in computing weighted average cost of capital?
Answer

6 . Explain any two methods of cash management?

7 . State with illustration the practical application of time value of money?

8 . Critically explain the factors affecting dividend decisions?

Case Detail :
Working capital—Do you have enough?
Lending institutions are scrutinizing an operation’s working capital status as part of the lending decision. Now more than ever, it’s time to do a little scrutinizing yourself. When I hit the road to speak, one of the most important slides I regularly use highlights how lending criteria has changed since the financial crisis. To illustrate that point, the slide includes a quote from Nick Parsons, head of research with the National Australia Bank: “So capitalism has changed…the owner or the custodian of capital [i.e. lending institutions] is much more careful about where they use that capital.”
To that end, most readers have likely experienced increased scrutiny from their lenders in this post-crisis world. And one of the key criteria that lenders use to make decisions revolves around availability of working capital within any operation; working capital being a function of current assets less current liabilities. It’s a measure of an operation’s buffer to meet its short-term obligations, hence the importance to lenders.
Perhaps equally important, it’s a key indicator of cash reserve availability to meet unexpected emergencies. Thus, it is an important component of risk management to ensure business continuity within the operation without the need to borrow additional funds. As an example, albeit simplified, a pickup is typically a critical operational asset for most cow-calf operations. What if it catches on fire and suddenly needs to be replaced, else the cows don’t get fed? After insurance provides some portion towards replacement, does the operation have sufficient working capital to meet the remainder of the obligation? This type of assessment has become more important to lenders since the financial crisis.
This week’s graph highlights USDA’s updated aggregate working capital estimates in agriculture. Clearly, as last week’s illustration depicts, declining revenue has taken a big hit out of working capital reserves for agriculture. Working capital has declined nearly 50% – the loss exceeds $82 billion in just three years. That’s a concerning trend – and if it continues, will clearly have implications in the coming years.
What are you doing to maintain strong cash and working capital reserves amidst declining revenue? What new expectations do you your lenders have during the past several years and going into 2017? How will you adjust going forward? Leave your thoughts in the comments section below.

  1. Provide the brief summary of the case in your own words?
  2. What new expectations do your lenders have during the past several years and going into future?
  3. What should be done to maintain strong cash and working capital reserves amidst declining revenue?

” .. are your business scores that come from your Income Statement and Balance Sheet, not the Cash Flow Statement.”
Select one:
a. Marks
b. Financial Scores
c. Points
d. Ratios
“A part of the organisation where the manager has responsibility for generating revenues, controlling costs and producing a satisfactory return on capital invested in the division.”
Select one:
a. Brekarage
b. Brokerage
c. Division
d. Recasting
“Business practices designed by companies to make production and delivery systems more competitive in world markets by eliminating or minimizing waste, errors, and costs.”
Select one:
a. Re-engineering
b. Restructuring
c. Revaluation
d. Recasting
“Credit analysis, or the assessment of creditworthiness, is undertaken by analysing and evaluating information relating to a customer s history?”
Select one:
a. Non-Financial
b. Non-Monetary
c. Financial
d. Monetary

“Liquid funds, for example cash, earn no return and so will not increase profitability. “
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. rare
d. Sometimes

“Rate risk refers to the fact that when short-term finance is renewed, the rates may vary when compared to the .. rate. “
Select one:
a. Current
b. Previous
c. Accounting
d. Industry

“The factors to be considered in formulating a trade receivables policy relate to credit analysis, credit control and receivables collection.”
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. Sometimes
c. Rare
d. FALSE

“The length of the cash .. depends on working capital policy in relation to the level of investment in working capital, and on the nature of the business operations of a company.”
Select one:
a. requirement
b. Operating Cycle
c. disbursal
d. Management

“The main reason that companies fail, though, is because they run out of .”
Select one:
a. Customers
b. Inventory
c. Cash
d. Stock

“The objective of liquidity ensures that companies are able to meet their liabilities as they fall due, and thus remain in business.”
Select one:
a. Rare
b. TRUE
c. Sometimes
d. FALSE

“Working capital investment policy is concerned with the level of investment in assets, with one company being compared with another.”
Select one:
a. Permanent
b. Temporary
c. Current
d. Fixed
Clear my choice

. Interest rate depends upon an index and increases or decreases.
Select one:
a. Stationary
b. Variable
c. Stable
d. Fixed

.. can also be used to cover some of the risks associated with giving credit to foreign customers.
Select one:
a. Locking
b. Awards
c. Insurance
d. Rewards

Aggressive working capital finance means using more . term finance
Select one:
a. Credit
b. Short
c. Medium
d. Long
Clear my choice

Baumol model and the Miller-Orr model belong to . Management.
Select one:
a. Cash
b. Credit
c. Inventory
d. Purchase

Cash in hand and cash at bank are examples of . Assets.
Select one:
a. Current
b. Fixed
c. Working
d. Permanent

  1. Companies with the same business operations may have levels of investment in working capital as a result of adopting different working capital policies.
    Select one:
    a. lower
    b. higher
    c. different
    d. Same

Current assets /Current liabilities describes . Ratio.
Select one:
a. Fixed Asset
b. Quick
c. Liquidity
d. Asset Turnover

  1. Dividend has no relationship with the value of the firm as per Walter Model.
    Select one:
    a. Yes
    b. No
    c. Can’t say
    d. Sometimes
  2. Funds held in the form of cash do not earn a return.
    Select one:
    a. TRUE
    b. Sometimes
    c. FALSE
    d. Rare
    Clear my choice

Holding costs can be . by reducing the level of inventory held by a company.
Select one:
a. minimised
b. control
c. increased
d. reduced

Implicit cost is the cost of using the funds.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. None
d. Sometimes False

Inventory and receivables are both current assets.
Select one:
a. FALSE
b. Can’t Say
c. Sometimes
d. TRUE
Clear my choice

Is it right to say that good cash management is an essential part of good working capital management.
Select one:
a. Sometimes
b. never
c. Always
d. Can’t say
Clear my choice

JIT stands for just in . .
Select one:
a. totality
b. technical
c. tenure
d. time

  1. Money paid (cost of credit) for the use of money.
    Select one:
    a. Interest
    b. Dividend
    c. Usage Money
    d. Principal
    Clear my choice

Optimum cash balance must reflect the expected need for cash in the next budget period.
Select one:
a. never
b. Always
c. Can’t say
d. Sometimes

  1. Receiable management is all about?
    Select one:
    a. Cash Management
    b. Loan Management
    c. Credit Management
    d. All
  2. Sales made but not collected is known as .?
    Select one:
    a. A/Cs Payables
    b. A/Cs Receivables
    c. Both
    d. None
  3. Short-term finance is more flexible than long-term finance.
    Select one:
    a. TRUE
    b. FALSE
    c. Never
    d. Sometimes
  4. Short-term finance is more risky than long-term finance.
    Select one:
    a. FALSE
    b. Never
    c. Sometimes
    d. TRUE
  5. Short-term finance tends to be more .. than long-term finance.
    Select one:
    a. Softer
    b. Rigid
    c. Flexible
    d. harder
  6. The . principle suggests that long-term finance should be used for long-term investment.
    Select one:
    a. Matching
    b. Traditional
    c. Dual Aspect
    d. Monetary
  7. The cash operating cycle is the average … of time between paying trade payables and receiving cash from trade receivables.
    Select one:
    a. Lag
    b. period
    c. length
    d. gap
  8. The process of calculating present value of projected cash flows.
    Select one:
    a. Discounting
    b. Brokerage
    c. Benefit
    d. Budgeting
  9. The sales of a business or other form of revenue from operations of the business is called as .
    Select one:
    a. Profit
    b. Margin
    c. Contribution
    d. Turnover
  10. Traditionally the role of finance manager was restricted to . Of funds.
    Select one:
    a. Use
    b. Procurement
    c. Management
    d. Administration
    Wealth management and profit maximisation are the concepts.
    Select one:
    a. Yes
    b. Sometimes
    c. No
    d. Can’t say
  11. Which model belongs to cash management?
    Select one:
    a. LIFO
    b. Miller Orr
    c. HIFO
    d. ABC
  12. Which technique brings inventory and cash requirment drastically down?
    Select one:
    a. LIFO
    b. Baumal
    c. ABC
    d. JIT
    Clear my choice
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Advertising And Sales Promotion (OOBB 404)-Semester IV

Advertising And Sales Promotion (OOBB 404)-Semester IV
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Assignment Section A
Q1. What discourages clients from hiring their own specialized experts instead of employing of full-service agency?

Q2. While adhering to the Prime Direction, what is the false assumption behind “targeted” advertising agencies only working on advertising for their demographic groups?

Q3. What does a advertising/promotional planner sees as the primary purpose of the mass media?

Q4. Message strategy and tactics is known as the “creative function.” Does this mean that successful and creative movie makers be given free reign to plan message strategy and write/ produce the resulting television commercials? Why or why not?

Q5. What determines if communications strategy can make use of publicity as an effective sales tool? Explain.

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Case Study

Clutter has become synonymous with the advertising industry in recent times and this extends to all realms of marketing, offline and online. There is an increasing trend of being greeted with an explosive assortment of ads when one logs onto a website. These ads transcend genres of -commerce, consumer goods, tourism, hospitality, and more. While views on these ads may be relatively high, the recall seems to be questionable in many cases. In this scenario, tracing the consumer’s preferences for brand advertisements becomes extremely difficult. Herein, we aim to address the simple question of how a brand must aspire to break clutter and switch to viewability of the content rather than served impressions, which has been the conventional way of running ads within the industry. To transform the way ads have been programmed so far, one will need to pay close attention to the existing metrics and re-evaluate different brand strategies. The traditional route for marketers adopting online ads has been banners, images, audio, and video. The measurement was based on served impressions, i.e., the countable times that an advertisement gets fetched from the source, irrespective of whether it was clicked or not. Viewable impressions, on the other hand, are measurable to a more accurate degree. For an impression to be counted as viewable, at least 50 percent of it must be visible to the user for a minimum of one second. This provides for ‘some versus no’ value, but does it justify the money spent behind it? According to a study conducted by ComScore, 54 percent of the display ads that are up on the website are actually not seen and this is despite the fact that some of them cost a lot. It is implicit that advertisers would be interested in posts which guarantee a decidedly higher viewability, so publishers offering such inventory will be at an advantage too. There’s another bonus to this because measurable data of this sort will make it easier for rate comparison of different brands among multiple publishers. While served impressions have been working well towards adding higher numbers to charts and creating a presumption over the total awareness created through it, there are three primary concerns: If the targeted user leaves the page before it loads completely, he/she will miss the ad. A lot of search and display ads are placed at the bottom of the webpage, so if the user does not scroll all the way down, it’s a lost cause for the advertiser. If a proxy server, crawler or spider opens the page, there is no certain way to ascertain the measures. In order to ensure visibility and derive the right returns on your investments, you must plan your advertisements with the right placement and communication. With advertisement forms rapidly evolving, your strategy is incomplete without researching what works for your target audience and delivering a customised plan of action. To break away for the clutter of advertisements and to ensure you receive eyeballs and recall, the right amount of innovation and creativity must be put in to produce content that goes a long way in giving you the right bang for your buck.

Q1. How would you use advertising to break the clutter? What impact does clutter-free advertising play in increasing brand acceptance?

Q2. What does the author mean by “to transform the way ads have been programmed so far, one will need to pay close attention to the existing metrics and re-evaluate different brand strategies”?

Q3. Can you use clutter to your advantage? If yes, how? If no, why not? Support your answer with relevant examples.

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Assignment Section C

Question 1. “AIDA stands for awareness, , desire and _.”
Select one:
a. interest; action
b. intensity; appeal
c. involvement; action
d. Involvement; appeal
Clear my choice
Question 2. “Approach of message execution which follows format of style, tone, words and format to execute message of advertising is classified as”
Select one:
a. rational style
b. persuasive style
c. creative style
d. execution style
Clear my choice
Question 3. “Each organization is part of a network of other organizations such as suppliers, retailers, wholesalers, value added resellers, distributors, and other retailers, who join together, often freely, to make the product or service available to end users. This is referred to as:”
Select one:
a. Channel members
b. Customers
c. Stakeholders
d. Community
Clear my choice
Question 4. “In personal selling process, step which consists of identifying potential customers is classified as”
Select one:
a. presenting quota
b. demonstrating quota
c. prospecting
d. qualifying
Clear my choice
Question 5. “Organizations plan, design, implement, and evaluate their marketing communication activities. These activities involve the delivery of messages either to or with target audiences, through various communication tools and media. This is known as”
Select one:
a. campaigns
b. personal selling
c. public relations
d. publicity
Clear my choice
Question 6. “Sales promotion tools used to stimulate purchase, motivate salespeople and generate business leads are classified in category of”
Select one:
a. event promotion
b. off deal promotion
c. trade promotions
d. business promotions
Clear my choice
Question 7. “They are not part of the same peer group as the people they influence. Their defining characteristic is that they exert personal influence because of their profession, authority, education, or status associated with the object of the communication process. This is referred to as:”
Select one:
a. Opinion aggregators
b. Opinion followers
c. Opinion formers
d. Opinion gatherers
Clear my choice
Question 8. “This is a part of the communication process where the sender selects a combination of appropriate words, pictures, symbols and music to represent a message to be transmitted”
Select one:
a. Encoding
b. Decoding
c. Transfer
d. Feedback
Clear my choice
Question 9. “This is a series of economic transactions between parties, who have a long-term orientation towards, and are primarily motivated by, concern for each other:”
Select one:
a. Partner exchanges
b. Collaborative exchanges
c. Co-operative transfer
d. Partner exchange
Clear my choice
Question 10. “This is part of the communication process where receivers unpack the various components of the message, and begin to make sense and give the message meaning”
Select one:
a. Encoding
b. Decoding
c. Transfer
d. Noise
Clear my choice
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Question 11. “Which of the following is the communication model that depicts information flowing via various media channels, to particular types of people to whom other members of the audience refer for information and guidance?”
Select one:
a. Two-step
b. Three-step
c. Multi-step
d. One-step
Clear my choice
Question 12. ‘Particular communication that must be achieve within definite target audience within specific time is classified as
Select one:
a. message decision
b. media decision
c. advertising objective
d. advertising evaluation
Clear my choice
Question 13. Addressable media are used
Select one:
a. to deliver customised marketing messages to identifiable prospects
b. for two-way communication
c. for social media
d. none of the above
Clear my choice
Question 14. Consumer promotion technique according to which seller sells two or three units of product at reduced price is classified as
Select one:
a. price packs
b. Discounts
c. advertising specialties
d. Both 1 and 2
Clear my choice
Question 15. Consumer promotion technique through which brand marketing event is created by company or it participates in other sponsored event is classified as
Select one:
a. event marketing
b. sponsored marketing
c. branding
d. premium marketing
Clear my choice
Question 16. Extensive local penetration and coverage is indicative of
Select one:
a. Magazines
b. Online Advertising
c. Social Media
d. Newspapers
Clear my choice
Question 17. Interactive media can be best described as
Select one:
a. Customized Marketing Messages
b. Marketing Communications Mix
c. Marketing Mix
d. Media that allow two-way messages between company and consumer
Clear my choice
Question 18. Marketing communications is used to achieve one of two principal goals. The first concerns the development of brand values. What is the other goal?
Select one:
a. Increasing sales
b. Informing about products
c. Changing the behaviour of target audiences
d. Channelling communication tools
Clear my choice
Question 19. Media strategy is making media decisions based on
Select one:
a. Whims of the market
b. Understanding customers wants and needs
c. Brand awareness
d. The client s wishes
Clear my choice
Question 20. One weakness in using out-of-home media is
Select one:
a. Demographic Flexibility
b. Relatively Low Cost
c. Delivers Excellent Reach
d. Difficult to Measure and Control
Clear my choice
Question 21. Personal selling step in which sales person asks for an order to customer is classified as
Select one:
a. shipper approach
b. handling shipment
c. closing
d. follow up
Clear my choice
Question 22. Possible objectives of advertising includes
Select one:
a. persuasive advertising
b. reminder advertising
c. Information advertising
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 23. Promotion technique for consumers according to which demonstrations and displays of products made at place of sale is called
Select one:
a. point of purchase promotion
b. Discounts
c. sales premium
d. advertising specialties
Clear my choice
Question 24. Resources and dollars allocated to company’s or product’s promotional program are classified as
Select one:
a. advertising messages
b. advertising budget
c. advertising strategy
d. advertising objective
Clear my choice
Question 25. Sales force structure in which a sales representatives works to sell specific items of product line is classified as
Select one:
a. indirect sales force structure
b. territorial sales force structure
c. customer sales force structure
d. product sales force structure
Clear my choice
Question 26. Step in personal selling process which consists of first meeting first meeting between customer and sales person is called
Select one:
a. qualifying
b. prospecting
c. follow up
d. approach
Clear my choice
Question 27. Strategic media planning is a complex challenge because advertises must use their knowledge of
Select one:
a. Psychographics
b. Behavioural characteristics
c. Demographics
d. All of the above
Clear my choice
Question 28. The marketing communications strategy of the marketing mix deals exclusively with
Select one:
a. personal selling and advertising
b. advertising and public relations
c. “advertising, publicity, and pricing”
d. “personal selling, advertising, sales promotion, and public relations”
Clear my choice
Question 29. The role of marketing communications is to engage audiences and there are four main tasks that it can be used to complete. Which of the following is not part of the four main tasks?
Select one:
a. Differentiate
b. Participate
c. Reinforce
d. Inform
Clear my choice
Question 30. The success of marketing communication depends upon the extent to which messages engage their audiences. These audiences can be seen to fall into three main groups
Select one:
a. “Customers, general public, and sales personnel”
b. “Customers, channel members, and general stakeholders”
c. “Customers, general stakeholders, and club members”
d. “General public, club members, and general stakeholders”
Clear my choice
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Question 31. Third step in personal selling process after completion of pre-approach step is to
Select one:
a. prospecting and qualifying
b. handling objections
c. approach
d. presentation and demonstration
Clear my choice
Question 32. This approach has been used to convey particular information and help educate large target audiences through television and radio programmes. This approach is referred to as:
Select one:
a. Opinion followers
b. Opinion formers
c. Public relations
d. Opinion leaders
Clear my choice
Question 33. This is a hierarchy of effects or sequential model used to explain how advertising works:
Select one:
a. ADD
b. AIDA
c. PESTLE
d. SWOT
Clear my choice
Question 34. This is part of the communication process and refers to the responses offered by receivers:
Select one:
a. Encoding
b. Decoding
c. Transfer
d. Feedback
Clear my choice
Question 35. This is the sharing of meaning created through the transmission of information
Select one:
a. Communication
b. Noise
c. Transfer
d. Understanding
Clear my choice
Question 36. Type of sales person who work from their offices through internet or telephone are classified as
Select one:
a. channel intermediaries
b. nominal sales force
c. inside sales force
d. outside sales force
Clear my choice
Question 37. Which of the following is the interpersonal communication about products or services where a receiver regards the communicator as impartial and is not attempting to sell products or services?
Select one:
a. Word of Mouth (WOM)
b. Personal Selling (PS)
c. Direct Marketing (DM)
d. Customer Service (CS)
Clear my choice
Question 38. Which of the following terms best fits the activity of marketing communications?
Select one:
a. Making products available
b. Convenience of location
c. High level of regulation
d. Communication between stakeholders
Clear my choice
Question 39. _______is an important element in the communication process. It recognizes that successful communications are more likely to be achieved if the source and the receiver understand each other. Select one: a. The realm of understanding b. Personal selling c. Noise d. Feedback Clear my choice Question 40. _________ is concerned with the development of knowledge that is specific to the parties involved and is referred to as ‘learning together’
Select one:
a. Dialogue
b. Personal influencer
c. Feedback
d. Message
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Research Methods for Managers (QAM204)-Semester III

Research Methods for Managers (QAM204)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment
Question 1. To reduce risk in managerial decision making of research, we require _.
Select one:
a. Process
b. Tools
c. Process and tools
d. Nothing
Clear my choice
Question 2. The descriptive study does not explain why the variables interact the way they do.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Maybe
d. mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 3. Experimental research will include at least:
Select one:
a. one independent variable
b. One dependent variable
c. one independent variable and one dependent variable
d. two independent variable and no dependent variable
Clear my choice
Question 4. First step in research is to identify _.
Select one:
a. The Problem()
b. Opportunity
c. Problem or Opportunity
d. Nothing
Clear my choice
Question 5. For a management decision, we require _.
Select one:
a. The Problem
b. Opportunity
c. Problem or Opportunity
d. Nothing
Clear my choice
Question 6. The study that explains why an event has occurred is known as ___ study.
Select one:
a. Explanatory
b. Descriptive
c. Explanatory and Descriptive
d. Neither Explanatory and Descriptive
Clear my choice
Question 7. A study tries to discover answer related to the question who, what, when, where and sometimes how. It is known as __ study.
Select one:
a. predictive
b. Experimental
c. Exploratory
d. Descriptive
Clear my choice
Question 8. These are the characteristics of a good research except:
Select one:
a. Clearly defined purpose
b. Detailed research process
c. Thoroughly planned research design
d. Unclear objectives
Clear my choice
Question 9. Research assists in making increasingly complex decision on:
Select one:
a. Goals
b. Strategies
c. Tactics
d. All of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. The descriptive study does not explain why an event has occurred.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Maybe
d. mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 11. When subject do not know if they are receiving the experiment treatment, they are said to be .
Select one:
a. blind
b. control
c. measurement
d. product
Clear my choice
Question 12. The purpose of research proposal is to present the management question to be researched and relate its importance.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Maybe
d. mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 13. Following are the components of research design except:
Select one:
a. sample selection
b. data collection
c. sample size determination
d. fund allocation
Clear my choice
Question 14. A document that suggests the data necessary for solving the management question and how the data will be gathered, treated and interpreted is called _
.
Select one:
a. weekely update
b. daily report
c. contract
d. research proposal
Clear my choice
Question 15. The artificiality of laboratory in experimental method is a/an _
.
Select one:
a. Advantage
b. Disadvantage
c. Bonus
d. Major benefit
Clear my choice
Question 16. When researchers lack a clear idea of the problem they will meet during the study, then they prefer:
Select one:
a. Exploratory Study
b. Descriptive study
c. Observation
d. Historical research
Clear my choice
Question 17. Repeating an experiment with different subject groups and conditions in experimental research is a/an __.
Select one:
a. Advantage
b. Disadvantage
c. Constraint
d. Concern

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2nd Module Assessment
The difference between a statistic and the parameter is called .
Select one:
a. Non-random
b. Probability
c. Sampling error
d. Random
Question 1. Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?
Select one:
a. Quota sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Snowball sampling
d. Stratified random sampling
Clear my choice
Question 2. Of the following sampling methods, which one is a probability method?
Select one:
a. Judgement
b. Quota
c. Simple random
d. Convenience
Clear my choice
Question 3. Snowball sampling can help the researcher to:
Select one:
a. Access deviant or hidden populations
b. Theorise inductively in a qualitative study
c. Overcome the problem of not having an accessible sampling frame
d. All the other three options are correct
Clear my choice
Question 4. Sample is regarded as a subset of
.
Select one:
a. Data
b. Set
c. Distribution
d. Population
Clear my choice
Question 5. Among these, which sampling is based on equal probability?
Select one:
a. Simple random sampling
b. Stratified random sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Probability sampling
Clear my choice
Question 6. A simple random sample is one in which:
Select one:
a. Every nth unit from the sampling frame is selected from a random starting point.
b. A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to generalise.
c. The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various social groups.
d. Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected.
Clear my choice
Question 7. Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?
Select one:
a. Snowball sampling
b. Stratified random sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Convenience sampling
Clear my choice
Question 8. Measurement scale for age in years is .
Select one:
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval Scale
d. Ratio Scale
Clear my choice
Question 9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling?
Select one:
a. The researcher chooses who to approach and so might bias the sample.
b. Those who are available to be surveyed in public places are unlikely to constitute a representative sample.
c. The random selection of units makes it possible to calculate the standard error.
d. It is a relatively fast and cheap way of finding out about public opinions.
Clear my choice
Question 10. Measurement scale for temperature in degrees is
.
Select one:
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval Scale
d. Ratio Scale
Clear my choice
Question 11. Questionnaire is a:
Select one:
a. Research method
b. Measurement technique
c. Tool for data collection
d. Data analysis technique
Clear my choice
Question 12. Questionnaires can address the events and characteristics taking place at which time?
Select one:
a. In the past (retrospective questions)
b. In the present (current time questions)
c. In the future (prospective questions)
d. in past, present and future
Clear my choice
Question 13. Studies made by others for their own purpose represent _____.
Select one:
a. primary data
b. secondary data
c. primary and secondary
d. neither primary nor secondary
Clear my choice
Question 14. When constructing a questionnaire it is important to do each of the following except:
Select one:
a. Use “leading” or “loaded” questions
b. Use natural language
c. Understand your research participants
d. Pilot your test questionnaire
Clear my choice
For determination of equaity, we use _.
Select one:
a. Nominal scale
b. Ordinal scale
c. Interval Scale()
d. Ratio Scale()
Question 15. A census taker often collects data through which of the following?
Select one:
a. Standardised test
b. Interview
c. Secondary data
d. Observations
Clear my choice
Question 16. In case of quantitative research, samples are selected mostly by using:
Select one:
a. Probability techniques
b. Non-probability techniques
c. either Probability or non-probability
d. both probability and non-probability
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?
Select one:
a. Questionnaires
b. Focus groups
c. Correlational method
d. Secondary data

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3rd Module Assessment
Question 1. Function of hypothesis is to identify facts that are relevant and those that are not.
Select one:
a. Never
b. Always
c. Sometimes
d. Occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 2. Function of hypothesis is to guide the direction of the study.
Select one:
a. Never
b. Always
c. Sometimes
d. Occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 3. A strong hypothesis should be testable emparically.
Select one:
a. Always
b. Never
c. Sometimes
d. Occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 4. Reject the hypothesis if the sample mean is in:
Select one:
a. Acceptance zone
b. Rejection region
c. Reject by anymeans
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 5. 25 % level of significance means there are 75 out of 100 chances of committing type I error
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. May be
d. sometimes true
Clear my choice
Question 6. Degree of freedom for a ANOVA table is ___.
Select one:
a. n-1
b. c-1
c. r-1
d. n+1
Clear my choice
Question 7. A strong hypothesis should be adequate for its purpose.
Select one:
a. Always
b. Never
c. Sometimes
d. Occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 8. 25% level of significance means there are 25 out of 100 chances of committing type I error.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. May be
d. sometimes true
Clear my choice
Question 9. Accept the hypothesis if the sample mean is in:
Select one:
a. Acceptance zone
b. Rejection region
c. Reject by anymeans
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 10. The alternative hypothesis is the logical opposite of the null hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Never
b. sometimes
c. Always
d. occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 11. Null Hypothesis relates to:
Select one:
a. Sample statistic
b. Population Parameter
c. Sampling Distribution
d. indipendent Variable
Clear my choice
Question 12. The alternative hypothesis is the logical opposite of the null hypothesis.
Select one:
a. Never
b. sometimes
c. Always
d. occasionally
Clear my choice
Question 13. Significance level is indicated by _.
Select one:
a. aplha
b. beta
c. alpha + beta
d. alpha – beta
Clear my choice
Question 14. Power of test depend on all of these except:
Select one:
a. significance level
b. the reliability of the sample size
c. the effect size
d. population size
Clear my choice
Null Hypothesis is a statement that no difference exists between the parameter and statistic being compared.
Select one:
a. Never
b. Always
c. sometimes
d. occasionally
Question 15. 95% level of significance means there are 95 of 100 chances of acceptance and 5 % chances of error.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. May be
d. sometimes true
Clear my choice
Question 16. All of these are assumptions of ANOVA except:
Select one:
a. Normality of population
b. Homogenity
c. Randomness
d. Population size should be very small
Clear my choice
Question 17. F value is the ratio of:
Select one:
a. Mean square between and Mean square within
b. Mean square within and Mean square between
c. sum of square and degree of freedom
d. sum of square within and degree of freedom

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4th Module Assessment
If the same rank appears, it is impossible to calculate rank correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Question 1. Value of correlation greater than 1 is known as negative correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 2. Regression coefficient is independent of .
Select one:
a. Origin
b. Scale
c. Both origin and scale
d. Neither origin nor scale
Clear my choice
Question 3. If the value of one variable does not change with decrease in another variable, we call it no correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 4. If the value of one variable increases with increase in other variable, we call it negative correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 5. If the value of one variable increases with increase in other variable, we call it positive correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 6. If the value of one variable decreases with decrease in another variable, we call it negative correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 7. Value of “r ” equal to zero indicates negative correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 8. Value of “r “equal to zero indicates no correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 9. Value of “r “equal to zero indicates positive correlation.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 10. Correlation helps us in understanding the relationship between two or more variables.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes False
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 11. If two variables oppose each other, then the correlation will be ____
.
Select one:
a. Positive Correlation
b. Zero Correlation
c. Perfect Correlation
d. Negative Correlation
Clear my choice
In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the:
Select one:
a. response or dependent variable
b. independent variable
c. intervening variable
d. is usually x
Question 12. The coefficient of determination for 16 is strong.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. sometimes true
d. can’t say
Clear my choice
Question 13. The intercept in linear regression represents:
Select one:
a. the strength of the relationship between x and y
b. the expected x value when y is zero
c. the expected y value when x is zero
d. a population parameter
Clear my choice
Question 14. In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the explanatory variable (x) is:
Select one:
a. the correlation model
b. the regression model
c. used to compute the correlation coefficient
d. None of these
Clear my choice
Question 15. The value of the coefficient of correlation is:
Select one:
a. less than 1
b. greater than 1
c. between 0 to 1
d. between -1 to 1
Clear my choice
Question 16. The method of least squares finds the best fit line that the error between observed and estimated points on the line.
Select one:
a. Maximizes
b. Minimizes
c. Reduces to zero
d. Approaches to infinity
Clear my choice
Question 17. In correlation, both variables are always
.
Select one:
a. random
b. non-Random
c. same
d. never random
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5th Module Assessment
Question 1. You should always include terms such as ‘we’ and ‘our’ in reports to sound more friendly.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 2. Some general advice for preparing the written report includes all of these except:
Select one:
a. Make sure the report represents you and your work.
b. Do not organize the report by the stages of the research.
c. Do not write for your audience.
d. Do not discuss exploratory reports using statistics.
Clear my choice
Question 3. The findings section of the report is normally the largest section of the report and should be organized in a logical way.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 4. It is a good practice for the writer of the research report to assume that the reader has prior knowledge of the research problem.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 5. The basic purchase of the research report is to communicate the results, conclusions, and recommendations of the research project.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 6. The research methodology section of the report should include a specific discussion of the analysis process.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 7. The research methodology section of the research report should include a brief description of:
Select one:
a. The primary means of data collection
b. The type of instrument used to collect the information
c. A specific discussion of the analysis process
d. The primary means of data collection and a specific discussion of the analysis process
Clear my choice
Question 8. The researcher’s role is not only to just present the facts, but also to draw conclusions on the basis of the findings and to make recommendation on the basis of the conclusions.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 9. A graph is a method of presenting and arranging data that have been broken down by one or more systems of classification.
Select one:
a. True
b. False
c. Sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Clear my choice
Question 10. The basic purpose of the research and the specific objectives agreed upon in the research proposal should be included in which section of the research report?
Select one:
a. title page
b. introduction
c. methodology
d. appendix
Clear my choice
Question 11. Which ONE of these phrases is best avoided in a report?
Select one:
a. Normal respondent
b. Frequently occurring
c. Typical behaviour
d. Average consumption
Clear my choice
Question 12. Which ONE of these is best avoided in a report?
Select one:
a. Idiomatic phrases
b. Political correctness
c. Conclusions
d. Transcribed fragments
Clear my choice
Question 13. The user of research information must be aware of the ways in which visual displays can be misleading. Which ONE of these is most likely to help the user?
Select one:
a. Including sample sizes
b. Removing data
c. Concealing data
d. Changing scales
Clear my choice
Question 14. Which of these situations cannot be discovered to help preparation before a presentation?
Select one:
a. Room size
b. Reason for meeting
c. The mood of the meeting
d. Audience size
Clear my choice
The conclusions chapter is really just a summary of the whole report.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. False
c. sometime false
d. Occasionally true
Question 15. The report writer should always remember that people have expectations about what information they will find and where it will be. It is unusual for final reports to have a section with __.
Select one:
a. executive summary
b. method
c. appendices
d. research costs
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of these is a bad practice for a report?
Select one:
a. To state fieldwork dates and sample sizes
b. To have a contents page or another form of indexing
c. To include names of all respondents with contact details
d. To use a title that is short and to the point
Clear my choice
Question 17. Which section of a report is intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of the research question?
Select one:
a. Method
b. Results
c. Appendices
d. Objectives
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Assignment 2
Case study:
The ability to come up with a business idea can be transformed into a viable business where ideas supported by feasibility and a business plan can be sold to interested investors firms, and interested parties for a lump sum or a management contractor, are as agreed business ideas, if introduce at the right time, when demand for search service are a product introduced by the ideas is expected to surge, can lead to a very profitable business. Business ideas are always available through different sources; however, it is the application applied on this ideas, and timing makes all the difference in failure or successes. After discussing some good business ideas, Babu and Hari have decided that their best option is to open a small cafe. They believe that their background and experience in the hospitality industry will help them to succeed. Hari is keen to start up the business straight away and has already found what he thinks is a good location. However, Babu is not sure and want to spend more time researching the market before they commit to anything. Babu can see the benefit in being fully prepared before investing time and money into starting the business.

Question1. Before implementing a business plan it is a good idea to develop a business proposal and conduct the research to check the market potential.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Maybe
d. Mostly false
Clear my choice
Question 2. Through which data collection technique did Hari find out which was the good location?
Select one:
a. Primary source
b. Secondary source
c. Primary and secondary
d. Neither primary nor secondary source
Clear my choice
Question 3. The information related to what, where and when to execute the business plan is consided as ___.
Select one:
a. Descriptive study
b. Exploratory study
c. Explanatory study
d. Experimental study
Clear my choice
Question 4. Hari’s considering 1% level of significance means there are 1 out of 100 chances of committing type I error.
Select one:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. May be
d. Sometimes true
Clear my choice
Question 5. The report prepared is NOT:
Select one:
a. Tangible evidence of a research project.
b. A research proposal.
c. Future secondary data.
d. A basis for decision making.
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Entrepreneurship and New Venture Creation (ENTR601)-Semester III

Entrepreneurship and New Venture Creation (ENTR601)-Semester III
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1st Module Assessment

Question 1. Someone who improves an existing business can be called __?
Select one:
a. A professional
b. An intrapreneur
c. A co-worker
d. A changeling
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is the reason for business failure?
Select one:
a. Poor financial control
b. Lack of market research
c. Poor management
d. All the above
Clear my choice
Question 3. An individual who initiates, creates and manages a new business can be called _.
Select one:
a. A professional
b. A manager
c. A leader
d. An entrepreneur
Clear my choice
Question 4. Members of distribution channels are excellent sources for new ideas because:
Select one:
a. They earn a handsome profit from new business
b. They are familiar with the needs of the market
c. They have well-developed sales force
d. They do not bother if entrepreneur bears a loss
Clear my choice
The French word from which the word entrepreneur has been derived is called . Select one: a. entreprenture b. entroprenture c. entreprendure d. Ontreprendure Question 5. EDP (Entrepreneurship Development Programmes) is required to help: Select one: a. First generation entrepreneurs b. Existing entrepreneurs c. Future generation entrepreneurs d. None of the above Clear my choice Question 6. Entrepreneurs are best as __________ .
Select one:
a. Venture Capitalists
b. Planners
c. Doers
d. Managers
Clear my choice
Question 7. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business name and sell its products or services is known as__________.
Select one:
a. A franchise
b. A cooperative.
c. An owner-manager business
d. A limited company
Clear my choice
Question 8. Which one of the following is not the broad categories of External forces?
Select one:
a. Competitive forces
b. Economic forces
c. Technological forces
d. S Socioeconomic forces
Clear my choice
Question 9. Why are small businesses important to a country’s economy?
Select one:
a. They can provide specialist support to larger companies
b. They can be innovators of new products.
c. They give an outlet for entrepreneurs.
d. All the above.
Clear my choice
Question 10. .______ requires proper review and reconsideration of the selected alternative before implementing it.
Select one:
a. Selecting the best alternative
b. Developing possible alternatives
c. Checking the decision
d. None of the given options
Clear my choice
A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business name and sell its products or services is known as__________.
Select one:
a. A franchise.
b. A cooperative.
c. An owner-manager business.
d. A limited company
Question 11. Foundation companies are formed from:
Select one:
a. Research and development
b. Most popular business
c. Fashion
d. winding up company
Clear my choice
Question 12. The best definition of Inovation is :
Select one:
a. The evolution of new ideas
b. The genertion of new ideas
c. The opposite of creativity
d. the successful exploitation ofnew ideas
Clear my choice
Question 13. Which of the following actions by an entrepreneur is most likely to contribute to creative destruction?
Select one:
a. Take-over of a competitor
b. Issuing Shares
c. Development of a new product
d. Reducing Prices
Clear my choice
Question 14. Schumpeter considered that innovative entrepreenurs would:
Select one:
a. Disappear
b. Thrive
c. Be absorbed within large innovative firms
d. BE absorbed within non-innovtive firms
Clear my choice
Question 15. Which one of the following theory has the attribute of moderate risk taking as a function of skill, not chance?
Select one:
a. Need for independence
b. Need for achievement
c. Need for affiliation
d. Need for authority
Clear my choice
Question 16. Innovative small frms are more likely in :
Select one:
a. Biotechnology
b. Knowledge-based sectors
c. Aerospave manufacture
d. Automobile macfactue
Clear my choice
Question 17. Why are small businesses important to a country’s economy?
Select one:
a. They can provide specialist support to larger companies
b. They give an outlet for entrepreneurs.
c. They can be innovators of new products
d. All the above.

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2nd Module Assessment
Question 1. When selecting a line of action, an Entrepreneur must keep in mind:
Select one:
a. Risk involved
b. Profit
c. Profitability
d. All the given options
Clear my choice
Question 2. Which of the following is among the aspects of technical feasibility study?
Select one:
a. Location
b. Demand
c. Security
d. Instruction
Clear my choice
Question 3. is the process of determining whether an event idea is viable.
Select one:
a. Opportunity recognition
b. Feasibility analysis
c. Achievability analysis
d. Viability analysis
Clear my choice
Question 4. All the things needed for an event to work are . Select one: a. Role b. Resources c. Organisation d. Goal Clear my choice Question 5. MSMED stands to ____
.
Select one:
a. Mini, Small & Medium Enterprises Development
b. Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development
c. Micro, Small & Medium Entrepreneurship Development
d. Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Department
Clear my choice
Question 6. The financial plan presents _ for the future of the company. Select one: a. Finances b. Forecasts c. Trends d. Studies Clear my choice Question 7. A _________________ establishes the scope and purpose of a company and reflects its values and beliefs.
Select one:
a. Vision Statement
b. Mission Statement
c. executive summary
d. None of the following
Clear my choice
Question 8. The proper time to conduct a feasibility analysis.
Select one:
a. Late in thinking
b. Early in thinking
c. Hey, it might snow!
d. Who cares!
Clear my choice
Question 9. The _ plan shows whether the business is economically feasible or not.
Select one:
a. Business
b. Financial
c. Economic
d. Marketing
Clear my choice
Question 10. Which of the following is not the purpose of Feasibility Study?
Select one:
a. Establish market trends
b. Provide quality information for decision making
c. Give focus to the project and outline alternatives
d. Specify business alternatives
Clear my choice
Which of the following is not the expectation of acc A feasible or viable event idea?
Select one:
a. Generate adequate cash flow and profits
b. Generate adequate cash flow and profits
c. Meet the goals of the founders
d. Remain viable in short period
Question 11. Why is it important for an entrepreneur to do a feasibility study for starting a new venture?
Select one:
a. To identify possible sources of funds
b. To see if there are possible barriers to success
c. To explore potential customers
d. To estimate the expected sales
Clear my choice
The next stage to the Concept Stage of Product Planning and Development Process is:
Select one:
a. Product Planning Stage
b. Idea Stage
c. Product Development Stage
d. Test Marketing Stage
Question 12. Which of the following factors shouldnot be included in PESTLE analysis?
Select one:
a. Proposed reduction in interest rates
b. Government re-cycling policy
c. Demographic changes.
d. Competitor activity
Clear my choice
Question 13. The period of business when an entrepreneur must position the venture in a market and make necessary adjustments to assure survival is called the:
Select one:
a. Startup stage
b. Pre-startup stage
c. Early growth stage
d. Later growth stage.
Clear my choice
Question 14. External links may provide incentives to:
Select one:
a. Introduce improvements to products
b. Raise finance
c. Introduce new working practives
d. Attend business exhibitions
Clear my choice
Question 15. Planning for profits includes:
Select one:
a. Evaluating profit potential
b. Controlling cost & budgeting
c. Forecasting sales & Budgeting
d. All the given options
Clear my choice
Question 16. Which of the following geographical area is having least interest to U.S. entrepreneurs?
Select one:
a. The Far East
b. Central Asia
c. Europe
d. Transition Economies
Clear my choice
Question 17. According to peter Drucker, entrepreneurship is:
Select one:
a. An Art
b. A Practice
c. A Science
d. All of the given options
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